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Microsoft Azure Security Technologies, also known as the AZ-500 exam, is an exam affiliated with Microsoft Certified: Azure Security Engineer Associate that earns you the certification. The passing score of the exam is 700. Available in English, Japanese, Chinese (Simplified), Korean, German, French, Spanish, Portuguese (Brazil), Arabic (Saudi Arabia), Russian, Chinese (Traditional), Italian, and Indonesian (Indonesia), the exam fee is $165.

Focus on the following

  • Manage identity and access
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Free Microsoft Azure Security Technologies AZ-500 Dumps Update Q&As

1. You have an Azure Active Directory (Azure AD) tenant and a root management group. You create 10 Azure subscriptions and add the subscriptions to the root management group. You need to create an Azure Blueprints definition that will be stored in the root management group. What should you do first?

A. Add an Azure Policy definition to the root management group.
B. Modify the role-based access control (RBAC) role assignments for the root management group.
C. Create a user-assigned identity.
D. Create a service principal.

Correct Answer: B

Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/role-based-access-control/elevate-access-global-admin

2. HOTSPOT
You have an azure active Directory (Azure AD) tenant that contains the resources shown in the following table.
User2 is the owner of Group2.
The user and group settings for App1 are configured as shown in the following exhibit.

Correct Answer:

3. You have two Azure virtual machines in the East US2 region as shown in the following table.
You deploy and configure an Azure Key vault. You need to ensure that you can enable Azure Disk Encryption on VM1 and VM2. What should you modify on each virtual machine? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.

Hot Area:
Correct Answer:

VM1: The Tier
The Tier needs to be upgraded to standard.
Disk Encryption for Windows and Linux IaaS VMs is in General Availability in all Azure public regions and Azure Government regions for Standard VMs and VMs with Azure Premium Storage.

VM2: The type
Need to change the VM type to any of A, D, DS, G, GS, F, and so on, series IaaS VMs.
Not the operating system version: Ubuntu 16.04 is supported.

References:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/security/azure-security-disk-encryption-overview
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/security/azure-security-disk-encryption-faq#bkmk_LinuxOSSupport

4. You have an Azure SQL database. You implement Always Encrypted. You need to ensure that application developers can retrieve and decrypt data in the database. Which two pieces of information should you provide to the developers? Each correct answer presents part of the
solution. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.

A. a stored access policy
B. a shared access signature (SAS)
C. the column encryption key
D. user credentials
E. the column master key

Correct Answer: CE

Always Encrypted uses two types of keys: column encryption keys and column master keys. A column encryption key is used to encrypt data in an encrypted column. A column master key is a key-protecting key that encrypts one or more column encryption keys.

References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/sql/relational-databases/security/encryption/always-encrypted-databaseengine

5. You are evaluating the effect of the application security groups on the network communication between the virtual machines in Sub2. For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select No. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.

Box 1: No. VM4 is in Subnet13 which has NSG3 attached to it.
VM1 is in ASG1. NSG3 would only allow ICMP pings from ASG2 but not ASG1. Only TCP traffic is allowed from ASG1. NSG3 has the inbound security rules shown in the following table.
Box 2: Yes.
VM2 is in ASG2. Any protocol is allowed from ASG2 so ICMP ping would be allowed.
Box3. VM1 is in ASG1. TCP traffic is allowed from ASG1 so VM1 could connect to the web server as connections to the web server would be on ports TCP 80 or TCP 443.

6. You have an Azure subscription that contains a virtual network. The virtual network contains the subnets shown in the following table.

You enable just-in-time (JIT) VM access for all the virtual machines. You need to identify which virtual machines are protected by JIT. Which virtual machines should you identify?

A. VM4 only
B. VM1 and VM3 only
C. VM1, VM3, and VM4 only
D. VM1, VM2, VM3, and VM4

Correct Answer: C
An NSG needs to be enabled, either at the VM level or the subnet level.
Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/security-center/security-center-just-in-time

7. You are configuring and securing a network environment. You deploy an Azure virtual machine named VM1 that is configured to analyze network traffic. You need to ensure that all network traffic is routed through VM1. What should you configure?

A. a system route
B. a network security group (NSG)
C. a user-defined route

Correct Answer: C

Although the use of system routes facilitates traffic automatically for your deployment, there are cases in which you want to control the routing of packets through a virtual appliance. You can do so by creating user-defined routes that specify the next hop for packets flowing to a specific subnet to go to your virtual appliance instead, and enable IP forwarding for the VM running as the virtual appliance.

Note: User Defined Routes
For most environments, you will only need the system routes already defined by Azure. However, you may need to create a routing table and add one or more routes in specific cases, such as:
1. Force tunneling to the Internet via your on-premises network.
2. Use of virtual appliances in your Azure environment.
3. In the scenarios above, you will have to create a routing table and add user-defined routes to it.

Reference: https://github.com/uglide/azure-content/blob/master/articles/virtual-network/virtual-networks-udroverview.md

8. HOTSPOT
You have an Azure subscription that contains an Azure key vault named ContosoKey1. You create users and assign them roles as shown in the following table.

Correct Answer:

Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-gb/azure/key-vault/general/rbac-guide

9. You need to create Role1 to meet the platform protection requirements. How should you complete the role definition of Role1? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

Correct Answer:

Scenario: A new custom RBAC role named Role1 must be used to delegate the administration of the managed disks in Resource Group1. Role1 must be available only for Resource Group1.
Azure RBAC template managed disks “Microsoft.Storage/”

References:
https://blogs.msdn.microsoft.com/azureedu/2017/02/11/new-managed-disk-storage-option-for-your-azure-vms/

10. SIMULATION The developers at your company plan to publish an app named App11641655 to Azure.
You need to ensure that the app is registered to Azure Active Directory (Azure AD). The registration must use the signon URLs of https://app.contoso.com. To complete this task, sign in to the Azure portal and modify the Azure resources.

A. See the below.
Correct Answer: A

Step 1: Register the Application
1. Sign in to your Azure Account through the Azure portal.
2. Select Azure Active Directory.
3. Select App registrations.
4. Select New registration.
5. Name the application App11641655. Select a supported account type, which determines who can use the application. Under Redirect URI, select Web for the type of application you want to create. Enter the URI: https://app.contoso.com, where the access token is sent to.
6. Click Register

Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/active-directory/develop/howto-create-service-principal-portal

11. HOTSPOT You have an Azure subscription named Sub1. Sub1 has an Azure Storage account named storage1 that contains the resources shown in the following table.

Correct Answer:

12. HOTSPOT You plan to use Azure Sentinel to create an analytic rule that will detect suspicious threats and automate responses. Which components are required for the rule? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.

Hot Area:

Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/sentinel/tutorial-detect-threats-custom https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/sentinel/tutorial-respond-threats-playbook

13. SIMULATION
You need to ensure that the events in the NetworkSecurityGroupRuleCounter log of the VNET01-Subnet0-NSG network security group (NSG) are stored in the logs11597200 Azure Storage account for 30 days. To complete this task, sign in to the Azure portal.

A. See the below.
Correct Answer: A

You need to configure the diagnostic logging for the NetworkSecurityGroupRuleCounter log.
1. In the Azure portal, type Network Security Groups in the search box, select Network Security Groups from the search results then select VNET01-Subnet0-NSG. Alternatively, browse to Network Security Groups in the left navigation pane.
2. In the properties of the Network Security Group, click on Diagnostic Settings.
3. Click on the Add diagnostic setting link.
4. Provide a name in the Diagnostic settings name field. It doesn\’t matters what name you provide for the exam.
5. In the Log section, select NetworkSecurityGroupRuleCounter.
6. In the Destination details section, select Archive to a storage account.
7. In the Storage account field, select the logs11597200 storage account.
8. In the Retention (days) field, enter 30.
9. Click the Save button to save the changes.

Summarize

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1. A company is planning to migrate 40 servers hosted on-premises in VMware to the AWS Cloud. The migration process must be implemented with minimal downtime. The company also wants to test the servers before the cutover date. Which solution meets these requirements?

A. Deploy the AWS DataSync agent into the on-premises environment. Use DataSync to migrate the servers.
B. Deploy an AWS Snowball device connected by way of RJ45 to the on-premises network. Use Snowball to migrate the servers.
C. Deploy an AWS Database Migration Service (AWS DMS) replication instance into AWS. Use AWS DMS to migrate the servers.
D. Deploy the AWS Server Migration Service (AWS SMS) connector into the on-premises environment. Use AWS SMS to migrate the servers.

Correct Answer: A

2. A solutions architect needs to ensure that API calls to Amazon DynamoDB from Amazon EC2 instances in a VPC do not traverse the internet What should the solutions architect do to accomplish this? (Select TWO )

A. Create a route table entry for the endpoint
B. Create a gateway endpoint for DynamoDB
C. Create a new DynamoDB table that uses the endpoint
D. Create an ENI for the endpoint in each of the subnets of the VPC
E. Create a security group entry in the default security group to provide access

Correct Answer: AB

A VPC endpoint enables you to privately connect your VPC to supported AWS services and VPC endpoint services powered by AWS PrivateLink without requiring an internet gateway, NAT device, VPN connection, or AWS Direct Connect connection. Instances in your VPC do not require public IP addresses to communicate with resources in the service.

Traffic between your VPC and the other service does not leave the Amazon network. Gateway endpoints A gateway endpoint is a gateway that you specify as a target for a route in your route table for traffic destined to a supported AWS service. The following AWS services are supported: Amazon S3 DynamoDB https://docs.aws.amazon.com/vpc/latest/userguide/vpc-endpoints.html

3. A company needs to ingest and handle large amounts of streaming data that its application generates. The application runs on Amazon EC2 instances and sends data to Amazon Kinesis Data Streams, which are configured with default settings. Every other day, the application consumes the data and writes the data to an Amazon S3 bucket for business intelligence (BI) processing.
The company observes that Amazon S3 is not receiving all the data that the application sends to Kinesis Data Streams. What should a solutions architect do to resolve this issue?

A. Update the Kinesis Data Streams default settings by modifying the data retention period.
B. Update the application to use the Kinesis Producer Library (KPL) to send the data to Kinesis Data Streams.
C. Update the number of Kinesis shards to handle the throughput of the data that is sent to Kinesis Data Streams.
D. Turn on S3 Versioning within the S3 bucket to preserve every version of every object that is ingested in the S3 bucket.

Correct Answer: C

Reference: https://aws.amazon.com/kinesis/data-firehose/faqs/

4. A company has an image processing workload running on Amazon Elastic Container Service (Amazon ECS) in two private subnets. Each private subnet uses a NAT instance for internet access.
All images are stored in Amazon S3 buckets The company is concerned about the data transfer costs between Amazon ECS and Amazon S3. What should a solutions architect do to reduce costs?

A. Configure a NAT gateway to replace the NAT instances.
B. Configure a gateway endpoint for traffic destined to Amazon S3.
C. Configure an interface endpoint for traffic destined to Amazon S3
D. Configure Amazon CloudFront for the S3 bucket storing the images

Correct Answer: C

5. A user owns a MySQL database that is accessed by various clients who expect, at most, 100 ms latency on requests. Once a record is stored in the database, it is rarely changed. Clients only access one record at a time. Database access has been increasing exponentially due to increased client demand.
The resultant load will soon exceed the capacity of the most expensive hardware available for purchase. The user wants to migrate to AWS and is willing to change database systems. Which service would alleviate the database load issue and offer virtually unlimited scalability for the future?

A. Amazon RDS
B. Amazon DynamoDB
C. Amazon Redshift
D. AWS Data Pipeline

Correct Answer: B

Reference: https://aws.amazon.com/blogs/big-data/near-zero-downtime-migration-from-mysql-to-dynamodb/

6. A company that recently started using AWS establishes a Site-to-Site VPN between its on-premises data center and AWS. The company\’s security mandate states that traffic originating from on-premises should stay within the company\’s private IP space when communicating with an Amazon Elastic Container Service (Amazon ECS) cluster that is hosting a sample web application.
Which solution meets this requirement?

A. Configure a gateway endpoint for Amazon ECS. Modify the routing table to include an entry point to the ECS cluster.
B. Create a Network Load Balancer and AWS PrivateLink endpoint for Amazon ECS in the same VPC that is hosting the ECS cluster.
C. Create a Network Load Balancer in one VPC and an AWS PrivateLink endpoint for Amazon ECS in another VPC. Connect the two VPCs by using VPC peering.
D. Configure an Amazon Route 53 record with Amazon ECS as the target. Apply a server certificate to Route 53 from AWS Certificate Manager (ACM) for SSL offloading.

Correct Answer: C

7. A company fails an AWS security review conducted by a third party. The review finds that some of the company\’s methods to access the Amazon EMR API are not secure Developers are using AWS Cloud9, and access keys are connecting to the Amazon EMR API through the public internet Which combination of steps should the company take to MOST improve its security\’\’ (Select TWO)

A. Set up a VPC peering connection to the Amazon EMR API
B. Set up VPC endpoints to connect to the Amazon EMR API
C. Set up a NAT gateway to connect to the Amazon EMR API.
D. Set up 1 AM roles to be used to connect to the Amazon EMR API
E. Set up each developer with AWS Secrets Manager to store access keys

Correct Answer: BD

8. A company needs to use its on-premises LDAP directory service to authenticate its users to the AWS Management Console. The directory service is not compatible with Security Assertion Markup Language (SAML) Which solution meets these requirements?

A. Enable AWS Single Sign-On between AWS and the on-premises LDAP
B. Create a 1 AM policy mat that uses AWS credentials and integrates the policy into LDAP
C. Set up a process that rotates the IAM credentials whenever LDAP credentials are updated.
D. Develop an on-premises custom identity broker application of process mat that uses AWS Security Token Service (AWS STS) to get short-lived credentials

Correct Answer: A

9. A company hosts a multi-tier web application that uses an Amazon Aurora MySQL DB cluster for storage. The application tier is hosted on Amazon EC2 instances. The company\’s IT security guidelines mandate that the database credentials be encrypted and rotated every 14 days.
What should a solutions architect do to meet this requirement with the LEAST operational effort?

A. Create a new AWS Key Management Service (AWS KMS) encryption key. Use AWS Secrets Manager to create a new secret that uses the KMS key with the appropriate credentials. Associate the secret with the Aurora DB cluster. Configure a custom rotation period of 14 days.

B. Create two parameters in AWS Systems Manager Parameter Store: one for the user name as a string parameter and one that uses the SecureString type for the password. Select AWS Key Management Service (AWS KMS) encryption for the password parameter, and load these parameters in the application tier. Implement an AWS Lambda function that rotates the password every 14 days.

C. Store a file that contains the credentials in an AWS Key Management Service (AWS KMS) encrypted Amazon Elastic File System (Amazon EFS) file system. Mount the EFS file system in all EC2 instances of the application tier. Restrict the access to the file on the file system so that the application can read the file and that only superusers can modify the file. Implement an AWS Lambda function that rotates the key in Aurora every 14 days and writes new credentials into the file.

D. Store a file that contains the credentials in an AWS Key Management Service (AWS KMS) encrypted Amazon S3 bucket that the application uses to load the credentials. Download the file to the application regularly to ensure that the correct credentials are used. Implement an AWS Lambda function that rotates the Aurora credentials every 14 days and uploads these credentials to the file in the S3 bucket.

Correct Answer: A

10. A company is building a mobile app on AWS. The company wants to expand its reach to millions of users The company needs to build a platform so that authorized users can watch the company\’s content on their mobile devices. What should a solutions architect recommend to meet these requirements?

A. Publish content to a public Amazon S3 bucket. Use AWS Key Management Service (AWS KMS) keys to stream content.
B. Set up IPsec VPN between the mobile app and the AWS environment to stream content
C. Use Amazon CloudFront Provide signed URLs to stream content.
D. Set up AWS Client VPN between the mobile app and the AWS environment to stream content.

Correct Answer: C

11. A company\’s website provides users with downloadable historical performance reports. The website needs a solution that will scale to meet the company\’s website demands globally. The solution should be cost-effective, limit the? provisioning of Into and providing the fastest possible response time.
Which combination should a solutions architect recommend to meet these requirements?

A. Amazon CloudFront and Amazon S3
B. AWS Lambda and Amazon Dynamo
C. Application Load Balancer with Amazon EC2 Auto Scaling
D. Amazon Route 53 with internal Application Load Balances

Correct Answer: A

12. A company runs a containerized application on a Kubernetes cluster in an on-premises data center. The company is using a MongoDB database for data storage. The company wants to migrate some of these environments to AWS, but no code changes or deployment method changes are possible at this time.
The company needs a solution that minimizes operational overhead. Which solution meets these requirements?

A. Use Amazon Elastic Container Service (Amazon ECS) with Amazon EC2 worker nodes for computing and MongoDB on EC2 for data storage.
B. Use Amazon Elastic Container Service (Amazon ECS) with AWS Fargate for computing and Amazon DynamoDB for data storage.
C. Use Amazon Elastic Kubernetes Service (Amazon EKS) with Amazon EC2 worker nodes for computing and Amazon DynamoDB for data storage.
D. Use Amazon Elastic Kubernetes Service (Amazon EKS) with AWS Fargate for computing and Amazon DocumentDB (with MongoDB compatibility) for data storage.

Correct Answer: C

Reference: https://docs.aws.amazon.com/systems-manager/latest/userguide/systems-manager-parameter-store.html

13. A company manages a data lake in an Amazon S3 bucket that numerous applications share. The S3 bucket contains unique folders with a prefix for each application.
The company wants to restrict each application to its specific folder and have more granular control of the objects in each folder. Which solution met these requirements with the LEAST amount of effort?

A. Create dedicated S3 access points and access point policies for each application.
B. Create anS3 Batch Operations job to set the ACL permissions for each object in the S3 bucket.
C. Update theS3 S3 bucket policy to grant access to each application based on its specific folder in the S3 bucket.
D. Replicate the objects in the S3 bucket to new S3 buckets for each application. Create replication rules by the prefix.

Correct Answer: D

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QUESTION 1

A SOC team is informed that a UK-based user will be traveling between three countries over the next 60 days. Having
the names of the 3 destination countries and the user\\’s working hours, what must the analyst do next to detect an
abnormal behavior?

A. Create a rule triggered by 3 failed VPN connection attempts in an 8-hour period
B. Create a rule triggered by 1 successful VPN connection from any nondestination country
C. Create a rule triggered by multiple successful VPN connections from the destination countries
D. Analyze the logs from all countries related to this user during the traveling period

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 2

An organization installed a new application server for IP phones. An automated process fetched user credentials from
the Active Directory server, and the application will have access to on-premises and cloud services. Which security
threat should be mitigated first?

A. aligning access control policies
B. exfiltration during data transfer
C. attack using default accounts
D. data exposure from backups

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 3

DRAG DROP
Drag and drop the NIST incident response process steps from the left onto the actions that occur in the steps on the
right.
Select and Place:

Reference: https://www.securitymetrics.com/blog/6-phases-incident-response-plan

QUESTION 4

A threat actor has crafted and sent a spear-phishing email with what appears to be a trustworthy link to the site of a
conference that an employee recently attended. The employee clicked the link and was redirected to a malicious site
through which the employee downloaded a PDF attachment infected with ransomware.

The employee opened the attachment, which exploited vulnerabilities on the desktop. The ransomware is now installed and is calling back to its command and control server.

Which security solution is needed at this stage to mitigate the attack?

A. web security solution
B. email security solution
C. endpoint security solution
D. network security solution

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 5

What is the HTTP response code when the REST API information requested by the authenticated user cannot be
found?

A. 401
B. 402
C. 403
D. 404
E. 405

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://airbrake.io/blog/http-errors/401-unauthorizederror#:~:text=The%20401%20Unauthorized%20Error%20is,client%20could%20not%20be%20authenticatd.

QUESTION 6

A payroll administrator noticed unexpected changes within a piece of software and reported the incident to the incident response team. Which actions should be taken at this step in the incident response workflow?

A. Classify the criticality of the information, research the attacker\\’s motives, and identify missing patches
B. Determine the damage to the business, extract reports, and save evidence according to a chain of custody
C. Classify the attack vector, understand the scope of the event, and identify the vulnerabilities being exploited
D. Determine the attack surface, evaluate the risks involved, and communicate the incident according to the escalation
plan

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 7

DRAG-DROP
Drag and drop the type of attacks from the left onto the cyber kill chain stages at which the attacks are seen on the
right.
Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

QUESTION 8

An engineer received an alert of a zero-day vulnerability affecting desktop phones through which an attacker sends a
crafted packet to a device resets the credentials, makes the device unavailable, and allows a default administrator
account login.

Which step should an engineer take after receiving this alert?

A. Initiate a triage meeting to acknowledge the vulnerability and its potential impact
B. Determine company usage of the affected products
C. Search for a patch to install from the vendor
D. Implement restrictions within the VoIP VLANs

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 9

Refer to the exhibit. What results from this script?

A. Seeds for existing domains are checked
B. A search is conducted for additional seeds
C. Domains are compared to seed rules
D. A list of domains as seeds is blocked

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 10

Refer to the exhibit. An engineer is performing a static analysis on malware and knows that it is capturing keys and
webcam events on a company server. What is the indicator of compromise?

A. The malware is performing comprehensive fingerprinting of the host, including a processor, motherboard
manufacturer, and connected removable storage.
B. The malware is ransomware querying for installed anti-virus products and operating systems to encrypt and render
unreadable until payment is made for file decryption.
C. The malware has moved to harvest cookies and stored account information from major browsers and configuring
a reverse proxy for intercepting network activity.
D. The malware contains an encryption and decryption routine to hide URLs/IP addresses and is storing the output of
loggers and webcam capture in locally encrypted files for retrieval.

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 11

The incident response team was notified of detected malware. The team identified the infected hosts, removed the
malware restored the functionality and data of infected systems and planned a company meeting to improve the
incident handling capability.

Which step was missed according to the NIST incident handling guide?

A. Contain the malware
B. Install IPS software
C. Determine the escalation path
D. Perform vulnerability assessment

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 12

Refer to the exhibit. What is occurring in this packet capture?

A. TCP port scan
B. TCP flood
C. DNS flood
D. DNS tunneling

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 13

Refer to the exhibit. How must these advisories be prioritized for handling?

A. The highest priority for handling depends on the type of institution deploying the devices
B. Vulnerability #2 is the highest priority for every type of institution
C. Vulnerability #1 and vulnerability #2 have the same priority
D. Vulnerability #1 is the highest priority for every type of institution

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 14

What is the purpose of hardening systems?

A. to securely configure machines to limit the attack surface
B. to create the logic that triggers alerts when anomalies occur
C. to identify vulnerabilities within an operating system
D. to analyze attacks to identify threat actors and points of entry

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 15

A company\\’s web server availability was breached by a DDoS attack and was offline for 3 hours because it was not
deemed a critical asset in the incident response playbook. Leadership has requested a risk assessment of the asset. An
analyst conducted the risk assessment using the threat sources, events, and vulnerabilities.

Which additional element is needed to calculate the risk?

A. assessment scope
B. event severity and likelihood
C. incident response playbook
D. risk model framework

Correct Answer: D

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A perfect AZ-900 practice exam questions (q1-q15) for preparation:

Pass4itSure provides customers with the best test materials for AZ-900 preparation. The test questions of the practice test can also help candidates understand the real situation of the exam. Some test questions are shared below.

QUESTION 1

Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains
a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution,
while others might not have a correct solution.

After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not
appear on the review screen. You have an Azure subscription named Subscription! You sign in to the Azure portal and create a resource group named RG1.

From Azure documentation, you have the following command that creates a virtual machine named VM1.
az vm create –resource-group RG1 –name VM1 –image UbuntuLTS –generate-ssh-keys

You need to create VM1 in Subscription! by using the command.
Solution: From the Azure portal, launch Azure Cloud Shell and select Bash. Run the command in Cloud Shell.
Does this meet the goal?

A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 2

HOTSPOT
For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select No.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

QUESTION 3

This question requires that you evaluate the underlined text to determine if it is correct.
You have an application that is comprised of an Azure web app that has a Service Level Agreement (SLA) of 99.95
percent and an Azure SQL database that has an SLA of 99.99 percent.

The composite SLA for the application is the product of both SLAs, which equals 99.94 percent.
Instructions: Review the underlined text. If it makes the statement correct, select “No change is needed”. If the
statement is incorrect, select the answer choice that makes the statement correct.

A. No change is needed
B. the lowest SLA associated with the application, which is 99.95 percent
C. the highest SLA associated with the application, which is 99.99 percent
D. the difference between the two SLAs, which is 0.05 percent
Correct Answer: A
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/architecture/reliability/requirements#understand-service-levelagreements

QUESTION 4

For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select No.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

Correct Answer:

QUESTION 5

Your company plans to move several servers to Azure.
The company\\’s compliance policy states that a server named FinServer must be on a separate network segment.
You are evaluating which Azure services can be used to meet the compliance policy requirements.

Which Azure solution should you recommend?

A. a resource group for FinServer and another resource group for all the other servers
B. a virtual network for FinServer and another virtual network for all the other servers
C. a VPN for FinServer and a virtual network gateway for each other server
D. one resource group for all the servers and a resource lock for FinServer
Correct Answer: B

References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/virtual-network/virtual-network-vnet-plan-design-arm

QUESTION 6

Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains
a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution,
while others might not have a correct solution.

After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not
appear in the review screen.

Your company plans to purchase Azure. The company\\’s support policy states that the Azure environment must provide an option to access support engineers by phone or email.

You need to recommend which support plan meets the support policy requirement. Solution: Recommend a Standard support plan. Does this meet the goal?

A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: A

The Standard, Professional Direct, and Premier support plans have technical support for engineers via email and
phone.

References: https://azure.microsoft.com/en-gb/support/plans/

QUESTION 7

What are two characteristics of the public cloud? Each correct answer presents a complete solution. NOTE: Each
correct selection is worth one point.

A. dedicated hardware
B. unsecured connections
C. limited storage
D. metered pricing
E. self-service management
Correct Answer: DE

QUESTION 8

You need to configure an Azure solution that meets the following requirements:
Secures websites from attacks Generates reports that contain details of attempted attacks What should you include in
the solution?

A. Azure Firewall
B. a network security group (NSG)
C. Azure Information Protection
D. DDoS protection
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 9

This question requires that you evaluate the underlined text to determine if it is correct.
Azure Key Vault is used to store secrets for Azure Active Directory (Azure AD) user accounts.
Instructions: Review the underlined text. If it makes the statement correct, select “No change is needed”. If the
statement is incorrect, select the answer choice that makes the statement correct.

A. No change is needed
B. Azure Active Directory (Azure AD) administrative accounts
C. Personally Identifiable Information (PII)
D. server applications
Correct Answer: A

References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/key-vault/about-keys-secrets-and-certificates\

QUESTION 10

For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select No. NOTE: Each correct
selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

QUESTION 11

Which cloud deployment solution is used for Azure virtual machines and Azure SQL databases? To answer, select the
appropriate options in the answer area.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.

AZ-900 exam questions-q11
QUESTION 12

HOTSPOT
For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select No. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.

QUESTION 13

You have an on-premises network that contains several servers.
You plan to migrate all the servers to Azure.
You need to recommend a solution to ensure that some of the servers are available if a single Azure data center goes
offline for an extended period.

What should you include in the recommendation?

A. fault tolerance
B. elasticity
C. scalability
D. low latency
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 14

A support engineer plans to perform several Azure management tasks by using the Azure CLI.
You install the CLI on a computer.
You need to tell the support engineer which tools to use to run the CLI.

Which two tools should you instruct the support engineer to use? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.

A. Command Prompt
B. Azure Resource Explorer
C. Windows PowerShell
D. Windows Defender Firewall
E. Network and Sharing Center
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 15

Your company plans to automate the deployment of servers to Azure.
Your manager is concerned that you may expose administrative credentials during the deployment.
You need to recommend an Azure solution that encrypts the administrative credentials during the deployment.

What should you include in the recommendation?

A. Azure Key Vault
B. Azure Information Protection
C. Azure Security Center
D. Azure Multi-Factor Authentication (MFA)
Correct Answer: A

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The latest practice test, Cisco 350-701 exam questions answers 1-13

QUESTION 1
What are two differences between a Cisco WSA that is running in transparent mode and one running in explicit mode?
(Choose two.)
A. When the Cisco WSA is running in transparent mode, it uses the WSA\\’s own IP address as the HTTP request
destination.
B. The Cisco WSA responds with its own IP address only if it is running in explicit mode.
C. The Cisco WSA is configured in a web browser only if it is running in transparent mode.
D. The Cisco WSA uses a Layer 3 device to redirect traffic only if it is running in transparent mode.
E. The Cisco WSA responds with its own IP address only if it is running in transparent mode.
Correct Answer: BD


QUESTION 2
Why is it important to have logical security controls on endpoints even though the users are trained to spot security
threats and the network devices already help prevent them?
A. to prevent theft of the endpoints
B. because defense-in-depth stops at the network
C. to expose the endpoint to more threats
D. because human error or insider threats will still exist
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 3
Which solution combines Cisco IOS and IOS XE components to enable administrators to recognize applications, collect
and send network metrics to Cisco Prime and other third-party management tools, and prioritize application traffic?
A. Cisco Security Intelligence
B. Cisco Application Visibility and Control
C. Cisco Model Driven Telemetry
D. Cisco DNA Center
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4
For which two conditions can an endpoint be checked using ISE posture assessment? (Choose two.)
A. computer identity
B. Windows service
C. user identity
D. Windows firewall
E. default browser
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 5
An engineer is configuring a Cisco ESA and wants to control whether to accept or reject email messages to a recipient
address. Which list contains the allowed recipient addresses?
A. SAT
B. BAT
C. HAT
D. RAT
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 6
What are two functions of secret key cryptography? (Choose two.)
A. key selection without integer factorization
B. utilization of different keys for encryption and decryption
C. utilization of large prime number iterations
D. utilization of less memory
E. provides the capability to only know the key on one side
Correct Answer: BE

QUESTION 7
An administrator wants to ensure that all endpoints are compliant before users are allowed access on the corporate
network.
The endpoints must have the corporate antivirus application installed and be running the latest build of Windows 10.
What must the administrator implement to ensure that all devices are compliant before they are allowed on the
network?
A. Cisco Identity Services Engine and AnyConnect Posture module
B. Cisco Stealthwatch and Cisco Identity Services Engine integration
C. Cisco ASA firewall with Dynamic Access Policies configured
D. Cisco Identity Services Engine with PxGrid services enabled
Correct Answer: A
https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/vpn_client/anyconnect/anyconnect46/administration/guide/b_AnyConnect_Administrator_Guide_4-6/configure-posture.html


QUESTION 8
What Cisco command shows you the status of an 802.1X connection on interface gi0/1?
A. show authorization status
B. show authen sess int gi0/1
C. show connection status gi0/1
D. show ver gi0/1
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 9
Which two are valid suppression types on a Cisco Next Generation Intrusion Prevention System?
A. Port
B. Rule
C. Source
D. Application
E. Protocol
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 10
What is a difference between DMVPN and sVTI?
A. DMVPN supports tunnel encryption, whereas sVTI does not.
B. DMVPN supports dynamic tunnel establishment, whereas sVTI does not.
C. DMVPN supports static tunnel establishment, whereas sVTI does not.
D. DMVPN provides interoperability with other vendors, whereas sVTI does not.
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 11
After deploying a Cisco ESA on your network, you notice that some messages fail to reach their destinations. Which
task can you perform to determine where each message was lost?
A. Configure the trackingconfig command to enable message tracking.
B. Generate a system report.
C. Review the log files.
D. Perform a trace.
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 12
A network engineer is configuring DMVPN and entered the crypto is akmp key cisc0380739941 address 0.0.0.0
command on host A The tunnel is not being established to host B. What action is needed to authenticate the VPN?
A. Enter the same command on host B.
B. Enter the command with a different password on host B.
C. Change isakmp to ikev2 in the command on host A.
D. Change the password on host A to the default password.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 13
In which cloud services model is the tenant responsible for virtual machine OS patching?
A. IaaS
B. UCaaS
C. PaaS
D. SaaS
Correct Answer: A

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The latest practice test, Cisco 350-501 exam questions answers 1-13

QUESTION 1
Refer to the exhibit.

350-501 exam questions-q1
An engineer configured multicast routing on client\\’s network. What is the effect of this multicast implementation?
A. R2 floods information about R1 throughout the multicast domain.
B. R2 is unable to share information because the ip pirn autorp listener command is missing.
C. R1 floods information about R2 throughout the multicast domain.
D. R2 is elected as the RP for this domain.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 2
Which utility must be used to locate MPLS faults?
A. QoS
B. MPLS LSP ping
C. MPLStraceroute
D. EEM
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 3

350-501 exam questions-q3
Refer to the exhibit. A network operator working for service provider with an employee id: 1234:56:789 applied this
configuration to a router.
Which additional step should the engineer use to enable LDP?
A. Enable MPLS LDP on the interface.
B. Disable Cisco Express Forwarding globally.
C. Delete the static router ID.
D. Configure the both keyword to enable LDP globally.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4
Which configuration enables BGP FlowSpec client function and installation of policies on all local interfaces?
A. flowspec address-family ipv4 local-install interface-all
B. flowspec address-family ipv4 install interface-all local
C. flowspec address-family ipv4 install interface-all
D. flowspec address-family ipv4 local-install all-interface
Correct Answer: A
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/ios-xml/ios/iproute_bgp/configuration/xe-16-6/irg-xe-16-6-book/C3PLBGP-Flowspec-Client.html

QUESTION 5

350-501 exam questions-q5
Refer to the exhibit. What is the URL used for with REST API?
A. It is used to initiate an FTP session to save a running configuration of a device.
B. It is used to send a message to the APIC to perform an operation on a managed object or class operator.
C. It is used to contact a URL filter to determine the efficacy of a web address.
D. It is used to send a TACACS + authentication request to a server.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 6

350-501 exam questions-q6
Refer to the exhibit. If router RA is configured as shown, which IPv4 multicast address space does it use?
A. 224.0.0.0/8
B. 225.0.0.0/8
C. 232.0.0.0/8
D. 239.0.0.0/8
Correct Answer: C
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/lan/catalyst3850/software/release/3se/multicast/configuration_guide/b_mc_3se_3850_cg/b_mc_3se_3850_cg_chapter_01011.html

QUESTION 7

350-501 exam questions-q7
Refer to the exhibit Which effect of this configuration is true?
A. The two routers fail to form a neighbor relationship because they have different IS-IS area types.
B. The two routers successfully form a neighbor relationship.
C. The two routers fail to form a neighbor relationship because the authentication configuration is missing.
D. The two routers fail to form a neighbor relationship because their system IDs are different.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 8

350-501 exam questions-q8

Refer to the exhibit Which effect of this configuration is true?
A. R1 can support a peer that is configured for LDP SSO/NSF as the peer recovers from an outage.
B. R1can support a graceful restart operation on the peer, even if graceful restart is disabled on the peer.
C. R1 can failover to any peer.
D. R1 can failover only to a peer that is configured for LDF SSO/NSF.
Correct Answer: A
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/en/US/docs/general/Test/kwoodwar/fsgr29s.html

QUESTION 9

350-501 exam questions-q9

Refer to the exhibit. Router 1 was experiencing a DDoS attack that was traced to interface gigabitethernet0/1. Which
statement about this configuration is true?
A. Router 1 accepts all traffic that ingresses and egresses interface gigabitethernet0/1.
B. Router 1 drops all traffic that ingresses interface gigabitethernet0/1 that has a FIB entry that exits a different
interface.
C. Router 1 accepts source addresses that have a match in the FIB that indicates it is reachable through a real
interface.
D. Router 1 accepts source addresses on interface gigabitethernet0/1 that are private addresses.
Correct Answer: C
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/datacenter/sw/4_1/nxos/security/configuration/guide/sec_nx-os-cfg/sec_urpf.html

QUESTION 10
Which three OSPF parameters must match before two devices can establish an OSPF adjacency? (Choose three.)
A. IP address
B. subnet mask
C. interface cost
D. process ID
E. area number
F. hello timer setting
Correct Answer: BEF

QUESTION 11
What is a role of NSO?
A. It automates the deployment of access points with its built-in wireless LAN controller.
B. It manages WAN infrastructure using a virtual switch.
C. It provides full lifecycle management of a device.
D. It resides on a hypervisor that runs the Windows OS.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 12
What does DWDM use to combine multiple optical signals?
A. frequency
B. IP protocols
C. time slots
D. wavelength
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 13

350-501 exam questions-q13

Refer to the exhibit Router R1 and its peer R2 reside on the same subnet in the network. If an engineer implements this
configuration to R1, how does it make connections to R2?
A. R1 establishes TCP connections that are authenticated with a clear-text password.
B. R1 establishes UDP connections that are authenticated with an MD5 password.
C. R1 establishes UDP connections that are authenticated with a clear-text password.
D. R1 establishes TCP connections that are authenticated with an MD5 password.
Correct Answer: D

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The latest practice test, Microsoft Role-based MB-200 exam questions answers 1-13

QUESTION 1
You have the following customers: CustomerA, CustomerB. The customers report the following issues:

mb-200 exam questions-q1

You need to resolve the issues.
What should you do? To answer, drag the appropriate actions to the correct customers. Each action may be used once,
more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.

mb-200 exam questions-q1-2

References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/dynamics365/customer-engagement/admin/connect-exchange-server-onpremises

QUESTION 2
You need to resolve the redundant field issue. What should you do?
A. Delete the field from the solution in the Sandbox environment.
B. Remove the field from the solution in the Sandbox environment.
C. Remove the field from the solution in the QA environment.
D. Delete the field from the solution in the QA environment.
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 3
You need to prompt the caseworker when populating the allergies field.
Which three actions should you perform in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions
to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.
Select and Place:

mb-200 exam questions-q3

 Correct Answer:

mb-200 exam questions-q3-2

QUESTION 4
You are a Dynamics 365 for Customer Service system administrator. You have a data file that contains a list of
accounts which must be important into the system.
You need to import the accounts by using the Import Data wizard.
Which four actions should you perform in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions to
the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.
Select and Place:

mb-200 exam questions-q4

 Correct Answer:

mb-200 exam questions-q4-2

QUESTION 5
You are a Dynamics 365 Customer Engagement administrator.
A compliance audit identifies two fields in violation of the corporate information security policy.
You need to control access to high business impact fields to meet information security policies.
What should you use? To answer, drag the appropriate security methods to the correct teams. Each security method
may be used once, more than once.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Select and Place:

mb-200 exam questions-q5

Correct Answer:

mb-200 exam questions-q5-2

References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/dynamics365/customer-engagement/admin/security-concepts


QUESTION 6
You need to ensure that attendance records contain the proper default values. What should you do?
A. a workflow
B. a field mapping
C. a business process flow
D. a business rule
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 7
You are a Dynamics 365 for Customer Service system administrator for a Sandbox and a Production instance.
A user forgets to sign out from a shared device connected to a Production instance. A second user makes changes to
records using the credentials of the first user.
You need to implement user session timeouts to prevent this type of issue from recurring.
Where should you configure this feature?
A. each instance of Microsoft Azure Active Directory (Azure AD) associated to the tenant
B. each user in Microsoft 365 admin center
C. each user in Dynamics 365
D. each Dynamics 365 instance
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 8
You are a Dynamics 365 for Customer Services administrator. You have a Production instance and Sandbox instance.
Users record Production instance data in the Sandbox instance.
You need to ensure that users only record data in the Production instance.
Which security function needs to be edited to prevent access to the Sandbox? To answer, select the appropriate options
in the answer area.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

mb-200 exam questions-q8

 Correct Answer:

mb-200 exam questions-q8-2

QUESTION 9
You provide add-on components for Dynamics 365. The deployment requirements for many add-ons are different.
You need to ensure that you meet the deployment requirements for add-ons.
Which solution types should you use? To answer, drag the appropriate solution types to the correct requirements. Each
solution type may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or
scroll to view content.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Select and Place:

mb-200 exam questions-q9

Correct Answer:

mb-200 exam questions-q9-2

QUESTION 10
You are a Dynamics 365 administrator for a veterinarian clinic.
On the client appointment form, there is a dropdown field for clients to select their type of pet. If a client selects the
option Other, the veterinarian wants a text field to appear so that additional details can be added.
You need to create a dynamically visible field.
What should you configure?
A. business rule
B. workflow
C. business process flow
D. field visibility on the form
Correct Answer: D
References: https://www.sherweb.com/blog/dynamics-365/configuring-business-rules-within-microsoftdynamics-365-crm/


QUESTION 11
You are a Dynamics 365 for Customer Service administrator.
You must create a form for team members to use. The form must provide the ability to:
Lock a field on a form.
Trigger business logic based on a field value.
Use existing business information to enhance data entry.
You need to implement business rule components to create the form.
Which components should you use? To answer, drag the appropriate components to the correct requirements. Each component may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll
to view content.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Select and Place:
 

mb-200 exam questions-q11

QUESTION 12
You are a Microsoft 365 administrator. You create a Dynamics 365 online tenant in the environment.
You must assign users into Office 365 security roles using the principle of least privilege.
You need to assign security roles for users.
Which role should you use? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

mb-200 exam questions-q12

Correct Answer:

mb-200 exam questions-q12-2

References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/dynamics365/customer-engagement/admin/use-service-admin-rolemanage-tenant


QUESTION 13
You are a Dynamics 365 for Customer Service developer.
A salesperson creates a chart.
You need to ensure that the chart is available to all users on the team.
Which actions should the salesperson perform? To answer, drag the appropriate actions to the correct users. Each
action may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to
view content.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Select and Place:

mb-200 exam questions-q13

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QUESTION 1
In a PIM-SM environment, which mechanism determines the traffic that a receiver receives?
A. The receiver explicitly requests its desired traffic from the RP on the shared tree.
B. The receiver explicitly requests traffic from a single source, which responds by forwarding all traffic.
C. The RP on the shared tree floods traffic out of all PIM configured interfaces.
D. The receiver explicitly requests traffic from each desired source, which responds by sending all traffic.
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 2
300-510 exam questions-q2

Refer to the exhibit. R1 is directly connected to R2 and R3. R1 is in BGP AS 123, R2 is in BGP AS 2, and R3 is in BGP
AS 3. Assume that there is no connectivity issue between R1, R2 and R1, R3. Which result between BGP peers R1, R2
and R1, R3 is true?
A. The BGP session does not come up between R1 and R2 and between R1 and R3.
B. The BGP session comes up between R1 and R2 and between R1 and R3.
C. The BGP session comes up between R1 and R3, but not between R1 and R2.
D. The BGP session comes up between R1 and R2, but not between R1 and R3.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 3

300-510 exam questions-q3

Refer to the exhibit. A network operator is getting the route for 10.11.11 0/24 from two upstream providers on #XR3. The
network operator must configure #XR3 to force the 10.11.11.0/24 prefix to route via next hop of 10.0.0.9 as primary
when available.
Which of these can the operator use the routing policy language for, to enforce this traffic forwarding path?
A. weight of 0 on the prefix coming from 192.168.0.2
B. lower local preference on the prefix coming from 192.168.0.2
C. higher local preference on the prefix coming from 192.168.0.1
D. weight of 100 on the prefix coming from 192.168.0.1
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 4

300-510 exam questions-q4

Refer to the exhibit. XR1 and XR2 are sending the prefix 10.11.11.0/24 to XR3. A configured policy on XR1 is incorrectly
prepending AS path 11 11 12 12 onto this prefix. A network operator wants to add a policy onto XR3 that will not allow
the falsely prepending prefix from being installed.
Which policy configuration applied to the XR3 neighbor configuration for XR1 can accomplish this requirement without
impact on other or future received routes?

300-510 exam questions-q4-2

A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
Correct Answer: D
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/routers/crs/software/crs_r4-1/routing/command/reference/b_routing_cr41crs/b_routing_cr41crs_chapter_01000.html#wp3850885229

QUESTION 5
Which two statements about mapping multicast IP addresses to MAC addresses are true? (Choose two.)
A. All mapped multicast MAC addresses begin with 0x0100.5E
B. The router performs the mapping before it hands the packet off to a switch
C. All multicast MAC addresses end with 0x0100.5E
D. The mapping process may generate overlapping addresses, which can cause receivers to receive unwanted packets
E. All destination MAC addresses begin with an octet of binary 1s
Correct Answer: AD


QUESTION 6
Which two characteristics unique to SSM when compared to ASM are true? (Choose two.)
A. It uses SPT switchover
B. It uses (*,G) exclusively
C. It uses IGMPv3
D. It uses RP
E. It uses (S,G) exclusively
Correct Answer: CE

QUESTION 7

300-510 exam questions-q7

Refer to the exhibit. After troubleshooting an OSPF adjacency issue, routers 1, 2, and 3 have formed OSPF neighbor
relationships. Which statement about the configuration is true?
A. Router 2 receives a Type 5 LSAs from router 1 for its connected subnets
B. Router 2 uses router 3 as the next hop for 192.168.0.0/24
C. Router 2 uses router 1 as the next hop for 192.168.0.0/24
D. Router 2 receives a Type 7 LSAs from router 3 for its connected subnets
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 8

300-510 exam questions-q8

Refer to the exhibit. Why is neighbor 10.1.5.5 stuck in “2WAY” state?
A. Router ID 10.1.5.5 is not reachable from R2
B. OSPF authentication has failed between R2 and 10.1.5.5
C. It is an expected behavior when OSPF network type is broadcast
D. OSPF parameters (Area ID or hello interval) are mismatched between R2 and 10.1.5.5
Correct Answer: C
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/ip/open-shortest-path-first-ospf/13683-11.html

QUESTION 9

300-510 exam questions-q9

Refer to the exhibit. Which task must you perform on interface g1/0/0 to complete the SSM implementation?
A. configure OSPFv3
B. enable CDP
C. disable IGMP
D. configure IGMPv3
Correct Answer: D
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/ios-xml/ios/ipmulti_pim/configuration/xe-16/imc-pim-xe-16-book/imcssm.html


QUESTION 10
You have configured MSDP peering between two autonomous systems that pass traffic between two sites, but the
peering has failed to come up.
Which task do you perform to begin troubleshooting the problem?
A. Verify that multicast has been disabled globally
B. Verify that PIM-DM is configured on the source interface
C. Verify that both source interfaces are reachable from both peers
D. Verify that the two MSDP peers allow asymmetric routing
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 11
Refer to the exhibit.

300-510 exam questions-q11

Which three statements are correct regarding the Cisco IOS-XR configuration? (Choose three.)
A. This router, acting as the RP mapping agent, will send RP announcement messages to the 224.0.1.40 group
B. This router, acting as the RP mapping agent, will send RP discovery messages to the 224.0.1.39 group
C. This router is the RP mapping agent only for the 224.11.11.11 and 224.99.99.99 multicast groups
D. This router is a candidate PIM-SM RP for the 224.99.99.99 multicast group
E. This router is a candidate PIM-BIDIR RP for the 224.11.11.11 multicast group
F. IGMPv3 is enabled on all interfaces
G. Other routers will recognize this router as the RP for all multicast groups with this router loopback 0 IP address
Correct Answer: DEF

QUESTION 12

300-510 exam questions-q12

Refer to the exhibit. After troubleshooting BGP traffic steering issue, which action did the network operator take to
achieve the correct effect of this configuration?
A. Routes that have passed through AS 65517 have the local preference set to 150.
B. Routes that have originated through AS 65517 have the local preference set to 150.
C. Routes directly attached to AS 65517 have the local preference set to 150.
D. Routes that have passed through AS 65517 have the local preference set to 150 and the traffic is denied.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 13

300-510 exam questions-q13

Refer to the exhibit. A network operator wants to expand the segment routing global block in upcoming maintenance.
The operator must ensure that the changes to the segment routing global block have no adverse impacts on the prefixsid associated with the loopback0 interface used within the OSPF domain.
Which command can the operator use to enforce R2 to have a strict prefix-sid assignment to loopback0?

300-510 exam questions-q13-2

A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
Correct Answer: C

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Updated Oracle Database 1Z0-920 exam questions 1-13

QUESTION 1
You establish MySQL Enterprise Server on Oracle Cloud Infrastructure connection via Secure Shell (SSH)
For accessing a new MySQL Enterprise Edition on an Oracle Cloud Infrastructure (OCI) Instance you ” Add SSH key “
information during the OCI instance setup. You want to use Putty from your Windows Client to install MySQL.
What are the correct steps to accomplish this?
A. Open Port 22 on your OCI Instance and convert the private key to ppk format. This new private key can be used for
authentication.
B. Use the provided private key for authentication.
C. Convert the private key to ppk format first and use the new private key for authentication.
D. Open Port 22 on your OCI Instance and configure Putty with the ssh private key.
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 2
Which Oracle product is certified to work with MySQL Enterprise Edition?
A. Oracle Enterprise Backup
B. Oracle Data Pump
C. Oracle Enterprise Manager
D. Oracle Application Express
Correct Answer: C
Click on 


QUESTION 3
You get a maintenance-notification about your MySQL Enterprise Edition in Oracle Cloud Infrastructure (OCI) Compute
instance. What is re the implication?
A. You can expect an outage of your MySQL OCI instance during the planned time..
B. Depending on the planned outage, you may not be affected by it. You need to read the maintenance details in the
support notice.
C. You need to agree to the maintenance windows. If not, you are not affected by the outage.
D. There are no maintenance operations planned. You need to do them manually.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4
You want to create an encrypted table. So, you enter this command:
CREATE TABLE \\’test_encryption2% (
\\’id\\’ int(10) unsigned NOT NULL AUTO_INCREMENT,
\\’server_name\\’ varchar(15) NOT NULL,
PRIMARY KEY (\\’id\\’) ) ENGINE=MYISAM AUTO_INCREMENT=l DEFAULT CHARSET=latin1 ENCRYPTION = \\’Y1;
You receive the following error:
ERROR 1031 (HY000): Table storage engine for `test_encryption2\\’ doesn\\’t have this option Which statement
correctly explains the reason for this error?
A. You cannot use the AUTO_INCREMENT option to create an encrypted table. This is what is causing the error.
B. The term “server_name” is a reserved MySQL term. You cannot use it for the new table. This is what is causing the
error.
C. The encryption feature only works with InnoDB tables. You are creating a MylSAM table, and it is causing the error.
D. The test_encryption2 already exist. You are not using the correct option to recreate it and it is causing the error.
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 5
Which three are characteristics of the JSON data type?
A. A set of SQL functions substantially support the SQL utilization of the data type.
B. It supports indexing directly against the JSON-defined column.
C. It validates the JSON syntax on insert or merge.
D. Comparisons of JSON values are not case-sensitive.
E. Key or array references enable quick read-access to look up document elements directly.
F. It is based on the TEXT data type.
Correct Answer: BCE


QUESTION 6
By using the asynchronous MySQL Replication architecture, data can be replicated to slaves. Identify three use cases
of MySQL Replication.
A. MySQL Replication Connector/J (ReplicationDriver) is provided to allow read capability on slave and write capability
on master.
B. MySQL Enterprise Backup will back up from Slave automatically.
C. It provides multi-master access where the application can write and read data across the database servers.
D. It allows backup to be done on the slave without impacting the master.
E. You can create a slave server for reporting applications, which get only read access to the slave servers. It off-loads
the master server. Additional servers allow different database server configuration.
Correct Answer: BDE


QUESTION 7
Which three statements are true about MySQL Enterprise Backup?
A. It performs hot or warm backups.
B. It provides the ability to create incremental backups.
C. It cannot back up encrypted tablespaces.
D. It enables you to take non-locking backups.
E. It performs logical backups.
Correct Answer: BDE

QUESTION 8
Which three options are valid reasons for using a primary key in a table?
A. increasing performance when using select statements
B. exporting data faster with mysqldump
C. preventing duplicate keys
D. to make it easier to change the PRIMARY KEY value
E. automatic storage of data in a sorted order
F. maintaining a history of row insertions or updates
Correct Answer: ABC


QUESTION 9
How would you restrict a user Joe from accessing all MySQL database objects?
A. CREATE USER \\’joe\\’@\\’0.0.0.0\\’ SET Password=PASSWORD(\\’% ! %\\’)
B. REVOKE ALL PRIVILEGES, GRANT OPTION FROM \\’joe\\’@\\’%\\’;
C. UPDATE mysql.user SET Password=PASSWORD(\\’Invalid\\’) WHERE User=\\’joe\\’;
D. Insert Joe\\’s name into the mysql.user_restriction cable, and issue the FLUSH PRIVILEGES command.
E. CREATE USER \\’ joe\\’@1\\’ %\\’ DENY ALL PRIVILEGES
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 10
After installing MySQL 8.0, you initialize the data directory with the –initialize command. Which two are places where
you can find the root password?
A. The root password is not given and is blank. You must manually set the root password.
B. The root password inserted in the error log set by the –log-error=[file_name] variable
C. The root password displayed on the screen via a [warning] message.
D. The root_pw variable stored in the mysq1.install table.
E. As root, execute the show password command by using the SHA-256 password encryption plug-in.
Correct Answer: DE

QUESTION 11
Which four authentication protocols are allowed when using MySQL Enterprise Authentication?
A. Native Windows services
B. authentication via Pluggable Authentication Modules (PAMs)
C. Simple Authentication and Security Layer
D. SECURID authentication and authorization identity
E. authentication using SHA-256 password hashing
F. connections through the local host via the UNIX socket file
Correct Answer: ABEF
Click on 

Which features of MySQL Enterprise Edition should you use to proactively monitor and track data changes in your
databases?
A. MySQL Enterprise Monitor and MySQL Audit
B. MySQL Workbench and MySQL Enterprise Firewall
C. MySQL Audit and MySQL Workbench
D. SQL Enterprise Monitor and MySQL Enterprise Authentication
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 13
The replication for a Master and Slave MySQL Servers is up and running. The disk space for Master Server is
continuously growing. The binlog size keeps growing. Which two methods can fix the issue?
A. On the Master server, disable binlog by removing the –log-bin option.
B. Set the expire_logs_days system variable to expire binary log files automatically after a given number of days.
C. To safely purge binary log files, perform these steps:
1.
On each slave server, use show slave status to check which log file it is reading.
2.
Obtain a listing of the binary log files on the master server with show binary logs.
3.
Determine the earliest log file among all the slaves. This is the target file. If all the slaves are up- to-date, this is the last
log file on the list.
4.
Make a backup of all the log files you are about to delete. (This step is optional, but always advisable.)
5.
Purge all log files up to but not including the target file by using the purge binary logs statement
D. Execute the purge binary logs statement without argument.
E. Delete all binlog files manually on the file system to release storage spaces.
Correct Answer: BC

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QUESTION 1
A cloud implementation engineer successfully created a new VM. However, the engineer notices the new VM is not
accessible from another network. A ping test works from another VM on the same subnet. Which of the following is the
MOST likely problem?
A. Incorrect subnet
B. Incorrect host IP address
C. Incorrect VLAN
D. Incorrect gateway
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 2
An administrator is testing a new web server from outside of the corporate firewall. The administrator performs a test
from a single PC and the web server responds accordingly. The administrator then provisions several virtual machines
on a
network behind NAT and uses them to perform the same operation on the web server at the same time, but thereafter
soon discovers that none of the machines can reach the web server.
Which of the following could be responsible?
A. IPS
B. Blacklisting
C. IDS
D. Whitelisting
E. Firewall
Correct Answer: E


QUESTION 3
Recent feedback from an employee engagement survey stated that users are frustrated with multiple logins to different
SaaS providers, and the cloud engineering teams is directed to address this issue and implement a solution. The
security policy states that users must access the SaaS from approved IP addresses.
Which of the following is the BEST and most efficient solution to deploy?
A. Deploy an IPSec tunnel to each SaaS provider and enable biometric login.
B. Deploy a smart card login and change passwords to each SaaS vendor every 30 days.
C. Deploy a CASB solution and whitelist the approved SaaS applications.
D. Deploy SSO and enforce VPN access to the corporate domain.
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 4
An administrator is unable to connect to servers in the DMZ. Which of the following commands should the administrator
run to determine where the connection failure occurs?
A. nslookup
B. traceroute
C. telnet
D. netstat
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 5
Asynchronous data replication for a SaaS application occurs between Regions A and B. Users in Region A are reporting
that the most current data for an insurance claims application is not available to them until after 11:30 a.m. The cloud
administrator for this SaaS provider checks the network utilization and finds that only about 10% of the network
bandwidth is being used.
Which of the following describes how the cloud administrator could BEST resolve this issue?
A. Check the storage utilization logs in both regions.
B. Check the RAM utilization logs in both regions.
C. Check the CPU utilization logs in both regions.
D. Check the storage commit logs in both regions.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 6
A mobile subscriber is experiencing random limited-service outages. Customers report being unable to make calls or
browse. The service provider management console is not showing any alarms, errors, or critical logs, but does show a
large number of connection request failures.
Which of the following could be the problem?
A. Misconfigured federation
B. IP address limitations
C. SSO failure
D. Unavailable directory service
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 7
A user has submitted a ticket to request additional VMs due to long wait times for online ordering. Given the snapshot of
the resources in the table below: Which of the following is the BEST option for the administrator to resolve the ticket?

softwarexam cv0-002 exam questions-q7

A. Add vCPU to the database server to increase capacity.
B. Add disks to the database server to increase capacity.
C. Add virtual network ports to the web server to increase capacity.
D. Add memory to the web server to increase capacity.
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 8
An administrator has recently added a new host server to a private cloud environment. The host has two quad-core
processors and 128GB of RAM. The server will have ten guest servers that require a minimum of 1 CPU and 8GB of
RAM per server. Four of the servers will only be used during off hours. Which of the following should the administrator
implement to ensure that the guest servers have the proper resources?
A. Dynamic CPU
B. Redundancy
C. NIC Teaming
D. Dynamic RAM
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9
A cloud administrator is adding several accounts for new development team interns. These interns will need access to
some, but not all, of the resources and will only be working over the summer. Which of the following user provisioning
techniques should be used?
A. Create a single account for the interns to share. Set the expiration date for the account to six months.
B. Create a role labeled “interns” with the appropriate permissions. Create a separate account with an expiration date
for each intern and add each intern to that role.
C. Create one template user account with the appropriate permissions and use it to clone the other accounts. Set an
expiration date for each account individually.
D. Create individual accounts for each intern, set the permissions and expiration date for each account, and link them to
a temporary guests user group.
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 10
A technician needs to configure a virtual NIC on a Class A IP address network. Which of the following is the default
subnet mask for this network?
A. /8
B. /16
C. /24
D. /28
Correct Answer: A
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QUESTION 11
A file server is being migrated from physical hardware into a private cloud. Baselining of the server shows the disks
average 90% full at all times. The contents of the file server consist mostly of compressed audio files. Multiple copies of
the same files are often saved in different locations on the same disk. Which of the following storage technologies is
MOST likely to help minimize storage utilization when moving this server to the private cloud?
A. Compression
B. Thin provisioning
C. Deduplication
D. Tokenization
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 12
An administrator needs to test the latency between two servers. Which of the following commands should be used?
A. route
B. arp
C. ping
D. nslookup/dig
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 13
A software development company is building cloud-ready applications and needs to determine the best approach for
releasing software. Which of the following approaches should be used?
A. Perform QA, develop, test, and release to production
B. Test, perform QA, develop, and release to production
C. Develop, perform QA, test, and release to production
D. Develop, test, perform QA, and release to production
Correct Answer: D

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