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  • Exam Codes: CLO-001
  • Number of Questions :50 questions
  • Type of Questions : Multiple choice
  • Length of Test :60 Minutes
  • Passing Score: 720
  • Recommended Experience:At least six months working in an environment that markets or relies on IT-related services
  • Languages:English, Japanese and Portuguese
  • Exam Name: CompTIA Cloud Essentials Exam
  • pass4itsure Q&As: 230

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Exam B
QUESTION 1
Which of the following is the function of orchestration services?
A. Assemble functional requirements for application development
B. Configure application clusters with Web services
C. Enable and disable load balancers
D. Manage the starting and stopping of application server clusters
CLO-001 exam Correct Answer: D
Explanation

QUESTION 2
Which of the following is true when mitigating risks in a cloud environment while avoiding impact to performance?
A. When securing cloud resources, only the most sensitive data should be secured.
B. When securing cloud resources, it is always a best practice to encrypt all data stored in the cloud.
C. When securing cloud resources, data security is not an issue.
D. When securing cloud resources, it is always a best practice to use the strongest security on the most sensitive data.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 3
As part of a critical SaaS application, one of the contractual statements by the cloud provider is a requirement to perform scheduled maintenance. This has a direct impact on which of the following?
A. Service strategy
B. Service transition
C. Service operation
D. Service design
CLO-001 dumps Correct Answer: C
Explanation

QUESTION 4
Which of the following is a benefit of cloud computing?
A. Cloud computing delivers IT capabilities that scale with demand.
B. Cloud computing delivers a wide range of services that are easily accessible to users
C. Cloud computing delivers IT capacity on demand.
D. Cloud computing negates the need for a procurement department.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 5
How can an organization successfully implement a PaaS strategy?
A. Open up internal databases with Web service access.
B. Take inventory of the application portfolio and select external suppliers
C. Standardize on a limited set of virtual machines.
D. Continuously execute performance analytics to monitor providers
CLO-001 pdf Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 6
A company’s IT department currently spends several hours a day maintaining the hardware of the database server. The company migrates the server to the cloud. Which of the following job responsibilities of the IT department has been MOST impacted by this change?
A. Service Strategy
B. Service Operation
C. Service Design
D. Service Transition
Correct Answer: B
Explanation

QUESTION 7
Which of the following roles can the IT department play in the selection process of cloud computing providers?
A. Help understand and explain the application lifecycle
B. Help understand performance parameters
C. Help understand provider quality
D. All of the above are correct
CLO-001 vce Correct Answer: D
Explanation

QUESTION 8
Why does cloud computing shift capital cost to variable cost?
A. Cloud computing is more cost-efficient
B. IT assets are not owned by the customer
C. Servers are better utilized
D. Staff is no longer hired by the customer
Correct Answer: B
Explanation

QUESTION 9
A private cloud is defined as:
A. a deployment model that uses an external cloud provider to provide host application servicesthat are Internet accessible.
B. a deployment model that partners with other industry related companies to provide infrastructure services.
C. a deployment model that uses virtualization technologies to provide infrastructure on demand within its network.
D. a deployment model that uses an external cloud provider to provide host infrastructure services that are Internet accessible.
CLO-001 exam Correct Answer: C
Explanation

QUESTION 10
Which of the following is important to standardize?
A. Information standards and applications
B. User names and hardware providers
C. Virtual machine images and applications
D. Virtual machine images and identity information standards
Correct Answer: D
Explanation

QUESTION 11
Which of the following are essential steps to take when creating a virtual server?
A. Select a machine image to run, select an application set to run, select security credentials.
B. Select a machine image to run, select an application set to run, select the size of the virtual machine.
C. Select a machine image to run, select security credentials, select the size of the virtual machine.
D. Select an application set to run, select security credentials, select the size of the virtual machine.
CLO-001 dumps Correct Answer: C
Explanation

QUESTION 12
A specific cloud deployment has been established specifically for financial services companies to consume. Which of the following BEST describes this type of
cloud environment?
A. Private cloud
B. Community cloud
C. Hybrid cloud
D. Public cloud
Correct Answer: B
Explanation

QUESTION 13
An organization is in the process of selecting a SaaS provider to replace its current internal customer relationship management system. The business expects better functionality than what is provided with the internal system. Which of the following is the BEST reason for moving to a SaaS cloud service?
A. Understand who the most experienced IaaS cloud providers are so that a recommendation can be made to the business based on what other industry vendors are doing.
B. Understand the current SLA’s of the cloud providers to ensure that they can exceed the current expected business SLA’s.
C. Understand current functional and non-functional requirements of the system in order to ensure the new system can meet and provide value add to current business needs.
D. Understand the cost model of the hosted infrastructure and whether the current system can be hosted on cloud provided infrastructure.
CLO-001 pdf Correct Answer: C
Explanation

QUESTION 14
In which of the following ways do IT outsourcing and cloud computing differ?
A. Cloud computing services are typically much more scalable.
B. Cloud computing is much cheaper.
C. Hardware and software assets are typically customizable.
D. IT outsourcing promotes innovation.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 15
Since the implementation of a cloud infrastructure, a senior level network administrator’s job description has changed from being responsible for maintaining the hardware of the network infrastructure to more of a management position, ensuring the cloud vendor is providing the services specified in the contract with the company. Which of the following has been impacted the MOST by the change in job responsibility?
A. Service Transition
B. Service Design
C. Service Operation
D. Service Strategy
CLO-001 vce Correct Answer: B
Explanation

QUESTION 16
Which of the following is an essential step in the start-up process of a virtual server?
A. Identify the location of the physical machine
B. Select identity providers
C. Select security credentials
D. Select the application set that will run on it
Correct Answer: C
Explanation

QUESTION 17
An entrepreneur has decided to open an e-commerce site to complement their retail store. After researching their options, they decide that a PaaS solution will be sufficient. To reduce upfront cost, the entrepreneur intends to build the site themselves. Which of the following skill-sets will be needed?
A. Firewall Administration
B. Web-Server Administration
C. Security standard development
D. Application development
CLO-001 exam Correct Answer: D
Explanation

QUESTION 18
An organization is replacing its core insurance platform. The solution is made up of internally hosted insurance systems and applications hosted in the cloud. Which of the following activities is part of service transition?
A. Ensure that as part of the change management process the events are sequenced to include the cloud provider and that they have resources available.
B. Ensure that monitoring controls are implemented by the cloud provider to ensures that the system is highly available and that performance can be measured.
C. Ensure that the SLA’s for availability have been well documented and agreed to as part of the contract arrangement between the two companies.
D. Ensure that the capacity and storage is available to meet the current and future demands of the solution of the cloud provider’s infrastructure.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 19
The business benefits of mobile computing are enhanced MOST by which of the following cloud service characteristics?
A. Hardware independence
B. Security
C. Distribution over the Internet
D. Time to market
CLO-001 dumps Correct Answer: C
Explanation

QUESTION 20
Which of the following is the cloud characteristics that speeds up development, deployment, and overall time to market?
A. Rapid elasticity
B. Cloud bursting
C. Universal access
D. Network pooling
Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 21
Which of the following must be implemented by a cloud provider to ensure that different entities can authenticate and share basic user accounting information?
A. Scalability
B. Federation
C. Virtualization
D. Self service
CLO-001 pdf Correct Answer: B
Explanation

QUESTION 22
Privacy is the right of________ to selectively disclose information about _________ and restrict the further use of that information by any party.
A. companies, others
B. companies, themselves
C. individuals, others
D. individuals, themselves
Correct Answer: D
Explanation

QUESTION 23
Which of the following is a differentiating characteristic of private cloud solutions compared to public cloud solutions?
A. Private cloud solutions are dedicated for use by a single organization.
B. Private cloud solutions are never accessible via the public Internet.
C. Private cloud solutions do not provide incremental scalability.
D. Private cloud solutions save considerably more money than a public cloud solution.
CLO-001 vce Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 24
Which of the following describes the commonality between cloud computing and outsourcing?
A. Shift from CAPEX to OPEX
B. Reduced compliance cost
C. Simplified security management
D. Reduced system architecture complexity
Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 25
How can an organization successfully implement an IaaS strategy?
A. Standardize on a limited set of virtual machines
B. Continuously execute performance analytics
C. Open up internal databases with Web service access
D. Take inventory of the application portfolio and select external suppliers
CLO-001 exam Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 26
An organization has just gone to a start-up cloud provider for its entire infrastructure. Which of the following is one of the new organizational roles required at the cloud provider?
A. Supply manager
B. Commercial manager
C. Infrastructure project manager
D. Credit risk manager
Correct Answer: C
Explanation

QUESTION 27
Which of the following is a service level management tool aimed at quantifying a cloud offerings’ performance?
A. Mean Time to Recovery
B. Risk Assessment
C. Business Impact Analysis
D. Request for Proposal
CLO-001 dumps Correct Answer: A
Explanation

QUESTION 28
A company has hired a third party vendor to provide email and spam/anti-malware filtering services. The type of cloud service provided by the vendor is BEST
described as which of the following?
A. SaaS
B. IaaS
C. CaaS
D. PaaS
Correct Answer: A
Explanation

Recommended Experience

  • None

Recommended Equipment

  • None

Related Certifications

  • CompTIA Cloud Essentials CLO-001

Related Job Functions

  • Business Analysts
  • Business Process Owners
  • IT staff members
  • Support staff
  • Entry-level datacenter staff
  • Sales staff in cloud product
  • Marketing staff in cloud product

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Topic 1, Networking Concepts
Question No : 1 – (Topic 1)
A user’s laptop is unable to keep a stable network connection. Which of the following measures would MOST likely need to be configured?
A. SSID name
B. WAP encryption strength
C. WAP radio power
D. Channel overlay

Answer: C
Explanation: WAP radio power is the signal strength through which you can specify the range from which you can stay connected to the network and access internet. Here, when the user is not able to maintain a stable connection then it is a problem with the signal strength for sure so you can try to increase the signal strength by increasing the radio power.

Question No : 2 – (Topic 1)
The Network Interface Layer of the TCP/IP model corresponds to which of the following layers of the OSI model? (Select TWO).
A. Network
B. Session
C. Transport
D. Physical
E. Data link
Answer: D,E

Explanation:
The network layer is responsible for packet forwarding including routing through intermediate routers, whereas the data link layer is responsible for media access control, flow control and error checking.

Question No : 3 – (Topic 1)
In which of the following layers of the OSI model would MAC addressing be found?
A. Network
B. Application
C. Data Link
D. Transport
Answer: C

Explanation:
The ITU-T G.hn standard, which provides high-speed local area networking over existing wires (power lines, phone lines and coaxial cables), includes a complete data link layer which provides both error correction and flow control by means of a selective repeat Sliding Window Protocol.

Question No : 4 – (Topic 1)
Several users from the finance department report that they are able to access the Internet, but unable to connect to their financial applications. The network technician is unable to ping the finance server. The technician decides to check the switch and determines that Internet access is working. Which of the following is a possible cause of the access issues?
A. Faulty cable
B. Remote management disabled
C. Improper VLAN assignment
D. Mismatched duplex

Answer: C
Explanation: Finance Server is placed in same VLAN which is assigned to finance users if they are able to access internet that’s means connectivity to switch is good, so we have to check the VLAN assigned to users.

Question No : 5 – (Topic 1)
A technician needs to ensure that traffic from a specific department is separated within several switches. Which of the following needs to be configured on the switch to separate the traffic?
A. Duplex settings
B. SNMP string
C. VLAN assignments
D. Spanning tree

Answer: C
Explanation: A VLAN is a group of end stations with a common set of requirements, independent of physical location. VLANs have the same attributes as a physical LAN but allow you to group end stations even if they are not located physically on the same LAN segment.

Question No : 6 – (Topic 1)
Given a subnet mask of 255.255.255.0, how many usable IP addresses would be in that subnet?
A. 250
B. 254
C. 255
D. 256

Answer: B
Explanation: The Subnet Mask however, determines the “class” of a Network.
255.255.255.0 is a “Class C” network.A class c network can host up to 254 pc’s

Question No : 7 – (Topic 1)
On which of the following OSI model layers would a MAC address be used?
A. Network
B. Data Link
C. Transport
D. Physical
Answer: B

Explanation:
The ITU-T G.hn standard, which provides high-speed local area networking over existing wires (power lines, phone lines and coaxial cables), includes a complete data link layer which provides both error correction and flow control by means of a selective repeat Sliding Window Protocol.

Question No : 8 – (Topic 1)
Joe, a user, has a computer that has a link light on his network interface card (NIC); however, Joe is unable to access the Internet. Which of the following is the cause of this issue?
A. Faulty GBIC
B. Faulty SFP
C. Cable is a crossover
D. VLAN mismatch
Answer: D

Explanation:
As user has link light on NIC that means he has connectivity with switch so he need to check his vlan assignment.

Question No : 9 – (Topic 1)
A network technician is troubleshooting signal problems with certain WAPs in an office and finds consistently high ping times across the units. Such an issue is called which of the following?
A. Latency
B. Attenuation
C. Crosstalk
D. Frequency hopping
Answer: A

Explanation:
During the high ping time users are using most of the bandwidth that causes latency so signal strength get affected by this.

Question No : 10 – (Topic 1)
Which of the following TCP/IP model layers does the OSI model Presentation layer map to?
A. Transport
B. Internet
C. Application
D. Network Interface
Answer: C

Explanation:
The Application layer provides applications the ability to access the services of the other layers and defines the protocols that applications use to exchange data. There are many Application layer protocols and new protocols are always being developed.

Question No : 11 – (Topic 1)
A customer wants to keep cost to a minimum and has only ordered a single static IP address from the ISP. Which of the following must be configured on the router to allow for all the computers to share the same public IP address?
A. VLANs
B. PoE
C. PAT
D. VPN
Answer: C

Explanation:
Port Address Translation (PAT), is an extension to network address translation (NAT) that permits multiple devices on a local area network (LAN) to be mapped to a single public IP address. The goal of PAT is to conserve IP addresses.

Question No : 12 – (Topic 1)
Which of the following LAN technologies is used to provide a MAXIMUM bandwidth of 1Gbps through singlemode fiber?
A. 10GBaseLR
B. 100BaseFX
C. 100BaseTX
D. 1000BaseX
Answer: D

Explanation:
1000BaseX identifies various Gigabit Ethernet physical layer standards as defined in IEEE802.3z, such as 1000BaseLX, 1000BaseSX, 1000BaseCX and 1000BaseLH. Basically, all standards included in 1000BaseX uses 8B/10B coding scheme with 8 bits of data and 2 bits of error-correction data. Each specification allows various cable (fiber or copper) lengths, and uses different cable media.

Question No : 13 – (Topic 1)
Which of the following properties of DHCP would a technician use to ensure an IP address is not leased out from the active scope?
A. Reservations
B. Lease times
C. Removing IPs from the active leases
D. Configuring the DNS options
Answer: A

Explanation:
Reservations are permanent lease assignments that are used to ensure that a specified client on a subnet can always use the same IP address. You can use DHCP reservations for hosts that require a consistent IP address, but do not need to be statically configured.

Question No : 14 – (Topic 1)
Spanning-Tree Protocol is used with which of the following network devices?
A. Router
B. NIC
C. Switch
D. DHCP server
Answer: C

Explanation:
Spanning Tree Protocol (STP) is a Layer 2 protocol that runs on bridges and switches. The specification for STP is IEEE 802.1D. The main purpose of STP is to ensure that you do not create loops when you have redundant paths in your network. Loops are deadly to a network.

Question No : 15 – (Topic 1)
A technician wants to separate networks on a switch. Which of the following should be configured to allow this?
A. VLAN
B. Trunking
C. Spanning tree
D. Traffic filtering
Answer: A

Explanation:
A VLAN is a group of end stations in a switched network that is logically segmented by function, project team, or application, without regard to the physical locations of the users. VLANs have the same attributes as physical LANs, but you can group end stations even if they are not physically located on the same LAN segment.

Question No : 16 – (Topic 1)
A user wants to connect seven PCs together for a game night. Which of the following should the user install to help with this task?
A. Media convertor
B. Switch
C. Firewall
D. Bridge
Answer: B

Explanation:
They connect multiple PCs, printers, servers and other hardware. Switches allow you to send information, such as email, and access shared resources, including printers, in a smooth, efficient, and transparent manner.

Question No : 17 – (Topic 1)
Which of the following defines the amount of time a host retains a specific IP address before it is renewed or released?
A. DHCP lease
B. DNS suffix
C. Subnet mask
D. DHCP reservation
Answer: A

Explanation:
By default, each IP address assigned by a DHCP Server comes with a one-day lease,
which is the amount of time that the address is valid.

Question No : 18 – (Topic 1)
Users are reporting that some Internet websites are not accessible anymore. Which of the following will allow the network administrator to quickly isolate the remote router that is causing the network communication issue, so that the problem can be reported to the appropriate responsible party?
A. Ping
B. Protocol analyzer
C. Tracert
D. Dig
Answer: C

Explanation:
Tracet command will tell the administrator which route is not present or which is present so he will come to know whether he has appropriate route or not.

Question No : 19 – (Topic 1)
Ann, a new user, has a workstation that has connectivity to the printer located in her department, but cannot access the Internet. The result of an ipconfig command on Ann’s workstation is as follows:
IP address: 192.168.0.124 Subnet Mask: 255.255.255.128 Default Gateway: 192.168.0.254
Which is MOST likely preventing the user from accessing the Internet?
A. Duplicate IP address
B. Incorrect gateway
C. Incorrect VLAN
D. Bad switch port
Answer: B

Explanation:
We usually give default gateway as an end device which is directly connected with ISP so in this case user has lost his connectivity with due to wrong default gateway configured.

Question No : 20 – (Topic 1)
Which of the following is the common port used for IMAP?

A. 25
B. 53
C. 143
D. 443
Answer: C

Explanation:
The Internet Message Access Protocol (commonly known as IMAP) is an Application Layer Internet protocol that allows an e-mail client to access e-mail on a remote mail server. The current version, IMAP version 4 revision 1 (IMAP4rev1), is defined by RFC 3501. An IMAP server typically listens on well-known port 143

Question No : 21 – (Topic 1)
Which of the following network protocols is used to resolve FQDNs to IP addresses?
A. DNS
B. FTP
C. DHCP
D. APIPA
Answer: A

Explanation:
An Internet service that translates domain names into IP addresses. Because domain names are alphabetic, they’re easier to remember. The Internet however, is really based on IP addresses. Every time you use a domain name, therefore, a DNS service must translate the name into the corresponding IP address. For example, the domain name www.example.com might translate to 198.105.232.4.

Question No : 22 – (Topic 1)
Which of the following network protocols is used to transport email between servers?
A. IMAP4
B. POP3
C. SNMP
D. SMTP
Answer: D

Explanation:
While electronic mail servers and other mail transfer agents use SMTP to send and receive mail messages, user-level client mail applications typically use SMTP only for sending messages to a mail server for relaying

Question No : 23 – (Topic 1)
Ann, a technician, installs a new WAP and users are able to connect; however, users cannot access the Internet. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause of the problem?
A. The signal strength has been degraded and latency is increasing hop count.
B. An incorrect subnet mask has been entered in the WAP configuration.
C. The signal strength has been degraded and packets are being lost.
D. Users have specified the wrong encryption type and routes are being rejected.
Answer: B

Explanation:
Due to wrong subnet entered user is unable to communicate with anyone so to communicate he needs to be in right subnet.

Question No : 24 – (Topic 1)
Users have reported issues accessing an Internet website. The network technician wants to verify network layer connectivity. Which of the following tools can provide the verification?
A. ping
B. netstat
C. route
D. arp

Answer: A
Explanation: Ping is a computer network administration utility used to test the reachability of a host on an Internet Protocol (IP) network and to measure the round-trip time for messages sent from the originating host to a destination computer.

Question No : 25 – (Topic 1)
Which of the following is the FASTEST Ethernet technology?
A. 10GBaseSR
B. 10BaseT
C. 100BaseFX
D. 1000BaseT
Answer: A

Explanation:
10GBASE-SR (“short range”) is a port type for multi-mode fiber and uses 850.nm lasers. Its
Physical Coding Sublayer 64b/66b PCS is defined in IEEE 802.3 Clause 49 and its Physical Medium Dependent PMD in Clause 52. It delivers serialized data at a line rate of 10.3125 Gbit/s.

Question No : 26 – (Topic 1)
Network upgrades have been completed and the WINS server was shutdown. It was decided that NetBIOS network traffic will no longer be permitted. Which of the following will accomplish this objective?
A. Content filtering
B. Port filtering
C. MAC filtering
D. IP filtering

Answer: B
Explanation: TCP/IP port filtering is the practice of selectively enabling or disabling Transmission Control Protocol (TCP) ports and User Datagram Protocol (UDP) ports on computers or network devices. When used in conjunction with other security practices, such as deploying firewall software at your Internet access point, applying port filters to intranet and Internet servers insulates those servers from many TCP/IP-based security attacks, including internal attacks by malicious users.

Question No : 27 – (Topic 1)
Companies trying to cut down on constant documentation of IP addresses could use which of the following?
A. Longer lease times
B. More reservations
C. Larger scopes
D. Dynamic IP addressing

Answer: D
Explanation:

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QUESTION 1
A desktop computer is exhibiting artifacts on the screen after prolonged use. A technician has already updated the video drivers and ran all operating system
updates.
Which of the following is the MOST likely cause for this?

A. Defective cabling
B. Outdated system BIOS
C. Incorrect GPU firmware
D. Overheating GPU
Correct Answer: D Explanation
QUESTION 2
Which of the following types of cables are MOST likely to be used to connect to an external hard drive? (Select TWO).
A. Molex
B. SPDIF
C. eSATA

D. HDMI
E. USB 3.0
F. CAT6e
Correct Answer: CE Explanation
QUESTION 3
A user wants to store a personal video to view at a later time. Which of the following types of media is the LEAST expensive with a maximum capacity of 750MB?
A. USB drive
B. DVD-R
C. Blu-Ray
D. CD-R
Correct Answer: D Explanation
QUESTION 4
A user is asking for recommendations on building a PC that will primarily be used for gaming. Which of the following should the technician recommend? (Select TWO).
A. 7.1 sound card
B. CAD video card
C. Virtualization support
D. Thunderbolt expansion cards
E. RAID controller
F. High-end video card
Correct Answer: AF Explanation
QUESTION 5
A user is watching streaming video on a home network, but experiences buffering and delays when there are too many people on the network. Which of the following is MOST likely to resolve the issue?
A. Disable SSID broadcast
B. Setup UPnP
C. Enable QoS
D. Configure DMZ
Correct Answer: C Explanation
QUESTION 6
A technician is troubleshooting a desktop PC. When the power button is pressed, the fan momentarily spins and the PC does not boot. Which of the following components is MOST likely the problem?
A. CPU
B. CMOS battery
C. RAM
D. Power supply
Correct Answer: D Explanation
QUESTION 7
A technician is troubleshooting performance issues with a desktop PC and hears clicking noises coming from inside the case. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause?
A. Low voltage power supply
B. Failing magnetic hard drive
C. Corrupted Solid State Drive
D. Overheated RAM
Correct Answer: B Explanation
QUESTION 8
Ann, a business traveler, calls her company’s help desk reporting that she cannot connect to the hotel’s Internet. Which of the following is the FIRST troubleshooting step the help desk technician should advise?
A. Verify WiFi is enabled
B. Check the proxy settings
C. Contact the hotel’s front desk
D. Boot into Safe Mode
Correct Answer: A Explanation
QUESTION 9
A computer is running very slowly and there is a clicking sound coming from the tower. Which of the following is the BEST course of action?
A. Format the drive and install the OS.
B. Partition the drive. Format the drive and install the OS.
C. Backup data. Format and install the OS.
D. Backup data. Replace the drive and install the OS.
Correct Answer: D Explanation
QUESTION 10
A computer will not load Windows and displays the error message “Operating system not found”. Which of the following tools should the technician use to troubleshoot the issue?
A. bootrec
B. diskpart
C. format
D. sfc
Correct Answer: A Explanation
QUESTION 11
A user states there are multiple small black dots on an LCD screen. Which of the following should be done to resolve the issue?
A. Replace monitor.
B. Replace video card.
C. Replace video cable.
D. Replace power supply.
Correct Answer: A Explanation
QUESTION 12
Which of the following ports is used for a secure browser connection for an online purchase?
A. 23
B. 80
C. 110

D. 443
E. 3389
Correct Answer: A Explanation
QUESTION 13
When troubleshooting a motherboard that has no power, which of the following steps would the technician do FIRST?
A. Use a multimeter tester.
B. Use a post card tester.
C. Replace the motherboard with a new one.
D. Make sure the computer is plugged in.
Correct Answer: D Explanation
QUESTION 14
A technician has a computer with three hard drives and wants to create a RAID array with parity.
Which of the following RAID configurations should be installed?
A. RAID 0
B. RAID 1
C. RAID 5
D. RAID 10
Correct Answer: C Explanation
QUESTION 15
A client has requested the use of an AMD CPU on a workstation computer. Which of the following motherboard sockets MUST be utilized for this customer’s PC?
A. FM2
B. Socket H
C. ZIF
D. 2011
Correct Answer: A Explanation
QUESTION 16
A customer is building a high-end gaming PC and is seeking an appropriate power supply unit. Which of the following feature-sets of a power supply should be installed? (Select THREE).
A. Mini-ITX form factor
B. High number of connectors
C. 24-pin main connector
D. 20-pin main connector
E. 350-450 watts of power
F. Dual 12v rails
Correct Answer: BCF Explanation
QUESTION 17
A technician is tasked with installing a printer for use in a department with ten users in a wireless- only environment while directly connected to the network. Which of the following network modes should the technician utilize in the printer setup?
A. Ad hoc
B. Bluetooth
C. Ethernet
D. Infrastructure
Correct Answer: D Explanation
QUESTION 18
A technician is reviewing the output of an ipconfig command. Which of the following listed IP addresses forwards traffic to another network or subnet?
A. DHCP server
B. DNS servers
C. Subnet mask
D. Default gateway
Correct Answer: D Explanation
QUESTION 19
After installing a new wireless router in a home office, a user’s remote clients have lost the ability to access the FTP server on the user’s home office LAN. Which of the following features in the router MUST be configured before the clients can regain secure access?
A. QoS
B. Port triggering
C. Port forwarding
D. MAC filtering
Correct Answer: C Explanation
QUESTION 20
After upgrading a customer’s motherboard and CPU, the PC will not boot. The technician can hear a single long beep lasting 4-5 seconds. This beep repeats until the unit is powered off. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause of this alarm?
A. The technician has shorted out the motherboard.
B. The technician has not properly seated the RAM.
C. The technician has not connected the keyboard.
D. The power supply is insufficient for the upgrade.
Correct Answer: B Explanation

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QUESTION NO: 1
When installing additional memory in a notebook computer, the MOST important point to remember is:
A. the chip installed in the expansion slot has to have the same capacity as the chip already installed.
B. memory chips are not plug and play; special drivers will be required.
C. the chip has to be seated properly and locked down to be detected.
D. the chip in the primary slot has to be the same or bigger size than the chip in the expansion slot.
Answer: C Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 2
Which of the following BEST describes the general meaning of a warning in one of the Event Viewer logs?
A. An Informational message on successful or failed audit actions.
B. An issue that will not prevent the basic function of the computer.
C. An informational message from the Windows Firewall.
D. An urgent issue that warns the user through a screen pop-up.
Answer: B Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 3
Which of the following Microsoft encryption software provides the HIGHEST level of security for PCs running Windows Vista Enterprise or Ultimate Vista?

A. NTFS
B. Windows Defender for Vista
C. BitLocker drive encryption
D. EFS
Answer: C Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 4
When using Device Manager, a yellow QUESTION NO: mark indicates which of the following?
A. Device conflict
B. Device is removed
C. Device has not been digitally signed
D. No device driver found
Answer: D Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 5
Windows XP Professional was remotely installed on a workstation overnight. The next day, the customer states the workstation is attempting to reinstall the OS again. Which of the following actions should be taken to use the installed OS?
A. Press F8 to go to the Advanced Startup Options and select Boot Windows Normally.
B. Reinstall the OS adding the /s option to the command (e.g. setup.exe /n /s).
C. Go to the BIOS and change the boot order to use the hard drive.
D. Use RegEdit32 to edit the registrys GUI_run_once option.
Answer: C Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 6
A user has a toolbar installed that appears to be connected to Spyware. Which of the following is the BEST way to remove it?
A. Go into the BIOS and disable the toolbar.
B. Boot using the Last Known Good Configuration option.
C. Boot into Safe Mode and remove browser helper objects.
D. Go into the BIOS and run a virus scan.
Answer: C Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 7
Which of the following commands is used to delete the entire contents of drive D: quickly?
A. format c: /a:512
B. format d: /c
C. format d: /x
D. format d: /q
Answer: D Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 8
Users are reporting their machines are losing connection to a central server during off hours, causing some processes that run after hours to stop. Which of the following commands would BEST confirm the problem?
A. ping -l 10000
B. ipconfig /showclassid
C. ping -t
D. ipconfig /registerdns
Answer: C Explanation: QUESTION NO: 9

In a 64-bit Windows operating system, which of the following directories is created twice, once for 32-bit applications and once for 64-bit applications?
A. C:\Documents and Settings
B. C:\Windows
C. C:\Program Files
D. C:\Users
Answer: C Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 10
A Windows XP system locks up after the GUI starts to load. The system will start in Safe Mode. The Event Viewer reports that a driver failed to load. Which of the following methods would help diagnose the problem?
A. Enable boot logging. In Safe Mode, read the ntbtlog.txt file.
B. In Safe Mode, run the sigverif utility.
C. Restart the system from the OEM recovery CD; do a full restore.
D. In Safe Mode, run the driverquery utility.
Answer: A Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 11
A technician is attempting to get into the BIOS and they are being prompted for a password. Which of the following can clear the BIOS password? (Select TWO).
A. Pull the CMOS battery.
B. Pull the 20/24 pinconnector from the main board.
C. Short the reset circuit near the RAM.
D. Use the appropriate jumper on main board.
E. Use the reset button on the front panel.
Answer: A,D Explanation: QUESTION NO: 12

A Windows XP system stops booting with the error message NTLDR is missing. Which of the following is the BEST resolution for this problem?
A. fixmbr
B. Perform a clean install of Windows XP.
C. fixboot
D. Format and restore the system.
Answer: C Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 13
A client has a problem with one of the workstations serial ports. Which of the following tools will diagnose the problem?
A. Loop back plug
B. Crossover cable
C. Power supply tester
D. Cable tester
Answer: A Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 14
A technician would like to create a spanned volume on two basic disks. Which of the following steps must be completed?
A. Create a RAID 0 set.
B. Format the drive as FAT32.
C. Create a striped set.
D. Convert the basic disks to dynamic.
Answer: D Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 15
Which of the following is true regarding the number of volumes that can be created on a basic disk? (Select TWO).
A. Using NTFS, the limit is sixty-four.
B. Using FAT32, the limit is thirty-two.
C. Without extended partitions, the limit is four.
D. Using either FAT or NTFS, the limit is three.
E. With extended partitions, there is no limit.
Answer: C,E Explanation:

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QUESTION NO: 1
A user received an email from their bank asking them to login and verify their personal information. The user complies and fills in the requested information. Days later the user notices their checking account is empty. This is a result of which of the following?
A. Spam
B. Phishing
C. Adware
D. A Trojan
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 2
Which type of connector is required for a coaxial network cable?
A. RJ-11
B. Token ring

C. BNC
D. RJ-45
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 3
Which of the following is the default HTTPS port?
A. 25
B. 80
C. 110
D. 443

Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 4
Which of the following utilities would a technician use to determine network utilization?
A. Start Menu
B. My Network Places
C. Administrative Tools
D. Task Manager
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 5
From which of the following locations can a technician map a drive?
A. System Properties
B. Help and Support Center
C. Add Hardware Wizard
D. My Computer
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 6
While accessing the Internet in an external environment (i.e. while traveling), a Windows 7 firewall should be set to which of the following?
A. Block incoming and outgoing connections
B. Turned off or disabled
C. Block outgoing connections
D. Block incoming connections
Answer: D QUESTION NO: 7
Modern desktop computer systems require the following to properly dissipate heat (Select TWO):
A. Temperature Control Panel
B. Thermal Compound
C. Liquid Cooling Systems
D. Processor Heat Sink
E. Case Fan
Answer: B,D
QUESTION NO: 8
A memory type typically used in high end workstations and not generally found in consumer grade PCs is:
A. DDR3.
B. ECC.
C. PC2-6400.
D. DDR2-667.
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 9
A user reports that their hard drive has failed and needs to be replaced. Which of the following should the technician do FIRST?
A. Run the hard disk manufacturer’s diagnostic program
B. Re-image the drive
C. Replace the hard drive and load Windows
D. Ask the user diagnostic questions

Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 10
A user reports that their touchpad no longer works on their laptop. Which of the following is the FIRST troubleshooting step?
A. Plug in USB keyboard
B. Check for a disable switch
C. Contact the laptop manufacturer
D. Plug in a USB mouse
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 11
Users in an office routinely work with large graphics files. Which of the following preventive maintenance tools can assist in maintaining system performance?
A. FPROT
B. DEFRAG
C. CHKDSK
D. SFC
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 12
A Windows 7 user has documents spread throughout multiple hard drives and wishes to organize and search them in one panel. Which of the following features should they be shown?
A. Windows Explorer
B. My documents
C. Windows Desktop Search 4.0
D. Libraries
Answer: D

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