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Cisco 820-605 ExamInformation
820-605 CSM Certification: Cisco Customer Success Manager Specialist Duration: 90 minutes (55 – 65 questions) Available language: English
Cisco 820-605 Dumps
Cisco 820-605 Exam Video
Cisco Customer Success Manager Specialist 820-605 Exam Practice Questions
QUESTION 1 Which outcome is the best that a Customer Success Manager can achieve for a customer? A. adoption of all the licenses and features the customer purchased leading to expansion to improve the customer\\’s business B. full adoption of all the technologies the customer purchased C. removing barriers so the customer achieves the fastest time to value possible from the solution they purchased D. ensuring the customers deployment teams and end users are trained and ready to adopt the technology Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 2 The customer plans to relocate to a new building in the existing area to reduce cost. The company wants to retain talent through this transition. Which two business outcomes are critical to the company\\’s success? (Choose two.) A. risk management B. employee satisfaction C. cost efficiency D. credibility E. sustainability Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 3 Which two actions are critical when communicating with executives? (Choose two.) A. Keep services as a primary topic B. Focus on the value achieved C. Incorporate the sales team\\’s plan D. Target executive priorities E. Focus on technical details Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 4 A Customer Success Manager must deliver high touch customer success experience. Which customer engagement model must be used? A. Utilize a digital engagement so all your customers experience the touch of customer success B. Utilize people to focus on the elite customers for a 1:1 or 1:few onsite customer success experience C. Utilize the service team to form a larger internal team to lead the engagement D. Utilize people to focus your customers in a 1:many customer success experience Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 5 In which stage does the Customer Success Manager initially validate stakeholders? A. onboarding B. deployment C. utilization D. purchase Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 6 Which of these is included in a success plan? A. confidential customer information B. customer business outcomes C. customer HR processes D. services cost Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 8 In an onboarding session, introductions to new stakeholders were made, new KPIs were collated, and desired use cases were discussed. Which step does the Customer Success Manager take next? A. Document the session, stakeholder interests, and metrics for leadership B. Create a success plan to be reviewed with the customer at the next review meeting C. Provide technical configuration for development D. Discuss new opportunities and new products to purchase Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 9 Which method is directly associated with evaluating a customer outcome? A. milestones B. key performance indicators C. metrics D. benchmarks Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 10 Throughout the customer lifecycle, opportunities can occur that lead to customers becoming advocates for the Customer Success Manager\\’s company. Which two opportunities can lead to advocacy? (Choose two.) A. moments of success when the customer acknowledges progress B. successful contract renewal C. green health scores over intermittent time periods D. continuing results based on the unexpected value E. results that are not measurable Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 11 You are a Customer Success Manager and have just been assigned a strategic new account. Which course of action is the best to help you prepare for the first customer introduction meeting? A. Engage with the account team to understand the expansion opportunities B. Perform a deep analysis of all the sales orders to the past 24 months C. Build an understanding of your customer\\’s business and market trends and priorities D. Speak the internal contacts to understand the customer sentiment and outstanding escalations Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 12 From a Customer Success perspective, which reason to monitor your customer\\’s health is the most important? A. It provides the opportunity to address any changes in the customer\\’s experience or actions around the solution B. It allows the customer to identify unused licenses so they can be addressed via a service improvement plan C. Understanding your customer\\’s health directly enables renewals D. It gives the customer valuable insight so they can automatically renew critical on time Correct Answer: C Reference: https://www.gainsight.com/customer-success-best-practices/how-to-score-customer-health/
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QUESTION 1 Which two steps should be performed before installing HyperFlex? (Choose two.) A. Determine and download recommended installer OVA version required B. Complete the pre-installation checklist. C. Determine and download recommended hypervisor D. Download service profile templates E. Determine and download virtual machine OS! required Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 2 How much memory is reserved for the controller VM in the HX220c? A. 48 GB B. 12 GB C. 24 GB D. 78 GB Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 3 Which two components are automatically configured from the information provided to the HyperFlex installer? (Choose two ) A. the network B. operating system deployment preparation C. controller VM configuration D. application dependencies E. server firmware policy Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 4 Which uses for the system drive in an HX node are valid? (Choose two.) A. Migration B. Saving and restoring program state C. Virtual machine store D. Garbage collection E. Write Cache Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 5 What does the letter W indicate when selecting CPUs for your HX Node (le. HX-CPU 8170M)? A. support of 1.5 TB/socket of memory B. support for all flash drive array C. support for NVMe D. support for 768 TB/socket of memory Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 6 How many DIMMs are supported per memory channel in the Cisco UCS M5 server? A. 2 B. 1 C. 8 D. 4 Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 7 What is the minimum amount of memory required for an HX node? A. 192 GB B. 64 GB C. 32 GB D. 128 GB Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 8 Refer to the exhibit.
Which VIC model supports two wire connectivity to each Fabric Interconnect? A. VIC 1227 B. VIC 1557 C. VIC 1387 D. VIC 1457 Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 9 What is the maximum size of an HXDP cluster running 3.5.1? A. 64 nodes B. 8 nodes C. 16 nodes D. 32 nodes Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 10 Which three advantages of using the M5 generation of HyperFlex servers over the M4 generation are valid? (Choose three ) A. Support for Cisco VICs B. Multiple GPUs C. M.2 SATA drive support for faster disk I/O D. DDR3 memory E. Microsoft Hyper-V support F. NVMe support Correct Answer: CEF
QUESTION 11 If a GPU card is Installed in HyperFlex nodes before a cluster is created, which action can be used to automatically build the service profile in UCS Manager? A. Check Run UCS Manager Configuration during the cluster creation process B. Check the extended memory option during the cluster creation process C. Check the GPU workflow during the cluster creation process D. Check the administrative workflow option during the cluster creation process Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 12 Which two processes does Disk Failure initiate? (Choose two) A. The affected cluster is marked as unhealthy and placed into standby mode B. If the replication factor is sufficient for the failure, the system is marked as unhealthy but remains operational C. Distributed pooled data is migrated off nodes to master data store. D. Performance is almost unaffected Sets 1-minute timer until self-healing starts. E. Self-healing mode is initiated and data replication factors applied. Correct Answer: BD
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Exam Name: Implementing a Data Warehouse with Microsoft SQL Server 2012
Updated: Sep 18, 2017
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Question No : 15 – (Topic 1)You are designing an enterprise star schema that will consolidate data from three
independent data marts. One of the data marts is hosted on SQL Azure.
Most of the dimensions have the same structure and content. However, the geography
dimension is slightly different in each data mart.
You need to design a consolidated dimensional structure that will be easy to maintain while
ensuring that all dimensional data from the three original solutions is represented.
What should you do? A. Create a junk dimension for the geography dimension. B. Implement change data capture. C. Create a conformed dimension for the geography dimension. D. Create three geography dimensions. 070-463 exam Answer: C Question No : 16 – (Topic 1) To facilitate the troubleshooting of SQL Server Integration Services (SSIS) packages, a
logging methodology is put in place.
The methodology has the following requirements:
The deployment process must be simplified.
All the logs must be centralized in SQL Server.
Log data must be available via reports or T-SQL.
Log archival must be automated.
You need to configure a logging methodology that meets the requirements while minimizing
the amount of deployment and development effort.
What should you do? A. Open a command prompt and run the gacutil command. B. Open a command prompt and execute the package by using the SQL Log provider and
running the dtexecui.exe utility. C. Add an OnError event handler to the SSIS project. D. Use an msi file to deploy the package on the server. E. Configure the output of a component in the package data flow to use a data tap. F. Run the dtutil command to deploy the package to the SSIS catalog and store the
configuration in SQL Server. G. Open a command prompt and run the dtexec /rep /conn command. H. Open a command prompt and run the dtutil /copy command. I. Open a command prompt and run the dtexec /dumperror /conn command. J. Configure the SSIS solution to use the Project Deployment Model. K. Create a reusable custom logging component and use it in the SSIS project. Answer: J Explanation: Question No : 17 – (Topic 1)You are developing a 070-463 dumps SQL Server Integration Services (SSIS) project that copies a large amount of rows from a SQL Azure database. The project uses the Package Deployment Model. This project is deployed to SQL Server on a test server.You need to ensure that the project is deployed to the SSIS catalog on the production
server.What should you do? A. Open a command prompt and run the dtexec /dumperror /conn command. B. Create a reusable custom logging component and use it in the SSIS project. C. Open a command prompt and run the gacutil command. D. Add an OnError event handler to the SSIS project. E. Open a command prompt and execute the package by using the SQL Log provider and
running the dtexecui.exe utility. F. Open a command prompt and run the dtexec /rep /conn command. G. Open a command prompt and run the dtutil /copy command. H. Use an msi file to deploy the package on the server. I. Configure the SSIS solution to use the Project Deployment Model. J. Configure the output of a component in the package data flow to use a data tap. K. Run the dtutil command to deploy the package to the SSIS catalog and store the
configuration in SQL Server. Answer: I Explanation: References: Question No : 18 – (Topic 1) You are developing a SQL Server Integration Services (SSIS) package.
To process complex scientific data originating from a SQL Azure database, a custom task
component is added to the project.You need to ensure that the custom component is deployed on a test environment
correctly.What should you do?
A. Add an OnError event handler to the SSIS project. B. Open a command prompt and run the gacutil command. C. Configure the SSIS solution to use the Project Deployment Model. D. Open a command prompt and run the dtexec /dumperror /conn command. E. Configure the output of a component in the package data flow to use a data tap. F. Open a command prompt and execute the package by using the SQL Log provider and
running the dtexecui.exe utility. G. Open a command prompt and run the dtexec /rep /conn command. H. Run the dtutil command to deploy the package to the SSIS catalog and store the
configuration in SQL Server. I. Use an msi file to deploy the package on the server. J. Open a command prompt and run the dtutil /copy command. K. Create a reusable custom logging component and use it in the SSIS project. Answer: B Reference:
QUESTION 19 At which checkpoint does the rewrite () perform the TWURL modification?
A. Client In
B. Client Out
C. Server In
D. Server Out 070-463 pdf Correct Answer: B QUESTION 20 When creating a TCP tunnel service in explicit mode, you must also configure a forwarding host?
B. False Correct Answer: A QUESTION 21 In regards to authentication the ProxySG does not support origin-redirects with CONNECT method.
B. False 070-463 vce Correct Answer: A QUESTION 22 What are the available actions for any given category, when defining ProxyClient content filtering
configuration? (Choose all that apply)
(c) Temporanily Allow
A. a & b only
B. a, b & c only
C. a, b & d only
D. All of the above Correct Answer: A QUESTION 23 Which statement is correct about WWW-Authenticate header?
A. It is request header used only with Basic Authentication to send username and password to a proxy or
a Web server
B. It is a request header used to send credentials
C. It is a response header used with HTTP 401 status code to negotiate method of authentication and
send NTLM challenge to the client.
070-463 exam Correct Answer: B QUESTION 24 The authentication mode origin-ip-redirect allows an administrator to assign a Time To Live (TTL) for the
surrogate credentials. Meanwhile the authentication mode origin- cookie-redirect does not provide this
B. False Correct Answer: B QUESTION 25 What is the meaning of the metacharacter \ (backslash) in regular expressions?
A. escape character
B. any character except newline
C. zero or character
D. zero or more character 70-463 dumps Correct Answer: A QUESTION 26 When configuring forwarding in PoxySG, what are the possible load balancing methods? (Choose all that
(a) Round Robin
(b) Fastest ICMP Reply
(c) Least Connections
(d) Least Delay
A. a & c only
B. b & d only
C. a & d only
D. b & c only Correct Answer: A QUESTION 27 ICAP responses may be cached on a ProxySG, i.e, for some Web requests ICAP processing may be
completed without involving ProxyAV
B. False 070-463 pdf Correct Answer: A QUESTION 28 Which of the following are true when enabling the early intercept attribute for a proxy service?
(Choose all that apply)
(a) It is automatically enabled when the detect protocol attribute is enabled.
(b) The ProxySG completes the three-way TCP handshake with the client before establishing a connection
to the upstream server.
(c) It can be used with any protocol.
A. a & c only
B. a & b only
C. c only
D. All of the above
Correct Answer: A QUESTION 29 When implementing failover with ProxySG appliances, configurations and policies on the master are
automatically replicated to members of the failover group.
B. False 70-463 vce Correct Answer: A
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QUESTION 30 Which principle of training best describes a previously active client, who has been ill and bed-ridden for a
prolonged period of time?
D. Progression 070-410 exam Correct Answer: C QUESTION 31 If you are palpating the thumb side of the forearm in the wrist area, what pulse are you checking?
D. Radial Correct Answer: D QUESTION 32 What is the correct order of the regions of the spinal column, from superior to inferior?
A. Cervical, lumbar, thoracic, sacral and coccyx.
B. Coccyx, sacral, lumbar, thoracic, and cervical.
C. Cervical, thoracic, lumbar, coccyx, and sacral.
D. Cervical, thoracic, lumbar,sacral, and coccyx. 70-410 dumps Correct Answer: D QUESTION 33 Which muscle is an antagonist of the hamstrings?
D. Sartorius Correct Answer: B QUESTION 34 Which of the following physiological changes does NOT occur when a client improves aerobic capacity?
A. The muscles will be able to extract more oxygen from the blood. B. Total lung volume will increase in proportion to the total accumulated time of high-intensity exercise.
C. The oxygen carrying capacity of the blood will increase.
D. The amount of air the lungs can take in will increase because of increases in the rate and depth of
breathing. 070-410 pdf Correct Answer: B QUESTION 35 As the intensity of dynamic exercise increases, which of the following sets of responses occurs?
A. Heart rate, systolic blood pressure, and diastolic blood pressure increase.
B. Heart rate and systolic blood pressure increase, diastolic pressure remains unchanged.
C. Heart rate and systolic blood pressure increase, stroke volume and cardiac output remain the same.
D. Stroke volume decreases, heart rate and cardiac output increase. Correct Answer: B QUESTION 36 From a seated position, with dumbbells to the sides, raising the dumbbells laterally to shoulder level with
elbows slightly flexed, exercises primarily the _______:
A. bicep brachii and latisimus dorsi
B. posterior deltoid
C. anterior deltoid and triceps brachii
D. middle deltoid. 070-410 vce Correct Answer: D QUESTION 37 What is the major muscle used to flex the hip joint?
A. Vastus lateralis
C. Biceps femoris
D. Gluteus maximus Correct Answer: B QUESTION 38 A subject with elbows held at 90 degrees of flexion is handed a 150 lb (68.1kg) barbell. Even though he
exerts maximal tension, the barbell causes the joint angle to increase to 170 degrees. Which one of the
following describes the muscle action during the extension?
A. Isotonic concentric
B. Isotonic eccentric
C. Isokinetic concentric
D. Isokinetic eccentric 070-410 exam Correct Answer: B QUESTION 39 Type II muscle fibers:
A. Have a high capacity to generate energy through the electron transport system.
B. Have a high capacity to generate energy from fat.
C. Are recruited at a higher percentage of maximum force than Type I fibers.
D. Have high endurance capabilities. Correct Answer: C QUESTION 40 Which of the following is a normal blood pressure (BP) response to aerobic exercise?
A. Both systolic and diastolic BP increase proportionately to increases in workload.
B. Systolic BP increases and diastolic BP decreases.
C. Systolic BP increases proportionately to increases in workload and diastolic BP remains unchanged or
D. Systolic and diastolic BP both decrease at the onset of exercise, then increase in proportion to the
increase in intensity. 70-410 dumps Correct Answer: C QUESTION 41 Which rotator cuff muscle abducts the arm?
D. Medial deltoid Correct Answer: B QUESTION 42 Which energy system has the highest capacity for ATP production?
B. Rapid glycolysis
C. Slow glycolysis
D. Oxidative phosphorylation 070-410 pdf Correct Answer: D QUESTION 43 What plane divides the body into upper and lower sections?
D. Median Correct Answer: C QUESTION 44 When performing neck flexion in the sagittal plane, which of the following exercises best mimics that
C. Bicep curl
D. Leg curl 070-410 vce Correct Answer: B QUESTION 45 Under which of the following circumstances would you expect to see the highest rise in blood lactate? A. During maximal exercise lasting between 60 and 180 seconds in the untrained client
B. Prior to treadmill walking in the cardiac patient
C. During maximal exercise lasting between 60 and 180 seconds in the athlete
D. After moderate intensity cycling exercise in the client with Type 2 diabetes Correct Answer: C QUESTION 46 Typical movements in the weight room such as a biceps curl using free weights and leg press actions
using a machine are best described as ____________ muscle actions.
D. isotonic 070-410 exam Correct Answer: D QUESTION 47 The latissimus dorsi acts as the prime mover during the concentric phase of which of the following
A. lat pulldown
B. flat bench press
C. lateral raise
D. incline bench press Correct Answer: A QUESTION 48 Which of the following bones facilitate the movement of the chest during both 70-410 dumps inspiration and expiration?
D. scalene Correct Answer: A QUESTION 49 Which of the following is characterized as a plane (uniaxial) joint?
A. Coxal (hip)
C. Radiocarpal (wrist)
D. Sacroiliac Correct Answer: D QUESTION 50 Which of the following indicates the reason why a female who is pregnant should avoid exercise in the
supine position after the first trimester?
A. obstruction of arterial blood flow
B. risk of orthostatic hypotension due to obstructed venous return
C. obstruction of the diaphragm D. risk of decreased oxygen consumption due to pressure on the uterus 070-410 pdf Correct Answer: B QUESTION 51 As a response to a progressive resistance training program, which of the following demonstrates the
predominant contribution to an increase in the cross-sectional area of a muscle?
A. atrophy and possibly hypertrophy
B. hyperplasia and possibly hypertrophy
C. atrophy and possibly hyperplasia
D. hypertrophy and possibly hyperplasia Correct Answer: D QUESTION 52 What is an appropriate precaution and/or modification for exercising in higher ambient temperatures?
A. Take salt tablets.
B. Drink eight ounces of water once per hour.
C. Select proper loose-fitting, lightweight clothing.
D. Train in clothes designed to trap and hold body heat. 070-410 vce Correct Answer: C QUESTION 53 What is the intensity recommendation for the initial conditioning stage of a cardiovascular program?
A. 10% to 20% of heart rate reserve
B. 20% to 30% of heart rate reserve
C. 40% to 60% of heart rate reserve
D. 60% to 85% of heart rate reserve Correct Answer: C QUESTION 54 Approximately how long is the initial conditioning phase of a cardiovascular training program?
A. Four weeks
B. Eight weeks
C. Twelve weeks
D. Sixteen weeks 070-410 exam Correct Answer: A
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An engineer is configuring dynamic Call routing and DN learning between two Cisco Unified CM and Two Cisco Unified CME systems. Which two configuration steps are required for all this feature to work? (Choose two) A. Configure routers A and to use a different autonomous system number for DN routing B. Configure routers A and to use EIGRP for IP Routing C. Configure Cisco Unified CM A+B as service advertisement framework clients D. Configure router A and to use OSPF for IP Routing E. Configure Cisco Unified CME A+B as service advertisements forwarders F. Configure routers A and to use the same autonomous system number for DN Routing Correct Answer: CF
QUESTION 2 On a Cisco Unified Communications Manager SIP trunk with a single remote device and OPTIONS ping feature enabled, which response from the SIP remote peer causes the trunk to be marked as “Out of Service”? A. 401 Unauthorized B. 505 Version Not Supported C. 406 Not Acceptable D. 408 Request Timeout E. 500 Server Internal Error Correct Answer: D 408 Request Timeout Couldn\\’t find the user in time. The server could not produce a response within a suitable amount of time, for example, if it could not determine the location of the user in time. The client MAY repeat the request without modifications at any later time References: http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/List_of_SIP_response_codes
QUESTION 3 Refer to the exhibit. Which description of a User Agent Server that sends this message this message is true?
A. The UAS sends this message in response to an earlier ACK received. B. It is not possible for the UAS to send this message. C. The UAS sends this message in response to an earlier PRACK received. D. The UAS sends this single message in response to an earlier INVITE that contains PRACK. E. The UAS sends this message in response to an earlier INVITE received. Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 4 Which Cisco Unified Contact Center Express data store contains user scripts, grammars, and documents? A. configuration data store B. repository data store C. agent data store D. historical data store E. script data store Correct Answer: B Unified CCX applications might use auxiliary files that interact with callers, such as scripts, pre-recorded prompts, grammars, and custom Java classes. Depending on each implementation, Unified CCX applications use some or all of the following file types. The Unified CCX Server\\’s local disk prompt, grammar, and document files are synchronized with the central repository during Unified CCX engine startup and during run-time when the Repository datastore is modified.
QUESTION 5 Which four presence statuses are supported in Cisco IM and Presence federation with Microsoft Lync server? (Choose four.) A. offline B. on the phone C. busy D. idle E. invisible F. in a meeting G. available H. away Correct Answer: ABGH
QUESTION 6 Which three issues prevent a customer from seeing the presence status of a new contact in their Jabber contact list? (Choose three.) A. incoming calling search space on SIP trunk to IMandP B. IMandP incoming ACL blocking inbound status C. subscribe calling search space on SIP trunk to IMandP D. PC cannot resolve the FQDN of IMandP E. Owner user ID is not set on device. F. Primary DN is not set in end user configuration for that user. G. Subscriber calling search space is not defined on user\\’s phone. Correct Answer: BCD References: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/voice-unified-communications/unified-presence/97443-cupscupc-ts.html
QUESTION 7 Which two Cisco IOS multipoint video conferencing profiles are supported on the Cisco Integrated Router Generation 2 with packet voice and video digital signal processor 3? (Choose two.) A. homogeneous B. rendezvous C. guaranteed-audio D. scheduled E. guaranteed-video F. ad-hoc Correct Answer: AC Q. What video conferences are supported? A. Three types of video profiles are supported: homogeneous conferences (video switching), heterogeneous conferences (video mixing), and guaranteed audio conferences (best-effort video). References: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/products/collateral/unified-communications/voice-video-conferencing-isrrouters/qa_c67-649850.html
QUESTION 8 Drag and drop the logical components of a traditional SDN infrastructure into the correct order. Similar to open system interconnection model (OSI model), working your way up from the network infrastructure layer. Select and Place:
QUESTION 9 Which Cisco Unified Communications Manager deployment model for clustering over the IP WAN mandates a primary and a backup subscriber at the same site? A. multisite with centralized call processing B. multisite with distributed call processing C. local failover D. remote failover E. remote failover with Cisco Unified Communications Manager Express as SRST Correct Answer: C Clustering Over the IP WAN You may deploy a single Unified CM cluster across multiple sites that are connected by an IP WAN with QoS features enabled. This section provides a brief overview of clustering over the WAN. For further information, refer to the chapter on Call Processing. Clustering over the WAN can support two types of deployments:?ocal Failover Deployment Model Local failover requires that you place the Unified CM subscriber and backup servers at the same site, with no WAN between them. This type of deployment is ideal for two to four sites with Unified CM. ?emote Failover Deployment Model Remote failover allows you to deploy primary and backup call processing servers split across the WAN. Using this type of deployment, you may have up to eight sites with Unified CM subscribers being backed up by Unified CM subscribers at another site. References: http://www.cisco.com/en/US/docs/voice_ip_comm/cucm/srnd/4x/42models.html
QUESTION 10 Users report that they are unable to control their Cisco 6941 desk phone from their Jabber client, but the Jabber client works as a soft phone. Which two configuration changes allow this? (Choose two) A. Assign group “Standard CTI Allow Control of Phones supporting Connected Xfer and Conf” to the user. B. Set the End User page to the Primary Extension on the desk phone. C. Set the Owner User ID on the desk phone. D. Assign group “Standard CTI Enabled User Group” to the user. E. Assign group “Standard CTI Allow Control of Phones Supporting Rollover Mode” to the user. Correct Answer: AE
QUESTION 11 Refer to the exhibit. An engineer is analyzing a SIP call between the Cisco Unified Communications Manager on the left to Cisco Unified Border Element on the right. Based on information displayed, which behavior can be determined from the exhibit?
A. The midcall-signaling block command is configured on Cisco Unified Border Element so re-invites are not consumed. B. The call has interworking issues where the user is not experiencing audio. C. The call is terminated because the 200 OK messages are not arriving to Cisco Unified Communications Manager. D. The mid-call re-invite negotiated for Call Hold/Resume supplementary service. Correct Answer: DA. The midcall-signaling block command is configured on Cisco Unified Border Element so re-invites are not consumed. B. The call has interworking issues where the user is not experiencing audio. C. The call is terminated because the 200 OK messages are not arriving to Cisco Unified Communications Manager. D. The mid-call re-invite negotiated for Call Hold/Resume supplementary service. Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 12 Which entity signs a Cisco IP phone LSC? A. Godaddy.com Enrollment Server B. Manufacturer Certificate Authority C. Registration Authority D. Certificate Authority Proxy Function E. Cisco Certificate Authority Correct Answer: D By default, LSC certificates are not installed on Cisco IP phones. Cisco IP phones that are required to use LSC certificates must be provisioned to allow TLS transactions before deployment in the field. LSC certificates can be provisioned to the Cisco IP phones through the Certificate Authority Proxy Function (CAPF) process. This process is completed using TLS and USB tokens coupled with the CTL client. Moreover, the Cisco ASA Phone Proxy feature can serve LSC certificates to the Cisco IP phones. Cisco IP phones will only work with the Cisco ASA Phone Proxy and will not establish secure connectivity with the Cisco Unified Communications Manager.
QUESTION 13 Refer to the exhibit.
An engineer mapped the enhance location call admission control configuration to match the physical links and bandwidth allowances. Assuming no other calls are consuming any bandwidth, how many G722 calls are allowed between site A and site G? A. 5 B. 7 C. 12 D. 25 E. 37 Correct Answer: B
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QUESTION 1 Which two statements are true regarding Cisco ISE? (Choose two.) A. The major business outcomes of ISE are enhanced user experience and secure VLAN segmentation. B. ISE plays a critical role in SD-Access. C. Without integration with any other product, ISE can track the actual physical location of a wireless endpoint as it moves. D. ISE can provide data about when a specific device connected to the network. E. An ISE deployment requires only a Cisco ISE network access control appliance. Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 2 Which two activities should occur during an SE\\’s demo process? (Choose two.) A. determining whether the customer would like to dive deeper during a follow up. B. asking the customer to provide network drawings or white board the environment for you. C. identifying which capabilities require demonstration. D. leveraging a company such as Complete Communications to build a financial case. E. highlighting opportunities that although not currently within scope would result in lower operational costs and complexity. Correct Answer: CE
QUESTION 3 Which node enables Cisco ISE to share contextual information on a device with Cisco Stealthwatch? A. Monitoring and Troubleshooting Node B. pXGrid Controller C. Policy Administration Node D. Inline Posture Node Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 4 Which two options help you sell Cisco ISE? (Choose two.) A. Downplaying the value of pxGrid as compared to RESTful APIs B. Explaining ISE support for 3rd party network devices C. Showcasing the entire ISE feature set D. Referring to TrustSec as being only supported on Cisco networks E. Discussing the importance of custom profiling Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 5 Which two Cisco ISE use cases typically involve the highest level of implementation complexity? (Choose two.) A. Guest and wireless access B. Software-defined access C. Device management D. Asset visibility E. Software-defined segmentation Correct Answer: BE
QUESTION 6 How would Cisco ISE handle authentication for your printer that does not have a supplicant? A. ISE would not authenticate the printer as printers are not subject to ISE authentication. B. ISE would authenticate the printer using 802.1X authentication. C. ISE would authenticate the printer using MAB. D. ISE would authenticate the printer using web authentication. E. ISE would authenticate the printer using MAC RADIUS authentication. Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 7 Which are two Cisco ISE that benefits our customers? (Choose two.) A. provides network access control B. helps them stop and contain real-time threats C. enables them to set traffic priorities across the network D. helps them accelerate application deployment and delivery Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 8 Which component of the SD-Access fabric is responsible for communicating with networks that are external to the fabric? A. edge nodes B. control plane nodes C. intermediate nodes D. border nodes Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 9 Which three key differentiators that DNA Assurance provides that our competitors are unable match? (Choose three.) A. Support for Overlay Virtual Transport B. On-premise and cloud-base analytics C. Apple Insights D. VXLAN support E. Proactive approach to guided remediation F. Network time travel Correct Answer: BEF
QUESTION 10 Which feature is supported on the Cisco vEdge platform? A. single sign-on B. IPv6 transport (WAN) C. 2-factor authentication D. license enforcement E. reporting F. non-Ethernet interfaces Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 11 Which two options are primary functions of Cisco ISE? (Choose two.) A. providing VPN access for any type of device B. providing information about every device that touches the network C. enabling WAN deployment over any type of connection D. automatically enabling, disabling, or reducing allocated power to certain devices E. enforcing endpoint compliance with network security policies F. allocating resources Correct Answer: BE
QUESTION 12 Which element of the Cisco SD-WAN architecture facilitates the functions of controller discovery and NAT traversal? A. vBond orchestrator B. vManage C. vSmart controller D. vEdge Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 13 Which option will help build your customers platform during the discovery phase? A. business case B. detailed design C. POV report D. high-level design E. PO Correct Answer: A
Where do I find an az-103 PDF or any dump to download? Here you can easily get the latest Microsoft Azure az-103 exam dumps and az-103 pdf! We’ve compiled the latest Microsoft az-103 exam questions and answers to help you save most of your time. Microsoft az-103 exam “Microsoft Azure Administrator” https://www.pass4itsure.com/az-103.html (Q&As:304). All exam dump! Guaranteed to pass for the first time!
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Starting on May 1, 2019, you only need to pass Exam AZ-103 to earn this certification. This new exam combines the skills covered in AZ-100 and AZ-101 (which retired on May 1, 2019), with the majority of the new exam coming from AZ-100.
Candidates for this exam are Azure Administrators who manage cloud services that span storage, security, networking, and compute cloud capabilities. Candidates have a deep understanding of each service across the full IT lifecycle and take requests for infrastructure services, applications, and environments. They make recommendations on services to use for optimal performance and scale, as well as provision, size, monitor, and adjust resources as appropriate.
Manage Azure subscriptions and resources (15-20%)
Implement and manage storage (15-20%)
Deploy and manage virtual machines (VMs) (15-20%)
Configure and manage virtual networks (30-35%)
Manage identities (15-20%)
Microsoft Azure az-103 Online Exam Practice Questions
QUESTION 1 You need to recommend a solution for App1. The solution must meet the technical requirements. What should you include in the recommendation? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area; NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. Hot Area:
This reference architecture shows how to deploy VMs and a virtual network configured for an N-tier application, using SQL Server on Windows for the data tier.
Scenario: You have a public-facing application named App1. App1 is comprised of the following three tiers: A SQL database A web front end A processing middle tier Each tier is comprised of five virtual machines. Users access the web front end by using HTTPS only. Technical requirements include: Move all the virtual machines for App1 to Azure. Minimize the number of open ports between the App1 tiers. References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/architecture/reference-architectures/n-tier/n-tier-sql-server
QUESTION 2 You have an Azure subscription that contains several virtual machines and an Azure Log Analytics workspace named Workspace1. You create a log search query as shown in the following exhibit.
Use the drop-down menus to select the answer choice that completes each statement based on the information presented in the graphic. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. Hot Area:
QUESTION 3 SIMULATION Please wait while the virtual machine loads. Once loaded, you may proceed to the lab section. This may take a few minutes, and the wait time will not be deducted from your overall test time. When the Next button is available, click it to access the lab section. In this section, you will perform a set of tasks in a live environment. While most functionality will be available to you as it would be in a live environment, some functionality (e.g, copy and paste, ability to navigate to external websites) will not be possible by design. Scoring is based on the outcome of performing the tasks stated in the lab. In other words, it doesn’t matter how you accomplish the task, if you successfully perform it, you will earn credit for that task. Labs are not timed separately, and this exam may have more than one lab that you must complete. You can use as much time as you would like to complete each lab. But, you should manage your time appropriately to ensure that you are able to complete the lab(s) and all other sections of the exam in the time provided. Please note that once you submit your work by clicking the Next button within a lab, you will NOT be able to return to the lab. You may now click next to proceed to the lab. Use the following login credentials as needed: Azure Username: XXXXXXX Azure Password: XXXXXXX The following information is for technical support purposes only: Lab Instance: 9172796
Task 2 You plan to store media files in the rg1lod9172796 storage account. You need to configure the storage account to store the media files. The solution must ensure that only users who have access keys can download the media files and that the files are accessible only over HTTPS. What should you do from the Azure portal? A. See solution below. Correct Answer: A Step 1: Navigate to the rg1lod9172796n1 storage account. Step 2: Click on the settings menu called Firewalls and virtual networks. Step 3: Ensure that you have elected to allow access from \\’Selected networks\\’. Step 4: To grant access to an internet IP range, enter the address range of 188.8.131.52 to 184.108.40.206 (in CIDR format) under Firewall, Address Ranges. References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/storage/common/storage-network-security
QUESTION 4 You need to deploy two Azure web apps named WebApp1 and WebApp2. The web apps have the following requirements: WebApp1 must be able to use staging slots WebApp2 must be able to access the resources located on an Azure virtual network What is the least costly plan that you can use to deploy each web app? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area; NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. Hot Area:
QUESTION 5 You have an Azure Linux virtual machine that is protected by Azure Backup. One week ago, two files were deleted from the virtual machine. You need to restore the deleted files to an on-premises computer as quickly as possible. Which four actions should you perform in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order. Select and Place:
To restore files or folders from the recovery point, go to the virtual machine and choose the desired recovery point. Step 0. In the virtual machine\\’s menu, click Backup to open the Backup dashboard. Step 1. In the Backup dashboard menu, click File Recovery. Step 2. From the Select recovery point drop-down menu, select the recovery point that holds the files you want. By default, the latest recovery point is already selected. Step 3: To download the software used to copy files from the recovery point, click Download Executable (for Windows Azure VM) or Download Script (for Linux Azure VM, a python script is generated). Step 4: Copy the files by using AzCopy AzCopy is a command-line utility designed for copying data to/from Microsoft Azure Blob, File, and Table storage, using simple commands designed for optimal performance. You can copy data between a file system and a storage account, or between storage accounts. References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/backup/backup-azure-restore-files-from-vm https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/storage/common/storage-use-azcopy
QUESTION 6 You have two Azure Active Directory (Azure AD) tenants named contoso.com and fabrikam.com. You have a Microsoft account that you use to sign in to both tenants. You need to configure the default sign-in tenant for the Azure portal. What should you do? A. From the Azure portal, configure the portal settings. B. From the Azure portal, change the directory. C. From Azure Cloud Shell, run Set-AzureRmContext. D. From Azure Cloud Shell, run Set-AzureRmSubscription. Correct Answer: B Change the subscription directory in the Azure portal. The classic portal feature Edit Directory, that allows you to associate an existing subscription to your Azure Active Directory (AAD), is now available in Azure portal. It used to be available only to Service Admins with Microsoft accounts, but now it\\’s available to users with AAD accounts as well. To get started: 1. Go to Subscriptions. 2. Select a subscription. 3. Select Change directory. Incorrect Answers: C: The Set-AzureRmContext cmdlet sets authentication information for cmdlets that you run in the current session. The context includes tenant, subscription, and environment information. References: https://azure.microsoft.com/en-us/updates/edit-directory-now-in-new-portal/
QUESTION 7 You have an Azure subscription that contains two resource groups named RG1 and RG2. RG2 does not contain any resources. RG1 contains the resources in the following table.
QUESTION 8 DRAG DROP You have an Azure subscription that contains a storage account. You have an on-premises server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2016. Server1 has 2 TB of data. You need to transfer the data to the storage account by using the Azure Import/Export service. In which order should you perform the actions? To answer, move all actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order. NOTE: More than one order of answer choices is correct. You will receive credit for any of the correct orders you select. Select and Place:
At a high level, an import job involves the following steps: Step 1: Attach an external disk to Server1 and then run waimportexport.exe Determine data to be imported, number of drives you need, destination blob location for your data in Azure storage. Use the WAImportExport tool to copy data to disk drives. Encrypt the disk drives with BitLocker. Step 2: From the Azure portal, create an import job. Create an import job in your target storage account in Azure portal. Upload the drive journal files. Step 3: Detach the external disks from Server1 and ship the disks to an Azure data center. Provide the return address and carrier account number for shipping the drives back to you. Ship the disk drives to the shipping address provided during job creation. Step 4: From the Azure portal, update the import job Update the delivery tracking number in the import job details and submit the import job. The drives are received and processed at the Azure data center. The drives are shipped using your carrier account to the return address provided in the import job. References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/storage/common/storage-import-export-service
QUESTION 9 You have an Azure subscription that contains a virtual network named VNet1. VNet1 uses an IP address space of 10.0.0.0/16 and contains the subnets in the following table.
Subnet1 contains a virtual appliance named VM1 that operates as a router. You create a routing table named RT1. You need to route all inbound traffic to VNet1 through VM1. How should you configure RT1? Hot Area:
QUESTION 10 You have an Azure subscription that contains the resources in the following table.
To which subnets can you apply NSG1? A. the subnets on VNet2 only B. the subnets on VNet1 only C. the subnets on VNet2 and VNet3 only D. the subnets on VNet1, VNet2, and VNet3 E. the subnets on VNet3 only Correct Answer: E All Azure resources are created in an Azure region and subscription. A resource can only be created in a virtual network that exists in the same region and subscription as the resource. References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/virtual-network/virtual-network-vnet-plan-design-arm
QUESTION 11 Your company registers a domain name of contoso.com. You create an Azure DNS named contoso.com and then you add an A record to the zone for a host named www that has an IP address of 220.127.116.11. You discover that Internet hosts are unable to resolve www.contoso.com to the 18.104.22.168 IP address. You need to resolve the name resolution issue. Solution: You modify the SOA record in the contoso.com zone Does this meet the goal? A. Yes B. No Correct Answer: B Modify the NS record, not the SOA record. Note: The SOA record stores information about the name of the server that supplied the data for the zone; the administrator of the zone; the current version of the data file; the number of seconds a secondary name server should wait before checking for updates; the number of seconds a secondary name server should wait before retrying a failed zone transfer; the maximum number of seconds that a secondary name server can use data before it must either be refreshed or expire; and a default number of seconds for the time-to-live file on resource records. References: https://searchnetworking.techtarget.com/definition/start-of-authority-record
QUESTION 12 You have an Azure Service Bus. You need to implement a Service Bus queue that guarantees first in first-out (FIFO) delivery of messages. What should you do? A. Set the Lock Duration setting to 10 seconds. B. Enable duplicate detection. C. Set the Max Size setting of the queue to 5 GB. D. Enable partitioning. E. Enable sessions. Correct Answer: E Through the use of messaging sessions you can guarantee ordering of messages, that is first-in-first- out (FIFO) delivery of messages. References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/service-bus-messaging/service-bus-azure-and-service-bus-queues-compared-contrasted
QUESTION 13 You need to implement App2 to meet the application requirements. What should you include in the implementation? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area; NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. Hot Area:
A newly developed API must be implemented as an Azure function named App2. App2 will use a blob storage trigger. App2 must process new blobs immediately. This requires “Always On”. The cost of App1 and App2 must be minimized The Standard pricing tier is the cheapest tier that supports Always On.
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Work hard! It’s not hard to get certified! Share the latest Microsoft MCSE 70-744 exam dump for free. online 70-744 exam practice tests. the latest 70-744 exam questions and answers, and guarantee your skills and exam experience! “Securing Windows Server 2016 ” – 70-744 exam! pass4itsure.com expert recommendation! Top pass rate!
Candidates for this exam secure Windows Server 2016 environments. Candidates are familiar with the methods and technologies used to harden server environments and secure virtual machine infrastructures using Shielded and encryption-supported virtual machines and Guarded Fabric.
Candidates manage the protection of Active Directory and Identity infrastructures and manage privileged identities using Just in Time (JIT) and Just Enough Administration (JEA) approaches, as well as implement Privileged Access Workstations (PAWs) and secure servers using the Local Administrator Password Solution (LAPS).
pass4itsure 70-744 exam Skills measured
This exam measures your ability to accomplish the technical tasks listed below.
Implement Server Hardening Solutions (25-30%)
Secure a Virtualization Infrastructure (5-10%)
Secure a Network Infrastructure (10-15%)
Manage Privileged Identities (25-30%)
Implement Threat Detection Solutions (15-20%)
Implement Workload-Specific Security (5-10%)
The latest Microsoft MCSE 70-744 exam practice questions test your strength
QUESTION 1 Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, while others might not have a correct solution. After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to It. As a result, these questions will not appear in the review screen. Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. All servers run Windows Server 2016. All client computers run Windows 10. The relevant objects in the domain are configured as shown in the following table.
You need to assign User1 the right to restore files and folders on Server1 and Server2. Solution: You create a Group Policy object (GPO), you link the GPO to the Servers OU, and then you modify the Users Rights Assignment in the GPO. Does this meet the goat? A. Yes B. No Correct Answer: B References: https://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/cc771990(v=ws.11).aspx
QUESTION 2 The network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains the servers configured as shown in the following table.
All servers run Windows Server 2016. All client computers run Windows 10 and are domain members. All laptops are protected by using BitLocker Drive Encryption (BitLocker). You have an organizational unit (OU) named OU1 that contains the computer accounts of application servers. An OU named OU2 contains the computer accounts of the computers in the marketing department. A Group Policy object (GPO) named GP1 is linked to OU1. A GPO named GP2 is linked to OU2. All computers receive updates from Server1. You create an update rule named Update1. You need to ensure that you can encrypt the operating system drive of VM1 by using BitLocker. Which Group Policy should you configure? A. Configure use of hardware-based encryption for operating system drives B. Configure TPM platform validation profile for native UEFI firmware configurations C. Require additional authentication at startup D. Configure TPM platform validation profile for BIOS-based firmware configurations Correct Answer: C As there is not a choice “Enabling Virtual TPM for the virtual machine VM1”, then we have to use a fall-back method for enabling BitLocker in VM1. https://www.howtogeek.com/howto/6229/how-to-use-bitlocker-on-drives-without-tpm/
QUESTION 3 Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains 100 servers. You deploy the Local Administrator Password Solution (LAPS) to the network. You deploy a new server named FinanceServer5, and join FinanceServerS to the domain. You need to ensure that the passwords of the local administrators of FinanceServer5 are available to the LAPS administrators. What should you do? A. On FinanceServerS, register AdmPwd.dll. B. On FmanceServerS, install the LAPS Windows PowerShell module. C. In the domain, modify the permissions for the computer account of FmanceServer5. D. In the domain, modify the permissions of the Domain Controllers organizational unit (OU). Correct Answer: A References: https://gallery.technet.microsoft.com/Step-by-Step-Deploy-Local-7c9ef772
QUESTION 4 Note: Thb question Is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question In the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, while others might not have a correct solution. After you answer a question in this section, you willNOTbeabletorrturntoit.Asa result, these questions will not appear in the review screen. Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains multiple Hyper-V hosts. You need to deploy several critical line-of-business applications to the network to meet the following requirements: *The resources of the applications must be isolated from the physical host *Each application must be prevented from accessing the resources of the other applications. *The configurations of the applications must be accessible only from the operating system that hosts the application. Solution: You deploy one Windows container to host all of the applications. Does this meet the goal? A. Yes B. No Correct Answer: B References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/virtualization/windowscontainers/about/
QUESTION 5 You have a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2016. Server1 has the Windows Server Update Services server role installed. Windows Server Update Services (WSUS) updates for Server1 are stored on a volume named D. The hard disk that contains volume D fails. You replace the hard disk. You recreate volume D and the WSUS folder hierarchy in the volume. You need to ensure that the updates listed in the WSUS console are available in the WSUS folder. What should you run? A. wsusutil.exe /import B. wsusutil.exe /reset C. Set-WsusServerSynchronization D. Invoke-WsusServerCleanup Correct Answer: B https://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/cc720466%28v=ws.10%29.aspx?f=255and MSPPError=-2147217396 WSUSutil.exe is a tool that you can use to manage your WSUS server from the command line. WSUSutil.exeis located in the % drive%\\Program Files\\UpdateServices\\Tools folder on your WSUS server.You can run specific commands with WSUSutil.exe to perform specific functions, as summarized in thefollowing table.The syntax you would use to run WSUSutil.exe with specific commands follows the table.
QUESTION 6 Your network contains an Active Directory forest named contoso.com. The forest functional level is Windows Server 2012. The forest contains a single domain. The domain contains multiple Hyper-V hosts. You plan to deploy guarded hosts. You deploy a new server named Server22 to a workgroup. You need to configure Server22 as a Host Guardian Service server. What should you do before you initialize the Host Guardian Service on Server22? A. Install the Active Directory Domain Services server role on Server22. B. Obtain a certificate. C. Raise the forest functional level. D. Join Server22 to the domain. Correct Answer: D https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/windows-server/virtualization/guarded-fabric-shielded-vm/guarded-fabricchoose-where- to-install-hgs The only technical requirement for installing HGS in an existing forest is that it be added to the root domain; non-root domains are not supported.
QUESTION 7 You have a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2016. You need to identify the default action for the inbound traffic when Server1 connects to the domain. Which cmdlet should you use? A. Get-NetIPSecRule B. Get-NetFirewallRule C. Get-NetFirewallProfile D. Get-NetFirewallSetting E. Get-NetFirewallPortFilter F. Get-NetFirewallAddressFilter G. Get-NetFirewallApplicationFilter Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 8 You implement Just Enough Administration (JEA) on several file servers that run Windows Server 2016. The Role Capability file from a server named Server5 contains the following code.
Which action can be performed by a user who connects to Server5? A. Create a new file share. B. Modify the properties of any share. C. Stop any process. D. View the NTFS permissions of any folder. Correct Answer: B https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/powershell/jea/role-capabilitiesFocus on the 3rd Visible Cmdlets in this question `SmbShare\\Set-*\\’The PowerShell “SmbShare” module has the following “Set-*” cmdlets, as reported by “Get- Command -ModuleSmbShare” command:
QUESTION 9 The network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains the servers configured as shown in the following table.
All servers run Windows Server 2016. All client computers run Windows 10 and are domain members. All laptops are protected by using BitLocker Drive Encryption (BitLocker). You have an organizational unit (OU) named OU1 that contains the computer accounts of application servers. An OU named OU2 contains the computer accounts of the computers in the marketing department. A Group Policy object (GPO) named GP1 is linked to OU1. A GPO named GP2 is linked to OU2. All computers receive updates from Server1. You create an update rule named Update1. You need to prepare the environment to support applying Update1 to the laptops only. What should you do? Choose Two. A. Tool to use: Active Directory Administrative Center B. Tool to use: Active Directory Users and Computers C. Tool to use: Microsoft Intune D. Tool to use: Update Services E. Type of object to create: A computer group F. Type of object to create: A distribution group G. Type of object to create: A mobile device group H. Type of object to create: A security group I. Type of object to create: An OU Correct Answer: DE https://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/cc708458(v=ws.10).aspx
QUESTION 10 You have the servers configured as shown in the following table.
You purchase a Microsoft Azure subscription, and you create three Microsoft Operations Management Suite (OMS) workspaces named Workspace1, Workspace2, and Workspace3 You need to deploy Microsoft Monitoring Agent to the servers to meet the following requirements: -Antimalware data from all the servers must be visible in Workspace1. -Security and audit data from the domain controllers and the virtualization hosts must be visible in Workspace2. -System update data from all the servers in all the workgroups must be visible in Workspaceand How many OMS agents should you deploy? A. 10 B. 33 C. 73 D. 45 Correct Answer: C -Antimalware data from all the servers must be visible in Workspace1.-Security and audit data from the domain controllers and the virtualization hosts must be visible in Workspace2.-System update data from all the servers in all the workgroups must be visible in Workspaceand”All the servers” mean all 5 domain controllers, plus all member servers (physical and virtual, domain andworkgroup) and virtualization hosts, so there are noexemptions.All servers in the above table mentioned must install OMS Microsoft Monitoring agents
QUESTION 12 Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, while others might not have a correct solution. After you answer a question in this sections, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear in the review screen. Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2016. You need to prevent NTLM authentication on Server1. Solution: From a Group Policy, you configure the Kerberos Policy. Does this meet the goal? A. Yes B. No Correct Answer: B References: https://www.rootusers.com/implement-ntlm-blocking-in-windows-server-2016/
QUESTION 13 Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2016. You need to prevent NTLM authentication on Server1. Solution: From Windows PowerShell, you run the New-ADAuthenticationPolicy cmdlet. Does this meet the goal? A. Yes B. No Correct Answer: B ADDS Authentication Policy does not provide ability to prevent the use of NTLM authentication.
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Latest effective Cisco CCNP Cloud 300-460 Exam Practice Tests
QUESTION 1 A cloud engineer is implementing a new UCS B-series infrastructure and has physically connected the equipment, powered it up, and configured UCSM management connectivity. Which port type must be configured on the fabric interconnects to allow for chassis communication? A. appliance B. Fibre Channel storage C. uplink D. server E. storage Correct Answer: B Explanation
QUESTION 2 An engineer is creating WWPN pools to use for vHBAs. Which WWPN must the engineer use? A. 20:00:20:25:B5:XX:XX:XX B. 20:XX:XX:25:B5:00:00:00 C. 10:00:00:25:B5:XX:XX:XX D. 20:00:00:25:B5:XX:XX:XX Correct Answer: D Explanation Explanation/Reference: Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/unified_computing/ucs/sw/gui/config/guide/1-3- 1/ b_UCSM_GUI_Configuration_Guide_1_3_1/UCSM_GUI_Configuration_Guide_1_3_1_c hapter22.pdf
QUESTION 3 A Cisco USC Director administrator is configuring his pod on the Physical > Compute Tab. Which three tabs are available under this menu? (Choose three.) A. UCS Chassis B. Datastore Capacity Report C. CloudSense D. Chargeback E. Compute Servers F. Compute Accounts Correct Answer: AEF Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 4 Which two statements about Fibre Channel zoning in Cisco UCS are true? (Choose two.) A. Zoning is configured on a per-VSAN basis. B. Cisco UCS does not support zoning. C. Zoning is configured on a per fabric basis. D. Zoning can be enabled at the fabric level in switch mode. E. You cannot enable zoning at the fabric interconnect level.Correct Answer: CD Explanation
QUESTION 5 Which two statements about management IP pools in Cisco UCS Manager are true? (Choose two.) A. The number of IP addresses in the pool is not required when creating management IP pools. B. The management IP pool can be created under Physical > Storage in Cisco UCS Director C. The management IP pool must contain any IP addresses that have been assigned as static IP addresses for a server or service profile. D. All IP addresses in the in the out of band management IP pool must be in the same subnet as the IP address of the fabric interconnect. E. IP addresses in the management IP pool are reserved for external access that terminates in the Cisco Integrated Management Controller on a server. Correct Answer: DE Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 6 Which option describes the function of an initiator in Storage Area Networking? A. stats a connection over the fabric to one or more ports B. provides a network infrastructure consisting of one or more Fibre Channel switches C. creates a connection over the fabric to one or more initiator ports D. an endpoint that receives data in the SAN infrastructure Correct Answer: D Explanation
QUESTION 7 A private cloud engineer is adding a production FlexPod into a new Cisco UCS Director deployment. Which two operational domains contain Cisco components within this data center pod? (Choose two.) A. storage B. compute C. virtual D. network E. service delivery Correct Answer: BD Explanation
QUESTION 8 An engineer needs to install Windows Server 2012 R2 on a Cisco UCS B-Series Blade Server from an operating system image in Cisco UCS Director using PXE boot. Which agent must the engineer use? A. Cisco UCS Director Bare Metal Agent B. Cisco ISO Agent C. Windows Boot Agent D. Cisco UCS Boot AgentCorrect Answer: A Explanation Explanation/Reference: Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/unified_computing/ucs/ucs-director/bma- install- config/5-2/b_ucsd_bma_install_config_guide_5_2/b_ucsd_bma_install_config_guide_5_2_appendix _01000.pdf
QUESTION 9 An engineer needs to install a hypervisor on a Cisco UCS B-Series Blade Server. The operating system must remain local to the server and must be resilient. Which two hardware components are required to accomplish this? (Choose two.) A. onboard flash memory B. SD card C. external USB D. internal USB E. Local disk Correct Answer: AE Explanation
QUESTION 10 Which two statements about context workflow mapping in Cisco UCS Director are true? (Choose two.) A. Workflows cannot be mapped in the form of an action, nor can they be executed in the context of a component B. You can execute a workflow that contains a set of tasks from within a context of a component. C. Workflows cannot be executed at the component level D. You have to browse for a required workflow in the workflow list to execute it E. You can map a workflow in the form of an action and execute it in the context of the component F. Context workflow mapping consists of two stages: Stage 1 ?Create the workflow to the content mapper list by giving in an action label Stage 2 ?Add a context mapper task to the workflow that must be mapped as an action Correct Answer: BE Explanation Explanation/Reference: Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/unified_computing/ucs/ucs- director/orchestration- guide/5- 0/b_UCS_Director_Orchestration_Guide_5_0/b_UCS_Director_Orchestration_Guide_5_0_ chapter_0101.html#concept_3BA2EDADF4724218802E5CE3184B27A0
QUESTION 11 Which option is the best way to provide templates to end users in Cisco UCS Director? A. Give access to the template. B. Assign the template to the standard catalog. C. Assign the template to the advance catalog. D. Deploy a copied template. Correct Answer: B Explanation
QUESTION 12 Which two statements about the Cisco UCS Virtual Media Boot Policy are true? (Choose two.)A. UEFI Boot Mode specifies primary-level boot devices and enables secure boot option. B. A virtual media device mimics the insertion of a physical CD/DVD disk (read-only) or floppy disk (read- write) into a server. C. Secure boot option is enabled by default when creating a boot policy. D. Boot policies can be created under Physical > Storage in Cisco UCS Director. E. A boot policy can be configured to boot one or more servers from a virtual media device. Correct Answer: BE Explanation Explanation/Reference: Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/unified_computing/ucs/ucs-central/cli- reference- manual/1-5/b_CiscoUCSCentral-CLI-Reference-Manual-Release1- 5/b_CiscoUCSCentral-CLI-Reference- Manual-Release1- 5_chapter_010110.html#concept_9451D9565D534BAEA521E6454896B580
QUESTION 13 A cloud engineer is deploying a new LUN to a customer virtual infrastructure. What is an advantage of thinprovisioning this storage? A. The datastore is available immediately. B. Less space is consumed on the array. C. The performance (IOPS) is higher. D. The risk of disk errors is lower. Correct Answer: B Explanation
QUESTION 14 Which port-channel type is the best when deploying a Cisco Nexus 1000V with Cisco UCS B-Series Blades? A. channel-group mode on sub-group cdp B. channel-group auto mode on mac-pinning C. channel-group auto mode active D. channel-group mode on mac-pinning Correct Answer: B Explanation Explanation/Reference: Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/products/collateral/switches/nexus-1000v-switch- vmware- vsphere/white_paper_c11-558242.html
QUESTION 15 A Cisco UCS Director administrator is trying to mapping policies. Where can this task be accomplished? A. Virtual > Physical Infrastructure Policies B. Virtual > Virtual/Hypervisor Policies C. Policies > Physical Infrastructure Policies D. Policies > Virtual/Hypervisor Policies Correct Answer: D Explanation Explanation/Reference: Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/unified_computing/ucs/ucs- director/vsphere-mgmt- guide/5-0/b_UCS_Director_VMware_vSphere_Management_Guide_50/b_UCS_Director_VMware_ vSphere_Management_Guide_50_chapter_0100.html#topic_736267F57B684D349EBA0C F77B2E17C6
QUESTION 16 A Cisco UCSM administrator is tasked with modifying the boot order in a service profile. Which option lists the steps required to accomplish this task? A. In the Navigation pane, click the Servers tab. On the Servers tab, expand Servers > Service Profiles. Click the service profile for which you want to change boot order. Click Boot Order Wizard to change the existing boot policy. B. In the Navigation pane, click the Servers tab. On the Servers tab, expand Servers > Service Profiles. Click the service profile for which you want to change boot order. Click Boot Security. Click Modify Boot Policy to change the existing policy. C. In the Navigation pane, click the Servers tab. On the Servers tab, expand Servers > Service Profiles. Click the service profile for which you want to change boot order. Click Modify Boot Policy to change the existing boot policy. D. In the Navigation pane, click the Servers tab. On the Servers tab, expand Servers > Service Profiles. Click the service profile for which you want to change boot order. Click Boot Order and the Modify Boot Policy wizard displays. Change the existing boot policy. Correct Answer: D Explanation
QUESTION 17 A Cisco UCS Director administrator is changing the boot order in a boot policy. Which option lists the steps that accomplish this task? A. On the menu bar, choose Physical > Storage. In the left pane, expand the pod and then click the Cisco UCS Manager account. In the right pane, click the Organizations tab. Click the organization in which you want to modify a policy and then click View Details. Click the Manage Boot Order tab. Choose the boot policy that you want to clone and click Manage Boot Order. B. On the menu bar, choose Physical > Compute. In the left pane, expand the pod and then click the Cisco UCS Manager account. In the right pane, click the Organizations tab. Click the organization in which you want to modify a policy and then click View Details. Click the Boot Policies tab. Choose the boot policy that you want to clone and click Manage Boot Devices Order. C. On the menu bar, choose Physical > Storage. In the left pane, expand the pod and then click the Cisco UCS Manager account. In the right pane, click the Organizations tab. Click the organization in which you want to modify a policy and then click View Details. Click the Boot Policies tab. Choose the boot policy that you want to clone and click Manage Boot Devices Order. D. On the menu bar, choose Physical > Compute. In the left pane, expand the pod and then click the Cisco UCS Manager account. In the right pane, click the Organizations tab. Click the organization in which you want to modify a policy and then click View Details. Click the Manage Boot Order tab. Choose the boot policy that you want to clone and click Manage Boot Order. Correct Answer: A Explanation
QUESTION 18 A Cisco UCS Director administrator is configuring vHBA. Which four fields are needed to configure vHBA? (Choose four.) A. vHBA Name B. Adapter Policy C. Template Type D. Organizations E. Description F. Fabric ID G. UCS Organization Name H. UCS Account Name Correct Answer: ACEF Explanation Explanation/Reference: Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/unified_computing/ucs/ucs-director/ucs- mgmt-guide/4- 0/b_Cisco_UCS_Director_UCS_Management_Guide_40/b_Cisco_UCS_Director_UCS_Ma nagement_Guide_40_chapter_0101.html#concept_930C11B6473846DDA5F7F25E88EC8 F33
QUESTION 19 Which three options does the Cisco UCS Manager boot policy determine? (Choose three.) A. initiator port range B. selection of the boot device C. location from which the server boots D. initiator and target ports E. global boot device priority F. order in which boot devices are invoked Correct Answer: BCF Explanation
QUESTION 20 Refer to the exhibit.
Which three commands complete the configuration for this Cisco Nexus 1000V port profile that is assigned to a vmkernel used for L3 VSM control plane? (Choose three.) A. service-policy type qos output vmk-control B. vmware port-group C. system vlan 119 D. capability 13control E. swithchport mode trunk F. mtu 9000 G. swithchport 12control Correct Answer: BCDExplanation
QUESTION 21 An administrator is installing a hypervisor and has provisioned a dedicated LAN connectivity, set the boot order, and is now rebooting the server to start installation. Which method is the administrator using to install the hypervisor? A. host image mapping B. KVM console C. PXE installation D. virtual boot Correct Answer: C Explanation
QUESTION 22 An architect must choose a VXLAN architecture that utilizes hardware-based VXLAN adapters. Which type of architecture must be selected? A. Layer 3 B. NSX C. ACI D. Layer 2 Correct Answer: C Explanation
QUESTION 23 With which three types of zoning can a Cisco UCS domain be configured? (Choose three.) A. cloud-based Fibre Channel zoning B. Cisco UCS local Fibre Channel zoning C. hybrid-based Fibre Channel zoning D. switch-based Fibre Channel zoning E. no zoning F. vBlock-based Fibre Channel zoning Correct Answer: BDE Explanation Explanation/Reference: Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/unified_computing/ucs/sw/gui/config/guide/2-2/ b_UCSM_GUI_Configuration_Guide_2_2/b_UCSM_GUI_Configuration_Guide_2_2_chapt er_011011.pdf
QUESTION 24 An administrator is troubleshooting a virtual switch that does not show up when it is added to the host using the port-profile management snap-in. Which action is the next step? A. Enable SR-IOV for the virtual switch inside Hyper-V B. Add drivers for the virtual switch C. Reboot the server D. Enable VMbus for the parent partition and the virtual machine Correct Answer: C ExplanationExplanation/Reference: Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/unified_computing/ucs/sw/vm_fex/hyperv/gui/config_ guide/2-1/ b_GUI_Hyper-V_VM-FEX_UCSM_Configuration_Guide/b_GUI_Hyper- V_VMFEX_UCSM_Configuration_Guide_chapter_0101.html#task_FD3156BC3C7F48FBB F728E8A824E81CA
QUESTION 25 An engineer needs to PXE boot a Cisco UCS server. To do this, which configuration is required in the service profile? A. LAN boot B. NIC boot C. PXE boot D. Remote boot Correct Answer: A Explanation Explanation/Reference: Reference: https://www.cisco.com/en/US/docs/unified_computing/ucs/sw/gui/config/guide/141/UCSM_ GUI_Configuration_Guide_141_chapter28.html#task_75111BA2FE684720BC20C2E63DB 9B374
QUESTION 26 An engineer is installing a new blade server chassis with integrated networking. When connecting a new server chassis to a trunk port on a top-of-rack Cisco Nexus switch, which two precautions must be taken to ensure proper connectivity when enabling new links? (Choose two.) A. The SNMP traps on the chassis switch are enabled for Cisco Prime Infrastructure. B. The trunk settings match on the chassis switch and the TOR switch. C. The spanning tree settings on the chassis switch and TOR switch are consistent. D. The SNMP traps on the TOR switch are enabled Cisco Prime Infrastructure. E. LLDP is enabled on the chassis switch and TOR switch. F. Cisco Discovery Protocol is enabled on the chassis switch and TOR switch. Correct Answer: EF Explanation
QUESTION 27 An engineer needs to deploy a VMFS datastore. Which two LUNs must the engineer use? (Choose two.) A. Fibre Channel B. NTFS C. NFS D. iSCSI E. CIFS Correct Answer: AD Explanation
QUESTION 28 A data center admin is trying to use a template to deploy a new Cisco UCS service profile, but finds that the WWPN pool has been exhausted. How can this issue be resolved without changing the service profile template?A. Edit the existing WWPN pool and add a new block of addresses. B. Create a new WWPN pool using the same name and an address range that start where the previous pool ended. C. Edit the existing WWPN pool and expand the existing block of addresses. D. Create a new WWPN pool using a different name and an address range that start where the previous pool ended. Correct Answer: B Explanation
QUESTION 29 An administrator is troubleshooting basic connectivity between two Fibre Channel points that include node hops and latency data. Which tool is the best for troubleshooting this scenario? A. ping B. fctraceroute C. traceroute D. fcping Correct Answer: B Explanation Explanation/Reference: Reference: Ping and traceroute are two of the most useful tools for troubleshooting TCP/IP networking problems. The ping utility generates a series of echopackets to a destination across a TCP/IP internetwork. When the echo packets arrive at the destination, they are rerouted and sent back to the source. Using ping, you can verify connectivity and latency to a particular destination across an IP routed network. The traceroute utility operates in a similar fashion, but can also determine the specific path that a frame takes to its destination on a hop-by-hop basis.
QUESTION 30 Which two statements describe Ethernet and vEthernet port profiles? (Choose two.) A. Ethernet port profiles may only be assigned to Cisco UCS unified ports when configured as type uplink. B. Ethernet port profiles are assigned to physical interfaces such as vmnics. vEthernet port profiles are assigned to virtual interfaces such as vNIC, vmk, or VTEP. C. An MTU change is required on the Ethernet port profiles to support jumbo frames. D. vEthernet port profiles are assigned to physical interfaces such as vmnics. Ethernet port profiles are assigned to virtual interfaces such as vNIC, vmk, or VTEP. E. Ethernet port profiles may only be assigned to Cisco UCS unified ports when configured as type virtual uplink. Correct Answer: BC Explanation
QUESTION 31 An FCoE frame has just arrived on a Cisco Nexus 5000 Series Switch and must be switched toward a directlyattached FCoE storage array. Which two actions must be done to the frame to accomplish this task? (Choose two.) A. The frame is switched out of a physical Fibre Channel interface. B. The frame is switched out of a physical Ethernet interface. C. The frame is switched out of a logical Ethernet interface. D. The frame is switched out of a logical Fibre Channel interface.E. The frame encapsulates a UDP/IP packet. F. The frame encapsulates a TCP/IP packet. Correct Answer: BF Explanation
QUESTION 32 Which four fields are needed when creating a WWPN pool in Cisco UCS Director? (Choose four) A. the first and last WWPN address in the block B. the number of WWPN addresses in the block C. a unique name for the initiator D. the first WWPN address in the block E. the WWN for the initiator F. a unique name for the pool G. the last WWPN address in the block H. a description for the pool Correct Answer: ABFH Explanation Explanation/Reference: Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/unified_computing/ucs/sw/gui/config/guide/2- 2/ b_UCSM_GUI_Configuration_Guide_2_2/b_UCSM_GUI_Configuration_Guide_2_2_cha pter_011001.html#task_8717496137259896828
QUESTION 33 Which is the step to associate an application profile EPG to a VMM domain? A. The APIC pushes the EPGs as virtual switches to the VM controller. B. The VMM administrator creates the port groups in the Tenant window then assigns the EPGs to CPPAs. C. The APIC pushes the EPGs as port groups in the VM controller. D. The policy administrator assigns the EPG to physical endpoints in the VMM. Correct Answer: C Explanation Explanation/Reference: Reference: Provisioning of EPGs in VMM Domain–Associates application profile EPGs to VMM domains as follows: The APIC pushes these EPGs as port groups in the VM controller. The compute administrator then places vNICs into these port groups. An EPG can span multiple VMM domains, and a VMM domain can contain multiple EPGs.
QUESTION 34 During which process are Cisco UCS UUID, MAC, and WWPN identifiers allocated from the pool? A. service profile instantiation B. server boot time C. service profile assignment to a server D. service profile template creation Correct Answer: C Explanation
QUESTION 35 Which configuration provides the highest performance level to Virtual Extensible LAN? A. VxLAN in unicast mode with VxLAN TSO offload in Cisco UCS B. VxLAN in multicast mode with MAC distribution C. VxLAN in multicast mode with VxLAN TSO offload in Cisco UCS D. VxLAN in unicast mode with MAC distribution and VxLAN TSO offload in Cisco UCS Correct Answer: C Explanation
QUESTION 36 Which option lists the default methods that are needed to access a Cisco UCS C-Series via its Lights-Out Management? (Choose two.) A. HTTPS B. FTP C. Telnet D. SSH Correct Answer: AD Explanation
QUESTION 37 You have been asked to configure a virtual fiber channel interface. Which information is needed to complete this task? A. Fibre Channel ID and VSAN database key B. VSAN ID and Fibre Channel interface C. active zoneset and VSAN ID D. VLAN ID, VSAN ID, and Ethernet interface number Correct Answer: B Explanation Explanation/Reference: Reference: Check section “Creating a VFC” of the link; http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/ unified_computing/ucs/ucs-director/network-devices- mgmt- guide/b_Network_Devices_Management_Guide/b_Network_Devices_Management_Guide _chapter_01001.html
QUESTION 38 A cloud engineer is implementing a new cloud infrastructure with the following equipment: One Cisco UCS 5108 AC2 B-Series Chassis Two Cisco Nexus 5000 Series Switches Two Cisco UCS 6248 Fabric Interconnects One Cisco UCS 2208XP Fabric Extender Eight Cisco B200 M4 half-width blades Which option describes the most likely problem with this deployment?A. The half-width blades are not compatible with the chassis. B. One additional fabric interconnect is needed, because the chassis can handle only six half-width blades. C. Two additional fabric interconnects are needed to handle all four blade servers. D. An additional fabric extender is needed. Correct Answer: D Explanation
QUESTION 39 With which two types of zoning can a Cisco UCS domain be configured? (Choose two.) A. hybrid-based Fibre Channel zoning B. switch-based Fibre Channel zoning C. Manager-based Fibre Channel zoning D. cloud-based Fibre Channel zoning E. no zoning Correct Answer: BC Explanation
QUESTION 40 Two companies want to integrate their storage infrastructure. Both companies use a single Cisco MDS 9513 Multilayer Director, but they use Fibre Channel storage arrays from different vendors. Physical connectivity between the two Cisco MDS 9513s is already in place. No common VSAN IDs exist between the two companies. Which option is most likely to achieve the goal? A. Configure NPV. B. Configure static FCIDs. C. Change the storage arrays to the same vendor. D. Enable FC-NAT. E. Configure IVR. Correct Answer: A Explanation
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ABC Company has just purchased a 6 dBi patch antenna. After performing some tests with the 6 dBi antenna, they
have concluded that more antenna gain is needed to cover their outdoor courtyard.
When choosing an antenna with higher gain, what other antenna characteristic will also always change?
A. Fresnel Zone size
B. Maximum input power
E. VSWR Ratio
Correct Answer: C
ABC Company is planning a point-to-multipoint outdoor bridge deployment with standalone (autonomous) 802.11 bridge
units. 802.1X/EAP will be used for bridge authentication. A Linux- based RADIUS server will be used for authentication.
What device in the bridge implementation acts as the 802.1X Authenticator?
A. The RADIUS server
B. All non-root bridges
C. A designated non-root bridge
D. The root bridge
E. The Ethernet switch
Correct Answer: D
What is an advantage of using WPA2-Personal instead of WEP-128 as a security solution for 802.11 networks?
A. WPA2-Personal uses 802.1X/EAP for authentication, and WEP-128 uses preshared keys.
B. WPA2-Personal is based on IEEE 802.11 industry standards, but WEP is not.
C. WPA2-Personal uses CCMP for encryption, and WEP-128 uses TKIP for encryption.
D. WPA2-Personal uses dynamic encryption keys, and WEP-128 uses static keys.
E. WPA2-Personal requires complex 64-character hex keys, whereas WEP-128 requires weak 26- character hex keys.
Correct Answer: D
Your consulting firm has recently been hired to complete a site survey for a company. Your engineers use predictive
modeling software for surveying, but the company insists on a pre- deployment site visit. What tasks should be
performed as part of the pre-deployment visit to prepare for a predictive survey? (Choose 2)
A. With a spectrum analyzer, identify the type, amplitude, and location of RF interference sources, if any are present.
B. Evaluate the building materials at ABC\’s facility and confirm that the floor plan documents are consistent with the
C. Test several antenna types connected to the intended APs for use in the eventual deployment.
D. Collect information about the company\’s security requirements and the current configuration of their RADIUS and
user database servers.
E. Install at least one AP on each side of the exterior walls to test for co-channel interference through these walls.
Correct Answer: AB
As defined in the 802.11 specification, legacy Power Save requires an inefficient back-and-forth frame exchange
process. Due to this inefficiency, many WLAN device implementations use a variation of 802.11 Power Save to
accomplish the same function.
What non-standard power save behavior is used by most Wi-Fi devices in actual legacy Power Save implementations?
A. Client devices ignore the TIM field and automatically send PS-Poll frames after every beacon.
B. After each beacon, the AP attempts to empty its frame buffer by sending Wake- on-WLAN frames to wake each
C. Request-to-Send and Clear-to-Send frame exchanges are used to trigger the delivery of buffered data.
D. The Beacon interval is changed from the default 100 time units to 10 or less time units.
E. Clients send null data frames to the AP and switch the power management bit from 1 to 0 to receive queued data.
F. Stations send a CTS-to-self frame to the AP with a very long duration period so they can receive all of their buffered
data at once.
Correct Answer: E
ABC Company has a 2.4 and 5 GHz WLAN deployment. DFS functionality is enabled as required by the regulatory
domain and APs use DFS channels as long as radar is not detected. Band steering is also enabled to encourage dual-
band clients to use frequency bands with more capacity. Your performance analysis shows that many dual-band VoWiFi
client devices will move back and forth between 2.4 and 5 GHz as the users roam throughout the building. All APs have
2.4 and 5 GHz radios enabled with transmit power adjusted to accommodate relatively similar cell sizes. This
andquot;band hoppingandquot; behavior is viewed by network staff to be undesirable.
What is the most likely cause of the unpredictable client band selection behavior?
A. Interference from 5 GHz radar sources has increased frame corruption and retries on channels 36-48.
B. 5 GHz frequencies offer better RF penetration than 2.4 GHz, but 2.4 GHz offers more voice call capacity and lower
latency than 5 GHz. C. The voice client does not support DFS, and therefore experiences some 5 GHz coverage holes as it moves through
D. The client\’s band selection algorithm prefers 5 GHz, but band steering behavior usually steers 75-85% of client
devices to 2.4 GHz.
Correct Answer: C
What can cause an excessively high VSWR (Voltage Standing Wave Ratio) in a WLAN RF transmission line?
A. An impedance mismatch in the RF cables and connectors
B. Reflected direct current (DC) voltage on the main RF signal line
C. Attenuation of the RF signal as it travels along the main signal path
D. Crosstalk (inductance) between adjacent RF conductors
Correct Answer: A
What statement describes the authorization component of a AAA implementation?
A. Verifying that a user is who he says he is
B. Validating client device credentials against a database
C. Logging the details of user network behavior in order to review it at a later time
D. Granting access to specific network services according to a user profile
E. Implementing a WIPS as a full-time monitoring solution to enforce policies
Correct Answer: D
To ease user complexity, your company has implemented a single SSID for all employees. However, the network
administrator needs a way to control the network resources that can be accessed by each employee based on their
What WLAN feature would allow the network administrator to accomplish this task?
Correct Answer: C
What is the intended use for the WLAN hardware known as a pole or mast mount unit?
A. Mounting a lightning arrestor to a grounding rod
B. Mounting an omnidirectional antenna to a mast
C. Mounting an RF amplifier to a dipole antenna
D. Mounting a PoE injector to a perforated radome
E. Mounting an access point to a site survey tripod
Correct Answer: B
How is throughput capacity scaled in a single channel architecture (SCA) WLAN system?
A. By increasing transmit power and placing APs that are on a single channel farther from one another.
B. By adding more SSIDs to existing APs to spread users across different contention domains.
C. By adding non-overlapping channel layers through the addition of more APs.
D. By using downlink data compression and uplink flow control at the AP.
E. By using a single 802.11n radio to transmit simultaneous downlink data streams to different users.
Correct Answer: C
A Wi-Fi Alliance interoperability certificate indicates that a device is a/b/g/n certified. It further indicates one transmit and
receive spatial stream for both the 2.4 GHz and 5.0 GHz bands. It further indicates support for both WPA and WPA2
Enterprise and Personal. Finally, it indicates support for EAP-TLS, EAP-TTLS/ MSCHAPv2, PEAPv0/EAP-MSCHAPv2
and PEAPv1/EAP- GTC.
Which one of the following statements is false?
A. This client device supports protection mechanisms such as RTS/CTS and/or CTS- to-Self.
B. This client device supports both TKIP and CCMP cipher suites.
C. 300 Mbps is the maximum supported data rate for this device.
D. This client device supports the ERP, OFDM, and HT physical layer specifications.
E. This client device supports X.509 certificates for EAP authentication.
Correct Answer: C
What HT technology requires MIMO support on both the transmitter and receiver?
A. Spatial multiplexing
B. Short guard intervals
C. Maximal ratio combining
D. Orthogonal Frequency Division Multiplexing
Correct Answer: A
What terms accurately complete the following sentence? The IEEE 802.11-2012 standard specifies mandatory support
of the ___________ cipher suite for Robust Security Network Associations, and optional use of the ___________ cipher
suite, which is designed for use with pre-RSNA hardware.
A. CCMP, TKIP
B. 802.1X/EAP, WEP
C. TLS, SSL
D. CCKM, WEP
E. RC5, RC4
Correct Answer: A
You were previously onsite at XYZ\’s facility to conduct a pre-deployment RF site survey. The WLAN has been deployed
according to your recommendations and you are onsite again to perform a post- deployment validation survey.
When performing this type of post-deployment RF site survey for VoWiFi, what are two steps that must be performed?
A. Coverage analysis to verify appropriate coverage and roaming boundaries
B. Spectrum analysis to locate and identify RF interference sources
C. Frequency-band hopping analysis to detect improper RF channel implementations
D. Protocol analysis to discover channel use on neighboring APs
E. Application analysis with an active phone call on a VoWiFi handset
Correct Answer: AE
What are two channel modes specified by the 802.11n (High Throughput) PHY? (Choose 2)
A. 20 MHz
B. 20/40 MHz C. 40/80 MHz
D. 22 MHz
E. 80 MHz
F. 160 MHz
Correct Answer: AB
What term describes the effect of increasing the intensity of an RF wave with an antenna by focusing the energy in a
A. Distributed Radiation
B. Active Amplification
C. Beam Compression
D. Passive Gain
E. RF Flooding
Correct Answer: D
As you prepare for a site survey in a multi-floor corporate office, you have learned about several wireless devices that
support connection-oriented, real-time applications. These applications are sensitive to service interruptions and require
excellent signal quality, low latency, and low loss. For that reason, it is important to identify sources of RF interference
as well as building characteristics that would cause RF blockage or dead spots.
What systems or environmental characteristics are most likely to cause interference or RF blockage and disrupt service
for these applications? (Choose 2)
A. Microwave ovens
B. Narrow hallways
C. Elevator shafts
D. RFID chokepoints
E. Workspace dividers
Correct Answer: AC
During the discovery and connectivity process, client and AP stations exchange information about their supported data
rates. After the association, how do client and AP stations select the supported data rate that will be used to send an
802.11 data frame?
A. During the association, the client and AP agree to use the same transmit rate, but either station can request a change
at any time after the association. B. The client and AP each choose the optimal data rate to use independently of one another, based on their own
measurements related to the RF link.
C. The client and AP may use different transmit rates, but the AP determines the data rate that will be used by each
client station in the BSS.
D. The client and AP may use different transmit rates, but the client determines the data rate that it will use and the data
rate that the AP will use when communicating to the client.
E. The client and AP may use a different transmit rates, but the transmit rate is determined by the peer station, based on
the peer\’s experience of the RF link.
Correct Answer: B
What facts are true regarding controllers and APs in a Split MAC architecture? (Choose 2)
A. An IP tunnel is established between the AP and controller for AP management and control functions.
B. Using centralized data forwarding, APs never tag Ethernet frames with VLAN identifiers or 802.1p CoS.
C. With 802.1X/EAP security, the AP acts as the supplicant and the controller acts as the authenticator.
D. Management and data frame types must be processed locally by the AP, while control frame types must be sent to
E. In a distributed data forwarding model, the AP handles frame encryption and decryption.
Correct Answer: AE
What statements about the beamwidth of an RF antenna are true? (Choose 2)
A. The lower the gain of an antenna, the more narrow one or both beamwidths become.
B. The beamwidth patterns on an antenna polar chart indicate the point at which the RF signal stops propagating.
C. Horizontal and vertical beamwidth are calculated at the points in which the main lobe decreases power by 3 dB.
D. Horizontal beamwidth is displayed (in degrees) on the antenna\’s Azimuth Chart.
Correct Answer: CD
In addition to coverage analysis results, what should be included in a site survey report to ensure WLAN users
experience acceptable performance?
A. Application Layer protocol availability analysis results
B. Layer 4 protocol availability analysis results
C. Capacity analysis results
D. WAN interface analysis results
Correct Answer: C
You are the network administrator for ABC Company. Your manager has recently attended a wireless security seminar.
The seminar speaker taught that a wireless network could be hidden from potential intruders if you disabled the
broadcasting of the SSID in Beacons and configured the access points not to respond to Probe Request frames that
have a null SSID field. Your manager suggests implementing these security practices.
What response should you give to this suggestion? (Choose 2)
A. Any 802.11 protocol analyzer can see the SSID in clear text in frames other than Beacons and Probe Response
frames. This negates any security benefit of trying to hide the SSID in Beacons and Probe Response frames.
B. This security practice prevents manufacturers\’ client utilities from detecting the SSID. As a result, the SSID cannot
be obtained by attackers, except through social engineering, guessing, or use of a WIPS.
C. Although it does not benefit the security posture, hiding the SSID in Beacons and Probe Response frames can be
helpful for preventing some users (such as guests) from attempting to connect to the corporate network.
D. Any tenants in the same building using advanced penetration testing tools will be able to obtain the SSID by
exploiting WPA EAPOL-Key exchanges. This poses an additional risk of exposing the WPA key.
E. To improve security by hiding the SSID, the AP and client stations must both be configured to remove the SSID from
association request and response frames. Most WLAN products support this.
Correct Answer: AC
In a Wi-Fi client configuration utility, what feature is most likely to be user configurable?
A. 802.1p to WMM mappings
B. SNMPv3 Users
C. WMM-PS Dozing Interval
D. RADIUS Server IP Address
E. EAP Authentication Type
Correct Answer: E
Which IEEE 802.11 physical layer (PHY) specifications include support for and compatibility of both OFDM and
HR/DSSS? (Choose 2)
A. HR/DSSS (802.11b)
B. OFDM (802.11a)
C. ERP (802.11g)
D. HT (802.11n) E. CCK (802.11b)
F. VHT (802.11ac)
Correct Answer: CD
What causes of hidden nodes within a BSS would be more likely lead to an increase in collisions and retries? (Choose
A. Data frames too large for the physical environment
B. Client stations broadcasting with too much power
C. Access points broadcasting with too little power
D. Client stations too close in proximity to each other
E. Obstacles between client stations causing attenuation
F. Large 802.11 cells with physically distributed stations
Correct Answer: EF
What phrase defines Equivalent Isotropically Radiated Power (EIRP)?
A. The power output from the radio into the RF cable
B. The power output from the radio after cable losses
C. The highest RF signal strength that is transmitted from a given antenna
D. Reflected power due to an impedance mismatch in the signal path
E. Power supplied from the transmission line to the antenna input
Correct Answer: C
When using an RF splitter to connect one transceiver to sector antennas loss is incurred.
What is this loss called?
A. Conversion loss
B. Through loss
C. Active loss
D. Intentional loss
Correct Answer: B
In an enterprise WLAN, what condition will prevent a dual-band VHT/HT client device from performing a fast and
seamless transition (i.e. latency-sensitive applications are not disrupted) between two access points that are managed
by the same WLAN controller?
A. The current AP is using channel 1 and the new AP is using channel 40.
B. The SSID of the current AP does not match the SSID of the new AP.
C. The current AP supports only HT and the new AP is VHT capable.
D. The access points are hiding the SSID in Beacons and Probe Response frames.
Correct Answer: B
When performing a site survey for a Multiple Channel Architecture (MCA) system in a multi- tenant building with five
floors, what aspect should you, as the site surveyor, keep in mind?
A. The RF interference caused by passing airplanes supporting on-board Wi-Fi should be a prime consideration.
B. The omni-directional antennas of the access points should be oriented parallel to the floor to maximize the coverage
pattern across as many floors as possible.
C. The channel reuse pattern should be three dimensional with the RF cell extending coverage of each access point to
D. The Fresnel Zone is completely blocked between floors so each floor is considered a separate site survey.
Correct Answer: C
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