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Get hold of the latest test questions for the CompTIA Cloud+ CV0-002 exam

QUESTION 1
A cloud implementation engineer successfully created a new VM. However, the engineer notices the new VM is not
accessible from another network. A ping test works from another VM on the same subnet. Which of the following is the
MOST likely problem?
A. Incorrect subnet
B. Incorrect host IP address
C. Incorrect VLAN
D. Incorrect gateway
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 2
An administrator is testing a new web server from outside of the corporate firewall. The administrator performs a test
from a single PC and the web server responds accordingly. The administrator then provisions several virtual machines
on a
network behind NAT and uses them to perform the same operation on the web server at the same time, but thereafter
soon discovers that none of the machines can reach the web server.
Which of the following could be responsible?
A. IPS
B. Blacklisting
C. IDS
D. Whitelisting
E. Firewall
Correct Answer: E


QUESTION 3
Recent feedback from an employee engagement survey stated that users are frustrated with multiple logins to different
SaaS providers, and the cloud engineering teams is directed to address this issue and implement a solution. The
security policy states that users must access the SaaS from approved IP addresses.
Which of the following is the BEST and most efficient solution to deploy?
A. Deploy an IPSec tunnel to each SaaS provider and enable biometric login.
B. Deploy a smart card login and change passwords to each SaaS vendor every 30 days.
C. Deploy a CASB solution and whitelist the approved SaaS applications.
D. Deploy SSO and enforce VPN access to the corporate domain.
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 4
An administrator is unable to connect to servers in the DMZ. Which of the following commands should the administrator
run to determine where the connection failure occurs?
A. nslookup
B. traceroute
C. telnet
D. netstat
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 5
Asynchronous data replication for a SaaS application occurs between Regions A and B. Users in Region A are reporting
that the most current data for an insurance claims application is not available to them until after 11:30 a.m. The cloud
administrator for this SaaS provider checks the network utilization and finds that only about 10% of the network
bandwidth is being used.
Which of the following describes how the cloud administrator could BEST resolve this issue?
A. Check the storage utilization logs in both regions.
B. Check the RAM utilization logs in both regions.
C. Check the CPU utilization logs in both regions.
D. Check the storage commit logs in both regions.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 6
A mobile subscriber is experiencing random limited-service outages. Customers report being unable to make calls or
browse. The service provider management console is not showing any alarms, errors, or critical logs, but does show a
large number of connection request failures.
Which of the following could be the problem?
A. Misconfigured federation
B. IP address limitations
C. SSO failure
D. Unavailable directory service
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 7
A user has submitted a ticket to request additional VMs due to long wait times for online ordering. Given the snapshot of
the resources in the table below: Which of the following is the BEST option for the administrator to resolve the ticket?

softwarexam cv0-002 exam questions-q7

A. Add vCPU to the database server to increase capacity.
B. Add disks to the database server to increase capacity.
C. Add virtual network ports to the web server to increase capacity.
D. Add memory to the web server to increase capacity.
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 8
An administrator has recently added a new host server to a private cloud environment. The host has two quad-core
processors and 128GB of RAM. The server will have ten guest servers that require a minimum of 1 CPU and 8GB of
RAM per server. Four of the servers will only be used during off hours. Which of the following should the administrator
implement to ensure that the guest servers have the proper resources?
A. Dynamic CPU
B. Redundancy
C. NIC Teaming
D. Dynamic RAM
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9
A cloud administrator is adding several accounts for new development team interns. These interns will need access to
some, but not all, of the resources and will only be working over the summer. Which of the following user provisioning
techniques should be used?
A. Create a single account for the interns to share. Set the expiration date for the account to six months.
B. Create a role labeled “interns” with the appropriate permissions. Create a separate account with an expiration date
for each intern and add each intern to that role.
C. Create one template user account with the appropriate permissions and use it to clone the other accounts. Set an
expiration date for each account individually.
D. Create individual accounts for each intern, set the permissions and expiration date for each account, and link them to
a temporary guests user group.
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 10
A technician needs to configure a virtual NIC on a Class A IP address network. Which of the following is the default
subnet mask for this network?
A. /8
B. /16
C. /24
D. /28
Correct Answer: A
https://www.pantz.org/software/tcpip/subnetchart.html

QUESTION 11
A file server is being migrated from physical hardware into a private cloud. Baselining of the server shows the disks
average 90% full at all times. The contents of the file server consist mostly of compressed audio files. Multiple copies of
the same files are often saved in different locations on the same disk. Which of the following storage technologies is
MOST likely to help minimize storage utilization when moving this server to the private cloud?
A. Compression
B. Thin provisioning
C. Deduplication
D. Tokenization
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 12
An administrator needs to test the latency between two servers. Which of the following commands should be used?
A. route
B. arp
C. ping
D. nslookup/dig
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 13
A software development company is building cloud-ready applications and needs to determine the best approach for
releasing software. Which of the following approaches should be used?
A. Perform QA, develop, test, and release to production
B. Test, perform QA, develop, and release to production
C. Develop, perform QA, test, and release to production
D. Develop, test, perform QA, and release to production
Correct Answer: D

CompTIA CV0-002 exam video

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Vendor: CompTIA
Certifications: CompTIA Cloud+
Exam Code: CV0-002
Exam Name: CompTIA Cloud+ Certification Exam
Updated: Nov 06, 2020
Q&As: 434

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QUESTION 1
SIMULATION
Please wait while the virtual machine loads. Once loaded, you may proceed to the lab section. This may take a few
minutes, and the wait time will not be deducted from your overall test time.
When the Next button is available, click it to access the lab section. In this section, you will perform a set of tasks in a
live environment. While most functionality will be available to you as it would be in a live environment, some
functionality
(e.g., copy and paste, ability to navigate to external websites) will not be possible by design.
Scoring is based on the outcome of performing the tasks stated in the lab. In other words, it doesn\\’t matter how you
accomplish the task, if you successfully perform it, you will earn credit for that task.
Labs are not timed separately, and this exam may have more than one lab that you must complete. You can use as
much time as you would like to complete each lab. But, you should manage your time appropriately to ensure that you
are
able to complete the lab(s) and all other sections of the exam in the time provided.
Please note that once you submit your work by clicking the Next button within a lab, you will NOT be able to return to
the lab.
You may now click next to proceed to the lab.
Lab information
Use the following login credentials as needed:
To enter your username, place your cursor in the Sign in box and click on the username below.
To enter your password, place your cursor in the Enter password box and click on the password below.
Microsoft 365 Username:
[email protected]
Microsoft 365 Password: *yfLo7Ir2andyIf the Microsoft 365 portal does not load successfully in the browser, press CTRL-K to reload the portal in a new browser
tab.
The following information is for technical support purposes only:
Lab Instance: 10811525
Your organization recently implemented a new data retention policy. The policy requires that all files stored in an
employee\\’s Microsoft OneDrive folders be retained for 60 days after the employee is terminated from the organization.
The human resources (HR) department of the organization deletes the user accounts of all terminated employees.
You need to ensure that the organization meets the requirements of the data retention policy.A. See below.
Correct Answer: A
You need to configure the OneDrive retention period for deleted users.
1.
Go to the OneDrive admin center.
2.
Select Storage.
3.
Set the “Days to retain files in OneDrive after a user account is marked for deletion” option to 60.
4.
Click Save to save the changes.
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/bs-latn-ba/onedrive/set-retention


QUESTION 2
HOTSPOT
Your company has a Microsoft 365 subscription that contains the domains shown in the following exhibit.

softwarexam ms-100 exam questions-q2

Use the drop-down menus to select the answer choice that completes each statement based on the information
presented in the graphic. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

softwarexam ms-100 exam questions-q2-2

Only the Contoso20198.onmicrosoft.com domain has a status of Setup Complete. The other two statuses mean that the
domain setup is not complete or has issues that need to be corrected before they can be used.
Reference: https://support.office.com/en-gb/article/what-do-domain-statuses-mean-inoffice-365-3ecf1fef-3b31-497c-98bc-e57e2413b4e5

QUESTION 3
Your company has a Microsoft Azure Active Directory (Azure AD) tenant named contoso.onmicrosoft.com that contains
a user named User1.
You suspect that an imposter is signing in to Azure AD by using the credentials of User1.
You need to ensure that an administrator named Admin1 can view all the sign in details of User1 from the past 24
hours.
To which three roles should you add Admin1? Each correct answer presents a complete solution. NOTE: Each correct
selection is worth one point.
A. Security administrator
B. Password administrator
C. User administrator
D. Compliance administrator
E. Reports reader
F. Security reader
Correct Answer: AEF
Users in the Security Administrator, Security Reader, Global Reader, and Report Reader roles can view the sign in
details.
Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/active-directory/reports-monitoring/concept-sign-ins

QUESTION 4
SIMULATION Please wait while the virtual machine loads. Once loaded, you may proceed to the lab section. This may
take a few minutes, and the wait time will not be deducted from your overall test time. When the Next button is available,
click it to access the lab section. In this section, you will perform a set of tasks in a live environment. While most
functionality will be available to you as it would be in a live environment, some functionality (e.g., copy and paste, ability
to navigate to external websites) will not be possible by design.
Scoring is based on the outcome of performing the tasks stated in the lab. In other words, it doesn\\’t matter how you
accomplish the task, if you successfully perform it, you will earn credit for that task.
Labs are not timed separately, and this exam may have more than one lab that you must complete. You can use as
much time as you would like to complete each lab. But, you should manage your time appropriately to ensure that you
are
able to complete the lab(s) and all other sections of the exam in the time provided.
Please note that once you submit your work by clicking the Next button within a lab, you will NOT be able to return to
the lab.
You may now click next to proceed to the lab.
Lab information
Use the following login credentials as needed:
To enter your username, place your cursor in the Sign in box and click on the username below.
To enter your password, place your cursor in the Enter password box and click on the password below.
Microsoft 365 Username:
[email protected]
Microsoft 365 Password: *yfLo7Ir2andy-If the Microsoft 365 portal does not load successfully in the browser, press CTRL-K to reload the portal in a new browser
tab.
The following information is for technical support purposes only:
Lab Instance: 10811525
Your organization recently partnered with another organization named Fabrikam, Inc.
You plan to provide a Microsoft 365 license to an external user named [email protected], and then to share
documents with the user.
You need to invite [email protected] to access your organization.
A. See below.
Correct Answer: A
You need to create a guest account for user1.
1.
Go to the Azure Active Directory admin center.
2.
Select Users.
3.
Click the ‘New guest user’ link.
4.
Select the ‘Invite user’ option.
5.
Give the account a name (User1) and enter [email protected] in the email address field.
6.
Click the ‘Invite’ button.
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/active-directory/b2b/b2b-quickstart-add-guest-users-portal

QUESTION 5
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains
a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution,
while
others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear in the review screen.
Your network contains an on-premises Active Directory forest named contoso.com. The forest contains the following
domains:
1.
Contoso.com
2.
East.contoso.com
An Azure AD Connect server is deployed to contoso.com. Azure AD Connect syncs to an Azure Active Directory (Azure
AD) tenant.
You deploy a new domain named west.contoso.com to the forest.
You need to ensure that west.contoso.com syncs to the Azure AD tenant.
Solution: You create an Azure DNS zone for west.contoso.com. On the on-premises DNS servers, you create a
conditional forwarder for west.contoso.com.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 6
HOTSPOT
Your network contains an on-premises Active Directory domain named adatum.com that syncs to Azure Active Directory
(Azure AD) by using the Azure AD Connect Express Settings. Password writeback is disabled.
You create a user named User1 and enter Pass in the Password field as shown in the following exhibit.

softwarexam ms-100 exam questions-q6

The Azure AD password policy is configured as shown in the following exhibit.
Hot Area:

softwarexam ms-100 exam questions-q6-2

Correct Answer:

softwarexam ms-100 exam questions-q6-3

Box 1: Yes
The question states that User1 is synced to Azure AD. This tells us that the short password (Pass) meets the onpremise Active Directory password policy and you were able to create the on-premise account for User1. The onpremise
Active Directory password policy applies over the Azure AD password policy for synced user accounts.
Box 2: No
Self-Service Password Reset would need to be configured.
Box 3: Yes
The password for the Azure AD User1 account will expire after 90 days according to the Azure AD password policy. If
the on-premise password policy has a shorter password expiration period, User1 would have the change his/her onpremise AD password. The new password would then sync to Azure AD.
Reference:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/active-directory/hybrid/how-to-connect-install-express

QUESTION 7
SIMULATION
Please wait while the virtual machine loads. Once loaded, you may proceed to the lab section. This may take a few
minutes, and the wait time will not be deducted from your overall test time.
When the Next button is available, click it to access the lab section. In this section, you will perform a set of tasks in a
live environment. While most functionality will be available to you as it would be in a live environment, some
functionality
(e.g., copy and paste, ability to navigate to external websites) will not be possible by design.
Scoring is based on the outcome of performing the tasks stated in the lab. In other words, it doesn\\’t matter how you
accomplish the task, if you successfully perform it, you will earn credit for that task.
Labs are not timed separately, and this exam may have more than one lab that you must complete. You can use as much time as you would like to complete each lab. But, you should manage your time appropriately to ensure that you
are
able to complete the lab(s) and all other sections of the exam in the time provided.
Please note that once you submit your work by clicking the Next button within a lab, you will NOT be able to return to
the lab.
You may now click next to proceed to the lab. Lab information
Use the following login credentials as needed:
To enter your username, place your cursor in the Sign in box and click on the username below.
To enter your password, place your cursor in the Enter password box and click on the password below.
Microsoft 365 Username: [email protected]
Microsoft 365 Password: m3t^We$Z7andxy
If the Microsoft 365 portal does not load successfully in the browser, press CTRL-K to reload the portal in a new browser
tab.
The following information is for technical support purposes only:
Lab Instance: 11440873

softwarexam ms-100 exam questions-q7

You need to ensure that all the users in your organization are prompted to change their password every 60 days. The
solution must ensure that the users are reminded that their password must be changed 10 days before the required
change.
To answer, sign in to the Microsoft 365 portal.
Correct Answer: See below.
You need to configure the Password Expiration Policy.
1.
Sign in to the Microsoft 365 Admin Center.
2.
In the left navigation pane, expand the Settings section then select the Settings option.
3.
Click on Security and Privacy.
4.
Select the Password Expiration Policy.
5.
Ensure that the checkbox labelled “Set user passwords to expire after a number of days” is ticked.
6.
Enter 60 in the “Days before passwords expire” field.
7.
Enter 10 in the “Days before a user is notified about expiration” field.
8.
Click the ‘Save changes’ button.

QUESTION 8
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains
a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution,
while
others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not
appear in the review screen.
Your network contains an Active Directory domain.
You deploy a Microsoft Azure Active Directory (Azure AD) tenant.
Another administrator configures the domain to synchronize to Azure AD.
You discover that 10 user accounts in an organizational unit (OU) are NOT synchronized to Azure AD. All the other user
accounts synchronized successfully.
You review Azure AD Connect Health and discover that all the user account synchronizations completed successfully.
You need to ensure that the 10 user accounts are synchronized to Azure AD.
Solution: From Azure AD Connect, you modify the Azure AD credentials.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B
The question states that “all the user account synchronizations completed successfully”. Therefore, the Azure AD
credentials are configured correctly in Azure AD Connect. It is likely that the 10 user accounts are being excluded from
the synchronization cycle by a filtering rule.
Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/active-directory/hybrid/how-to-connect-sync-configure-filtering

QUESTION 9
Your network contains an Active Directory domain and a Microsoft Azure Active Directory (Azure AD) tenant.
The network uses a firewall that contains a list of allowed outbound domains.
You begin to implement directory synchronization.
You discover that the firewall configuration contains only the following domain names in the list of allowed domains:
1.
*.microsoft.com
2.
*.office.com
Directory synchronization fails.
You need to ensure that directory synchronization completes successfully.
What is the best approach to achieve the goal? More than one answer choice may achieve the goal. Select the BEST
answer.
A. From the firewall, allow the IP address range of the Azure data center for outbound communication.
B. From Azure AD Connect, modify the Customize synchronization options task.
C. Deploy an Azure AD Connect sync server in staging mode.
D. From the firewall, create a list of allowed inbound domains.
E. From the firewall, modify the list of allowed outbound domains.
Correct Answer: E
Azure AD Connect needs to be able to connect to various Microsoft domains such as login.microsoftonline.com.
Therefore, you need to modify the list of allowed outbound domains on the firewall.
Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/active-directory/hybrid/reference-connect-ports

QUESTION 10
Your company has a hybrid deployment of Microsoft 365.
Users authenticate by using pass-through authentication. Several Microsoft Azure AD Connect Authentication Agents
are deployed.
You need to verify whether all the Authentication Agents are used for authentication.
What should you do?
A. From the Azure portal, use the Troubleshoot option on the Pass-through authentication page.
B. From Performance Monitor, use the #PTA authentications counter.
C. From the Azure portal, use the Diagnostics settings on the Monitor blade.
D. From Performance Monitor, use the Kerberos authentications counter.
Correct Answer: A
On the Troubleshoot page, you can view how many agents are configured. If you click on the agents link, you can view
the status of each agent. Each agent will have a status of Active or Inactive.
Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/active-directory/hybrid/tshoot-connect-pass-through-authentication


QUESTION 11
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains
a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution,
while
others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not
appear in the review screen.
Your company has a main office and three branch offices. All the branch offices connect to the main office by using a
WAN link. The main office has a high-speed Internet connection. All the branch offices connect to the Internet by using
the
main office connection.
Users use Microsoft Outlook 2016 to connect to a Microsoft Exchange Server mailbox hosted in the main office.
The users report that when the WAN link in their office becomes unavailable, they cannot access their mailbox.
You create a Microsoft 365 subscription, and then migrate all the user data to Microsoft 365.
You need to ensure that all the users can continue to use Outlook to receive email messages if a WAN link fails.

QUESTION 12
You have a Microsoft 365 subscription.
You recently configured a Microsoft SharePoint Online tenant in the subscription.
You plan to create an alert policy.
You need to ensure that an alert is generated only when malware is detected in more than five documents stored in
SharePoint Online during a period of 10 minutes.
What should you do first?
A. Enable Microsoft Office 365 Cloud App Security.
B. Deploy Windows Defender Advanced Threat Protection (Windows Defender ATP).
C. Enable Microsoft Office 365 Analytics.
Correct Answer: B
An alert policy consists of a set of rules and conditions that define the user or admin activity that generates an alert, a
list of users who trigger the alert if they perform the activity, and a threshold that defines how many times the activity has
to
occur before an alert is triggered.
In this question, we would use the “Malware detected in file” activity in the alert settings then configure the threshold (5
detections) and the time window (10 minutes).
The ability to configure alert policies based on a threshold or based on unusual activity requires Advanced Threat
Protection (ATP).
Reference:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/microsoft-365/compliance/alert-policies

QUESTION 13
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com.
You have a Microsoft 365 subscription.
You have a Microsoft Azure Active Directory (Azure AD) tenant named contoso.onmicrosoft.com.
You implement directory synchronization.
The developers at your company plan to build an app named App1. App1 will connect to the Microsoft Graph API to
provide access to several Microsoft Office 365 services.
You need to provide the URI for the authorization endpoint that App1 must use.
What should you provide?
A. https://login.microsoftonline.com/
B. https://contoso.com/contoso.onmicrosoft.com/app1
C. https://login.microsoftonline.com/contoso.onmicrosoft.com/
D. https://myapps.microsoft.com
Correct Answer: C
In a single tenant application, sign-in requests are sent to the tenant\\’s sign-in endpoint. For example, for
contoso.onmicrosoft.com the endpoint would be: https://login.microsoftonline.com/contoso.onmicrosoft.com. Requests
sent to a tenant\\’s endpoint can sign in users (or guests) in that tenant to applications in that tenant.
Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/active-directory/develop/howto-convert-app-to-be-multi-tenant

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Microsoft Power Platform MB-600 exam practice test questions

QUESTION 1
A client is preparing to go live with a Dynamics 365 Sales implementation that uses Microsoft Azure Active Directory
(Azure AD) group to manage security. The chief compliance officer (CCO) requires that all solutions meet the following
requirements:
1.
Undergo security testing to verify they are secure.
2.
Address the needs of users with disabilities.
You need to recommend additional tests to be performed.
Which tests should you recommend? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
A. Perform bounds testing by using a user account assigned to the custom security role directly.
B. Perform accessibility testing in the same model-driven apps the users will be using.
C. Perform penetration testing on the Azure AD tenant.
D. Perform user acceptance tests for all security user stories.
Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 2
DRAG DROP
You are implementing Dynamics 365 Customer Service for your company.
The company is deciding whether to use an on-premises or online implementation. One of the biggest concerns is about
disaster recovery processes.
You need to explain how each system would be recovered with minimal effort and loss of data in case of a disaster.
Which recovery method should you use? To answer, drag the appropriate recovery methods to the correct location.
Each recovery method may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between
panes or
scroll to view content.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Select and Place:
 

softwarexam mb-600 exam questions-q2

Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-gb/power-platform/admin/backup-restore-environments

QUESTION 3
You are architecting a Dynamics 365 Customer Service instance for a company call center. The company has an SLA
with a primary customer that requires monitoring by using KPIs. The SLA states the following:
1.
Support must be provided 24 hours per day, seven days a week.
2.
Issues must be resolved within four hours of case creation.
You need to recommend tools that will assist the client with tracking these requirements.
Which two tools should you recommend? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
A. enhanced SLAs with Timer Control
B. First Response by KPI
C. enhanced SLA upgrade
D. Resolve by KPI
Correct Answer: AD


QUESTION 4
HOTSPOT
A client plans to implement a sales platform to help with sales activities.
The sales platform must have the following capabilities:
1.
Handle a high volume of sales calls that has transcription and call analytics.
2.
Provide support for sales reps in the field on Android or iOS devices.
3.
Include social networking capabilities by using email and LinkedIn.
You need to recommend solutions to help the client achieve the goal.
What should you recommend? To answer, select the appropriate option in the answer area.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

softwarexam mb-600 exam questions-q4

Correct Answer:

softwarexam mb-600 exam questions-q4-2

QUESTION 5
A company has a list of contacts in a Microsoft Excel file. The company wants to load the contact information into
Dynamics 365 Sales.
You need to recommend a data-loading solution.
What should you recommend?
A. Use the Dynamics 365 Import Tool.
B. Use the Import from Excel feature.
C. Use the Excel Template feature
D. Add to an existing list of contacts in a static worksheet.
Correct Answer: A
Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/dynamics365/customerengagement/on-premises/basics/import-contacts

QUESTION 6
Note: This question is part of series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a
unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, while
others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not
appear in the review screen.
You want to integrate Microsoft Teams with Dynamics 365 Customer Service.
You install both apps, but Teams is not working when in Dynamics 365 Customer Service.
You need to troubleshoot the situation.
Solution: Change settings in Teams.
Does the solution meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 7
HOTSPOT
You are designing the security model for a company implementing Dynamics 365 Sales.
This company is a large organization with several divisions that have several sets of customer bases. The company has
the following requirements:
1.
Permissions must be set at a high level for these divisions and granulized as they get assigned to different
departments.
2.
Centralized support staff need read/write access to accounts and the ability to assign accounts to salespeople.
3.
Large-scale projects need cross-functional groups to have permissions to the same accounts.
Which security model should you use for each requirement? To answer, select the appropriate option in the answer
area.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

softwarexam mb-600 exam questions-q7

Correct Answer:

 

softwarexam mb-600 exam questions-q7

QUESTION 8
You design a solution for a client that is moving from Microsoft Dynamics CRM on-premises to Dynamics 365 Sales.
During user acceptance testing, testers report significant performance issues.
You need to recommend a solution to mitigate the performance issues.
What should you recommend?
A. Increase the plug-in execution time limit of the organization to five minutes.
B. Create a Microsoft Azure Service Bus endpoint in Dynamics 365 Sales. Implement business logic in Azure functions.
C. Enable direct access to a Microsoft Azure-replicated SQL database.
D. Implement workflows. Schedule workflows to run at daily intervals.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 9
You need to determine which legacy data sources the college should continue to use.
Which two data sources should you recommend? Each correct answer presents a partial solution.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
A. CSV file
B. proprietary database
C. SQL database
D. Excel
Correct Answer: AC


QUESTION 10
You are a Dynamics 365 Customer Service consultant for an internet support company.
The company lacks a budget to buy third-party ISVs or add-ons.
The company requires a new system that achieves the following:
1.
All support issues must come in by email, need to be logged, and assigned to the support group
2.
Accounts must synchronize with the parent company Oracle database
3.
Reports must be sent to the executives on a weekly basis
4.
No custom code will be used in the system
You need to recommend the components that should be configured.
Which two components should you recommend? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
A. Microsoft Azure Service Bus
B. Common Data Services
C. Microsoft Forms Pro
D. Power BI
E. server-side synchronization
Correct Answer: BD


QUESTION 11
DRAG DROP
You are designing a customer self-service Power Apps portal for Dynamics 365 Sales.
The portal will contain thousands of image files that are associated with the customer order histories.
The portal must meet the following requirements:
All image files must be hosted in the portal.
The portal must use the URL http://portal.tailspintoys.com/.
Performance issues must be minimized when loading the portal page.
You need to recommend a process for the company.
Which four actions should you recommend be performed in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate actions from
the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.
Select and Place:

softwarexam mb-600 exam questions-q11

Correct Answer:

softwarexam mb-600 exam questions-q11-2

Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/powerapps/maker/portals/faq

QUESTION 12
HOTSPOT
A client is implementing Dynamics 365 Sales. As part of the implementation, an older system with a large amount of
transactions is becoming obsolete, though the data continues to be valuable.
You need to recommend solutions that have the least impact on the database size and entity count in Dynamics 365
based on precise requirements.
Which solutions should you recommend? To answer, select the appropriate option in the answer area.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

softwarexam mb-600 exam questions-q12

QUESTION 13
A company asks you to migrate more than 5,000 records from Dynamics 365 Customer Engagement (on-premises) to
the online version of Dynamics 365 Sales.
You used a third-party utility to migrate the data. The city and state are displayed in the field that should show the street
address.
You must get the data migrated properly in the next 24 hours but have no one to help with this task. You have no other
add-ins and do not want any more customization.
You need to resolve the issues to migrate the data.
What should you do?
A. Remove data, ensure that field mappings of city and state are correct, and then migrate the data.
B. Create a custom connector in the Common Data Service, and then migrate the data.
C. Export the street address field, make changes, and then import the changes.
D. Manually edit the street address, state, and city field, and then enter appropriate data.
Correct Answer: A

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QUESTION 1
Refer to the exhibit. What does the imp-null tag represent in the MPLS VPN cloud?

softwarexam 300-410 exam questions-q1

A. Pop the label
B. Impose the label
C. Include the EXP bit
D. Exclude the EXP bit
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2
When provisioning a device in Cisco DNA Center, the engineer sees the error message “Cannot select the device. Not
compatible with template”. What is the reason for the error?
A. The template has an incorrect configuration.
B. The software version of the template is different from the software version of the device.
C. The changes to the template were not committed.
D. The tag that was used to filter the templates does not match the device tag.
Correct Answer: D
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/cloud-systems-management/network-automation-andmanagement/dna-center/1-2-10/user_guide/b_cisco_dna_center_ug_1_2_10/b_dnac_ug_1_2_10_chapter_0111.html

QUESTION 3
Which next hop is going to be used for 172.17.1.0/24 ?

softwarexam 300-410 exam questions-q3

A. 10.0.0.1
B. 192.168.1.2
C. 10.0.0.2
D. 192.168.3.2
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4
DRAG DROP
Drag and drop the MPLS terms from the left onto the correct definitions on the right.
Select and Place:

softwarexam 300-410 exam questions-q4

QUESTION 5
DRAG DROP
Drag and drop the addresses from the left onto the correct IPv6 filter purposes on the right.
Select and Place:

softwarexam 300-410 exam questions-q3

QUESTION 6
Which statement about IPv6 RA Guard is true?
A. It does not offer protection in environments where IPv6 traffic is tunneled.
B. It cannot be configured on a switch port interface in the ingress direction.
C. Packets that are dropped by IPv6 RA Guard cannot be spanned.
D. It is not supported in hardware when TCAM is programmed.
Correct Answer: A
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/ios-xml/ios/ipv6_fhsec/configuration/xe-16/ip6f-xe-16-book/ip6-raguard.pdf
 

QUESTION 7
Refer to the exhibit. R2 is a route reflector, and R1 and R3 are route reflector clients. The route reflector learns the route to 172.16.25.0/24 from R1, but it does not advertise to R3. What is the reason the route is not advertised?

softwarexam 300-410 exam questions-q7

A. R2 does not have a route to the next hop, so R2 does not advertise the prefix to other clients.
B. Route reflector setup requires full IBGP mesh between the routers.
C. In route reflector setup, only classful prefixes are advertised to other clients.
D. In route reflector setups, prefixes are not advertised from one client to another.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 8softwarexam 300-410 exam questions-q8

Refer to the exhibit. An administrator that is connected to the console does not see debug messages when remote
users log in. Which action ensures that debug messages are displayed for remote logins?
A. Enter the transport input ssh configuration command.
B. Enter the terminal monitor exec command.
C. Enter the logging console debugging configuration command.
D. Enter the aaa new-model configuration command.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 9
Which statement about IPv6 ND inspection is true?
A. It learns and secures bindings for stateless autoconfiguration addresses in Layer 3 neighbor tables.
B. It learns and secures bindings for stateless autoconfiguration addresses in Layer 2 neighbor tables.
C. It learns and secures bindings for stateful autoconfiguration addresses in Layer 3 neighbor tables.
D. It learns and secures bindings for stateful autoconfiguration addresses in Layer 2 neighbor tables.
Correct Answer: B Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/ios-xml/ios/ipv6_fhsec/configuration/15-s/ip6f-15-sbook/ip6-snooping.pdf

QUESTION 10
Which command enables NAT-PT on an IPv6 interface?
A. IPv6 nat-pt enable
B. ipv6 nat
C. ipv6 nat-pt
D. ipv6 nat enable
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 11
Refer to the exhibit. After applying IPsec, the engineer observed that the DMVPN tunnel went down, and both spoke-tospoke and hub were not establishing. Which two actions resolve the issue? (Choose two.)

softwarexam 300-410 exam questions-q11

A. Change the mode from mode tunnel to mode transport on R3.
B. Remove the crypto isakmp key cisco address 10.1.1.1 on R2 and R3.
C. Configure the crypto isakmp key cisco address 192.1.1.1 on R2 and R3.
D. Configure the crypto isakmp key cisco address 0.0.0.0 on R2 and R3.
E. Change the mode from mode transport to mode tunnel on R2.
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 12

softwarexam 300-410 exam questions-q12

Refer to the exhibit. An engineer is troubleshooting BGP on a device but discovers that the clock on the device does not
correspond to the time stamp of the log entries. Which action ensures consistency between the two times?
A. Configure the service timestamps log uptime command in global configuration mode.
B. Configure the logging clock synchronize command in global configuration mode.
C. Configure the service timestamps log datetime localtime command in global configuration mode.
D. Make sure that the clock on the device is synchronized with an NTP server.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 13
Which command displays the IP routing table information that is associated with VRF-Lite?
A. show ip vrf
B. show ip route vrf
C. show run vrf
D. show ip protocols vrf
Correct Answer: B
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/lan/catalyst4500/12-2/50sg/configuration/guide/Wrapper-46SG/vrf.html#wp1045708

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Cisco 820-605 ExamInformation

820-605 CSM
Certification: Cisco Customer Success Manager Specialist
Duration: 90 minutes (55 – 65 questions)
Available language: English

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Cisco Customer Success Manager Specialist 820-605 Exam Practice Questions

QUESTION 1
Which outcome is the best that a Customer Success Manager can achieve for a customer?
A. adoption of all the licenses and features the customer purchased leading to expansion to improve the customer\\’s
business
B. full adoption of all the technologies the customer purchased
C. removing barriers so the customer achieves the fastest time to value possible from the solution they purchased
D. ensuring the customers deployment teams and end users are trained and ready to adopt the technology
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 2
The customer plans to relocate to a new building in the existing area to reduce cost. The company wants to retain talent
through this transition. Which two business outcomes are critical to the company\\’s success? (Choose two.)
A. risk management
B. employee satisfaction
C. cost efficiency
D. credibility E. sustainability
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 3
Which two actions are critical when communicating with executives? (Choose two.)
A. Keep services as a primary topic
B. Focus on the value achieved
C. Incorporate the sales team\\’s plan
D. Target executive priorities
E. Focus on technical details
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 4
A Customer Success Manager must deliver high touch customer success experience. Which customer engagement model must be used?
A. Utilize a digital engagement so all your customers experience the touch of customer success
B. Utilize people to focus on the elite customers for a 1:1 or 1:few onsite customer success experience
C. Utilize the service team to form a larger internal team to lead the engagement
D. Utilize people to focus your customers in a 1:many customer success experience
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 5
In which stage does the Customer Success Manager initially validate stakeholders?
A. onboarding
B. deployment
C. utilization
D. purchase
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 6
Which of these is included in a success plan?
A. confidential customer information
B. customer business outcomes
C. customer HR processes
D. services cost
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 7
What is the financial implication of churn?
A. loss of revenue
B. increased production
C. reduced product utilization
D. contract expansion
Correct Answer: A
Reference: https://www.clientsuccess.com/blog/true-cost-customer-churn-part-1/

QUESTION 8
In an onboarding session, introductions to new stakeholders were made, new KPIs were collated, and desired use
cases were discussed. Which step does the Customer Success Manager take next?
A. Document the session, stakeholder interests, and metrics for leadership
B. Create a success plan to be reviewed with the customer at the next review meeting
C. Provide technical configuration for development
D. Discuss new opportunities and new products to purchase
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9
Which method is directly associated with evaluating a customer outcome?
A. milestones
B. key performance indicators
C. metrics
D. benchmarks
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 10
Throughout the customer lifecycle, opportunities can occur that lead to customers becoming advocates for the
Customer Success Manager\\’s company. Which two opportunities can lead to advocacy? (Choose two.)
A. moments of success when the customer acknowledges progress
B. successful contract renewal
C. green health scores over intermittent time periods
D. continuing results based on the unexpected value
E. results that are not measurable
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 11
You are a Customer Success Manager and have just been assigned a strategic new account. Which course of action is
the best to help you prepare for the first customer introduction meeting?
A. Engage with the account team to understand the expansion opportunities
B. Perform a deep analysis of all the sales orders to the past 24 months
C. Build an understanding of your customer\\’s business and market trends and priorities
D. Speak the internal contacts to understand the customer sentiment and outstanding escalations
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 12
From a Customer Success perspective, which reason to monitor your customer\\’s health is the most important?
A. It provides the opportunity to address any changes in the customer\\’s experience or actions around the solution
B. It allows the customer to identify unused licenses so they can be addressed via a service improvement plan
C. Understanding your customer\\’s health directly enables renewals
D. It gives the customer valuable insight so they can automatically renew critical on time
Correct Answer: C
Reference: https://www.gainsight.com/customer-success-best-practices/how-to-score-customer-health/

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QUESTION 1
Which two steps should be performed before installing HyperFlex? (Choose two.)
A. Determine and download recommended installer OVA version required
B. Complete the pre-installation checklist.
C. Determine and download recommended hypervisor
D. Download service profile templates
E. Determine and download virtual machine OS! required
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 2
How much memory is reserved for the controller VM in the HX220c?
A. 48 GB
B. 12 GB
C. 24 GB
D. 78 GB
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3
Which two components are automatically configured from the information provided to the HyperFlex installer? (Choose
two )
A. the network
B. operating system deployment preparation
C. controller VM configuration
D. application dependencies
E. server firmware policy
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 4
Which uses for the system drive in an HX node are valid? (Choose two.)
A. Migration
B. Saving and restoring program state
C. Virtual machine store
D. Garbage collection
E. Write Cache
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 5
What does the letter W indicate when selecting CPUs for your HX Node (le. HX-CPU 8170M)?
A. support of 1.5 TB/socket of memory
B. support for all flash drive array
C. support for NVMe
D. support for 768 TB/socket of memory
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 6
How many DIMMs are supported per memory channel in the Cisco UCS M5 server?
A. 2
B. 1
C. 8
D. 4
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 7
What is the minimum amount of memory required for an HX node?
A. 192 GB
B. 64 GB
C. 32 GB
D. 128 GB
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 8
Refer to the exhibit.

softwarexam 700-905 exam questions-q8

Which VIC model supports two wire connectivity to each Fabric Interconnect?
A. VIC 1227
B. VIC 1557
C. VIC 1387
D. VIC 1457
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 9
What is the maximum size of an HXDP cluster running 3.5.1?
A. 64 nodes
B. 8 nodes
C. 16 nodes
D. 32 nodes
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10
Which three advantages of using the M5 generation of HyperFlex servers over the M4 generation are valid? (Choose
three )
A. Support for Cisco VICs
B. Multiple GPUs
C. M.2 SATA drive support for faster disk I/O
D. DDR3 memory
E. Microsoft Hyper-V support
F. NVMe support
Correct Answer: CEF

QUESTION 11
If a GPU card is Installed in HyperFlex nodes before a cluster is created, which action can be used to automatically build
the service profile in UCS Manager?
A. Check Run UCS Manager Configuration during the cluster creation process
B. Check the extended memory option during the cluster creation process
C. Check the GPU workflow during the cluster creation process
D. Check the administrative workflow option during the cluster creation process
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 12
Which two processes does Disk Failure initiate? (Choose two)
A. The affected cluster is marked as unhealthy and placed into standby mode
B. If the replication factor is sufficient for the failure, the system is marked as unhealthy but remains operational
C. Distributed pooled data is migrated off nodes to master data store.
D. Performance is almost unaffected Sets 1-minute timer until self-healing starts.
E. Self-healing mode is initiated and data replication factors applied.
Correct Answer: BD

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Question No : 15 – (Topic 1) You are designing an enterprise star schema that will consolidate data from three
independent data marts. One of the data marts is hosted on SQL Azure.
Most of the dimensions have the same structure and content. However, the geography
dimension is slightly different in each data mart.
You need to design a consolidated dimensional structure that will be easy to maintain while
ensuring that all dimensional data from the three original solutions is represented.
What should you do?
A. Create a junk dimension for the geography dimension.
B. Implement change data capture.
C. Create a conformed dimension for the geography dimension.
D. Create three geography dimensions.
070-463 exam Answer: C
Question No : 16 – (Topic 1)
To facilitate the troubleshooting of SQL Server Integration Services (SSIS) packages, a
logging methodology is put in place.
The methodology has the following requirements:
The deployment process must be simplified.
All the logs must be centralized in SQL Server.
Log data must be available via reports or T-SQL.
Log archival must be automated.
You need to configure a logging methodology that meets the requirements while minimizing
the amount of deployment and development effort.
What should you do?
A. Open a command prompt and run the gacutil command.
B. Open a command prompt and execute the package by using the SQL Log provider and
running the dtexecui.exe utility.
C. Add an OnError event handler to the SSIS project.
D. Use an msi file to deploy the package on the server.
E. Configure the output of a component in the package data flow to use a data tap.
F. Run the dtutil command to deploy the package to the SSIS catalog and store the
configuration in SQL Server.
G. Open a command prompt and run the dtexec /rep /conn command.
H. Open a command prompt and run the dtutil /copy command.
I. Open a command prompt and run the dtexec /dumperror /conn command.
J. Configure the SSIS solution to use the Project Deployment Model.
K. Create a reusable custom logging component and use it in the SSIS project.
Answer: J
Explanation:
Question No : 17 – (Topic 1)  You are developing a 070-463 dumps SQL Server Integration Services (SSIS) project that copies a large amount of rows from a SQL Azure database. The project uses the Package Deployment  Model. This project is deployed to SQL Server on a test server.You need to ensure that the project is deployed to the SSIS catalog on the production
server.What should you do?
A. Open a command prompt and run the dtexec /dumperror /conn command.
B. Create a reusable custom logging component and use it in the SSIS project.
C. Open a command prompt and run the gacutil command.
D. Add an OnError event handler to the SSIS project.
E. Open a command prompt and execute the package by using the SQL Log provider and
running the dtexecui.exe utility.
F. Open a command prompt and run the dtexec /rep /conn command.
G. Open a command prompt and run the dtutil /copy command.
H. Use an msi file to deploy the package on the server.
I. Configure the SSIS solution to use the Project Deployment Model.
J. Configure the output of a component in the package data flow to use a data tap.
K. Run the dtutil command to deploy the package to the SSIS catalog and store the
configuration in SQL Server.
Answer: I
Explanation: References:
Question No : 18 – (Topic 1) You are developing a SQL Server Integration Services (SSIS) package.
To process complex scientific data originating from a SQL Azure database, a custom task
component is added to the project.You need to ensure that the custom component is deployed on a test environment
correctly.What should you do?
A. Add an OnError event handler to the SSIS project.
B. Open a command prompt and run the gacutil command.
C. Configure the SSIS solution to use the Project Deployment Model.
D. Open a command prompt and run the dtexec /dumperror /conn command.
E. Configure the output of a component in the package data flow to use a data tap.
F. Open a command prompt and execute the package by using the SQL Log provider and
running the dtexecui.exe utility.
G. Open a command prompt and run the dtexec /rep /conn command.
H. Run the dtutil command to deploy the package to the SSIS catalog and store the
configuration in SQL Server.
I. Use an msi file to deploy the package on the server.
J. Open a command prompt and run the dtutil /copy command.
K. Create a reusable custom logging component and use it in the SSIS project.
Answer: B
Reference:
QUESTION 19
At which checkpoint does the rewrite () perform the TWURL modification?
A. Client In
B. Client Out
C. Server In
D. Server Out
070-463 pdf Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 20
When creating a TCP tunnel service in explicit mode, you must also configure a forwarding host?
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 21
In regards to authentication the ProxySG does not support origin-redirects with CONNECT method.
A. True
B. False
070-463 vce Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 22
What are the available actions for any given category, when defining ProxyClient content filtering
configuration? (Choose all that apply)
(a) Allow
(b) Deny
(c) Temporanily Allow
(d) Warm
A. a & b only
B. a, b & c only
C. a, b & d only
D. All of the above
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 23
Which statement is correct about WWW-Authenticate header?
A. It is request header used only with Basic Authentication to send username and password to a proxy or
a Web server
B. It is a request header used to send credentials
C. It is a response header used with HTTP 401 status code to negotiate method of authentication and
send NTLM challenge to the client.

070-463 exam Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 24
The authentication mode origin-ip-redirect allows an administrator to assign a Time To Live (TTL) for the
surrogate credentials. Meanwhile the authentication mode origin- cookie-redirect does not provide this
feature.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 25
What is the meaning of the metacharacter \ (backslash) in regular expressions?
A. escape character
B. any character except newline
C. zero or character
D. zero or more character
70-463 dumps Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 26
When configuring forwarding in PoxySG, what are the possible load balancing methods? (Choose all that
apply)
(a) Round Robin
(b) Fastest ICMP Reply
(c) Least Connections
(d) Least Delay
A. a & c only
B. b & d only
C. a & d only
D. b & c only
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 27
ICAP responses may be cached on a ProxySG, i.e, for some Web requests ICAP processing may be
completed without involving ProxyAV
A. True
B. False
070-463 pdf Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 28
Which of the following are true when enabling the early intercept attribute for a proxy service?
(Choose all that apply)
(a) It is automatically enabled when the detect protocol attribute is enabled.
(b) The ProxySG completes the three-way TCP handshake with the client before establishing a connection
to the upstream server.
(c) It can be used with any protocol.
A. a & c only
B. a & b only
C. c only
D. All of the above

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 29
When implementing failover with ProxySG appliances, configurations and policies on the master are
automatically replicated to members of the failover group.
A. True
B. False
70-463 vce Correct Answer: A

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Exam Name: Installing and Configuring Windows Server 2012
Updated: Aug 31, 2017
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QUESTION 30
Which principle of training best describes a previously active client, who has been ill and bed-ridden for a
prolonged period of time?
A. Overload
B. Specificity
C. Reversibility
D. Progression
070-410 exam Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 31
If you are palpating the thumb side of the forearm in the wrist area, what pulse are you checking?
A. Humeral
B. Ulnar
C. Brachial
D. Radial
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 32
What is the correct order of the regions of the spinal column, from superior to inferior?
A. Cervical, lumbar, thoracic, sacral and coccyx.
B. Coccyx, sacral, lumbar, thoracic, and cervical.
C. Cervical, thoracic, lumbar, coccyx, and sacral.
D. Cervical, thoracic, lumbar,sacral, and coccyx.
70-410 dumps Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 33
Which muscle is an antagonist of the hamstrings?
A. Gastrocnemius
B. Iliopsoas
C. Gracilis
D. Sartorius
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 34
Which of the following physiological changes does NOT occur when a client improves aerobic capacity?
A. The muscles will be able to extract more oxygen from the blood.

B. Total lung volume will increase in proportion to the total accumulated time of high-intensity exercise.
C. The oxygen carrying capacity of the blood will increase.
D. The amount of air the lungs can take in will increase because of increases in the rate and depth of
breathing.
070-410 pdf Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 35
As the intensity of dynamic exercise increases, which of the following sets of responses occurs?
A. Heart rate, systolic blood pressure, and diastolic blood pressure increase.
B. Heart rate and systolic blood pressure increase, diastolic pressure remains unchanged.
C. Heart rate and systolic blood pressure increase, stroke volume and cardiac output remain the same.
D. Stroke volume decreases, heart rate and cardiac output increase.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 36
From a seated position, with dumbbells to the sides, raising the dumbbells laterally to shoulder level with
elbows slightly flexed, exercises primarily the _______:
A. bicep brachii and latisimus dorsi
B. posterior deltoid
C. anterior deltoid and triceps brachii
D. middle deltoid.
070-410 vce Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 37
What is the major muscle used to flex the hip joint?
A. Vastus lateralis
B. Iliopsoas
C. Biceps femoris
D. Gluteus maximus
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 38
A subject with elbows held at 90 degrees of flexion is handed a 150 lb (68.1kg) barbell. Even though he
exerts maximal tension, the barbell causes the joint angle to increase to 170 degrees. Which one of the
following describes the muscle action during the extension?
A. Isotonic concentric
B. Isotonic eccentric
C. Isokinetic concentric
D. Isokinetic eccentric
070-410 exam Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 39
Type II muscle fibers:
A. Have a high capacity to generate energy through the electron transport system.
B. Have a high capacity to generate energy from fat.
C. Are recruited at a higher percentage of maximum force than Type I fibers.
D. Have high endurance capabilities.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 40
Which of the following is a normal blood pressure (BP) response to aerobic exercise?
A. Both systolic and diastolic BP increase proportionately to increases in workload.
B. Systolic BP increases and diastolic BP decreases.
C. Systolic BP increases proportionately to increases in workload and diastolic BP remains unchanged or
decreases slightly.
D. Systolic and diastolic BP both decrease at the onset of exercise, then increase in proportion to the
increase in intensity.
70-410 dumps Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 41
Which rotator cuff muscle abducts the arm?
A. Infraspinatus
B. Supraspinatus
C. Subscapularis
D. Medial deltoid
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 42
Which energy system has the highest capacity for ATP production?
A. ATP-CP
B. Rapid glycolysis
C. Slow glycolysis
D. Oxidative phosphorylation
070-410 pdf Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 43
What plane divides the body into upper and lower sections?
A. Sagittal
B. Frontal
C. Transverse
D. Median
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 44
When performing neck flexion in the sagittal plane, which of the following exercises best mimics that
movement?
A. Cartwheel
B. Somersault
C. Bicep curl
D. Leg curl
070-410 vce Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 45
Under which of the following circumstances would you expect to see the highest rise in blood lactate?
A. During maximal exercise lasting between 60 and 180 seconds in the untrained client
B. Prior to treadmill walking in the cardiac patient
C. During maximal exercise lasting between 60 and 180 seconds in the athlete
D. After moderate intensity cycling exercise in the client with Type 2 diabetes
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 46
Typical movements in the weight room such as a biceps curl using free weights and leg press actions
using a machine are best described as ____________ muscle actions.
A. plyometric
B. isokinetic
C. ballistic
D. isotonic
070-410 exam Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 47
The latissimus dorsi acts as the prime mover during the concentric phase of which of the following
exercises?
A. lat pulldown
B. flat bench press
C. lateral raise
D. incline bench press
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 48
Which of the following bones facilitate the movement of the chest during both 70-410 dumps inspiration and expiration?
A. clavicle
B. scapula
C. carpal
D. scalene
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 49
Which of the following is characterized as a plane (uniaxial) joint?
A. Coxal (hip)
B. Atlantooccipital
C. Radiocarpal (wrist)
D. Sacroiliac
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 50
Which of the following indicates the reason why a female who is pregnant should avoid exercise in the
supine position after the first trimester?
A. obstruction of arterial blood flow
B. risk of orthostatic hypotension due to obstructed venous return
C. obstruction of the diaphragm

D. risk of decreased oxygen consumption due to pressure on the uterus
070-410 pdf Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 51
As a response to a progressive resistance training program, which of the following demonstrates the
predominant contribution to an increase in the cross-sectional area of a muscle?
A. atrophy and possibly hypertrophy
B. hyperplasia and possibly hypertrophy
C. atrophy and possibly hyperplasia
D. hypertrophy and possibly hyperplasia
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 52
What is an appropriate precaution and/or modification for exercising in higher ambient temperatures?
A. Take salt tablets.
B. Drink eight ounces of water once per hour.
C. Select proper loose-fitting, lightweight clothing.
D. Train in clothes designed to trap and hold body heat.
070-410 vce Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 53
What is the intensity recommendation for the initial conditioning stage of a cardiovascular program?
A. 10% to 20% of heart rate reserve
B. 20% to 30% of heart rate reserve
C. 40% to 60% of heart rate reserve
D. 60% to 85% of heart rate reserve
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 54
Approximately how long is the initial conditioning phase of a cardiovascular training program?
A. Four weeks
B. Eight weeks
C. Twelve weeks
D. Sixteen weeks
070-410 exam Correct Answer: A

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QUESTION 1
Refer to the exhibit.

Pass4itsure Cisco 400-051 exam questions q1

An engineer is configuring dynamic Call routing and DN learning between two Cisco Unified CM and Two Cisco Unified
CME systems. Which two configuration steps are required for all this feature to work? (Choose two)
A. Configure routers A and to use a different autonomous system number for DN routing
B. Configure routers A and to use EIGRP for IP Routing
C. Configure Cisco Unified CM A+B as service advertisement framework clients
D. Configure router A and to use OSPF for IP Routing
E. Configure Cisco Unified CME A+B as service advertisements forwarders
F. Configure routers A and to use the same autonomous system number for DN Routing
Correct Answer: CF

QUESTION 2
On a Cisco Unified Communications Manager SIP trunk with a single remote device and OPTIONS ping feature
enabled, which response from the SIP remote peer causes the trunk to be marked as “Out of Service”?
A. 401 Unauthorized
B. 505 Version Not Supported C. 406 Not Acceptable
D. 408 Request Timeout
E. 500 Server Internal Error
Correct Answer: D
408 Request Timeout Couldn\\’t find the user in time. The server could not produce a response within a suitable amount
of time, for example, if it could not determine the location of the user in time. The client MAY repeat the request without
modifications at any later time
References: http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/List_of_SIP_response_codes

QUESTION 3Pass4itsure Cisco 400-051 exam questions q8-2
Refer to the exhibit. Which description of a User Agent Server that sends this message this message is true?

Pass4itsure Cisco 400-051 exam questions q3

A. The UAS sends this message in response to an earlier ACK received.
B. It is not possible for the UAS to send this message.
C. The UAS sends this message in response to an earlier PRACK received.
D. The UAS sends this single message in response to an earlier INVITE that contains PRACK.
E. The UAS sends this message in response to an earlier INVITE received.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 4
Which Cisco Unified Contact Center Express data store contains user scripts, grammars, and documents?
A. configuration data store
B. repository data store
C. agent data store
D. historical data store
E. script data store
Correct Answer: B
Unified CCX applications might use auxiliary files that interact with callers, such as scripts, pre-recorded prompts,
grammars, and custom Java classes. Depending on each implementation, Unified CCX applications use some or all of
the following file types. The Unified CCX Server\\’s local disk prompt, grammar, and document files are synchronized
with the central repository during Unified CCX engine startup and during run-time when the Repository datastore is
modified.

QUESTION 5
Which four presence statuses are supported in Cisco IM and Presence federation with Microsoft Lync server? (Choose
four.)
A. offline
B. on the phone
C. busy
D. idle
E. invisible
F. in a meeting
G. available
H. away
Correct Answer: ABGH

QUESTION 6
Which three issues prevent a customer from seeing the presence status of a new contact in their Jabber contact list?
(Choose three.)
A. incoming calling search space on SIP trunk to IMandP
B. IMandP incoming ACL blocking inbound status
C. subscribe calling search space on SIP trunk to IMandP
D. PC cannot resolve the FQDN of IMandP
E. Owner user ID is not set on device.
F. Primary DN is not set in end user configuration for that user.
G. Subscriber calling search space is not defined on user\\’s phone.
Correct Answer: BCD
References: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/voice-unified-communications/unified-presence/97443-cupscupc-ts.html

QUESTION 7
Which two Cisco IOS multipoint video conferencing profiles are supported on the Cisco Integrated Router Generation 2
with packet voice and video digital signal processor 3? (Choose two.)
A. homogeneous
B. rendezvous
C. guaranteed-audio
D. scheduled
E. guaranteed-video F. ad-hoc
Correct Answer: AC
Q. What video conferences are supported?
A. Three types of video profiles are supported: homogeneous conferences (video switching), heterogeneous
conferences (video mixing), and guaranteed audio conferences (best-effort video).
References: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/products/collateral/unified-communications/voice-video-conferencing-isrrouters/qa_c67-649850.html

QUESTION 8
Drag and drop the logical components of a traditional SDN infrastructure into the correct order.
Similar to open system interconnection model (OSI model), working your way up from the network infrastructure layer.
Select and Place:

Pass4itsure Cisco 400-051 exam questions q8

Correct Answer:

Pass4itsure Cisco 400-051 exam questions q8-2

QUESTION 9
Which Cisco Unified Communications Manager deployment model for clustering over the IP WAN mandates a primary
and a backup subscriber at the same site?
A. multisite with centralized call processing
B. multisite with distributed call processing
C. local failover
D. remote failover
E. remote failover with Cisco Unified Communications Manager Express as SRST
Correct Answer: C
Clustering Over the IP WAN You may deploy a single Unified CM cluster across multiple sites that are connected by an
IP WAN with QoS features enabled. This section provides a brief overview of clustering over the WAN. For further
information, refer to the chapter on Call Processing. Clustering over the WAN can support two types of
deployments:?ocal Failover Deployment Model
Local failover requires that you place the Unified CM subscriber and backup servers at the same site, with no WAN
between them. This type of deployment is ideal for two to four sites with Unified CM.
?emote Failover Deployment Model
Remote failover allows you to deploy primary and backup call processing servers split across the WAN. Using this type
of deployment, you may have up to eight sites with Unified CM subscribers being backed up by Unified CM subscribers
at
another site.
References: http://www.cisco.com/en/US/docs/voice_ip_comm/cucm/srnd/4x/42models.html

QUESTION 10
Users report that they are unable to control their Cisco 6941 desk phone from their Jabber client, but the Jabber client
works as a soft phone. Which two configuration changes allow this? (Choose two)
A. Assign group “Standard CTI Allow Control of Phones supporting Connected Xfer and Conf” to the user.
B. Set the End User page to the Primary Extension on the desk phone.
C. Set the Owner User ID on the desk phone.
D. Assign group “Standard CTI Enabled User Group” to the user.
E. Assign group “Standard CTI Allow Control of Phones Supporting Rollover Mode” to the user.
Correct Answer: AE

QUESTION 11
Refer to the exhibit. An engineer is analyzing a SIP call between the Cisco Unified Communications Manager on the left
to Cisco Unified Border Element on the right. Based on information displayed, which behavior can be determined from
the exhibit?

Pass4itsure Cisco 400-051 exam questions q11Pass4itsure Cisco 400-051 exam questions q11

A. The midcall-signaling block command is configured on Cisco Unified Border Element so re-invites are not consumed.
B. The call has interworking issues where the user is not experiencing audio.
C. The call is terminated because the 200 OK messages are not arriving to Cisco Unified Communications Manager.
D. The mid-call re-invite negotiated for Call Hold/Resume supplementary service.
Correct Answer: DA. The midcall-signaling block command is configured on Cisco Unified Border Element so re-invites are not consumed.
B. The call has interworking issues where the user is not experiencing audio.
C. The call is terminated because the 200 OK messages are not arriving to Cisco Unified Communications Manager.
D. The mid-call re-invite negotiated for Call Hold/Resume supplementary service.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 12
Which entity signs a Cisco IP phone LSC?
A. Godaddy.com Enrollment Server
B. Manufacturer Certificate Authority
C. Registration Authority
D. Certificate Authority Proxy Function
E. Cisco Certificate Authority
Correct Answer: D
By default, LSC certificates are not installed on Cisco IP phones. Cisco IP phones that are required to use LSC
certificates must be provisioned to allow TLS transactions before deployment in the field. LSC certificates can be
provisioned to the Cisco IP phones through the Certificate Authority Proxy Function (CAPF) process. This process is
completed using TLS and USB tokens coupled with the CTL client. Moreover, the Cisco ASA Phone Proxy feature can
serve LSC certificates to the Cisco IP phones. Cisco IP phones will only work with the Cisco ASA Phone Proxy and will
not establish secure connectivity with the Cisco Unified Communications Manager.

QUESTION 13
Refer to the exhibit.

Pass4itsure Cisco 400-051 exam questions q13

An engineer mapped the enhance location call admission control configuration to match the physical links and
bandwidth allowances. Assuming no other calls are consuming any bandwidth, how many G722 calls are allowed
between site A and site G?
A. 5
B. 7
C. 12
D. 25
E. 37
Correct Answer: B

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QUESTION 1
Which two statements are true regarding Cisco ISE? (Choose two.)
A. The major business outcomes of ISE are enhanced user experience and secure VLAN segmentation.
B. ISE plays a critical role in SD-Access.
C. Without integration with any other product, ISE can track the actual physical location of a wireless endpoint as it
moves.
D. ISE can provide data about when a specific device connected to the network.
E. An ISE deployment requires only a Cisco ISE network access control appliance.
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 2
Which two activities should occur during an SE\\’s demo process? (Choose two.)
A. determining whether the customer would like to dive deeper during a follow up.
B. asking the customer to provide network drawings or white board the environment for you.
C. identifying which capabilities require demonstration.
D. leveraging a company such as Complete Communications to build a financial case.
E. highlighting opportunities that although not currently within scope would result in lower operational costs and
complexity.
Correct Answer: CE

QUESTION 3
Which node enables Cisco ISE to share contextual information on a device with Cisco Stealthwatch?
A. Monitoring and Troubleshooting Node
B. pXGrid Controller
C. Policy Administration Node
D. Inline Posture Node
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4
Which two options help you sell Cisco ISE? (Choose two.)
A. Downplaying the value of pxGrid as compared to RESTful APIs
B. Explaining ISE support for 3rd party network devices
C. Showcasing the entire ISE feature set
D. Referring to TrustSec as being only supported on Cisco networks
E. Discussing the importance of custom profiling
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 5
Which two Cisco ISE use cases typically involve the highest level of implementation complexity? (Choose two.)
A. Guest and wireless access
B. Software-defined access
C. Device management
D. Asset visibility
E. Software-defined segmentation
Correct Answer: BE

QUESTION 6
How would Cisco ISE handle authentication for your printer that does not have a supplicant?
A. ISE would not authenticate the printer as printers are not subject to ISE authentication.
B. ISE would authenticate the printer using 802.1X authentication.
C. ISE would authenticate the printer using MAB.
D. ISE would authenticate the printer using web authentication.
E. ISE would authenticate the printer using MAC RADIUS authentication.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 7
Which are two Cisco ISE that benefits our customers? (Choose two.)
A. provides network access control
B. helps them stop and contain real-time threats
C. enables them to set traffic priorities across the network
D. helps them accelerate application deployment and delivery
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 8
Which component of the SD-Access fabric is responsible for communicating with networks that are external to the
fabric?
A. edge nodes
B. control plane nodes
C. intermediate nodes
D. border nodes
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 9
Which three key differentiators that DNA Assurance provides that our competitors are unable match? (Choose three.)
A. Support for Overlay Virtual Transport
B. On-premise and cloud-base analytics
C. Apple Insights
D. VXLAN support
E. Proactive approach to guided remediation
F. Network time travel
Correct Answer: BEF

QUESTION 10
Which feature is supported on the Cisco vEdge platform?
A. single sign-on
B. IPv6 transport (WAN)
C. 2-factor authentication
D. license enforcement
E. reporting
F. non-Ethernet interfaces
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 11
Which two options are primary functions of Cisco ISE? (Choose two.)
A. providing VPN access for any type of device
B. providing information about every device that touches the network
C. enabling WAN deployment over any type of connection
D. automatically enabling, disabling, or reducing allocated power to certain devices
E. enforcing endpoint compliance with network security policies
F. allocating resources
Correct Answer: BE

QUESTION 12
Which element of the Cisco SD-WAN architecture facilitates the functions of controller discovery and NAT traversal?
A. vBond orchestrator
B. vManage
C. vSmart controller
D. vEdge
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 13
Which option will help build your customers platform during the discovery phase?
A. business case
B. detailed design
C. POV report
D. high-level design
E. PO
Correct Answer: A

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