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The 200-355 WIFUND Implementing Cisco Wireless Network Fundamentals exam is associated with the CCNA Wireless certification and with the Cisco specialist. Pass4itsure 200-355 dumps WIFUND CCNA Wireless certification study guide will be essential in facilitating the security integration of companies at large. This exam tests a candidate’s knowledge of Radio Frequency (RF) and 802.11 technology essentials along with installing, configuring, monitoring and basic troubleshooting tasks needed to support Small Medium Business and Enterprise wireless networks,Which covers all objectives of (Implementing Cisco Wireless Network Fundamentals).

Implementing Cisco Wireless Networking Fundamentals:

Exam Number 200-355
Associated Certifications CCNA Wireless
Duration 90 minutes (60-70 questions)
Available Languages English, Japanese
Exam Name Implementing Cisco Wireless Network Fundamentals
Q&As 434
Register Pearson VUE

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The Implementing Cisco Wireless Network Fundamentals (200-355) version is a 1.5-hour test with 60-70 questions that validate professionals who have the expertise to Radio Frequency (RF) and 802.11 technology essentials along with installing, configuring, monitoring and basic troubleshooting tasks needed to support Small Medium Business and Enterprise wireless networks for passing and excelling in the Cisco(Implementing Cisco Wireless Network Fundamentals) exam. The Cisco 200-355 dumps exam is one of the most popular Cisco Certification exams. Pass4itsure is popular for its comprehensive and quality coaching for exam, because this gives wonderful results.

Pass4isture Latest and Most Accurate Cisco 200-355 Dumps Exam Q&As(1-33)

QUESTION 5
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200-355 dumps
QUESTION 6
An engineer is using a predictive survey tool to estimate placement of APs in a carpeted office space. Most interior walls should be assigned which attenuation value?
A. 2 dB
B. 3 dB
C. 4 dB
D. 5 dB
200-355 exam Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 7
Which wireless topology supports roaming?
A. IBSS
B. BSS
C. ESS
D. bridging
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 8
Which two factors must be considered when evaluating an RF interferer for severity? (Choose two.)
A. distance from the AP
B. dBm
C. the type of security crack being used
D. duty cycle
E. number of interfering IP stations in the cell
F. duplicate SSID
200-355 dumps Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 9
A controller is connected to a Cisco Catalyst switch. The switch port configuration looks like this: interface GigabitEthernet 1/0/10
switchport
switchport trunk encapsulation dot1q
switchport trunk allowed vlan 1,20,30,50
switchport trunk native vlan 20
switchport mode trunk
Which controller CLI command assigns its management interface to the native VLAN interface of the Cisco Catalyst
switch?
A. config interface vlan management 0
B. config interface vlan management 1
C. config interface vlan management 20
D. config interface vlan management 30
E. config interface vlan management 50
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10
An engineer has been asked to disable all OFDM rates in the wireless environment. What three rates should be disabled to fulfill this requirement? (Choose three.)
A. 2
B. 5.5
C. 6
D. 9
E. 11
F. 12
G. 18
200-355 pdf Correct Answer: ABE

QUESTION 11
Which type of authentication is used initially by a controller-based AP so that a guest client can get an IP address?
A. 802.1x
B. EAP
C. LEAP
D. open authentication
E. TLS
F. SSL
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 12
200-355 dumps
Refer to the exhibit. During deployment of a WLC on a customer site, the GUI log displayed this error message. What could be causing this error?
A. An access point has been assigned to an AP group that has reached maximum capacity.
B. An access point has been assigned to an AP group that has been deleted.
C. An access point has been removed from an AP group and assigned to a FlexConnect AP group.
D. An access point has been removed from an AP group and assigned to the default AP group.
200-355 vce Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 13
Which user group has the ability to configure all features of the Cisco WCS except the user accounts and passwords?
A. Admin
B. SuperUser
C. Root
D. Supervisor
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 14
An engineer is connecting a Cisco 5508 Wireless Controller that must connect to an out-of- band management network for management only. Which two options should be used for the port on the WLC and the cable type? (Choose two.)
A. service port
B. redundancy port
C. console port
D. distribution system port
E. straight through cable
F. crossover cable
G. console cable
200-355 exam Correct Answer: AE

QUESTION 15
How does an LWAP receive a configuration file?
A. It is configured manually.
B. It receives a configuration from the controller.
C. It automatically ships with a configuration.
D. It receives a configuration from a TFTP server.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 16
What two capabilities would be present on a wireless client device that supports CCXv3? (Choose two.)
A. WPA2
B. 802.1x
C. PEAP-MSCHAP
D. NAC
E. MFP
F. EAP-TLS
200-355 dumps Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 17
A customer mounted three new APs in a small business. After configuring the IP address, users still could not access the web through the new access points. What two configurations are needed to fix this? (Choose two.)
A. Security parameters
B. Gateway address
C. Service Set ID
D. Antenna option
E. EAP Authentication
F. Unique AP Name
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 18
Which two statements about the results of the Cisco WCS version 7.0 client troubleshooting tool are true? (Choose two.)
A. Results of Layers 1 – 3 are provided.
B. Results of only Layers 2 and 3 are provided.
C. Results of Layers 4 – 7 are provided.
D. The tabulated results vary depending on the client type.
E. Results are provided in a fixed four-part tabulation.
F. Results are provided in a fixed six-part tabulation.
200-355 pdf Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 19
Which open standard defines the combination of Extensible Authentication Protocol with Advanced Encryption Standard for providing strong wireless LAN client security?
A. IEEE 802.1X
B. IEEE 802.11i
C. WEP
D. WPA
E. WPA2
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 20
What two access methods are enabled by default on a Cisco WLC? (Choose two.)
A. HTTP
B. HTTPS
C. Telnet
D. SSH
E. VPN
F. SFTP
200-355 exam Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 21
200-355 dumps
Correct Answer:
200-355 dumps

QUESTION 22
To implement a more secure means of communication for voice and data, what technology successfully resists interference by utilizing a wider bandwidth than needed for the transmitting signal?
A. Spread Spectrum
B. Microwave
C. Extended U-NII2
D. ISM Bands
200-355 dumps Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 23
Which Cisco WCS tool allows you to view current reports, open specific types of reports, create and save new reports, and manage scheduled runs?
A. Reports menu
B. Reports launch page
C. Scheduled Run results
D. saved reports
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 24
Which two algorithms are available in RRM? (Choose two.)
A. coverage-hole detection
B. dynamic channel assignment
C. RSSI normalizer
D. transmitting channel expander
E. rogue detection
200-355 pdf Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 25
Which IEEE 802.11n client feature can combine the signal from multiple antennas and radio chains to improve SNR?
A. channel aggregation
B. spatial multiplexing
C. MAC layer efficiency
D. TxBF
E. MRC
F. MCS
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 26
Which two statements about the results of the Cisco WCS version 7.0 client troubleshooting tool are true? (Choose two.)
A. Results of Layers 1 – 3 are provided.
B. Results of only Layers 2 and 3 are provided.
C. Results of Layers 4 – 7 are provided.
D. The tabulated results vary depending on the client type.
E. Results are provided in a fixed four-part tabulation.
F. Results are provided in a fixed six-part tabulation.
200-355 vce Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 27
When using a Split MAC architecture, how many CAPWAP data tunnels will be built to an AP with four SSIDs across two VLANs?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 28
A network engineer notices that two mesh APs are having problems communicating. After reviewing the current radio configurations, it is noted that one AP is transmitting at 3 mW while the other is transmitting at 60 mW. How many decibels would the 3-mW AP need its power increased to match the 60-mW AP?
A. 8
B. 12
C. 13
D. 20
E. 57
200-355 exam Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 29
An 802.11g network is experiencing intermittent signal degradation and Spectrum Analyzer is being used to try and locate the problem. What two interferers would likely be identified? (Choose two.)
A. multiple cell phones
B. microwave oven
C. FM Radio
D. cordless phone
E. document scanner
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 30
You are sitting in an airport preparing to use a free WLAN. When you look at the connections in your Windows 7 wireless client, you see a network name and three boxes with a yellow shield. What does this mean?
A. You cannot connect to this WLAN.
B. An open ad hoc network is nearby.
C. The WLAN in the airport is open.
D. A secure ad hoc network is nearby.
E. A secure WLAN is in the airport.
F. You must provide a username and password to access the WLAN in the airport.
200-355 dumps Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 31
The network administrator wants an access point to be able to find rogue APs and to support location-based services. Which AP mode meets this requirement while having the radios up and preventing client connections?
A. monitor
B. sniffer
C. rogue-detection
D. H-REAP
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 32
The network administrator receives complaints of slow wireless network performance and performs a sniffer trace of the
wireless network in preparation for migration to 802.11n. The sample capture shows frames that contains AP beacons with NonERP_Present bit set to 1 and frames with RTS/CTS. Which two conclusions can be interpreted from these frames? (Choose two.)
A. The network is performing slowly because 802.11n clients are already mixed with 802.11g clients.
B. The network is performing slowly because 802.11b clients still exist in the network.
C. The network is performing slowly because a wireless client is incorrectly configured, which results in RF interference.
D. Possible 802.11b wireless clients are located only in the AP cell radius where the sniffer capture was performed.
E. Possible 802.11b wireless clients could be located anywhere in the wireless network.
200-355 pdf Correct Answer: BE

QUESTION 33
Which Cisco AnyConnect module allows troubleshooting for core AnyConnect problems?
A. telemetry
B. web security
C. VPN
D. NAM
E. DART
F. posture
G. CSSC
Correct Answer: E

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The following course is the recommended training for this exam:

  • Implementing Cisco Wireless Network Fundamentals (WIFUND) v1.0
  • Defining Cisco Wireless LAN Essentials (WLE) v1.1
  • Implementing Cisco Wireless Network Fundamentals (WIFUND) v1.0 – Instructor led training

Courses listed are offered by Cisco Learning Partners-the only authorized source for Cisco IT training delivered exclusively by Certified Cisco Instructors. Pass4itsure 200-355 dumps WIFUND CCNA Wireless certification study guide are the best tool to prepare for your 200-355 Implementing Cisco Wireless Network Fundamentals Certification exam.

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Pass4isture Latest and Most Accurate Cisco 648-232 Dumps Exam Q&As(1-38)

QUESTION 1
How many VoIP callers does WebEx audio support per meeting?
A. Up to 250 callers
B. Up to 500 callers
C. Up to 700 callers
D. Up to 1000 callers
648-232 exam Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 2
Which statement is true about screenshot captures in Enterprise IM?
A. Screenshot captures are not supported in group, third-party, or web IM sessions.
B. Screen captures and file transfers can be done at any time throughout the web IM session.
C. Screen captures need to be done by a third party.
D. Only administration has the rights to capture screenshots.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3
One of the challenges of online training is measuring class effectiveness. Which two tools does Cisco WebEx Training
Center use to measure this? (Choose two.)
A. visual attention indicator
B. polling
C. self-check quizzes
D. application sharing
648-232 dumps Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 4
Where does the WebEx node reside?
A. only in the DMZ
B. on the Enterprise Branch
C. anywhere on the network
D. near the Meeting Director

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 5
Which statement is true in regards to Cisco Unified MeetingPlace video?
A. MeetingPlace standards-based video and WebEx HQ/HD video do not interoperate.
B. Customers must run both MeetingPlace standards-based video and WebEx HQ/HD video for it to run properly.
C. Only the active speaker will show in the thumbnail.
D. MeetingPlace has not yet moved to high definition.
648-232 pdf Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 6
What is the difference between HQ and HD video?
A. HQ video is 360p, while HD video is 720p or higher.
B. The terms are interchangeable.
C. HQ video is 720p, while HD video is 1080p or higher.
D. HQ video is 360p, while HD video is 1080p or higher.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 7
What are the three ways that the WebEx Support Center improves key performance metrics for a business? (Choose three.)
A. increases first-call resolution percentage
B. lengthens average call handling time
C. drives in-person sales
D. shortens average wait time
E. improves customer satisfaction rating
F. increases time to resolution
648-232 vce Correct Answer: ADE

QUESTION 8
Which two video choices do customers have for Cisco Unified MeetingPlace hybrid deployment? (Choose two.)
A. WebEx high quality/high definition
B. HD.264

C. H.23, SIP, or SCCP devices
D. MP video
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 9
Which two deployment models are supported with Cisco Unified MeetingPlace Release 8.5? (Choose two.)
A. audio-only
B. reservationless meetings
C. WebEx teleconferencing
D. WebEx scheduling
E. WebEx video-only
648-232 exam Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 10
Which two of these factors should be considered when determining the size of a conference system? (Choose two.)
A. future growth
B. service levels
C. location of participants
D. CapEx
E. node capacity
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 11
Why should policy groups be avoided when creating policies?
A. Policy groups are not supported.
B. There are possible performance impacts if not used correctly.
C. Policy groups keep the majority of users assigned to the top level group.
D. There is a limit to the number of users in a policy group.
648-232 dumps Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 12
In which category does the Domain setting appear in the WebEx Administration Tool?
A. Customization

B. Enterprise Edition
C. Configuration
D. System Settings
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 13
Which statement is true about Cisco Unified MeetingPlace personal conferences?
A. There are no recordings.
B. Only a web participant list is shown.
C. Participants are able to talk without the host present.
D. The audio session and web session will display on the participants list on the meeting room interface.
648-232 pdf Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 14
Your primary site becomes unavailable. Which one of these features enables you to automatically and transparently move all collaboration activity to the backup site, ensuring a seamless user experience?
A. medianet
B. GSB
C. WebEx One-Click
D. GDM
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 15
WebEx Meeting Center allows users to escalate to a WebEx meeting. What is required to initiate an escalation?
A. WebEx host license
B. WebEx Meeting email invitation
C. acquaintance with all participants
D. WebEx Connect ID and password
648-232 vce Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 16
Which statement is true about active speaker?
A. Active speaker switching is automatic with third-party audio only.

B. Active speaker does not work for a site without integrated audio.
C. Active speaker switching is automatic with Cisco WebEx audio, third-party audio, and Cisco Unified MeetingPlace Release 8.5.
D. Active speaker only works with those who have video enabled on their WebEx.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 17
Which three host capabilities are available on WebEx for iPad? (Choose three.)
A. schedule, start, or cancel a meeting
B. invite attendees
C. pass presenter control
D. stream media from a PC
E. chat privately with attendees
F. run WebEx in the background
648-232 exam Correct Answer: ABC

QUESTION 18
Which one of these groups uses a specific transport protocol, such as RSVP, for signaling the metadata attributes and storing the information in the database?
A. consumers
B. producers
C. solution components
D. meeting clients
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 19
What are trusted domains external to WebEx Connect?
A. whitelist domains
B. CSV files
C. blacklist domains
D. XMPP domains
648-232 dumps Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 20
What does the global attentiveness meter monitor?
A. if the attendee has the correct audio equipment
B. whether or not attendees are using external applications during the event
C. pre- and post-event reporting
D. event success
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 21
Which customers would benefit from Cisco WebEx audio?
A. customers who do not need to join a meeting via their mobile device
B. customers who have more than 500 VoIP users
C. customers using meeting spaces
D. customers who need an integrated audio feature such as active speaker or hybrid VoIP
648-232 pdf Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 22
Why is the bandwidth requirement for sending video higher than the requirement for receiving video?
A. More information is sent within the multilayer frames.
B. Receiving the video data traffic is specific to local capabilities.
C. Raw data needs to be compressed.
D. The decoder gets the bitstream from the application layer.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 23
NBR functionality features the Meeting Zone architecture. What is the purpose of this?
A. allows storage of data, video, and audio streams in separate databases
B. allows local storage of data, video, and audio streams
C. allows storage of data, video, and audio streams in a single database
D. allows storage of an individual stream in a database
648-232 vce Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 24
What is the maximum capacity of participants for a Cisco WebEx Meeting Center and Training Center meeting?
A. 250
B. 300
C. 400
D. 500
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 25
What happens to the data if the node at the branch site goes down?
A. The data is typically rerouted over the private network.
B. Data from the WebEx node is sent to SIP.
C. The client tries to reconnect to the same collaboration bridge.
D. ASR will condense the information into one outbound stream.
648-232 exam Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 26
Which feature in Cisco WebEx Meeting Center allows you to collaboratively brainstorm ideas and take notes?
A. integrated audio and VoIP
B. whiteboard
C. Network-Based Recording
D. WebEx One-Click
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 27
If an Active Directory Federation Services customer chooses to enable IWA, what will WebEx Federated SSO use to
take the Windows login from the PC directly, so that end users do not need to sign in at all?
A. WebEx One-Click
B. Kerberos integration method
C. SAML
D. IDM
648-232 dumps Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 28
What is the number one customer complaint surveyed by technical support organizations?
A. cost of service
B. time that it takes to resolve issue
C. lack of resolution
D. time that it takes to reach a service representative
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 29
What should be enabled so that users do not have to enter their username and password?
A. SAML
B. IDP
C. Kerberos
D. Integrated Windows Authentication
648-232 pdf Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 30
Cloud-connected audio was designed for which customers?
A. customers with Cisco Unified MeetingPlace
B. customers with TSP audio
C. customers with less than 200 employees
D. enterprise and Global 3.0 customers
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 31
How do you share data from Cisco TelePresence WebEx OneTouch?
A. The host must pass the ball.
B. The user must connect to the VGA cable to become the active presenter.
C. Only the host can share data.
D. TelePresence is an audio-only platform and data cannot be shared.
648-232 vce Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 32
The current WebEx audio solution requires all audio to flow through the PSTN. How does this differ from cloud connected audio?
A. Customers connect via a VPN.
B. Customers connect with Cisco Unified Communications Manager.
C. Customers connect through a direct IP connection.
D. Customers connect via a media gateway.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 33
Which two platforms are the first to be combined to make up the WebEx Meetings shared SaaS platform?
A. Cisco TelePresence Callway and WebEx Connect
B. Connect and WebEx
C. Quad and Cisco TelePresence Callway
D. WebEx Quad
648-232 exam Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 34
Which new WebEx feature allows for the main video to switch automatically to the present speaker, using voice activation?
A. Cisco TelePresence
B. Cisco ActivePresence
C. multipoint video
D. WebEx One-Click
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 35
With regard to conference node redundancy, if a region requires 2400 G.711 ports, then how many nodes should it include?
A. Two nodes, each with a capacity of 1200 G.711 ports
B. Three nodes, each with a capacity of 1200 G.711 ports
C. One node with a capacity of 2400 G.711 ports
D. One node with a capacity of 1200 G.711 ports
648-232 dumps Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 36
Which statement is true about deploying WebEx OneTouch?
A. WebEx-enabled meetings do not use ports in the CTMS.
B. The WebEx plug-in is not used for WebEx OneTouch scheduling.
C. Outbound TCP 443 SSL connections are not able to pass through the system firewall.
D. WebEx OneTouch supports a proxy server.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 37
Which task cannot be done by the site administrator, but must be done by opening a request with the WebEx support team?
A. Update user accounts.
B. Deactivate user accounts.
C. Delete users.
D. Add users.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 38
You are late for a meeting and you missed the first half of the conversation. Which feature allows you to never miss the contents of a meeting?
A. Cisco ActivePresence
B. Network-Based Recording
C. hands-on labs
D. breakout sessions
Correct Answer: B

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QUESTION 1
Which router can be used for disk-in-access to the router CLI management purposes and does not usually pass normal network traffic?
A. AUX
B. Gigabit Ethernet
C. Fast Ethernet
D. Channelized serial
640-692 exam 
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2
Which two pieces of information does the show ip interface brief command display? (Choose two)
A. Encapsulation type
B. Interface status
C. Layer 2 address
D. Layer 3 address
E. Keep alive
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 3
The pins and RJ-45 are numbered from 1 through 8. With the material points of the plug facing toward you, pin 1 is the leftmost pin. Which two sets are looped on an RJ-45 T1 loopback plug? (Choose two)
A. Pins 1 and 4
B. Pins 1 and 7
C. Pins 2 and 5
D. Pins 2 and 8
E. Pins 1 and 5
F. Pins 2 and 7
640-692 dumps 
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 4
What are two ways to open Microsoft Notepad on a Windows-based computer? (Choose two)
A. Start > Run Enter Notepad and ‘Ink OK
B. Start > Control Panel > Notepad
C. Start > All Programs > Notepad
D. Start > All Programs > Accessories > Notepad
E. Start > All Programs > Microsoft Office > Notepad
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 5
Which three of the following statements are true? (Choose three.)
A. Each IP address has two parts: a network ID and a host ID
B. An IP subnet equals a broadcast domain.
C. An IPv4 address contains 36 bits
D. 172.16.1.18 is a Class A address
E. A subnet address is created by borrowing bits from the original host ID

640-692 pdf Correct Answer: ABE

QUESTION 6
What makes Avaya’s Fabric Connect fundamentally different to traditional IP networks?
A. It uses MPLS in new and more efficient ways
B. It uses OSPF to do the routing, based on the MAC address
C. It uses a new Avaya proprietary protocol to get away from IP with all its limitations
D. It enables a dynamic, agile and resilient network where Services need only be configured at the edge
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 7
How are Avaya’s Core Ethernet Switches differentiated from other Switches in the industry? (Select the two correct options)
A. They consistently implement our differentiating capabilities regardless of the ‘size’ of the network
B. They use a unique Clustering technology
C. They are smaller and lighter
D. They support the Spanning Tree Protocol
640-692 vce 
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 8
We are at the beginning of an emerging market defined by which two of the following key inflection points? (Select two)
A. Consumerization of IT
B. Client-server computing
C. ATM to the desktop
D. Cloud computing and networking
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 9
Select the three best reasons for giving administrators their own login and only the access privileges they need for their job. (Select three)
A. Increases the amount of software that needs to be installed
B. Increases network security
C. Helps to reduce downtime due to configuration errors
D. Allows provisioning changes to be tracked by individual user
640-692 exam 
Correct Answer: BCD

QUESTION 10
Your colleague is finalizing an Avaya Aura project with a customer. He found out that some of the existing non-Avaya edge switches will also need to be replaced and asks you “What kind of savings do Avaya Edge Switches offer over the competition?” Which three of the following reasons would you offer him? (Select three)
A. Avaya Edge Switches can run on DC power, which enable up to 30% energy savings.
B. Huge time savings because there is no need provision each phone and each edge switch manually.
C. It eliminates human error in ensuring that the correct VLAN and QoS setting get assigned to each device automatically.
D. When Miercom tested the ERS 4548GT-PWR series for example, they found that on D average it was 20-25% more energy efficient than the Cisco Catalyst 3750-X solution and the HP E4500 series solution and 50% more efficient than the Juniper EX 4200.
Correct Answer: ACD

QUESTION 11
While discussing a proposition with a prospective customer, they ask what the most important value propositions are that Avaya Data Center Solutions bring to the table. (Select the four most important value propositions)
A. Cost – Minimizing and Simplifying
B. Operations – Improving Time-to-Service
C. Performance – Applications are optimized
D. Availability – of business operations
E. Scalability – Built for Seamless Growth
F. Virtualization – of server capacity
640-692 dumps 
Correct Answer: CDEF

QUESTION 12
A customer asks you about the benefits of stacking Avaya’s Edge Switches. Which three of the following responses are correct? (Select three)
A. Stacks share a single Power Supply, therefore save costs
B. Stacks offer scalability. Units can be added as needed – up to eight
C. Stacks are managed as a single entity
D. Stacks protect against unit or cable failure with fail-safe stacking
Correct Answer: ACD

QUESTION 13
What makes Avaya’s Fabric Connect fundamentally different to traditional IP networks?
A. It uses OSPF to do the routing, based on the MAC address
B. It uses a new Avaya proprietary protocol to get away from IP with all its limitations
C. It uses MPLS in new and more efficient ways
D. It enables a dynamic, agile and resilient network where Services need only be configured at the edge
640-692 pdf 
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 14
Two things that help to make the IT department more cost efficient include? (Select two)
A. Automating repetitive tasks
B. Having multiple administrators share the same PC
C. Installing admin software on every admin computer
D. Reducing the learning of multiple user interfaces
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 15
Avaya has a distinct advantage in the market because, unlike other vendors, our Fabric solution is not exclusive to only the largest and most expensive products. Which Avaya products currently support for our Fabric Connect technology? (Select three)
A. ERS 3500 (typically used at the Branch Edge)
B. VSP 9000 and ERS 8800 (typically used in the Core)
C. ERS 4800 and VSP 4000 (typically used at the Wiring Closet Edge)
D. VSP 7000 (typically used at the Data Center Edge)

640-692 vce Correct Answer: ACD

QUESTION 16
Which three of the following characteristics represents the key highlights of ERS 4800 models? (Select three)
A. Stackable Chassis compatibility
B. Support for 1/10 Gig SFP+ uplinks
C. IPv6 forwarding of data traffic
D. Avaya Fabric Connect services to the wiring closet
Correct Answer: ACD

QUESTION 17
A customer is questioning the time savings provided by Avaya’s “Auto Unit Replacement”. He says that replacing the unit is only a small part of the whole process. Configuring the new unit can take a long time. How could you respond?
A. Explain that Miercom tested Avaya’s claim back in 2011 and stated “When replacing a unit in a Stack, the new unit was able to boot up, load the configuration and become operational in two minutes and 11 seconds’.
B. Make your point by saying that a well-trained Avaya engineer can replace a unit in just over ten minutes.
C. Make sure that the customer understands that “Auto Unit Replacement” only means the physical replacement of that unit and does not include configuration.
640-692 exam 
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 18
How does Avaya VENA Fabric Connect help to reduce time-to-service? (Select two)
A. Provisioning changes only need to be made to the edge of the network rather than to every device and link
B. It replaces multiple legacy protocols with a vastly simplified implementation, extending VLANs Fabric wide
C. It uses industry standard CLI commands
D. It uses MPLS in its core
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 19
Avaya Wireless solutions address the market with which three of the following key enablers: (Select three)
A. Emergency services
B. Removing a need for wireless transmission
C. Enabling BYOD
D. Relying on a carrier’s network for wireless
E. Next generation unified WLAN
640-692 dumps 
Correct Answer: ADE

QUESTION 20
Which Avaya Switch is ideally suited to deliver today’s pressing need for flexible, high-speed Ethernet connectivity in the high-performance Data Center Top-of-Rack (ToR) role?
A. V5P7000
B. ERS4800

C. VSP9000
D. ERS 5000
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 21
You have a large enterprise customer who requires a next-generation solution for a mission- critical Data Center that supports their requirements for multi-tenancy. Select the product that meets their requirements for a future-ready platform (40/100 Gigabit Ethernet) and cost- effectively facilitates service integration.
A. ERS8600
B. VSP9000
C. ERS8800
D. ER5 8300
640-692 pdf 
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 22
The Shortest Path Bridging (SPB) standard is supported by multiple vendors. Which of the following features are added to create Avaya’s Fabric Connect technology, our extended implementation of SPB? (Select three)
A. Cloud based virtualization
B. Unicast and Multicast support
C. High-availability at the Edge
D. Layer 3 support
Correct Answer: ACD

QUESTION 23 Titan Communications is a provider of cable TV, wireless, and wireline phone services. Its stated business objective is to transition from a product centric to a customer centric organization. What is the primary benefit that an SOA would provide Titan?
A. Improved business/IT alignment.
B. Improved quality of customer service
C. Consistency in behavior across customer channels
D. Agility to change processes or introduce new products quickly
640-692 vce 
Answer: A

QUESTION 24 Felicity Financial Services is a full service brokerage. Their primary business objective is to be the premier provider of tailored services to leading edge investors in areas of fixed income securities, vanilla and exotic derivatives, and whole loan investments. What is the primary benefit that an SOA would provide Felicity?
A. Improved business/IT alignment.
B. Improved quality of customer service
C. Consistency in information and behavior across channels
D. Agility to change processes or introduce new products quickly
Answer: D

QUESTION 25 Chasm, Inc., a clothing retailer, is executing on their SOA program. They have created a reference architecture, roadmap, constructed common services such as single-sign on, have identified project priorities. Some members of IT management are unaware of the SOA program, while other managers are unclear as to why they are undertaking it. One of these managers is responsible for deploying a new system in support of new promotions. Which of the SOA domains could most use improving (choose two)?
A. Business Process & Strategy
B. Architecture
C. Costs & Benefits
D. Building Blocks
E. Projects & Applications
F. Organization & Governance
640-692 exam 
Answer: CF

QUESTION 26 Great North Travel is a multi-national travel agency implementing an SOA program. The program was sponsored by the highest levels of both business and IT management, and is seen as a key tactic to their customer satisfaction improvement and new product introduction strategies. A number of in-progress initiatives are using various EAI technologies to perform integration, and there is no sharing of artifacts among these initiatives. Furthermore, these initiatives all seem to be developing separate, and overlapping, customer data stores. Which of the SOA domains could most use improving (choose two)?
A. Business Process & Strategy
B. Architecture
C. Costs & Benefits
D. Building Blocks
E. Projects & Applications
F. Organization & Governance
Answer: DF

QUESTION 27 Acme Builders, inc. has created an SOA roadmap, reference architecture and has exposed an initial handful of data access and shared business services. The development team currently handles all requests for support, diagnosis, and connectivity to these services through manual / ad hoc means. The number of consumers of these services is growing. Which two service lifecycle phases are currently the most appropriate to their SOA transformation program?
A. Monitor
B. Design
C. Expose D.
Build
E. Compose
F. Secure
640-692 dumps 
Answer: AF

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Pass4isture Latest and Most Accurate Cisco 300-180 Dumps Exam Q&As:
1. R. L. Rivers Company is trying to prevent purchasing from non-approved suppliers. Which method could be used to implement this policy?
A.Use Company (Vendor) status.
B.Create a Workflow approval process.
C.Use Application Designer to hide the Vendor field.
D.Use Purchase Contracts; make this a required field.
E.Set Security application to lock down Purchase Requisitions.
300-180 exam 
Answer: B
2. FlyNow Airlines performs materials management activities (Item, Inventory Balance tracking, Material Issues/Returns/Receipts) in an external ERP system. What integration points must be implemented in order to keep Maximo updated with the latest item balances and material usage costs?
A.Vendors, Item Master, Inventory

B.Item Master, Inventory, Receipts
C.Vendors, Chart of Accounts, Item Master
D.Item Master, Inventory, Receipts, Issues/Returns
Answer: D
3. Fleet Corporation requires a user dialog to display when a corrective maintenance work order is created and there is a Preventive Maintenance schedule that is due within the next seven days. What must be accomplished in order to address this requirement? (Choose TWO)
A.Extend the PM Class.
B.Set up a standard cron task. C.Set
the Alert Lead on the PM. D.Configure
the PM Alert Option. E.Create an Alert
Lead field on the PM.

300-180  dumps Answer: CD
4. FlyNow Airlines wants to display and store the name of the person entering a work order. What are the correct steps? (Choose THREE)
A.Run configdb.
B.Rebuild the maximo.ear file.
C.Import the changes to the xml file.
D.Add a display name field using the Application Designer.
E.Create a CROSSOVER domain and associate to the display name field.
Answer: ADE
5. FlyNow Airlines has a requirement to migrate active Job Plans from a legacy system to Maximo. The
  existing External Interface does not have a Job Plan inbound interface. Where are the references to the MBOs created?
A.External Systems
B.Integration Objects
C.Integration Interfaces
D.Database Configuration
300-180 pdf Answer: B
6. Gander Lumber Company wants to share item data across two business units in different countries. Each business unit has a different financial process. What organization and site structure is recommended?
A.one organization with two sites
B.two organizations with one site each
C.an item set and one organization with two sites
D.an item set and two organizations with one site each
Answer: D
7. What architecture does Maximo 6 use?
A.n-tier
B.1-tier

C.2-tier
D.client/server
300-180  vce 
Answer: A
8. BMI Corporation has a requirement to categorize work orders by an attribute so they can be viewed and managed as a group. How is this accomplished in Maximo? (Choose TWO)
A.Class B.Value
List C.Work Type
D.Service Group
E.Classifications
Answer: CE
9. Mitchell Corporation wants to define an entity that is routinely transferred into a storeroom at a scheduled interval or upon fault detection. This entity can be repaired and re-used. What is the term to describe this entity in Maximo?
A.Item
B.Asset

C.Location
D.Rotating Item
300-180  exam 
Answer: D
10. Gander Lumber Company needs to identify and notify the responsible person when warranties for critical assets are about to expire. What is used to achieve this client requirement?
A.Escalation
B.Email Listener
C.Purchase Order
D.Service License Agreement (SLA)
Answer: A
11. What is true about an asset? (Choose TWO)
A.can only have one meter
B.can be moved between sites C.must
be a member of an Item Set D.must be
associated with a location E.can be
moved between organizations

300-180 dumps Answer: BE
12. Acme Corporation has a requirement to send emails to administrators when certain assets are approaching the end of their lease. What application is required to send these emails?
A.Workflow
B.Escalation
C.Email Listener
D.SLA (Service Level Agreement)
Answer: B
13. What data can be shared across organizations? (Choose TWO)
A.PMs
B.Items
C.Assets
D.Job Plans
E.Safety Plans
300-180 pdf 
Answer: BD
14. What best describes the relationship between assets in Maximo?
A.networked with an asset having many parents and many children
B.hierarchical with an asset having only one parent but many children

C.location centric with assets grouped by the location to which they are assigned
D.system centric with all assets defined as components assigned to a logical system
Answer: B
15. The accountant on the client core team wants to know what costs Maximo tracks on work orders. What costs will Maximo track? (Choose THREE)
A.Tools
B.Labor
C.Asset
D.Services
E.Company
F.Work Order
300-180 vce 
Answer: ABD
16. What type of associations can be made between People and Assets? (Choose TWO)
A.User
B.Labor
C.Default
D.Primary
E.Custodian
Answer: AE
17. From where can an Asset inherit its specification attributes? (Choose TWO)
A.Item
B.Location
C.Spare parts
D.Classification
300-180 exam 
Answer: AD
18. What is the best use of a Workflow sub-process?
A.to start escalations
B.for assigning actions
C.as a common process
D.to apply custom classes
Answer: C
19. ABC Trucking Company has a requirement to define an entity that is uniquely identified and not typically moved. The entity may contain further entities that can be moved. What term is used to describe this entity in Maximo?

A.Item
B.Asset
C.System
D.Location
300-180 dumps 
Answer: D
20. During a business process workshop, the client makes the following statement: “We have an existing asset classification structure that needs to be supported in Maximo. How many classification hierarchy levels can Maximo support?” What is the correct response to the client’s question?
A.Ten
B.Five
C.Three
D.Unlimited
Answer: D
21.The exhibit represents a simple routed network. Node 7 is a Windows 2000 Professional machine that establishes a TCP communication with Node 10, a Windows 2003 Server. The routers are Cisco 2500 series running IOS 11.2. While working at Node 10, you run a packet capture. Packets received by Node 10, and sent from Node 7 will reveal which of the following combination of source IP and source Physical addresses:
A. Source IP address 10.0.10.115, Source Physical address for Node 7
B. Source IP address 50.0.50.1, Source Physical address for Node 7
C. Source IP address for Router D’s Int E0, Source Physical address for Node 7
D. Source IP address 10.0.10.115, Source Physical address Router D’s Int E0
E. Source IP addresses for both Nodes 7 and Router D’s Int E0, Source Physical address for both Nodes 7 and Router D’s Int E0.
300-180  pdf Answer: D
22.You have implemented an IPSec policy, using only AH. You are analyzing your network traffic in Network Monitor, which of the following statements are true about your network traffic.?
A. You will not be able to view the data in the packets, as it is encrypted.
B. You will not be able to identify the upper layer protocol.
C. You will be able to view the unencrypted data in the packets.
D. You will be able to identify the encryption algorithm in use.
E. You will not be able to view the packet header.
Answer: C
23.In order to perform promiscuous mode captures using the Wireshark capture tool on a Windows Server 2003 machine, what must first be installed?
A. IPv4 stack
B. IPv6 stack

C. WinPcap
D. Nothing, it will capture by default
E. At least two network adapters
300-180 vce Answer: C
24.You are configuring the rules on your firewall, and need to take into consideration that some clients in the network are using automatic addressing. What is the IP address range reserved for internal use for APIPA in Microsoft networks?
A. 169.254.0.0 /4
B. 169.254.0.0 /16
C. 169.254.0.0 /8
D. 169.254.0.0 /0
E. 168.255.0.0 /16
Answer: B
25.If you capture an 802.11 frame, and the ToDS bit is set to zero and the FromDS bit is set to zero, what type of WLAN is this frame a part of?
A. Mesh
B. Broadcast
C. Infrastructure
D. Hierarchical

E. Ad Hoc
300-180 exam Answer:E
26.There are several options available to you for your new wireless networking technologies, and you are examining how different systems function. What transmission system uses short bursts combined together as a channel?
A. Frequency Hopping Spread Spectrum (FHSS)
B. Direct Sequence Spread Spectrum (DSSS)
C. Lamar Anthell Transmission (LAT)
D. Digital Band Hopping (DBH)
E. Digital Channel Hopping (DCH)
Answer: A
27.You have just installed a new Intrusion Detection System in your network. You are concerned that there are functions this system will not be able to perform. What is a reason an IDS cannot manage hardware failures?
A. The IDS can only manage RAID 5 failures.
B. The IDS cannot be programmed to receive SNMP alert messages.
C. The IDS cannot be programmed to receive SNMP trap messages.
D. The IDS cannot be programmed to respond to hardware failures. E.
The IDS can only inform you that an event happened.
300-180 dumps Answer: E

28.For the new Snort rules you are building, it will be required to have Snort examine inside the content of the packet. Which keyword is used to tell Snort to ignore a defined number of bytes before looking inside the packet for a content match?
A. Depth
B. Offset
C. Nocase
D. Flow_Control
E. Classtype
Answer: B
29.You have recently taken over the security of a mid-sized network. You are reviewing the current configuration of the IPTables firewall, and notice the following rule: ipchains -A input -p TCP -d 0.0.0.0/0 12345 -j DENY What is the function of this rule?
A. This rule for the output chain states that all incoming packets from any host to port 12345 are to be denied.
B. This rule for the input chain states that all incoming packets from any host to port 12345 are to be denied.
C. This rule for the input chain states that any TCP traffic from any address destined for any IP address and to port 12345 is to be denied.
D. This rule for the output chain states that any TCP traffic from any address destined for any IP address and to port 12345 is to be denied.
E. This rule for the input chain states that all TCP packets inbound from any network destined to any network is to be denied for ports 1, 2, 3, 4, and 5.
300-180 pdf Answer: C

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Pass4isture Latest and Most Accurate Microsoft 70-466 Dumps Exam Q&As:

QUESTION 1
You need to configure per-user security authentication for reporting against the Sales cube.What should you do? (Each correct answer presents part of the complete solution. Choose all that apply.)
A. Install PowerPivot.
B. Create Service Principal Names (SPNs).
C. Configure account delegation.
D. Set up the Unattended Service Account.
70-466 exam Correct Answer: AB
Section: [none]
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
* From scenario:
/ Administrative staff from around the world will produce sales reports with Microsoft Excel 2010 based on the Sales cube.
/ Security requirements
When possible, the system must use Windows authentication for all database connections.
 The system must prevent users from querying data from outside of their region. The system must allow certain users to query data from multiple regions.
B: To use Kerberos authentication with SQL Server requires both the following conditions to be true: The client and server computers must be part of the same Windows domain, or in trusted domains. A Service Principal Name (SPN) must be registered with Active Directory, which assumes the role of the Key Distribution Center in a Windows domain. The SPN, after it is registered, maps to the Windows account that started the SQL Server instance service. If the SPN registration has not been performed or fails, the Windows security layer cannot determine the account associated with the SPN, and Kerberos authentication will not be used.
QUESTION 2
You need to configure the partition storage settings to support the reporting requirements.Which partition storage setting should you use?
A. DirectQuery
B. In-Memory
C. MOLAP
D. Low-latency MOLAP
E. Scheduled MOLAP
F. High-latency MOLAP
Correct Answer: D
Section: [none]
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 3
You need to develop the executive reports. What should you do? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose all that apply.)
A. Remove default values from all parameters.
B. Implement dataset query parameters to filter data.
C. Set the data source to use Windows authentication.
D. Set the data source to use stored Windows credentials.
E. Provide default values for all parameters.

F. Implement dataset filters to filter data.
70-466 dumps Correct Answer: BDE
Section: [none]
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
* From scenario:
Deliver executive reports that are parameterized and rendered from report snapshots
BD: The data source that the shared dataset is based on has Prompt or Windows Integrated credentials.
QUESTION 4
You need to modify the Sales Regions hierarchy to meet the reporting requirements.Which S5A5 feature should you use?
A. Calculation
B. Translation
C. Action
D. Perspective
Correct Answer: B
Section: [none]
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 5
You need to configure SSRS to meet the maximum number of snapshots requirement. What should you do? (Each answer presents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.)
A. In SharePoint Central Administration, set the System Snapshot Limit option to 5.
B. In Reporting Services Configuration Manager, set the System Snapshot Limit option to 5.
C. For each report, set the Limit number of snapshots option to 5.
D. Use PowerShell to set the System Snapshot Limit option to 5.
70-466 pdf Correct Answer: AC

Section: [none]
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
A: Reporting Services Service Applications are managed from SharePoint Central Administration. The Management and Properties pages allow you to update the configuration of the service application as well as common administration tasks.
Note:
* From scenario: The system must support report snapshots. The default maximum number of retained snapshots must not exceed five.
* System Snapshot Limit
Default is -1, which is no limit. Set a site-wide default value for the number of copies of report history to retain. The default value provides an initial setting that establishes the number of snapshots that can be stored for each report. You can specify different limits in property pages for specific reports. Not B: Use the Reporting Services Configuration Manager to configure a Reporting Services Native Mode installation. If you installed a report server by using the files-only installation option, you must use this tool to configure the server before you can use it. If you installed a report server by using the default configuration installation option, you can use this tool to verify or modify the settings that were specified during setup. Not D: SQL Server 2012 supports Windows PowerShell, which is a powerful scripting shell that lets administrators and developers automate server administration and application deployment.
QUESTION 6
You need to configure per-user security authentication for reporting against the Sales cube.What should you do? (Each correct answer presents part of the complete solution. Choose all that apply.)
A. Create Service Principal Names (SPNs).
B. Configure account delegation.
C. Enable forms-based authentication.
D. Enable mixed-mode authentication.
70-466 vce Correct Answer: AD
Section: [none]
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
* From scenario:
/ Administrative staff from around the world will produce sales reports with Microsoft Excel 2010 based on the Sales cube.
/ Security requirements

When possible, the system must use Windows authentication for all database connections. The system must prevent users from querying data from outside of their region. The system must allow certain users to query data from multiple regions.
A: To use Kerberos authentication with SQL Server requires both the following conditions to be true: The client and server computers must be part of the same Windows domain, or in trusted domains. A Service Principal Name (SPN) must be registered with Active Directory, which assumes the role of the Key Distribution Center in a Windows domain. The SPN,
after it is registered, maps to the Windows account that started the SQL Server instance service. If the SPN registration has not been performed or fails, the Windows security layer cannot determine the account associated with the SPN, and Kerberos authentication will not be used.
D: For windows authentication we need to enable mixed-mode authentication

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Exam Code: 300-101
Exam Name: Implementing Cisco IP Routing
Q&As: 484

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QUESTION 3
An engineer has configured a router to use EUI-64, and was asked to document the IPv6 address of the router. The router has the following interface parameters:
mac address C601.420F.0007
subnet 2001:DB8:0:1::/64
Which IPv6 addresses should the engineer add to the documentation?
A. 2001:DB8:0:1:C601:42FF:FE0F:7
B. 2001:DB8:0:1:FFFF:C601:420F:7
C. 2001:DB8:0:1:FE80:C601:420F:7
D. 2001:DB8:0:1:C601:42FE:800F:7
300-101  exam Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Extended Unique Identifier (EUI), as per RFC2373, allows a host to assign iteslf a unique 64-Bit IP Version 6 interface identifier (EUI-64). This feature is a key
  benefit over IPv4 as it eliminates the need of manual configuration or DHCP as in the world of IPv4. The IPv6 EUI-64 format address is obtained through the 48-bit MAC address. The Mac address is first separated into two 24-bits, with one being OUI (Organizationally Unique Identifier) and the other being NIC specific. The
16-bit 0xFFFE is then inserted between these two 24-bits to for the 64-bit EUI address. IEEE has chosen FFFE as a reserved value which can only appear in EUI- 64 generated from the EUI-48 MAC address. Here is an example showing how the Mac Address is used to generate EUI.

300-101 dumps

Next, the seventh bit from the left, or the universal/local (U/L) bit, needs to be inverted. This bit identifies whether this interface identifier is universally or locally administered. If 0, the address is locally administered and if 1, the address is globally unique. It is worth noticing that in the OUI portion, the globally unique addresses assigned by the IEEE has always been set to 0 whereas the locally created addresses has 1 configured. Therefore, when the bit is inverted, it maintains its original scope (global unique address is still global unique and vice versa). The reason for inverting can be found in RFC4291 section 2.5.1.
QUESTION 4
For security purposes, an IPv6 traffic filter was configured under various interfaces on the local router. However, shortly after implementing the traffic filter, OSPFv3 neighbor adjacencies were lost. What caused this issue?
A. The traffic filter is blocking all ICMPv6 traffic.
B. The global anycast address must be added to the traffic filter to allow OSPFv3 to work properly.
C. The link-local addresses that were used by OSPFv3 were explicitly denied, which caused the neighbor relationships to fail.
D. IPv6 traffic filtering can be implemented only on SVIs.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
OSPFv3 uses link-local IPv6 addresses for neighbor discovery and other features, so if any IPv6 traffic filters are implemented be sure to include the link local address so that it is permitted in the filter list.
QUESTION 5
What is the purpose of the autonomous-system {autonomous-system-number} command?
A. It sets the EIGRP autonomous system number in a VRF.
B. It sets the BGP autonomous system number in a VRF.
C. It sets the global EIGRP autonomous system number.
D. It sets the global BGP autonomous system number.
300-101 dumps Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
To configure the autonomous-system number for an Enhanced Interior Gateway Routing Protocol (EIGRP) routing process to run within a VPN routing and forwarding (VRF) instance, use the autonomous-system command in address-family configuration mode. To remove the autonomous-system for an EIGRP routing process from within a VPN VRF instance, use the no form of this command. autonomous-system autonomous-system-number no autonomous-system autonomous-system-number
QUESTION 6
Which type of traffic does DHCP snooping drop?
A. discover messages
B. DHCP messages where the source MAC and client MAC do not match
C. traffic from a trusted DHCP server to client
D. DHCP messages where the destination MAC and client MAC do not match
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The switch validates DHCP packets received on the untrusted interfaces of VLANs with DHCP snooping enabled. The switch forwards the DHCP packet unless any of the following conditions occur (in which case the packet is dropped): The switch receives a packet (such as a DHCPOFFER, DHCPACK, DHCPNAK, or DHCPLEASEQUERY packet) from a DHCP server outside the network or firewall. The switch receives a packet on an untrusted interface, and the source MAC address and the DHCP client hardware address do not match. This check is performed only if the DHCP snooping MAC address verification option is turned on. · The switch receives a DHCPRELEASE or DHCPDECLINE message from an untrusted host with an entry in the DHCP snooping binding table, and the interface information in the binding table does not match the interface on which the message was received. The switch receives a DHCP packet that includes a relay agent IP address that is not 0.0.0.0. To support trusted edge switches that are connected to untrusted aggregation-switch ports, you can enable the DHCP option-82 on untrusted port feature, which enables untrusted aggregation- switch ports to accept DHCP packets that include option-82 information. Configure the port on the edge switch that connects to the aggregation switch as a trusted port. 

QUESTION 7
Refer to the exhibit.
300-101 dumps

Which command only announces the 1.2.3.0/24 network out of FastEthernet 0/0?
A. distribute list 1 out
B. distribute list 1 out FastEthernet0/0
C. distribute list 2 out
D. distribute list 2 out FastEthernet0/0
300-101 pdf Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Access list 2 is more specific, allowing only 1.2.3.0/24, whereas access list 1 permits all 1.0.0.0/8 networks. This question also asks us to apply this distribute list only to the outbound direction of the fast Ethernet 0/0 interface, so the correct command is “distribute list 2 out FastEthernet0/0.”

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Exam Code: 210-260
Exam Name: Implementing Cisco Network Security
Q&As: 310

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Question: 40
Amy is a sales person for your company and she earns her pay based on commission. Amy’s pay is known as variable pay or what other term?
A. Fixed pay
B. Commission only
C. Base pay
D. At risk pay
210-260 exam Answer: D
Explanation:
Amy’s pay is a variable pay because her level of income is based on how well she sells. When an employee is paid a variable pay it is also known as “at risk pay.”Answer option C is incorrect. Base pay is a fixed amount of pay for doing a job. Amy’s pay varies and isn’t fixed. Answer option A is incorrect. Fixed pay isn’t technically a HR Professional term, though it’s often
used with base pay. Answer option B is incorrect. Commission only pay is a slang to describe “at risk pay” or variable pay.
Question: 41
Jennifer is the HR Professional for her organization. Her supervisor, Dan, has asked Jennifer to find the Compa-ratio for Sam. Sam earns $40,000 as a mechanic, but the midpoint for a mechanic is actually $50,000. What is the Compa-ratio for Sam?
A. -$10,000
B. 80 percent
C. 125 percent
D. $10,000
Answer: B
Explanation:
The compa-ratio helps organizations determine how closely an employee’s pay is in synch with market. You must also consider the length of employment, service, skills, and other factors in the decision for compensation. The ratio is found by dividing the employees’ salary ($40,000) by the midpoint for the role ($50,000) for the ratio of 80 percent. Answer options A, D, and C are incorrect. These are not valid calculations for the compa-ratio.

Question: 42
You are a HR Professional for your organization. You have presented an idea to your staff. The staff members then discuss their ideas based on your presentation. All of the ideas are recorded and collectively ranked from most important to least important (or some other ordinal scale). Through this process a selection or forecast can be made for the organization. What forecasting technique have you used in this scenario?
A. Nominal group technique
B. Ratio analysis
C. Brainstorming
D. Delphi Technique
210-260 dumps Answer: A
Explanation:
The nominal group technique is a facilitated workshop to present an idea, allow brainstorming of additional ideas, and then the solutions are ranked by the group. A forecast can then be created based on the outcome of the exercise. Answer option C is incorrect. This is more than just brainstorming as brainstorming does not begin with a presented idea or a ranking of ideas to predict an outcome. Answer option D is incorrect. The Delphi Technique uses rounds of anonymous surveys to build
consensus. Answer option B is incorrect. Ratio analysis is a mathematical forecasting technique using two or more variables to predict a likely outcome.
Question: 43
Which of the following are narrative methods of appraisal that require managers to describe the employee’s performance? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose three.
A. Daily review
B. Field review
C. Essay review
D. Critical incident review
Answer: D, B, and C
Explanation:
The narrative methods of appraisal that require managers to describe the employee’s performance are as follows:
1.Critical incident review
2.Field review
3.Essay review
The critical incident review requires that during the review period supervisors make notes of successful and unsuccessful performance issues for each employee. A field review appraisal may be conducted by someone other than the supervisor. This can be a person from outside the organization. In the essay review, the reviewer has to write a short description about each employee’s performance during the year. Answer option A is incorrect. There is no such narrative method of appraisal as daily review.
Question: 44
There are seven stages of internal consulting that an HR Professional must be familiar with. Consider this scenario: Frances has developed an HR training plan for her organization. The plan is comprehensive, aggressive, and will provide organizational development for all levels of employees in the company. Frances is presenting her plan to her organization’s management. What level of internal consulting is Fran participating in?
A. Reviewing, transitioning, and evaluating the project
B. Gaining agreement to the project plan
C. Presenting the findings and recommendations
D. Exploring the situation
210-260 pdf Answer: B
Explanation:
Frances is meeting with the management to gain their agreement on the project plan. The plan has not yet been approved.
Answer option C is incorrect. This choice is tempting, but as the plan is not yet approved, this choice is invalid. Answer option A is incorrect. This is the final stage of internal consulting; since the plan has not yet been implemented, this choice is incorrect. Answer option D is incorrect. Exploring the situation is the first stage of internal consulting. Once the HR Professional moves past this phase, the plan is developed and presented for approval.

Question: 45
Heather’s organization works with a labor union work force. Heather has heard rumors that the union has been trying to create a hot cargo agreement with a supplier. What is a hot cargo agreement?
A. It’s an agreement that an employer will stop doing business with a non-union business.
B. It’s a threat that the union will slow down processing orders for non-union shops.
C. It’s an agreement to rush orders for union-based businesses.
D. It forces suppliers to join the union.
Answer: A
Explanation:
A hot cargo agreement is an agreement an employer makes to stop doing business with other, usually non-union based businesses. Answer options D, B, and C are incorrect. These are’nt valid definitions of a hot cargo agreement.

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Exam Name: Introducing Cisco Data Center Technologies
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QUESTION NO: 21
Which one of the following file types cannot be imported to Visual RF Plan?
A. dwg
B. jpg
C. tiff
D. gif
E. bmp
200-155 exam 
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 22
Aruba’s recommended best option for authenticating guest users is:
A. Temporary employee account
B. Kerberos
C. Captive Portal
D. Windows logon
E. Email address
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 23
Aliases are used in firewall policies to:
A. Apply firewall polices to ports in a stateful manner
B. Make firewall rules act like traditional ACLs
C. Ease readability and maintainability for source and destination addresses
D. Are a part of roles, not the firewall
E. Are applied as an action in a rule
200-155 dumps 
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 24
An Aruba AP 125 is capable of supporting which of the following network types? (Select three)
A. 802.11b
B. 802.11n
C. 802.11a
D. 802.11w
E. 802.11p
Answer: A,B,C
QUESTION NO: 25
What does SET ORIENTATION option do in the Visual RF Plan edit tool?
A. Set the horizontal plane on each floor
B. Give the option to resize a floor
C. Sets the North/South orientation of the building
D. Sets the proper vertical floor plan alignment
E. Allows the planner to set the directional antenna orientation
200-155 pdf 
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 26
Which of the following is true of an Aruba Mobility Controller acting as a layer 3 router? (Select two):
A. The Mobility Controller is the client’s default router.
B. The Mobility Controller acts as a bridge.
C. DHCP can be provided by the network infrastructure or the Mobility Controller.
D. The Mobility Controller supports BGP.
E. OSPF must be configured
Answer: A,C
QUESTION NO: 27
Which of these is NOT a valid license type? (Select two)
A. RFprotect
B. Application Security
C. Base AOS
D. PEF NG
E. Content Security
200-155 vce 
Answer: B,C
QUESTION NO: 28
In a Campus AP deployment, an access point has been provisioned statically with an IP address, subnet mask, default gateway and Controller IP address. Control Plane Security has been disabled. Both the Controller and the Access Point are using 6.1 firmware. If a 3rd party firewall is placed in between the AP and controller, what traffic would need to be allowed for the AP to boot successfully and broadcast Wireless Networks? (Select two)
A. DHCP
B. PAPI
C. GRE
D. SNMP
E. NTP
Answer: B,C
QUESTION NO: 29
Web based captive portal can be authenticated by the following types of databases: (Select two)
A. Internal
B. PEAP
C. RADIUS
D. Kerberos
E. Tacacs
200-155 exam 
Answer: A,C
QUESTION NO 30
Why should the number of services on a server be limited to required services?
A. Every open service represents a potential vulnerability.
B. Closed systems require special connectivity services.
C. Running extra services makes machines more efficient.
D. All services are inherently stable and secure.
E. Additional services make machines more secure.
Answer:A
QUESTION NO 31
intrusion detection involves comparing traffic to known characteristics of malicious traffic, known as attack signatures.
A. Pattern matching B.
Statistical anomaly C.
Behavioral analysis D.
Host
E. Network
Answer:A
QUESTION NO 32
Which of the following calculations is used when selecting countermeasures?
A. Annualized Rate of Occurrence
B. Single Loss Expectancy
C. Annualized Loss Expectancy
D. Business Impact Analysis
E. Business Continuity Plan
200-155 dumps Answer: C

QUESTION NO 33
Which tool can be used to view the logical and physical topology of an MDS SAN?
A. Switch Manager
B. Device Manager
C. EWS
D. Fabric Manager
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 34
What describes External DAS?
A. Host provided content addressed objects
B. Host provided data addressing
C. Array provided global access volumes

D. Array provided device management
200-155 pdf 
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 35
What are the five core elements of the data center infrastructure?
A. Applications, Databases, JBOD, Networks, Storage Arrays
B. Applications, Databases, Servers/Operating Systems, SAN, JBOD
C. Applications, Databases, Servers/Operating Systems, DAS, NAS
D. Applications, Databases, Servers/Operating Systems, Networks, Storage Arrays
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 36
Which technology supports high availability of data?
A. Clustering
B. Flushing
C. Journaling
D. Caching
200-155 vce Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 37
Which task is an example of monitoring the health of a data center object?
A. Viewing rates of data transmission of all disks
B. Detecting when a file system has reached critical utilization
C. Examining the operational status of a device port
D. Listing the servers attached to a particular storage array
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 38
A company has two SAN islands approximately one mile apart. The company wants to link both sites over its public WAN connection. The fabrics must remain separate but allow device access from either site. Which protocol is recommended to connect the sites?
A. FCIP
B. FCP
C. iFCP
D. iSCSI
200-155 exam 
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 39
What are the three key data center management activities that are interdependent?
A. Manageability, Integrity, Cost
B. Provisioning, Monitoring, Reporting
C. Installation, Configuration, Problem Solving
D. Scalability, Accessibility, Security
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 40
A Copy on First Access replica has been created. The source devices are being used for production operations. When is data copied from the source to the target?
A. A read or write issued for the first time to a location on the source
B. A write issued for the first time to a location on the source
C. All I/Os issued to a location on the source
D. A read issued for the first time from a location on the source
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 41
Which statement describes logical volumes?
A. May consist of interleaved physical disks
B. May be a partition of a larger physical disk
C. May be presented to a host as several larger physical disks
D. May consist of several file systems
200-155 dumps 
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 42
What is a physical component of a storage environment?
A. Bus
B. Application
C. Operating system
D. Protocol
Correct Answer: A

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Exam Name: Upgrading Your Skills to MCSA Windows Server 2012
Q&As: 427

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QUESTION 15
You have a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012.
You promote Server1 to a domain controller.
You need to view the service location (SRV) records that Server1 registers in DNS.
What should you do on Server1?
A. Open the Netlogon.dns file.
B. Run ipconfig /displaydns.
C. Run Get-DnsServerDiagnostics.
D. Open the SrC. sys file.
70-417  exam 
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Netlogon.dns – If you are using non-Microsoft DNS servers to support Active Directory, you can verify SRV
locator resource records by viewing Netlogon.dns. Netlogon.dns is located in the %systemroot%\System32
\Config folder. You can use a text editor, such as Microsoft Notepad, to view this file.
The first record in the file is the domain controller’s Lightweight Directory Access Protocol (LDAP) SRV
record.
References:
QUESTION 16
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named adatum.com. The domain contains a member
server named Server1 and a domain controller named DC2. All servers run Windows Server 2012 R2.
On DC2, you open Server Manager and you add Server1 as another server to manage.
From Server Manager on DC2, you right-click Server1 as shown in the exhibit. (Click the Exhibit button.)

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You need to ensure that when you right-click Server1, you see the option to run the DHCP console.
What should you do?
A. On DC2, install the Role Administration Tools.
B. On DC2 and Server1, run winrmquickconfig.
C. In the domain, add DC2 to the DHCP Administrators group.
D. On Server1, install the Feature Administration Tools.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
You need to install the feature administrations tools for the dhcp . Need to install DHCP management tools
on DC2 then you will have access to dhcp management.
QUESTION 17
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains three
servers named Server1, Server2, and Server3.
You create a server group named ServerGroup1.
You discover the error message shown in the following exhibit. (Click the Exhibit button.)

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You need to ensure that Server2 can be managed remotely by using Server Manager.
What should you do?
A. On Server2, run the netdom.exe command.
B. On Server2, run the net stop netlogon command, and then run the net start netlogon command.
C. On DC1, run the Enable-PSSessionConfigurationcmdlet.
D. On Server2, modify the membership of the Remote Management Users group.
70-417 dumps 
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
This is a security issue. To be able to access Server2 remotely through Server Manager the user need to
be a member of the Remote Management Users group.
References:
Training Guide: Installing and Configuring Windows Server 2012, Chapter 3 Server Remote Management,
Lesson 1: Server Manager, p. 90-92
QUESTION 18
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. All servers run Windows Server
2012 R2. The domain contains a server named Server1.
You install the Windows PowerShell Web Access gateway on Server1.
You need to provide administrators with the ability to manage the servers in the domain by using the
Windows PowerShell Web Access gateway.
Which two cmdlets should you run on Server1? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose
two.)

A. Install PswaWebApplication
B. Add PswaAuthorizationRule
C. Set-WSManlnstance
D. Set-WSManQuickConfig
E. Set-BCAuthentication
Correct Answer: AB
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Configure PowerShell Web Access Gateway using the following PowerShell Cmdlet.
Install-PswaWebApplication UseTestCertificate
Running the cmdlet installs the Windows PowerShell Web Access web application within the IIS Default
Web Site container. The cmdlet creates the infrastructure required to run Windows PowerShell Web
Access on the default website
Add-PswaAuthorizationRule
Adds a new authorization rule to the Windows PowerShell Web Access authorization rule set.
Parameters:
ComputerGroupName
ComputerName
ConfigurationName
RuleName
UserGroupName
UserName
Credential (Windows Server 2012 R2 and later)
References:
QUESTION 19
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a server
named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 and a server named Server2 that runs Windows Server
2008 R2 Service Pack 1 (SP1). Both servers are member servers. On Server2, you install all of the software required to ensure that Server2 can be managed remotely from Server Manager. You need to ensure that you can manage Server2 from Server1 by using Server Manager. Which two tasks should you perform on Server2? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose two.)
A. Run the Enable-PSRemotingcmdlet.
B. Run the Configure-SMRemoting.psl script.
C. Run the Enable-PSSessionConfigurationcmdlet.
D. Run the Set-ExecutionPolicycmdlet.
E. Run the systempropertiesremote.exe command.
70-417 pdf 
Correct Answer: BD
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
To configure Server Manager remote management by using Windows PowerShell On the computer that
you want to manage remotely, open a Windows PowerShell session with elevated user rights.
In the Windows PowerShell session, type the following, and then press Enter. Set-ExecutionPolicy –
ExecutionPolicyRemoteSigned (D) Type the following, and then press Enter to enable all required firewall
rule exceptions.
  Configure-SMRemoting.ps1 -force enable (B)
QUESTION NO: 20
Which two features are customizable in backup reports? (Select two.)
A. page orientation
B. report header
C. report font
D. page size
E. report footer
Answer: B,E
QUESTION NO: 21
Which two configuration changes can be made in order to reduce network traffic within a Central Administration Server (CAS) environment? (Select two.)
A. keep the catalog files centralized
B. increase the interval time for job status updates
C. ensure that jobs created on the Managed Media Server (MMS) are monitored from the CAS
D. ensure jobs logs and histories are being sent to the CAS less frequently
E. enable some alerts to be rolled up to the CAS less frequently
70-417 vce 
Answer: B,D
QUESTION NO: 22

A backup administrator has noticed that backups to a tape drive are running slow. What should be
done to improve performance?
A. enable the option ‘Write SCSI pass-through mode’, which allows Symantec Backup Exec 2010
to write directly to the drive
B. configure the buffer size to be a higher value than what is currently configured
C. set the Remote Agent Priority to High which dedicates more CPU cycles for the backup
D. lower the buffer count on the tape device to ensure data is written to the device more quickly
Answer: B

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[Hottest Questions] High Success Rate Microsoft 70-486 Dumps Exam Practice Test Youtube Study for Developing ASP.NET MVC 4 Web Applications

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Exam Code: 70-486
Exam Name: Developing ASP.NET MVC 4 Web Applications
Q&As: 136

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Pass4isture Latest and Most Accurate Microsoft 70-486 Dumps Exam Q&As:

QUESTION 56
Which of the following is a level for maturing the Quality Assurance Processes?
A. Controlling
B. Verification
C. Business Requirements
D. Relational Requirements
70-486 exam Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 57
The purpose of the ___________ is to define the work activities that will accomplish the business
objectives.
A. Management Plan
B. Business Plan
C. Quality Plan
D. Work Plan
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 58
It is very easy to distinguish between accidental loss and intentional loss, with respect to security activities.
A. True
B. False
70-486 dumps Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 59
Which of the following should be kept under version control?
A. Code
B. Procedures
C. Plans
D. Operating Systems
E. All of the above
Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 60
COQ is also known as ‘Price of Non-Conformance’.
A. True
B. False
70-486 pdf Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 61
Customer surveys are:
A. Objective Baselines
B. Subjective Baselines
C. Predictive Baselines
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 62
When making a judgment while compliance monitoring, experience plays a larger role when:
A. The standard is objective
B. The standard is subjective
C. Standards should not be a factor
D. None of the above
70-486 vce Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 63
Which one of the following best describes “mission statement” for a company or an organization?
A. How will we show success?
B. How will we achieve objectives?
C. Why do we exist?
D. What is our long term program?
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 64
If a programmer follows a series of steps to write a computer program, the programmer is following:
A. A Workbench
B. A Procedure
C. A Standard
D. Entry Criteria
E. Exit Criteria
70-486 exam Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 65
When dealing with a complaint, to get on the same physical wavelength with a client you should:
A. Stand if they are standing
B. Provide your undivided attention
C. Physically show interest
D. React positively
E. All of the above
Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 66
Which one of the following is NOT a component of CMMi maturity levels?
A. Common Practices
B. Specific Goals
C. Process Areas

D. Generic Goals
70-486 dumps Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 67
If your IT organization adopted function points as the means to measure program size, this would enable
you to estimate programming staff because you would know a program of 200 function points is twice as
large as a program of 100 function points. This type of data is called:
A. Nominal Data
B. Ordinal Data
C. Interval Data
D. Ratio Data
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 68
Unit testing, system testing and user acceptance testing are examples of:
A. Verification
B. Validation
70-486 pdf Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 69
The core activity of Process Definition is not only defining the process but also:
A. Performing walkthroughs of the process before publication
B. Piloting the process
C. Marketing the process
D. All of the above
E. None of the above
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 70
In statistics, the mean and median are called:
A. SPC
B. Measures of Central Tendency
C. Variance
D. Standard Deviation
E. Control Chart
70-486 vce Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 71
One of the attributes of an effective security control is dividing responsibility for any event among two or
more people. This security attribute is called:
A. Simplicity
B. Fail Safe
C. Open Design
D. Separation of Privilege
E. Psychological Acceptability
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 72
Which of the following statements completely interprets the ‘Act’ phase of PDCA cycle?
A. Correct the abnormality and prevent its recurrence
B. Correct the abnormality
C. Prevent the recurrence of abnormality
D. Follow quality control activities
70-486 exam Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 73
Management tools:
A. Have a Mathematical Focus
B. Facilitate Decision Making
C. Require Automation
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 74
Tracking the status of each requirement throughout the development and test phases is called:
A. Requirements Checking
B. Requirements Verification
C. In-Process Review
D. Requirements Tracing
E. Phase-End Review
70-486 dumps Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 75
Acceptance Testing is normally designed and performed by:
A. The Developer
B. The Quality Control Manager
C. The Product Development Manager
D. The User
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 76
In control charts, accepted practice uses a width of _________________________around the population
mean (?) to establish the control limits.
A. Plus or minus one standard deviation
B. Plus or minus two standard deviations
C. Plus or minus three standard deviations
D. Plus or minus four standard deviations
E. Plus or minus five standard deviations
70-486 pdf Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 77
The acronym CMM stands for:
A. Continuous Maturity Model
B. Computer Methods and Models

C. Capability Maturity Model
D. Change Management Model
E. Continuous Maturity Methods
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 78
Out of the three critical aspects of Toyota’s JIT concept, which one is the most important?
A. Reduction of Waste
B. Perfect Quality
C. Employee Involvement
D. None of the above
70-486 vce Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 79
Security passwords should be changed:
A. On a regular basis
B. Whenever somebody leaves an area
C. When password compromise is suspected
D. All of the above
E. None of the above
Correct Answer: D

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