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Latest Updated 350-201 CBRCOR Dumps Pdf | Pass4itSure

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Real Valid 350-201 Exam Questions Test

QUESTION 1

A SOC team is informed that a UK-based user will be traveling between three countries over the next 60 days. Having
the names of the 3 destination countries and the user\\’s working hours, what must the analyst do next to detect an
abnormal behavior?

A. Create a rule triggered by 3 failed VPN connection attempts in an 8-hour period
B. Create a rule triggered by 1 successful VPN connection from any nondestination country
C. Create a rule triggered by multiple successful VPN connections from the destination countries
D. Analyze the logs from all countries related to this user during the traveling period

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 2

An organization installed a new application server for IP phones. An automated process fetched user credentials from
the Active Directory server, and the application will have access to on-premises and cloud services. Which security
threat should be mitigated first?

A. aligning access control policies
B. exfiltration during data transfer
C. attack using default accounts
D. data exposure from backups

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 3

DRAG DROP
Drag and drop the NIST incident response process steps from the left onto the actions that occur in the steps on the
right.
Select and Place:

Reference: https://www.securitymetrics.com/blog/6-phases-incident-response-plan

QUESTION 4

A threat actor has crafted and sent a spear-phishing email with what appears to be a trustworthy link to the site of a
conference that an employee recently attended. The employee clicked the link and was redirected to a malicious site
through which the employee downloaded a PDF attachment infected with ransomware.

The employee opened the attachment, which exploited vulnerabilities on the desktop. The ransomware is now installed and is calling back to its command and control server.

Which security solution is needed at this stage to mitigate the attack?

A. web security solution
B. email security solution
C. endpoint security solution
D. network security solution

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 5

What is the HTTP response code when the REST API information requested by the authenticated user cannot be
found?

A. 401
B. 402
C. 403
D. 404
E. 405

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://airbrake.io/blog/http-errors/401-unauthorizederror#:~:text=The%20401%20Unauthorized%20Error%20is,client%20could%20not%20be%20authenticatd.

QUESTION 6

A payroll administrator noticed unexpected changes within a piece of software and reported the incident to the incident response team. Which actions should be taken at this step in the incident response workflow?

A. Classify the criticality of the information, research the attacker\\’s motives, and identify missing patches
B. Determine the damage to the business, extract reports, and save evidence according to a chain of custody
C. Classify the attack vector, understand the scope of the event, and identify the vulnerabilities being exploited
D. Determine the attack surface, evaluate the risks involved, and communicate the incident according to the escalation
plan

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 7

DRAG-DROP
Drag and drop the type of attacks from the left onto the cyber kill chain stages at which the attacks are seen on the
right.
Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

QUESTION 8

An engineer received an alert of a zero-day vulnerability affecting desktop phones through which an attacker sends a
crafted packet to a device resets the credentials, makes the device unavailable, and allows a default administrator
account login.

Which step should an engineer take after receiving this alert?

A. Initiate a triage meeting to acknowledge the vulnerability and its potential impact
B. Determine company usage of the affected products
C. Search for a patch to install from the vendor
D. Implement restrictions within the VoIP VLANs

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 9

Refer to the exhibit. What results from this script?

A. Seeds for existing domains are checked
B. A search is conducted for additional seeds
C. Domains are compared to seed rules
D. A list of domains as seeds is blocked

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 10

Refer to the exhibit. An engineer is performing a static analysis on malware and knows that it is capturing keys and
webcam events on a company server. What is the indicator of compromise?

A. The malware is performing comprehensive fingerprinting of the host, including a processor, motherboard
manufacturer, and connected removable storage.
B. The malware is ransomware querying for installed anti-virus products and operating systems to encrypt and render
unreadable until payment is made for file decryption.
C. The malware has moved to harvest cookies and stored account information from major browsers and configuring
a reverse proxy for intercepting network activity.
D. The malware contains an encryption and decryption routine to hide URLs/IP addresses and is storing the output of
loggers and webcam capture in locally encrypted files for retrieval.

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 11

The incident response team was notified of detected malware. The team identified the infected hosts, removed the
malware restored the functionality and data of infected systems and planned a company meeting to improve the
incident handling capability.

Which step was missed according to the NIST incident handling guide?

A. Contain the malware
B. Install IPS software
C. Determine the escalation path
D. Perform vulnerability assessment

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 12

Refer to the exhibit. What is occurring in this packet capture?

A. TCP port scan
B. TCP flood
C. DNS flood
D. DNS tunneling

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 13

Refer to the exhibit. How must these advisories be prioritized for handling?

A. The highest priority for handling depends on the type of institution deploying the devices
B. Vulnerability #2 is the highest priority for every type of institution
C. Vulnerability #1 and vulnerability #2 have the same priority
D. Vulnerability #1 is the highest priority for every type of institution

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 14

What is the purpose of hardening systems?

A. to securely configure machines to limit the attack surface
B. to create the logic that triggers alerts when anomalies occur
C. to identify vulnerabilities within an operating system
D. to analyze attacks to identify threat actors and points of entry

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 15

A company\\’s web server availability was breached by a DDoS attack and was offline for 3 hours because it was not
deemed a critical asset in the incident response playbook. Leadership has requested a risk assessment of the asset. An
analyst conducted the risk assessment using the threat sources, events, and vulnerabilities.

Which additional element is needed to calculate the risk?

A. assessment scope
B. event severity and likelihood
C. incident response playbook
D. risk model framework

Correct Answer: D

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The latest practice test, Cisco 350-701 exam questions answers 1-13

QUESTION 1
What are two differences between a Cisco WSA that is running in transparent mode and one running in explicit mode?
(Choose two.)
A. When the Cisco WSA is running in transparent mode, it uses the WSA\\’s own IP address as the HTTP request
destination.
B. The Cisco WSA responds with its own IP address only if it is running in explicit mode.
C. The Cisco WSA is configured in a web browser only if it is running in transparent mode.
D. The Cisco WSA uses a Layer 3 device to redirect traffic only if it is running in transparent mode.
E. The Cisco WSA responds with its own IP address only if it is running in transparent mode.
Correct Answer: BD


QUESTION 2
Why is it important to have logical security controls on endpoints even though the users are trained to spot security
threats and the network devices already help prevent them?
A. to prevent theft of the endpoints
B. because defense-in-depth stops at the network
C. to expose the endpoint to more threats
D. because human error or insider threats will still exist
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 3
Which solution combines Cisco IOS and IOS XE components to enable administrators to recognize applications, collect
and send network metrics to Cisco Prime and other third-party management tools, and prioritize application traffic?
A. Cisco Security Intelligence
B. Cisco Application Visibility and Control
C. Cisco Model Driven Telemetry
D. Cisco DNA Center
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4
For which two conditions can an endpoint be checked using ISE posture assessment? (Choose two.)
A. computer identity
B. Windows service
C. user identity
D. Windows firewall
E. default browser
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 5
An engineer is configuring a Cisco ESA and wants to control whether to accept or reject email messages to a recipient
address. Which list contains the allowed recipient addresses?
A. SAT
B. BAT
C. HAT
D. RAT
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 6
What are two functions of secret key cryptography? (Choose two.)
A. key selection without integer factorization
B. utilization of different keys for encryption and decryption
C. utilization of large prime number iterations
D. utilization of less memory
E. provides the capability to only know the key on one side
Correct Answer: BE

QUESTION 7
An administrator wants to ensure that all endpoints are compliant before users are allowed access on the corporate
network.
The endpoints must have the corporate antivirus application installed and be running the latest build of Windows 10.
What must the administrator implement to ensure that all devices are compliant before they are allowed on the
network?
A. Cisco Identity Services Engine and AnyConnect Posture module
B. Cisco Stealthwatch and Cisco Identity Services Engine integration
C. Cisco ASA firewall with Dynamic Access Policies configured
D. Cisco Identity Services Engine with PxGrid services enabled
Correct Answer: A
https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/vpn_client/anyconnect/anyconnect46/administration/guide/b_AnyConnect_Administrator_Guide_4-6/configure-posture.html


QUESTION 8
What Cisco command shows you the status of an 802.1X connection on interface gi0/1?
A. show authorization status
B. show authen sess int gi0/1
C. show connection status gi0/1
D. show ver gi0/1
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 9
Which two are valid suppression types on a Cisco Next Generation Intrusion Prevention System?
A. Port
B. Rule
C. Source
D. Application
E. Protocol
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 10
What is a difference between DMVPN and sVTI?
A. DMVPN supports tunnel encryption, whereas sVTI does not.
B. DMVPN supports dynamic tunnel establishment, whereas sVTI does not.
C. DMVPN supports static tunnel establishment, whereas sVTI does not.
D. DMVPN provides interoperability with other vendors, whereas sVTI does not.
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 11
After deploying a Cisco ESA on your network, you notice that some messages fail to reach their destinations. Which
task can you perform to determine where each message was lost?
A. Configure the trackingconfig command to enable message tracking.
B. Generate a system report.
C. Review the log files.
D. Perform a trace.
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 12
A network engineer is configuring DMVPN and entered the crypto is akmp key cisc0380739941 address 0.0.0.0
command on host A The tunnel is not being established to host B. What action is needed to authenticate the VPN?
A. Enter the same command on host B.
B. Enter the command with a different password on host B.
C. Change isakmp to ikev2 in the command on host A.
D. Change the password on host A to the default password.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 13
In which cloud services model is the tenant responsible for virtual machine OS patching?
A. IaaS
B. UCaaS
C. PaaS
D. SaaS
Correct Answer: A

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The latest practice test, Cisco 350-501 exam questions answers 1-13

QUESTION 1
Refer to the exhibit.

350-501 exam questions-q1
An engineer configured multicast routing on client\\’s network. What is the effect of this multicast implementation?
A. R2 floods information about R1 throughout the multicast domain.
B. R2 is unable to share information because the ip pirn autorp listener command is missing.
C. R1 floods information about R2 throughout the multicast domain.
D. R2 is elected as the RP for this domain.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 2
Which utility must be used to locate MPLS faults?
A. QoS
B. MPLS LSP ping
C. MPLStraceroute
D. EEM
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 3

350-501 exam questions-q3
Refer to the exhibit. A network operator working for service provider with an employee id: 1234:56:789 applied this
configuration to a router.
Which additional step should the engineer use to enable LDP?
A. Enable MPLS LDP on the interface.
B. Disable Cisco Express Forwarding globally.
C. Delete the static router ID.
D. Configure the both keyword to enable LDP globally.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4
Which configuration enables BGP FlowSpec client function and installation of policies on all local interfaces?
A. flowspec address-family ipv4 local-install interface-all
B. flowspec address-family ipv4 install interface-all local
C. flowspec address-family ipv4 install interface-all
D. flowspec address-family ipv4 local-install all-interface
Correct Answer: A
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/ios-xml/ios/iproute_bgp/configuration/xe-16-6/irg-xe-16-6-book/C3PLBGP-Flowspec-Client.html

QUESTION 5

350-501 exam questions-q5
Refer to the exhibit. What is the URL used for with REST API?
A. It is used to initiate an FTP session to save a running configuration of a device.
B. It is used to send a message to the APIC to perform an operation on a managed object or class operator.
C. It is used to contact a URL filter to determine the efficacy of a web address.
D. It is used to send a TACACS + authentication request to a server.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 6

350-501 exam questions-q6
Refer to the exhibit. If router RA is configured as shown, which IPv4 multicast address space does it use?
A. 224.0.0.0/8
B. 225.0.0.0/8
C. 232.0.0.0/8
D. 239.0.0.0/8
Correct Answer: C
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/lan/catalyst3850/software/release/3se/multicast/configuration_guide/b_mc_3se_3850_cg/b_mc_3se_3850_cg_chapter_01011.html

QUESTION 7

350-501 exam questions-q7
Refer to the exhibit Which effect of this configuration is true?
A. The two routers fail to form a neighbor relationship because they have different IS-IS area types.
B. The two routers successfully form a neighbor relationship.
C. The two routers fail to form a neighbor relationship because the authentication configuration is missing.
D. The two routers fail to form a neighbor relationship because their system IDs are different.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 8

350-501 exam questions-q8

Refer to the exhibit Which effect of this configuration is true?
A. R1 can support a peer that is configured for LDP SSO/NSF as the peer recovers from an outage.
B. R1can support a graceful restart operation on the peer, even if graceful restart is disabled on the peer.
C. R1 can failover to any peer.
D. R1 can failover only to a peer that is configured for LDF SSO/NSF.
Correct Answer: A
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/en/US/docs/general/Test/kwoodwar/fsgr29s.html

QUESTION 9

350-501 exam questions-q9

Refer to the exhibit. Router 1 was experiencing a DDoS attack that was traced to interface gigabitethernet0/1. Which
statement about this configuration is true?
A. Router 1 accepts all traffic that ingresses and egresses interface gigabitethernet0/1.
B. Router 1 drops all traffic that ingresses interface gigabitethernet0/1 that has a FIB entry that exits a different
interface.
C. Router 1 accepts source addresses that have a match in the FIB that indicates it is reachable through a real
interface.
D. Router 1 accepts source addresses on interface gigabitethernet0/1 that are private addresses.
Correct Answer: C
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/datacenter/sw/4_1/nxos/security/configuration/guide/sec_nx-os-cfg/sec_urpf.html

QUESTION 10
Which three OSPF parameters must match before two devices can establish an OSPF adjacency? (Choose three.)
A. IP address
B. subnet mask
C. interface cost
D. process ID
E. area number
F. hello timer setting
Correct Answer: BEF

QUESTION 11
What is a role of NSO?
A. It automates the deployment of access points with its built-in wireless LAN controller.
B. It manages WAN infrastructure using a virtual switch.
C. It provides full lifecycle management of a device.
D. It resides on a hypervisor that runs the Windows OS.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 12
What does DWDM use to combine multiple optical signals?
A. frequency
B. IP protocols
C. time slots
D. wavelength
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 13

350-501 exam questions-q13

Refer to the exhibit Router R1 and its peer R2 reside on the same subnet in the network. If an engineer implements this
configuration to R1, how does it make connections to R2?
A. R1 establishes TCP connections that are authenticated with a clear-text password.
B. R1 establishes UDP connections that are authenticated with an MD5 password.
C. R1 establishes UDP connections that are authenticated with a clear-text password.
D. R1 establishes TCP connections that are authenticated with an MD5 password.
Correct Answer: D

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QUESTION 1
In a PIM-SM environment, which mechanism determines the traffic that a receiver receives?
A. The receiver explicitly requests its desired traffic from the RP on the shared tree.
B. The receiver explicitly requests traffic from a single source, which responds by forwarding all traffic.
C. The RP on the shared tree floods traffic out of all PIM configured interfaces.
D. The receiver explicitly requests traffic from each desired source, which responds by sending all traffic.
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 2
300-510 exam questions-q2

Refer to the exhibit. R1 is directly connected to R2 and R3. R1 is in BGP AS 123, R2 is in BGP AS 2, and R3 is in BGP
AS 3. Assume that there is no connectivity issue between R1, R2 and R1, R3. Which result between BGP peers R1, R2
and R1, R3 is true?
A. The BGP session does not come up between R1 and R2 and between R1 and R3.
B. The BGP session comes up between R1 and R2 and between R1 and R3.
C. The BGP session comes up between R1 and R3, but not between R1 and R2.
D. The BGP session comes up between R1 and R2, but not between R1 and R3.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 3

300-510 exam questions-q3

Refer to the exhibit. A network operator is getting the route for 10.11.11 0/24 from two upstream providers on #XR3. The
network operator must configure #XR3 to force the 10.11.11.0/24 prefix to route via next hop of 10.0.0.9 as primary
when available.
Which of these can the operator use the routing policy language for, to enforce this traffic forwarding path?
A. weight of 0 on the prefix coming from 192.168.0.2
B. lower local preference on the prefix coming from 192.168.0.2
C. higher local preference on the prefix coming from 192.168.0.1
D. weight of 100 on the prefix coming from 192.168.0.1
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 4

300-510 exam questions-q4

Refer to the exhibit. XR1 and XR2 are sending the prefix 10.11.11.0/24 to XR3. A configured policy on XR1 is incorrectly
prepending AS path 11 11 12 12 onto this prefix. A network operator wants to add a policy onto XR3 that will not allow
the falsely prepending prefix from being installed.
Which policy configuration applied to the XR3 neighbor configuration for XR1 can accomplish this requirement without
impact on other or future received routes?

300-510 exam questions-q4-2

A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
Correct Answer: D
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/routers/crs/software/crs_r4-1/routing/command/reference/b_routing_cr41crs/b_routing_cr41crs_chapter_01000.html#wp3850885229

QUESTION 5
Which two statements about mapping multicast IP addresses to MAC addresses are true? (Choose two.)
A. All mapped multicast MAC addresses begin with 0x0100.5E
B. The router performs the mapping before it hands the packet off to a switch
C. All multicast MAC addresses end with 0x0100.5E
D. The mapping process may generate overlapping addresses, which can cause receivers to receive unwanted packets
E. All destination MAC addresses begin with an octet of binary 1s
Correct Answer: AD


QUESTION 6
Which two characteristics unique to SSM when compared to ASM are true? (Choose two.)
A. It uses SPT switchover
B. It uses (*,G) exclusively
C. It uses IGMPv3
D. It uses RP
E. It uses (S,G) exclusively
Correct Answer: CE

QUESTION 7

300-510 exam questions-q7

Refer to the exhibit. After troubleshooting an OSPF adjacency issue, routers 1, 2, and 3 have formed OSPF neighbor
relationships. Which statement about the configuration is true?
A. Router 2 receives a Type 5 LSAs from router 1 for its connected subnets
B. Router 2 uses router 3 as the next hop for 192.168.0.0/24
C. Router 2 uses router 1 as the next hop for 192.168.0.0/24
D. Router 2 receives a Type 7 LSAs from router 3 for its connected subnets
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 8

300-510 exam questions-q8

Refer to the exhibit. Why is neighbor 10.1.5.5 stuck in “2WAY” state?
A. Router ID 10.1.5.5 is not reachable from R2
B. OSPF authentication has failed between R2 and 10.1.5.5
C. It is an expected behavior when OSPF network type is broadcast
D. OSPF parameters (Area ID or hello interval) are mismatched between R2 and 10.1.5.5
Correct Answer: C
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/ip/open-shortest-path-first-ospf/13683-11.html

QUESTION 9

300-510 exam questions-q9

Refer to the exhibit. Which task must you perform on interface g1/0/0 to complete the SSM implementation?
A. configure OSPFv3
B. enable CDP
C. disable IGMP
D. configure IGMPv3
Correct Answer: D
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/ios-xml/ios/ipmulti_pim/configuration/xe-16/imc-pim-xe-16-book/imcssm.html


QUESTION 10
You have configured MSDP peering between two autonomous systems that pass traffic between two sites, but the
peering has failed to come up.
Which task do you perform to begin troubleshooting the problem?
A. Verify that multicast has been disabled globally
B. Verify that PIM-DM is configured on the source interface
C. Verify that both source interfaces are reachable from both peers
D. Verify that the two MSDP peers allow asymmetric routing
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 11
Refer to the exhibit.

300-510 exam questions-q11

Which three statements are correct regarding the Cisco IOS-XR configuration? (Choose three.)
A. This router, acting as the RP mapping agent, will send RP announcement messages to the 224.0.1.40 group
B. This router, acting as the RP mapping agent, will send RP discovery messages to the 224.0.1.39 group
C. This router is the RP mapping agent only for the 224.11.11.11 and 224.99.99.99 multicast groups
D. This router is a candidate PIM-SM RP for the 224.99.99.99 multicast group
E. This router is a candidate PIM-BIDIR RP for the 224.11.11.11 multicast group
F. IGMPv3 is enabled on all interfaces
G. Other routers will recognize this router as the RP for all multicast groups with this router loopback 0 IP address
Correct Answer: DEF

QUESTION 12

300-510 exam questions-q12

Refer to the exhibit. After troubleshooting BGP traffic steering issue, which action did the network operator take to
achieve the correct effect of this configuration?
A. Routes that have passed through AS 65517 have the local preference set to 150.
B. Routes that have originated through AS 65517 have the local preference set to 150.
C. Routes directly attached to AS 65517 have the local preference set to 150.
D. Routes that have passed through AS 65517 have the local preference set to 150 and the traffic is denied.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 13

300-510 exam questions-q13

Refer to the exhibit. A network operator wants to expand the segment routing global block in upcoming maintenance.
The operator must ensure that the changes to the segment routing global block have no adverse impacts on the prefixsid associated with the loopback0 interface used within the OSPF domain.
Which command can the operator use to enforce R2 to have a strict prefix-sid assignment to loopback0?
300-510 exam questions-q13-2

A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
Correct Answer: C

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  • Infrastructure and design
  • Protocols, codecs, and endpoints
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  • Call Control
  • QoS
  • Collaboration applications

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400-051 CCIE Collaboration Practice Questions

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QUESTION 1
Refer to the exhibit.

Pass4itsure Cisco 400-051 exam questions q1

An engineer is configuring dynamic Call routing and DN learning between two Cisco Unified CM and Two Cisco Unified
CME systems. Which two configuration steps are required for all this feature to work? (Choose two)
A. Configure routers A and to use a different autonomous system number for DN routing
B. Configure routers A and to use EIGRP for IP Routing
C. Configure Cisco Unified CM A+B as service advertisement framework clients
D. Configure router A and to use OSPF for IP Routing
E. Configure Cisco Unified CME A+B as service advertisements forwarders
F. Configure routers A and to use the same autonomous system number for DN Routing
Correct Answer: CF

QUESTION 2
On a Cisco Unified Communications Manager SIP trunk with a single remote device and OPTIONS ping feature
enabled, which response from the SIP remote peer causes the trunk to be marked as “Out of Service”?
A. 401 Unauthorized
B. 505 Version Not Supported C. 406 Not Acceptable
D. 408 Request Timeout
E. 500 Server Internal Error
Correct Answer: D
408 Request Timeout Couldn\\’t find the user in time. The server could not produce a response within a suitable amount
of time, for example, if it could not determine the location of the user in time. The client MAY repeat the request without
modifications at any later time
References: http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/List_of_SIP_response_codes

QUESTION 3Pass4itsure Cisco 400-051 exam questions q8-2
Refer to the exhibit. Which description of a User Agent Server that sends this message this message is true?

Pass4itsure Cisco 400-051 exam questions q3

A. The UAS sends this message in response to an earlier ACK received.
B. It is not possible for the UAS to send this message.
C. The UAS sends this message in response to an earlier PRACK received.
D. The UAS sends this single message in response to an earlier INVITE that contains PRACK.
E. The UAS sends this message in response to an earlier INVITE received.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 4
Which Cisco Unified Contact Center Express data store contains user scripts, grammars, and documents?
A. configuration data store
B. repository data store
C. agent data store
D. historical data store
E. script data store
Correct Answer: B
Unified CCX applications might use auxiliary files that interact with callers, such as scripts, pre-recorded prompts,
grammars, and custom Java classes. Depending on each implementation, Unified CCX applications use some or all of
the following file types. The Unified CCX Server\\’s local disk prompt, grammar, and document files are synchronized
with the central repository during Unified CCX engine startup and during run-time when the Repository datastore is
modified.

QUESTION 5
Which four presence statuses are supported in Cisco IM and Presence federation with Microsoft Lync server? (Choose
four.)
A. offline
B. on the phone
C. busy
D. idle
E. invisible
F. in a meeting
G. available
H. away
Correct Answer: ABGH

QUESTION 6
Which three issues prevent a customer from seeing the presence status of a new contact in their Jabber contact list?
(Choose three.)
A. incoming calling search space on SIP trunk to IMandP
B. IMandP incoming ACL blocking inbound status
C. subscribe calling search space on SIP trunk to IMandP
D. PC cannot resolve the FQDN of IMandP
E. Owner user ID is not set on device.
F. Primary DN is not set in end user configuration for that user.
G. Subscriber calling search space is not defined on user\\’s phone.
Correct Answer: BCD
References: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/voice-unified-communications/unified-presence/97443-cupscupc-ts.html

QUESTION 7
Which two Cisco IOS multipoint video conferencing profiles are supported on the Cisco Integrated Router Generation 2
with packet voice and video digital signal processor 3? (Choose two.)
A. homogeneous
B. rendezvous
C. guaranteed-audio
D. scheduled
E. guaranteed-video F. ad-hoc
Correct Answer: AC
Q. What video conferences are supported?
A. Three types of video profiles are supported: homogeneous conferences (video switching), heterogeneous
conferences (video mixing), and guaranteed audio conferences (best-effort video).
References: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/products/collateral/unified-communications/voice-video-conferencing-isrrouters/qa_c67-649850.html

QUESTION 8
Drag and drop the logical components of a traditional SDN infrastructure into the correct order.
Similar to open system interconnection model (OSI model), working your way up from the network infrastructure layer.
Select and Place:

Pass4itsure Cisco 400-051 exam questions q8

Correct Answer:

Pass4itsure Cisco 400-051 exam questions q8-2

QUESTION 9
Which Cisco Unified Communications Manager deployment model for clustering over the IP WAN mandates a primary
and a backup subscriber at the same site?
A. multisite with centralized call processing
B. multisite with distributed call processing
C. local failover
D. remote failover
E. remote failover with Cisco Unified Communications Manager Express as SRST
Correct Answer: C
Clustering Over the IP WAN You may deploy a single Unified CM cluster across multiple sites that are connected by an
IP WAN with QoS features enabled. This section provides a brief overview of clustering over the WAN. For further
information, refer to the chapter on Call Processing. Clustering over the WAN can support two types of
deployments:?ocal Failover Deployment Model
Local failover requires that you place the Unified CM subscriber and backup servers at the same site, with no WAN
between them. This type of deployment is ideal for two to four sites with Unified CM.
?emote Failover Deployment Model
Remote failover allows you to deploy primary and backup call processing servers split across the WAN. Using this type
of deployment, you may have up to eight sites with Unified CM subscribers being backed up by Unified CM subscribers
at
another site.
References: http://www.cisco.com/en/US/docs/voice_ip_comm/cucm/srnd/4x/42models.html

QUESTION 10
Users report that they are unable to control their Cisco 6941 desk phone from their Jabber client, but the Jabber client
works as a soft phone. Which two configuration changes allow this? (Choose two)
A. Assign group “Standard CTI Allow Control of Phones supporting Connected Xfer and Conf” to the user.
B. Set the End User page to the Primary Extension on the desk phone.
C. Set the Owner User ID on the desk phone.
D. Assign group “Standard CTI Enabled User Group” to the user.
E. Assign group “Standard CTI Allow Control of Phones Supporting Rollover Mode” to the user.
Correct Answer: AE

QUESTION 11
Refer to the exhibit. An engineer is analyzing a SIP call between the Cisco Unified Communications Manager on the left
to Cisco Unified Border Element on the right. Based on information displayed, which behavior can be determined from
the exhibit?

Pass4itsure Cisco 400-051 exam questions q11Pass4itsure Cisco 400-051 exam questions q11

A. The midcall-signaling block command is configured on Cisco Unified Border Element so re-invites are not consumed.
B. The call has interworking issues where the user is not experiencing audio.
C. The call is terminated because the 200 OK messages are not arriving to Cisco Unified Communications Manager.
D. The mid-call re-invite negotiated for Call Hold/Resume supplementary service.
Correct Answer: DA. The midcall-signaling block command is configured on Cisco Unified Border Element so re-invites are not consumed.
B. The call has interworking issues where the user is not experiencing audio.
C. The call is terminated because the 200 OK messages are not arriving to Cisco Unified Communications Manager.
D. The mid-call re-invite negotiated for Call Hold/Resume supplementary service.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 12
Which entity signs a Cisco IP phone LSC?
A. Godaddy.com Enrollment Server
B. Manufacturer Certificate Authority
C. Registration Authority
D. Certificate Authority Proxy Function
E. Cisco Certificate Authority
Correct Answer: D
By default, LSC certificates are not installed on Cisco IP phones. Cisco IP phones that are required to use LSC
certificates must be provisioned to allow TLS transactions before deployment in the field. LSC certificates can be
provisioned to the Cisco IP phones through the Certificate Authority Proxy Function (CAPF) process. This process is
completed using TLS and USB tokens coupled with the CTL client. Moreover, the Cisco ASA Phone Proxy feature can
serve LSC certificates to the Cisco IP phones. Cisco IP phones will only work with the Cisco ASA Phone Proxy and will
not establish secure connectivity with the Cisco Unified Communications Manager.

QUESTION 13
Refer to the exhibit.

Pass4itsure Cisco 400-051 exam questions q13

An engineer mapped the enhance location call admission control configuration to match the physical links and
bandwidth allowances. Assuming no other calls are consuming any bandwidth, how many G722 calls are allowed
between site A and site G?
A. 5
B. 7
C. 12
D. 25
E. 37
Correct Answer: B

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QUESTION 1
Which two statements are true regarding Cisco ISE? (Choose two.)
A. The major business outcomes of ISE are enhanced user experience and secure VLAN segmentation.
B. ISE plays a critical role in SD-Access.
C. Without integration with any other product, ISE can track the actual physical location of a wireless endpoint as it
moves.
D. ISE can provide data about when a specific device connected to the network.
E. An ISE deployment requires only a Cisco ISE network access control appliance.
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 2
Which two activities should occur during an SE\\’s demo process? (Choose two.)
A. determining whether the customer would like to dive deeper during a follow up.
B. asking the customer to provide network drawings or white board the environment for you.
C. identifying which capabilities require demonstration.
D. leveraging a company such as Complete Communications to build a financial case.
E. highlighting opportunities that although not currently within scope would result in lower operational costs and
complexity.
Correct Answer: CE

QUESTION 3
Which node enables Cisco ISE to share contextual information on a device with Cisco Stealthwatch?
A. Monitoring and Troubleshooting Node
B. pXGrid Controller
C. Policy Administration Node
D. Inline Posture Node
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4
Which two options help you sell Cisco ISE? (Choose two.)
A. Downplaying the value of pxGrid as compared to RESTful APIs
B. Explaining ISE support for 3rd party network devices
C. Showcasing the entire ISE feature set
D. Referring to TrustSec as being only supported on Cisco networks
E. Discussing the importance of custom profiling
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 5
Which two Cisco ISE use cases typically involve the highest level of implementation complexity? (Choose two.)
A. Guest and wireless access
B. Software-defined access
C. Device management
D. Asset visibility
E. Software-defined segmentation
Correct Answer: BE

QUESTION 6
How would Cisco ISE handle authentication for your printer that does not have a supplicant?
A. ISE would not authenticate the printer as printers are not subject to ISE authentication.
B. ISE would authenticate the printer using 802.1X authentication.
C. ISE would authenticate the printer using MAB.
D. ISE would authenticate the printer using web authentication.
E. ISE would authenticate the printer using MAC RADIUS authentication.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 7
Which are two Cisco ISE that benefits our customers? (Choose two.)
A. provides network access control
B. helps them stop and contain real-time threats
C. enables them to set traffic priorities across the network
D. helps them accelerate application deployment and delivery
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 8
Which component of the SD-Access fabric is responsible for communicating with networks that are external to the
fabric?
A. edge nodes
B. control plane nodes
C. intermediate nodes
D. border nodes
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 9
Which three key differentiators that DNA Assurance provides that our competitors are unable match? (Choose three.)
A. Support for Overlay Virtual Transport
B. On-premise and cloud-base analytics
C. Apple Insights
D. VXLAN support
E. Proactive approach to guided remediation
F. Network time travel
Correct Answer: BEF

QUESTION 10
Which feature is supported on the Cisco vEdge platform?
A. single sign-on
B. IPv6 transport (WAN)
C. 2-factor authentication
D. license enforcement
E. reporting
F. non-Ethernet interfaces
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 11
Which two options are primary functions of Cisco ISE? (Choose two.)
A. providing VPN access for any type of device
B. providing information about every device that touches the network
C. enabling WAN deployment over any type of connection
D. automatically enabling, disabling, or reducing allocated power to certain devices
E. enforcing endpoint compliance with network security policies
F. allocating resources
Correct Answer: BE

QUESTION 12
Which element of the Cisco SD-WAN architecture facilitates the functions of controller discovery and NAT traversal?
A. vBond orchestrator
B. vManage
C. vSmart controller
D. vEdge
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 13
Which option will help build your customers platform during the discovery phase?
A. business case
B. detailed design
C. POV report
D. high-level design
E. PO
Correct Answer: A

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Implementing Cisco Wireless Networking Fundamentals:

Exam Number 200-355
Associated Certifications CCNA Wireless
Duration 90 minutes (60-70 questions)
Available Languages English, Japanese
Exam Name Implementing Cisco Wireless Network Fundamentals
Q&As 434
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QUESTION 5
200-355 dumps
200-355 dumps
QUESTION 6
An engineer is using a predictive survey tool to estimate placement of APs in a carpeted office space. Most interior walls should be assigned which attenuation value?
A. 2 dB
B. 3 dB
C. 4 dB
D. 5 dB
200-355 exam Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 7
Which wireless topology supports roaming?
A. IBSS
B. BSS
C. ESS
D. bridging
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 8
Which two factors must be considered when evaluating an RF interferer for severity? (Choose two.)
A. distance from the AP
B. dBm
C. the type of security crack being used
D. duty cycle
E. number of interfering IP stations in the cell
F. duplicate SSID
200-355 dumps Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 9
A controller is connected to a Cisco Catalyst switch. The switch port configuration looks like this: interface GigabitEthernet 1/0/10
switchport
switchport trunk encapsulation dot1q
switchport trunk allowed vlan 1,20,30,50
switchport trunk native vlan 20
switchport mode trunk
Which controller CLI command assigns its management interface to the native VLAN interface of the Cisco Catalyst
switch?
A. config interface vlan management 0
B. config interface vlan management 1
C. config interface vlan management 20
D. config interface vlan management 30
E. config interface vlan management 50
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10
An engineer has been asked to disable all OFDM rates in the wireless environment. What three rates should be disabled to fulfill this requirement? (Choose three.)
A. 2
B. 5.5
C. 6
D. 9
E. 11
F. 12
G. 18
200-355 pdf Correct Answer: ABE

QUESTION 11
Which type of authentication is used initially by a controller-based AP so that a guest client can get an IP address?
A. 802.1x
B. EAP
C. LEAP
D. open authentication
E. TLS
F. SSL
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 12
200-355 dumps
Refer to the exhibit. During deployment of a WLC on a customer site, the GUI log displayed this error message. What could be causing this error?
A. An access point has been assigned to an AP group that has reached maximum capacity.
B. An access point has been assigned to an AP group that has been deleted.
C. An access point has been removed from an AP group and assigned to a FlexConnect AP group.
D. An access point has been removed from an AP group and assigned to the default AP group.
200-355 vce Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 13
Which user group has the ability to configure all features of the Cisco WCS except the user accounts and passwords?
A. Admin
B. SuperUser
C. Root
D. Supervisor
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 14
An engineer is connecting a Cisco 5508 Wireless Controller that must connect to an out-of- band management network for management only. Which two options should be used for the port on the WLC and the cable type? (Choose two.)
A. service port
B. redundancy port
C. console port
D. distribution system port
E. straight through cable
F. crossover cable
G. console cable
200-355 exam Correct Answer: AE

QUESTION 15
How does an LWAP receive a configuration file?
A. It is configured manually.
B. It receives a configuration from the controller.
C. It automatically ships with a configuration.
D. It receives a configuration from a TFTP server.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 16
What two capabilities would be present on a wireless client device that supports CCXv3? (Choose two.)
A. WPA2
B. 802.1x
C. PEAP-MSCHAP
D. NAC
E. MFP
F. EAP-TLS
200-355 dumps Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 17
A customer mounted three new APs in a small business. After configuring the IP address, users still could not access the web through the new access points. What two configurations are needed to fix this? (Choose two.)
A. Security parameters
B. Gateway address
C. Service Set ID
D. Antenna option
E. EAP Authentication
F. Unique AP Name
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 18
Which two statements about the results of the Cisco WCS version 7.0 client troubleshooting tool are true? (Choose two.)
A. Results of Layers 1 – 3 are provided.
B. Results of only Layers 2 and 3 are provided.
C. Results of Layers 4 – 7 are provided.
D. The tabulated results vary depending on the client type.
E. Results are provided in a fixed four-part tabulation.
F. Results are provided in a fixed six-part tabulation.
200-355 pdf Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 19
Which open standard defines the combination of Extensible Authentication Protocol with Advanced Encryption Standard for providing strong wireless LAN client security?
A. IEEE 802.1X
B. IEEE 802.11i
C. WEP
D. WPA
E. WPA2
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 20
What two access methods are enabled by default on a Cisco WLC? (Choose two.)
A. HTTP
B. HTTPS
C. Telnet
D. SSH
E. VPN
F. SFTP
200-355 exam Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 21
200-355 dumps
Correct Answer:
200-355 dumps

QUESTION 22
To implement a more secure means of communication for voice and data, what technology successfully resists interference by utilizing a wider bandwidth than needed for the transmitting signal?
A. Spread Spectrum
B. Microwave
C. Extended U-NII2
D. ISM Bands
200-355 dumps Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 23
Which Cisco WCS tool allows you to view current reports, open specific types of reports, create and save new reports, and manage scheduled runs?
A. Reports menu
B. Reports launch page
C. Scheduled Run results
D. saved reports
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 24
Which two algorithms are available in RRM? (Choose two.)
A. coverage-hole detection
B. dynamic channel assignment
C. RSSI normalizer
D. transmitting channel expander
E. rogue detection
200-355 pdf Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 25
Which IEEE 802.11n client feature can combine the signal from multiple antennas and radio chains to improve SNR?
A. channel aggregation
B. spatial multiplexing
C. MAC layer efficiency
D. TxBF
E. MRC
F. MCS
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 26
Which two statements about the results of the Cisco WCS version 7.0 client troubleshooting tool are true? (Choose two.)
A. Results of Layers 1 – 3 are provided.
B. Results of only Layers 2 and 3 are provided.
C. Results of Layers 4 – 7 are provided.
D. The tabulated results vary depending on the client type.
E. Results are provided in a fixed four-part tabulation.
F. Results are provided in a fixed six-part tabulation.
200-355 vce Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 27
When using a Split MAC architecture, how many CAPWAP data tunnels will be built to an AP with four SSIDs across two VLANs?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 28
A network engineer notices that two mesh APs are having problems communicating. After reviewing the current radio configurations, it is noted that one AP is transmitting at 3 mW while the other is transmitting at 60 mW. How many decibels would the 3-mW AP need its power increased to match the 60-mW AP?
A. 8
B. 12
C. 13
D. 20
E. 57
200-355 exam Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 29
An 802.11g network is experiencing intermittent signal degradation and Spectrum Analyzer is being used to try and locate the problem. What two interferers would likely be identified? (Choose two.)
A. multiple cell phones
B. microwave oven
C. FM Radio
D. cordless phone
E. document scanner
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 30
You are sitting in an airport preparing to use a free WLAN. When you look at the connections in your Windows 7 wireless client, you see a network name and three boxes with a yellow shield. What does this mean?
A. You cannot connect to this WLAN.
B. An open ad hoc network is nearby.
C. The WLAN in the airport is open.
D. A secure ad hoc network is nearby.
E. A secure WLAN is in the airport.
F. You must provide a username and password to access the WLAN in the airport.
200-355 dumps Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 31
The network administrator wants an access point to be able to find rogue APs and to support location-based services. Which AP mode meets this requirement while having the radios up and preventing client connections?
A. monitor
B. sniffer
C. rogue-detection
D. H-REAP
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 32
The network administrator receives complaints of slow wireless network performance and performs a sniffer trace of the
wireless network in preparation for migration to 802.11n. The sample capture shows frames that contains AP beacons with NonERP_Present bit set to 1 and frames with RTS/CTS. Which two conclusions can be interpreted from these frames? (Choose two.)
A. The network is performing slowly because 802.11n clients are already mixed with 802.11g clients.
B. The network is performing slowly because 802.11b clients still exist in the network.
C. The network is performing slowly because a wireless client is incorrectly configured, which results in RF interference.
D. Possible 802.11b wireless clients are located only in the AP cell radius where the sniffer capture was performed.
E. Possible 802.11b wireless clients could be located anywhere in the wireless network.
200-355 pdf Correct Answer: BE

QUESTION 33
Which Cisco AnyConnect module allows troubleshooting for core AnyConnect problems?
A. telemetry
B. web security
C. VPN
D. NAM
E. DART
F. posture
G. CSSC
Correct Answer: E

200-355 dumps

The following course is the recommended training for this exam:

  • Implementing Cisco Wireless Network Fundamentals (WIFUND) v1.0
  • Defining Cisco Wireless LAN Essentials (WLE) v1.1
  • Implementing Cisco Wireless Network Fundamentals (WIFUND) v1.0 – Instructor led training

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Pass4isture Latest and Most Accurate Cisco 648-232 Dumps Exam Q&As(1-38)

QUESTION 1
How many VoIP callers does WebEx audio support per meeting?
A. Up to 250 callers
B. Up to 500 callers
C. Up to 700 callers
D. Up to 1000 callers
648-232 exam Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 2
Which statement is true about screenshot captures in Enterprise IM?
A. Screenshot captures are not supported in group, third-party, or web IM sessions.
B. Screen captures and file transfers can be done at any time throughout the web IM session.
C. Screen captures need to be done by a third party.
D. Only administration has the rights to capture screenshots.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3
One of the challenges of online training is measuring class effectiveness. Which two tools does Cisco WebEx Training
Center use to measure this? (Choose two.)
A. visual attention indicator
B. polling
C. self-check quizzes
D. application sharing
648-232 dumps Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 4
Where does the WebEx node reside?
A. only in the DMZ
B. on the Enterprise Branch
C. anywhere on the network
D. near the Meeting Director
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 5
Which statement is true in regards to Cisco Unified MeetingPlace video?
A. MeetingPlace standards-based video and WebEx HQ/HD video do not interoperate.
B. Customers must run both MeetingPlace standards-based video and WebEx HQ/HD video for it to run properly.
C. Only the active speaker will show in the thumbnail.
D. MeetingPlace has not yet moved to high definition.
648-232 pdf Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 6
What is the difference between HQ and HD video?
A. HQ video is 360p, while HD video is 720p or higher.
B. The terms are interchangeable.
C. HQ video is 720p, while HD video is 1080p or higher.
D. HQ video is 360p, while HD video is 1080p or higher.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 7
What are the three ways that the WebEx Support Center improves key performance metrics for a business? (Choose three.)
A. increases first-call resolution percentage
B. lengthens average call handling time
C. drives in-person sales
D. shortens average wait time
E. improves customer satisfaction rating
F. increases time to resolution
648-232 vce Correct Answer: ADE

QUESTION 8
Which two video choices do customers have for Cisco Unified MeetingPlace hybrid deployment? (Choose two.)
A. WebEx high quality/high definition
B. HD.264
C. H.23, SIP, or SCCP devices
D. MP video
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 9
Which two deployment models are supported with Cisco Unified MeetingPlace Release 8.5? (Choose two.)
A. audio-only
B. reservationless meetings
C. WebEx teleconferencing
D. WebEx scheduling
E. WebEx video-only
648-232 exam Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 10
Which two of these factors should be considered when determining the size of a conference system? (Choose two.)
A. future growth
B. service levels
C. location of participants
D. CapEx
E. node capacity
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 11
Why should policy groups be avoided when creating policies?
A. Policy groups are not supported.
B. There are possible performance impacts if not used correctly.
C. Policy groups keep the majority of users assigned to the top level group.
D. There is a limit to the number of users in a policy group.
648-232 dumps Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 12
In which category does the Domain setting appear in the WebEx Administration Tool?
A. Customization
B. Enterprise Edition
C. Configuration
D. System Settings
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 13
Which statement is true about Cisco Unified MeetingPlace personal conferences?
A. There are no recordings.
B. Only a web participant list is shown.
C. Participants are able to talk without the host present.
D. The audio session and web session will display on the participants list on the meeting room interface.
648-232 pdf Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 14
Your primary site becomes unavailable. Which one of these features enables you to automatically and transparently move all collaboration activity to the backup site, ensuring a seamless user experience?
A. medianet
B. GSB
C. WebEx One-Click
D. GDM
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 15
WebEx Meeting Center allows users to escalate to a WebEx meeting. What is required to initiate an escalation?
A. WebEx host license
B. WebEx Meeting email invitation
C. acquaintance with all participants
D. WebEx Connect ID and password
648-232 vce Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 16
Which statement is true about active speaker?
A. Active speaker switching is automatic with third-party audio only.
B. Active speaker does not work for a site without integrated audio.
C. Active speaker switching is automatic with Cisco WebEx audio, third-party audio, and Cisco Unified MeetingPlace Release 8.5.
D. Active speaker only works with those who have video enabled on their WebEx.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 17
Which three host capabilities are available on WebEx for iPad? (Choose three.)
A. schedule, start, or cancel a meeting
B. invite attendees
C. pass presenter control
D. stream media from a PC
E. chat privately with attendees
F. run WebEx in the background
648-232 exam Correct Answer: ABC

QUESTION 18
Which one of these groups uses a specific transport protocol, such as RSVP, for signaling the metadata attributes and storing the information in the database?
A. consumers
B. producers
C. solution components
D. meeting clients
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 19
What are trusted domains external to WebEx Connect?
A. whitelist domains
B. CSV files
C. blacklist domains
D. XMPP domains
648-232 dumps Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 20
What does the global attentiveness meter monitor?
A. if the attendee has the correct audio equipment
B. whether or not attendees are using external applications during the event
C. pre- and post-event reporting
D. event success
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 21
Which customers would benefit from Cisco WebEx audio?
A. customers who do not need to join a meeting via their mobile device
B. customers who have more than 500 VoIP users
C. customers using meeting spaces
D. customers who need an integrated audio feature such as active speaker or hybrid VoIP
648-232 pdf Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 22
Why is the bandwidth requirement for sending video higher than the requirement for receiving video?
A. More information is sent within the multilayer frames.
B. Receiving the video data traffic is specific to local capabilities.
C. Raw data needs to be compressed.
D. The decoder gets the bitstream from the application layer.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 23
NBR functionality features the Meeting Zone architecture. What is the purpose of this?
A. allows storage of data, video, and audio streams in separate databases
B. allows local storage of data, video, and audio streams
C. allows storage of data, video, and audio streams in a single database
D. allows storage of an individual stream in a database
648-232 vce Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 24
What is the maximum capacity of participants for a Cisco WebEx Meeting Center and Training Center meeting?
A. 250
B. 300
C. 400
D. 500
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 25
What happens to the data if the node at the branch site goes down?
A. The data is typically rerouted over the private network.
B. Data from the WebEx node is sent to SIP.
C. The client tries to reconnect to the same collaboration bridge.
D. ASR will condense the information into one outbound stream.
648-232 exam Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 26
Which feature in Cisco WebEx Meeting Center allows you to collaboratively brainstorm ideas and take notes?
A. integrated audio and VoIP
B. whiteboard
C. Network-Based Recording
D. WebEx One-Click
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 27
If an Active Directory Federation Services customer chooses to enable IWA, what will WebEx Federated SSO use to
take the Windows login from the PC directly, so that end users do not need to sign in at all?
A. WebEx One-Click
B. Kerberos integration method
C. SAML
D. IDM
648-232 dumps Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 28
What is the number one customer complaint surveyed by technical support organizations?
A. cost of service
B. time that it takes to resolve issue
C. lack of resolution
D. time that it takes to reach a service representative
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 29
What should be enabled so that users do not have to enter their username and password?
A. SAML
B. IDP
C. Kerberos
D. Integrated Windows Authentication
648-232 pdf Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 30
Cloud-connected audio was designed for which customers?
A. customers with Cisco Unified MeetingPlace
B. customers with TSP audio
C. customers with less than 200 employees
D. enterprise and Global 3.0 customers
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 31
How do you share data from Cisco TelePresence WebEx OneTouch?
A. The host must pass the ball.
B. The user must connect to the VGA cable to become the active presenter.
C. Only the host can share data.
D. TelePresence is an audio-only platform and data cannot be shared.
648-232 vce Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 32
The current WebEx audio solution requires all audio to flow through the PSTN. How does this differ from cloud connected audio?
A. Customers connect via a VPN.
B. Customers connect with Cisco Unified Communications Manager.
C. Customers connect through a direct IP connection.
D. Customers connect via a media gateway.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 33
Which two platforms are the first to be combined to make up the WebEx Meetings shared SaaS platform?
A. Cisco TelePresence Callway and WebEx Connect
B. Connect and WebEx
C. Quad and Cisco TelePresence Callway
D. WebEx Quad
648-232 exam Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 34
Which new WebEx feature allows for the main video to switch automatically to the present speaker, using voice activation?
A. Cisco TelePresence
B. Cisco ActivePresence
C. multipoint video
D. WebEx One-Click
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 35
With regard to conference node redundancy, if a region requires 2400 G.711 ports, then how many nodes should it include?
A. Two nodes, each with a capacity of 1200 G.711 ports
B. Three nodes, each with a capacity of 1200 G.711 ports
C. One node with a capacity of 2400 G.711 ports
D. One node with a capacity of 1200 G.711 ports
648-232 dumps Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 36
Which statement is true about deploying WebEx OneTouch?
A. WebEx-enabled meetings do not use ports in the CTMS.
B. The WebEx plug-in is not used for WebEx OneTouch scheduling.
C. Outbound TCP 443 SSL connections are not able to pass through the system firewall.
D. WebEx OneTouch supports a proxy server.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 37
Which task cannot be done by the site administrator, but must be done by opening a request with the WebEx support team?
A. Update user accounts.
B. Deactivate user accounts.
C. Delete users.
D. Add users.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 38
You are late for a meeting and you missed the first half of the conversation. Which feature allows you to never miss the contents of a meeting?
A. Cisco ActivePresence
B. Network-Based Recording
C. hands-on labs
D. breakout sessions
Correct Answer: B

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Pass4isture Latest and Most Accurate Cisco 640-692 Dumps Exam Q&As(1-27)

QUESTION 1
Which router can be used for disk-in-access to the router CLI management purposes and does not usually pass normal network traffic?
A. AUX
B. Gigabit Ethernet
C. Fast Ethernet
D. Channelized serial
640-692 exam Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2
Which two pieces of information does the show ip interface brief command display? (Choose two)
A. Encapsulation type
B. Interface status
C. Layer 2 address
D. Layer 3 address
E. Keep alive
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 3
The pins and RJ-45 are numbered from 1 through 8. With the material points of the plug facing toward you, pin 1 is the leftmost pin. Which two sets are looped on an RJ-45 T1 loopback plug? (Choose two)
A. Pins 1 and 4
B. Pins 1 and 7
C. Pins 2 and 5
D. Pins 2 and 8
E. Pins 1 and 5
F. Pins 2 and 7
640-692 dumps Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 4
What are two ways to open Microsoft Notepad on a Windows-based computer? (Choose two)
A. Start > Run Enter Notepad and ‘Ink OK
B. Start > Control Panel > Notepad
C. Start > All Programs > Notepad
D. Start > All Programs > Accessories > Notepad
E. Start > All Programs > Microsoft Office > Notepad
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 5
Which three of the following statements are true? (Choose three.)
A. Each IP address has two parts: a network ID and a host ID
B. An IP subnet equals a broadcast domain.
C. An IPv4 address contains 36 bits
D. 172.16.1.18 is a Class A address
E. A subnet address is created by borrowing bits from the original host ID
640-692 pdf Correct Answer: ABE

QUESTION 6
What makes Avaya’s Fabric Connect fundamentally different to traditional IP networks?
A. It uses MPLS in new and more efficient ways
B. It uses OSPF to do the routing, based on the MAC address
C. It uses a new Avaya proprietary protocol to get away from IP with all its limitations
D. It enables a dynamic, agile and resilient network where Services need only be configured at the edge
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 7
How are Avaya’s Core Ethernet Switches differentiated from other Switches in the industry? (Select the two correct options)
A. They consistently implement our differentiating capabilities regardless of the ‘size’ of the network
B. They use a unique Clustering technology
C. They are smaller and lighter
D. They support the Spanning Tree Protocol
640-692 vce Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 8
We are at the beginning of an emerging market defined by which two of the following key inflection points? (Select two)
A. Consumerization of IT
B. Client-server computing
C. ATM to the desktop
D. Cloud computing and networking
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 9
Select the three best reasons for giving administrators their own login and only the access privileges they need for their job. (Select three)
A. Increases the amount of software that needs to be installed
B. Increases network security
C. Helps to reduce downtime due to configuration errors
D. Allows provisioning changes to be tracked by individual user
640-692 exam Correct Answer: BCD

QUESTION 10
Your colleague is finalizing an Avaya Aura project with a customer. He found out that some of the existing non-Avaya edge switches will also need to be replaced and asks you “What kind of savings do Avaya Edge Switches offer over the competition?” Which three of the following reasons would you offer him? (Select three)
A. Avaya Edge Switches can run on DC power, which enable up to 30% energy savings.
B. Huge time savings because there is no need provision each phone and each edge switch manually.
C. It eliminates human error in ensuring that the correct VLAN and QoS setting get assigned to each device automatically.
D. When Miercom tested the ERS 4548GT-PWR series for example, they found that on D average it was 20-25% more energy efficient than the Cisco Catalyst 3750-X solution and the HP E4500 series solution and 50% more efficient than the Juniper EX 4200.
Correct Answer: ACD

QUESTION 11
While discussing a proposition with a prospective customer, they ask what the most important value propositions are that Avaya Data Center Solutions bring to the table. (Select the four most important value propositions)
A. Cost – Minimizing and Simplifying
B. Operations – Improving Time-to-Service
C. Performance – Applications are optimized
D. Availability – of business operations
E. Scalability – Built for Seamless Growth
F. Virtualization – of server capacity
640-692 dumps Correct Answer: CDEF

QUESTION 12
A customer asks you about the benefits of stacking Avaya’s Edge Switches. Which three of the following responses are correct? (Select three)
A. Stacks share a single Power Supply, therefore save costs
B. Stacks offer scalability. Units can be added as needed – up to eight
C. Stacks are managed as a single entity
D. Stacks protect against unit or cable failure with fail-safe stacking
Correct Answer: ACD

QUESTION 13
What makes Avaya’s Fabric Connect fundamentally different to traditional IP networks?
A. It uses OSPF to do the routing, based on the MAC address
B. It uses a new Avaya proprietary protocol to get away from IP with all its limitations
C. It uses MPLS in new and more efficient ways
D. It enables a dynamic, agile and resilient network where Services need only be configured at the edge
640-692 pdf Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 14
Two things that help to make the IT department more cost efficient include? (Select two)
A. Automating repetitive tasks
B. Having multiple administrators share the same PC
C. Installing admin software on every admin computer
D. Reducing the learning of multiple user interfaces
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 15
Avaya has a distinct advantage in the market because, unlike other vendors, our Fabric solution is not exclusive to only the largest and most expensive products. Which Avaya products currently support for our Fabric Connect technology? (Select three)
A. ERS 3500 (typically used at the Branch Edge)
B. VSP 9000 and ERS 8800 (typically used in the Core)
C. ERS 4800 and VSP 4000 (typically used at the Wiring Closet Edge)
D. VSP 7000 (typically used at the Data Center Edge)
640-692 vce Correct Answer: ACD

QUESTION 16
Which three of the following characteristics represents the key highlights of ERS 4800 models? (Select three)
A. Stackable Chassis compatibility
B. Support for 1/10 Gig SFP+ uplinks
C. IPv6 forwarding of data traffic
D. Avaya Fabric Connect services to the wiring closet
Correct Answer: ACD

QUESTION 17
A customer is questioning the time savings provided by Avaya’s “Auto Unit Replacement”. He says that replacing the unit is only a small part of the whole process. Configuring the new unit can take a long time. How could you respond?
A. Explain that Miercom tested Avaya’s claim back in 2011 and stated “When replacing a unit in a Stack, the new unit was able to boot up, load the configuration and become operational in two minutes and 11 seconds’.
B. Make your point by saying that a well-trained Avaya engineer can replace a unit in just over ten minutes.
C. Make sure that the customer understands that “Auto Unit Replacement” only means the physical replacement of that unit and does not include configuration.
640-692 exam Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 18
How does Avaya VENA Fabric Connect help to reduce time-to-service? (Select two)
A. Provisioning changes only need to be made to the edge of the network rather than to every device and link
B. It replaces multiple legacy protocols with a vastly simplified implementation, extending VLANs Fabric wide
C. It uses industry standard CLI commands
D. It uses MPLS in its core
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 19
Avaya Wireless solutions address the market with which three of the following key enablers: (Select three)
A. Emergency services
B. Removing a need for wireless transmission
C. Enabling BYOD
D. Relying on a carrier’s network for wireless
E. Next generation unified WLAN
640-692 dumps Correct Answer: ADE

QUESTION 20
Which Avaya Switch is ideally suited to deliver today’s pressing need for flexible, high-speed Ethernet connectivity in the high-performance Data Center Top-of-Rack (ToR) role?
A. V5P7000
B. ERS4800
C. VSP9000
D. ERS 5000
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 21
You have a large enterprise customer who requires a next-generation solution for a mission- critical Data Center that supports their requirements for multi-tenancy. Select the product that meets their requirements for a future-ready platform (40/100 Gigabit Ethernet) and cost- effectively facilitates service integration.
A. ERS8600
B. VSP9000
C. ERS8800
D. ER5 8300
640-692 pdf Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 22
The Shortest Path Bridging (SPB) standard is supported by multiple vendors. Which of the following features are added to create Avaya’s Fabric Connect technology, our extended implementation of SPB? (Select three)
A. Cloud based virtualization
B. Unicast and Multicast support
C. High-availability at the Edge
D. Layer 3 support
Correct Answer: ACD

QUESTION 23 Titan Communications is a provider of cable TV, wireless, and wireline phone services. Its stated business objective is to transition from a product centric to a customer centric organization. What is the primary benefit that an SOA would provide Titan?
A. Improved business/IT alignment.
B. Improved quality of customer service
C. Consistency in behavior across customer channels
D. Agility to change processes or introduce new products quickly
640-692 vce Answer: A

QUESTION 24 Felicity Financial Services is a full service brokerage. Their primary business objective is to be the premier provider of tailored services to leading edge investors in areas of fixed income securities, vanilla and exotic derivatives, and whole loan investments. What is the primary benefit that an SOA would provide Felicity?
A. Improved business/IT alignment.
B. Improved quality of customer service
C. Consistency in information and behavior across channels
D. Agility to change processes or introduce new products quickly
Answer: D

QUESTION 25 Chasm, Inc., a clothing retailer, is executing on their SOA program. They have created a reference architecture, roadmap, constructed common services such as single-sign on, have identified project priorities. Some members of IT management are unaware of the SOA program, while other managers are unclear as to why they are undertaking it. One of these managers is responsible for deploying a new system in support of new promotions. Which of the SOA domains could most use improving (choose two)?
A. Business Process & Strategy
B. Architecture
C. Costs & Benefits
D. Building Blocks
E. Projects & Applications
F. Organization & Governance
640-692 exam Answer: CF

QUESTION 26 Great North Travel is a multi-national travel agency implementing an SOA program. The program was sponsored by the highest levels of both business and IT management, and is seen as a key tactic to their customer satisfaction improvement and new product introduction strategies. A number of in-progress initiatives are using various EAI technologies to perform integration, and there is no sharing of artifacts among these initiatives. Furthermore, these initiatives all seem to be developing separate, and overlapping, customer data stores. Which of the SOA domains could most use improving (choose two)?
A. Business Process & Strategy
B. Architecture
C. Costs & Benefits
D. Building Blocks
E. Projects & Applications
F. Organization & Governance
Answer: DF

QUESTION 27 Acme Builders, inc. has created an SOA roadmap, reference architecture and has exposed an initial handful of data access and shared business services. The development team currently handles all requests for support, diagnosis, and connectivity to these services through manual / ad hoc means. The number of consumers of these services is growing. Which two service lifecycle phases are currently the most appropriate to their SOA transformation program?
A. Monitor
B. Design
C. Expose D.
Build
E. Compose
F. Secure
640-692 dumps Answer: AF

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Pass4isture Latest and Most Accurate Cisco 300-180 Dumps Exam Q&As:
1. R. L. Rivers Company is trying to prevent purchasing from non-approved suppliers. Which method could be used to implement this policy?
A.Use Company (Vendor) status.
B.Create a Workflow approval process.
C.Use Application Designer to hide the Vendor field.
D.Use Purchase Contracts; make this a required field.
E.Set Security application to lock down Purchase Requisitions.
300-180 exam Answer: B
2. FlyNow Airlines performs materials management activities (Item, Inventory Balance tracking, Material Issues/Returns/Receipts) in an external ERP system. What integration points must be implemented in order to keep Maximo updated with the latest item balances and material usage costs?
A.Vendors, Item Master, Inventory
B.Item Master, Inventory, Receipts
C.Vendors, Chart of Accounts, Item Master
D.Item Master, Inventory, Receipts, Issues/Returns
Answer: D
3. Fleet Corporation requires a user dialog to display when a corrective maintenance work order is created and there is a Preventive Maintenance schedule that is due within the next seven days. What must be accomplished in order to address this requirement? (Choose TWO)
A.Extend the PM Class.
B.Set up a standard cron task. C.Set
the Alert Lead on the PM. D.Configure
the PM Alert Option. E.Create an Alert
Lead field on the PM.
300-180  dumps Answer: CD
4. FlyNow Airlines wants to display and store the name of the person entering a work order. What are the correct steps? (Choose THREE)
A.Run configdb.
B.Rebuild the maximo.ear file.
C.Import the changes to the xml file.
D.Add a display name field using the Application Designer.
E.Create a CROSSOVER domain and associate to the display name field.
Answer: ADE
5. FlyNow Airlines has a requirement to migrate active Job Plans from a legacy system to Maximo. The  existing External Interface does not have a Job Plan inbound interface. Where are the references to the MBOs created?
A.External Systems
B.Integration Objects
C.Integration Interfaces
D.Database Configuration
300-180 pdf Answer: B
6. Gander Lumber Company wants to share item data across two business units in different countries. Each business unit has a different financial process. What organization and site structure is recommended?
A.one organization with two sites
B.two organizations with one site each
C.an item set and one organization with two sites
D.an item set and two organizations with one site each
Answer: D
7. What architecture does Maximo 6 use?
A.n-tier
B.1-tier
C.2-tier
D.client/server
300-180  vce Answer: A
8. BMI Corporation has a requirement to categorize work orders by an attribute so they can be viewed and managed as a group. How is this accomplished in Maximo? (Choose TWO)
A.Class B.Value
List C.Work Type
D.Service Group
E.Classifications
Answer: CE
9. Mitchell Corporation wants to define an entity that is routinely transferred into a storeroom at a scheduled interval or upon fault detection. This entity can be repaired and re-used. What is the term to describe this entity in Maximo?
A.Item
B.Asset
C.Location
D.Rotating Item
300-180  exam Answer: D
10. Gander Lumber Company needs to identify and notify the responsible person when warranties for critical assets are about to expire. What is used to achieve this client requirement?
A.Escalation
B.Email Listener
C.Purchase Order
D.Service License Agreement (SLA)
Answer: A
11. What is true about an asset? (Choose TWO)
A.can only have one meter
B.can be moved between sites C.must
be a member of an Item Set D.must be
associated with a location E.can be
moved between organizations
300-180 dumps Answer: BE
12. Acme Corporation has a requirement to send emails to administrators when certain assets are approaching the end of their lease. What application is required to send these emails?
A.Workflow
B.Escalation
C.Email Listener
D.SLA (Service Level Agreement)
Answer: B
13. What data can be shared across organizations? (Choose TWO)
A.PMs
B.Items
C.Assets
D.Job Plans
E.Safety Plans
300-180 pdf Answer: BD
14. What best describes the relationship between assets in Maximo?
A.networked with an asset having many parents and many children
B.hierarchical with an asset having only one parent but many children
C.location centric with assets grouped by the location to which they are assigned
D.system centric with all assets defined as components assigned to a logical system
Answer: B
15. The accountant on the client core team wants to know what costs Maximo tracks on work orders. What costs will Maximo track? (Choose THREE)
A.Tools
B.Labor
C.Asset
D.Services
E.Company
F.Work Order
300-180 vce Answer: ABD
16. What type of associations can be made between People and Assets? (Choose TWO)
A.User
B.Labor
C.Default
D.Primary
E.Custodian
Answer: AE
17. From where can an Asset inherit its specification attributes? (Choose TWO)
A.Item
B.Location
C.Spare parts
D.Classification
300-180 exam Answer: AD
18. What is the best use of a Workflow sub-process?
A.to start escalations
B.for assigning actions
C.as a common process
D.to apply custom classes
Answer: C
19. ABC Trucking Company has a requirement to define an entity that is uniquely identified and not typically moved. The entity may contain further entities that can be moved. What term is used to describe this entity in Maximo?
A.Item
B.Asset
C.System
D.Location
300-180 dumps Answer: D
20. During a business process workshop, the client makes the following statement: “We have an existing asset classification structure that needs to be supported in Maximo. How many classification hierarchy levels can Maximo support?” What is the correct response to the client’s question?
A.Ten
B.Five
C.Three
D.Unlimited
Answer: D
21.The exhibit represents a simple routed network. Node 7 is a Windows 2000 Professional machine that establishes a TCP communication with Node 10, a Windows 2003 Server. The routers are Cisco 2500 series running IOS 11.2. While working at Node 10, you run a packet capture. Packets received by Node 10, and sent from Node 7 will reveal which of the following combination of source IP and source Physical addresses:
A. Source IP address 10.0.10.115, Source Physical address for Node 7
B. Source IP address 50.0.50.1, Source Physical address for Node 7
C. Source IP address for Router D’s Int E0, Source Physical address for Node 7
D. Source IP address 10.0.10.115, Source Physical address Router D’s Int E0
E. Source IP addresses for both Nodes 7 and Router D’s Int E0, Source Physical address for both Nodes 7 and Router D’s Int E0.
300-180  pdf Answer: D
22.You have implemented an IPSec policy, using only AH. You are analyzing your network traffic in Network Monitor, which of the following statements are true about your network traffic.?
A. You will not be able to view the data in the packets, as it is encrypted.
B. You will not be able to identify the upper layer protocol.
C. You will be able to view the unencrypted data in the packets.
D. You will be able to identify the encryption algorithm in use.
E. You will not be able to view the packet header.
Answer: C
23.In order to perform promiscuous mode captures using the Wireshark capture tool on a Windows Server 2003 machine, what must first be installed?
A. IPv4 stack
B. IPv6 stack
C. WinPcap
D. Nothing, it will capture by default
E. At least two network adapters
300-180 vce Answer: C
24.You are configuring the rules on your firewall, and need to take into consideration that some clients in the network are using automatic addressing. What is the IP address range reserved for internal use for APIPA in Microsoft networks?
A. 169.254.0.0 /4
B. 169.254.0.0 /16
C. 169.254.0.0 /8
D. 169.254.0.0 /0
E. 168.255.0.0 /16
Answer: B
25.If you capture an 802.11 frame, and the ToDS bit is set to zero and the FromDS bit is set to zero, what type of WLAN is this frame a part of?
A. Mesh
B. Broadcast
C. Infrastructure
D. Hierarchical
E. Ad Hoc
300-180 exam Answer:E
26.There are several options available to you for your new wireless networking technologies, and you are examining how different systems function. What transmission system uses short bursts combined together as a channel?
A. Frequency Hopping Spread Spectrum (FHSS)
B. Direct Sequence Spread Spectrum (DSSS)
C. Lamar Anthell Transmission (LAT)
D. Digital Band Hopping (DBH)
E. Digital Channel Hopping (DCH)
Answer: A
27.You have just installed a new Intrusion Detection System in your network. You are concerned that there are functions this system will not be able to perform. What is a reason an IDS cannot manage hardware failures?
A. The IDS can only manage RAID 5 failures.
B. The IDS cannot be programmed to receive SNMP alert messages.
C. The IDS cannot be programmed to receive SNMP trap messages.
D. The IDS cannot be programmed to respond to hardware failures. E.
The IDS can only inform you that an event happened.
300-180 dumps Answer: E
28.For the new Snort rules you are building, it will be required to have Snort examine inside the content of the packet. Which keyword is used to tell Snort to ignore a defined number of bytes before looking inside the packet for a content match?
A. Depth
B. Offset
C. Nocase
D. Flow_Control
E. Classtype
Answer: B
29.You have recently taken over the security of a mid-sized network. You are reviewing the current configuration of the IPTables firewall, and notice the following rule: ipchains -A input -p TCP -d 0.0.0.0/0 12345 -j DENY What is the function of this rule?
A. This rule for the output chain states that all incoming packets from any host to port 12345 are to be denied.
B. This rule for the input chain states that all incoming packets from any host to port 12345 are to be denied.
C. This rule for the input chain states that any TCP traffic from any address destined for any IP address and to port 12345 is to be denied.
D. This rule for the output chain states that any TCP traffic from any address destined for any IP address and to port 12345 is to be denied.
E. This rule for the input chain states that all TCP packets inbound from any network destined to any network is to be denied for ports 1, 2, 3, 4, and 5.
300-180 pdf Answer: C
300-180 dumps

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