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Pass4isture Latest and Most Accurate Cisco 300-180 Dumps Exam Q&As:
1. R. L. Rivers Company is trying to prevent purchasing from non-approved suppliers. Which method could be used to implement this policy?
A.Use Company (Vendor) status.
B.Create a Workflow approval process.
C.Use Application Designer to hide the Vendor field.
D.Use Purchase Contracts; make this a required field.
E.Set Security application to lock down Purchase Requisitions.
300-180 exam 
Answer: B
2. FlyNow Airlines performs materials management activities (Item, Inventory Balance tracking, Material Issues/Returns/Receipts) in an external ERP system. What integration points must be implemented in order to keep Maximo updated with the latest item balances and material usage costs?
A.Vendors, Item Master, Inventory

B.Item Master, Inventory, Receipts
C.Vendors, Chart of Accounts, Item Master
D.Item Master, Inventory, Receipts, Issues/Returns
Answer: D
3. Fleet Corporation requires a user dialog to display when a corrective maintenance work order is created and there is a Preventive Maintenance schedule that is due within the next seven days. What must be accomplished in order to address this requirement? (Choose TWO)
A.Extend the PM Class.
B.Set up a standard cron task. C.Set
the Alert Lead on the PM. D.Configure
the PM Alert Option. E.Create an Alert
Lead field on the PM.

300-180  dumps Answer: CD
4. FlyNow Airlines wants to display and store the name of the person entering a work order. What are the correct steps? (Choose THREE)
A.Run configdb.
B.Rebuild the maximo.ear file.
C.Import the changes to the xml file.
D.Add a display name field using the Application Designer.
E.Create a CROSSOVER domain and associate to the display name field.
Answer: ADE
5. FlyNow Airlines has a requirement to migrate active Job Plans from a legacy system to Maximo. The
  existing External Interface does not have a Job Plan inbound interface. Where are the references to the MBOs created?
A.External Systems
B.Integration Objects
C.Integration Interfaces
D.Database Configuration
300-180 pdf Answer: B
6. Gander Lumber Company wants to share item data across two business units in different countries. Each business unit has a different financial process. What organization and site structure is recommended?
A.one organization with two sites
B.two organizations with one site each
C.an item set and one organization with two sites
D.an item set and two organizations with one site each
Answer: D
7. What architecture does Maximo 6 use?
A.n-tier
B.1-tier

C.2-tier
D.client/server
300-180  vce 
Answer: A
8. BMI Corporation has a requirement to categorize work orders by an attribute so they can be viewed and managed as a group. How is this accomplished in Maximo? (Choose TWO)
A.Class B.Value
List C.Work Type
D.Service Group
E.Classifications
Answer: CE
9. Mitchell Corporation wants to define an entity that is routinely transferred into a storeroom at a scheduled interval or upon fault detection. This entity can be repaired and re-used. What is the term to describe this entity in Maximo?
A.Item
B.Asset

C.Location
D.Rotating Item
300-180  exam 
Answer: D
10. Gander Lumber Company needs to identify and notify the responsible person when warranties for critical assets are about to expire. What is used to achieve this client requirement?
A.Escalation
B.Email Listener
C.Purchase Order
D.Service License Agreement (SLA)
Answer: A
11. What is true about an asset? (Choose TWO)
A.can only have one meter
B.can be moved between sites C.must
be a member of an Item Set D.must be
associated with a location E.can be
moved between organizations

300-180 dumps Answer: BE
12. Acme Corporation has a requirement to send emails to administrators when certain assets are approaching the end of their lease. What application is required to send these emails?
A.Workflow
B.Escalation
C.Email Listener
D.SLA (Service Level Agreement)
Answer: B
13. What data can be shared across organizations? (Choose TWO)
A.PMs
B.Items
C.Assets
D.Job Plans
E.Safety Plans
300-180 pdf 
Answer: BD
14. What best describes the relationship between assets in Maximo?
A.networked with an asset having many parents and many children
B.hierarchical with an asset having only one parent but many children

C.location centric with assets grouped by the location to which they are assigned
D.system centric with all assets defined as components assigned to a logical system
Answer: B
15. The accountant on the client core team wants to know what costs Maximo tracks on work orders. What costs will Maximo track? (Choose THREE)
A.Tools
B.Labor
C.Asset
D.Services
E.Company
F.Work Order
300-180 vce 
Answer: ABD
16. What type of associations can be made between People and Assets? (Choose TWO)
A.User
B.Labor
C.Default
D.Primary
E.Custodian
Answer: AE
17. From where can an Asset inherit its specification attributes? (Choose TWO)
A.Item
B.Location
C.Spare parts
D.Classification
300-180 exam 
Answer: AD
18. What is the best use of a Workflow sub-process?
A.to start escalations
B.for assigning actions
C.as a common process
D.to apply custom classes
Answer: C
19. ABC Trucking Company has a requirement to define an entity that is uniquely identified and not typically moved. The entity may contain further entities that can be moved. What term is used to describe this entity in Maximo?

A.Item
B.Asset
C.System
D.Location
300-180 dumps 
Answer: D
20. During a business process workshop, the client makes the following statement: “We have an existing asset classification structure that needs to be supported in Maximo. How many classification hierarchy levels can Maximo support?” What is the correct response to the client’s question?
A.Ten
B.Five
C.Three
D.Unlimited
Answer: D
21.The exhibit represents a simple routed network. Node 7 is a Windows 2000 Professional machine that establishes a TCP communication with Node 10, a Windows 2003 Server. The routers are Cisco 2500 series running IOS 11.2. While working at Node 10, you run a packet capture. Packets received by Node 10, and sent from Node 7 will reveal which of the following combination of source IP and source Physical addresses:
A. Source IP address 10.0.10.115, Source Physical address for Node 7
B. Source IP address 50.0.50.1, Source Physical address for Node 7
C. Source IP address for Router D’s Int E0, Source Physical address for Node 7
D. Source IP address 10.0.10.115, Source Physical address Router D’s Int E0
E. Source IP addresses for both Nodes 7 and Router D’s Int E0, Source Physical address for both Nodes 7 and Router D’s Int E0.
300-180  pdf Answer: D
22.You have implemented an IPSec policy, using only AH. You are analyzing your network traffic in Network Monitor, which of the following statements are true about your network traffic.?
A. You will not be able to view the data in the packets, as it is encrypted.
B. You will not be able to identify the upper layer protocol.
C. You will be able to view the unencrypted data in the packets.
D. You will be able to identify the encryption algorithm in use.
E. You will not be able to view the packet header.
Answer: C
23.In order to perform promiscuous mode captures using the Wireshark capture tool on a Windows Server 2003 machine, what must first be installed?
A. IPv4 stack
B. IPv6 stack

C. WinPcap
D. Nothing, it will capture by default
E. At least two network adapters
300-180 vce Answer: C
24.You are configuring the rules on your firewall, and need to take into consideration that some clients in the network are using automatic addressing. What is the IP address range reserved for internal use for APIPA in Microsoft networks?
A. 169.254.0.0 /4
B. 169.254.0.0 /16
C. 169.254.0.0 /8
D. 169.254.0.0 /0
E. 168.255.0.0 /16
Answer: B
25.If you capture an 802.11 frame, and the ToDS bit is set to zero and the FromDS bit is set to zero, what type of WLAN is this frame a part of?
A. Mesh
B. Broadcast
C. Infrastructure
D. Hierarchical

E. Ad Hoc
300-180 exam Answer:E
26.There are several options available to you for your new wireless networking technologies, and you are examining how different systems function. What transmission system uses short bursts combined together as a channel?
A. Frequency Hopping Spread Spectrum (FHSS)
B. Direct Sequence Spread Spectrum (DSSS)
C. Lamar Anthell Transmission (LAT)
D. Digital Band Hopping (DBH)
E. Digital Channel Hopping (DCH)
Answer: A
27.You have just installed a new Intrusion Detection System in your network. You are concerned that there are functions this system will not be able to perform. What is a reason an IDS cannot manage hardware failures?
A. The IDS can only manage RAID 5 failures.
B. The IDS cannot be programmed to receive SNMP alert messages.
C. The IDS cannot be programmed to receive SNMP trap messages.
D. The IDS cannot be programmed to respond to hardware failures. E.
The IDS can only inform you that an event happened.
300-180 dumps Answer: E

28.For the new Snort rules you are building, it will be required to have Snort examine inside the content of the packet. Which keyword is used to tell Snort to ignore a defined number of bytes before looking inside the packet for a content match?
A. Depth
B. Offset
C. Nocase
D. Flow_Control
E. Classtype
Answer: B
29.You have recently taken over the security of a mid-sized network. You are reviewing the current configuration of the IPTables firewall, and notice the following rule: ipchains -A input -p TCP -d 0.0.0.0/0 12345 -j DENY What is the function of this rule?
A. This rule for the output chain states that all incoming packets from any host to port 12345 are to be denied.
B. This rule for the input chain states that all incoming packets from any host to port 12345 are to be denied.
C. This rule for the input chain states that any TCP traffic from any address destined for any IP address and to port 12345 is to be denied.
D. This rule for the output chain states that any TCP traffic from any address destined for any IP address and to port 12345 is to be denied.
E. This rule for the input chain states that all TCP packets inbound from any network destined to any network is to be denied for ports 1, 2, 3, 4, and 5.
300-180 pdf Answer: C

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QUESTION 1
You need to configure per-user security authentication for reporting against the Sales cube.What should you do? (Each correct answer presents part of the complete solution. Choose all that apply.)
A. Install PowerPivot.
B. Create Service Principal Names (SPNs).
C. Configure account delegation.
D. Set up the Unattended Service Account.
70-466 exam Correct Answer: AB
Section: [none]
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
* From scenario:
/ Administrative staff from around the world will produce sales reports with Microsoft Excel 2010 based on the Sales cube.
/ Security requirements
When possible, the system must use Windows authentication for all database connections.
 The system must prevent users from querying data from outside of their region. The system must allow certain users to query data from multiple regions.
B: To use Kerberos authentication with SQL Server requires both the following conditions to be true: The client and server computers must be part of the same Windows domain, or in trusted domains. A Service Principal Name (SPN) must be registered with Active Directory, which assumes the role of the Key Distribution Center in a Windows domain. The SPN, after it is registered, maps to the Windows account that started the SQL Server instance service. If the SPN registration has not been performed or fails, the Windows security layer cannot determine the account associated with the SPN, and Kerberos authentication will not be used.
QUESTION 2
You need to configure the partition storage settings to support the reporting requirements.Which partition storage setting should you use?
A. DirectQuery
B. In-Memory
C. MOLAP
D. Low-latency MOLAP
E. Scheduled MOLAP
F. High-latency MOLAP
Correct Answer: D
Section: [none]
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 3
You need to develop the executive reports. What should you do? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose all that apply.)
A. Remove default values from all parameters.
B. Implement dataset query parameters to filter data.
C. Set the data source to use Windows authentication.
D. Set the data source to use stored Windows credentials.
E. Provide default values for all parameters.

F. Implement dataset filters to filter data.
70-466 dumps Correct Answer: BDE
Section: [none]
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
* From scenario:
Deliver executive reports that are parameterized and rendered from report snapshots
BD: The data source that the shared dataset is based on has Prompt or Windows Integrated credentials.
QUESTION 4
You need to modify the Sales Regions hierarchy to meet the reporting requirements.Which S5A5 feature should you use?
A. Calculation
B. Translation
C. Action
D. Perspective
Correct Answer: B
Section: [none]
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 5
You need to configure SSRS to meet the maximum number of snapshots requirement. What should you do? (Each answer presents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.)
A. In SharePoint Central Administration, set the System Snapshot Limit option to 5.
B. In Reporting Services Configuration Manager, set the System Snapshot Limit option to 5.
C. For each report, set the Limit number of snapshots option to 5.
D. Use PowerShell to set the System Snapshot Limit option to 5.
70-466 pdf Correct Answer: AC

Section: [none]
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
A: Reporting Services Service Applications are managed from SharePoint Central Administration. The Management and Properties pages allow you to update the configuration of the service application as well as common administration tasks.
Note:
* From scenario: The system must support report snapshots. The default maximum number of retained snapshots must not exceed five.
* System Snapshot Limit
Default is -1, which is no limit. Set a site-wide default value for the number of copies of report history to retain. The default value provides an initial setting that establishes the number of snapshots that can be stored for each report. You can specify different limits in property pages for specific reports. Not B: Use the Reporting Services Configuration Manager to configure a Reporting Services Native Mode installation. If you installed a report server by using the files-only installation option, you must use this tool to configure the server before you can use it. If you installed a report server by using the default configuration installation option, you can use this tool to verify or modify the settings that were specified during setup. Not D: SQL Server 2012 supports Windows PowerShell, which is a powerful scripting shell that lets administrators and developers automate server administration and application deployment.
QUESTION 6
You need to configure per-user security authentication for reporting against the Sales cube.What should you do? (Each correct answer presents part of the complete solution. Choose all that apply.)
A. Create Service Principal Names (SPNs).
B. Configure account delegation.
C. Enable forms-based authentication.
D. Enable mixed-mode authentication.
70-466 vce Correct Answer: AD
Section: [none]
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
* From scenario:
/ Administrative staff from around the world will produce sales reports with Microsoft Excel 2010 based on the Sales cube.
/ Security requirements

When possible, the system must use Windows authentication for all database connections. The system must prevent users from querying data from outside of their region. The system must allow certain users to query data from multiple regions.
A: To use Kerberos authentication with SQL Server requires both the following conditions to be true: The client and server computers must be part of the same Windows domain, or in trusted domains. A Service Principal Name (SPN) must be registered with Active Directory, which assumes the role of the Key Distribution Center in a Windows domain. The SPN,
after it is registered, maps to the Windows account that started the SQL Server instance service. If the SPN registration has not been performed or fails, the Windows security layer cannot determine the account associated with the SPN, and Kerberos authentication will not be used.
D: For windows authentication we need to enable mixed-mode authentication

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[Hottest Questions] Most Important Cisco 300-101 Dumps Practice Exam New Questions Implementing Cisco IP Routing [Video]

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Exam Code: 300-101
Exam Name: Implementing Cisco IP Routing
Q&As: 484

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Pass4isture Latest and Most Accurate Cisco 300-101 Dumps Exam Q&As:

QUESTION 3
An engineer has configured a router to use EUI-64, and was asked to document the IPv6 address of the router. The router has the following interface parameters:
mac address C601.420F.0007
subnet 2001:DB8:0:1::/64
Which IPv6 addresses should the engineer add to the documentation?
A. 2001:DB8:0:1:C601:42FF:FE0F:7
B. 2001:DB8:0:1:FFFF:C601:420F:7
C. 2001:DB8:0:1:FE80:C601:420F:7
D. 2001:DB8:0:1:C601:42FE:800F:7
300-101  exam Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Extended Unique Identifier (EUI), as per RFC2373, allows a host to assign iteslf a unique 64-Bit IP Version 6 interface identifier (EUI-64). This feature is a key
  benefit over IPv4 as it eliminates the need of manual configuration or DHCP as in the world of IPv4. The IPv6 EUI-64 format address is obtained through the 48-bit MAC address. The Mac address is first separated into two 24-bits, with one being OUI (Organizationally Unique Identifier) and the other being NIC specific. The
16-bit 0xFFFE is then inserted between these two 24-bits to for the 64-bit EUI address. IEEE has chosen FFFE as a reserved value which can only appear in EUI- 64 generated from the EUI-48 MAC address. Here is an example showing how the Mac Address is used to generate EUI.

300-101 dumps

Next, the seventh bit from the left, or the universal/local (U/L) bit, needs to be inverted. This bit identifies whether this interface identifier is universally or locally administered. If 0, the address is locally administered and if 1, the address is globally unique. It is worth noticing that in the OUI portion, the globally unique addresses assigned by the IEEE has always been set to 0 whereas the locally created addresses has 1 configured. Therefore, when the bit is inverted, it maintains its original scope (global unique address is still global unique and vice versa). The reason for inverting can be found in RFC4291 section 2.5.1.
QUESTION 4
For security purposes, an IPv6 traffic filter was configured under various interfaces on the local router. However, shortly after implementing the traffic filter, OSPFv3 neighbor adjacencies were lost. What caused this issue?
A. The traffic filter is blocking all ICMPv6 traffic.
B. The global anycast address must be added to the traffic filter to allow OSPFv3 to work properly.
C. The link-local addresses that were used by OSPFv3 were explicitly denied, which caused the neighbor relationships to fail.
D. IPv6 traffic filtering can be implemented only on SVIs.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
OSPFv3 uses link-local IPv6 addresses for neighbor discovery and other features, so if any IPv6 traffic filters are implemented be sure to include the link local address so that it is permitted in the filter list.
QUESTION 5
What is the purpose of the autonomous-system {autonomous-system-number} command?
A. It sets the EIGRP autonomous system number in a VRF.
B. It sets the BGP autonomous system number in a VRF.
C. It sets the global EIGRP autonomous system number.
D. It sets the global BGP autonomous system number.
300-101 dumps Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
To configure the autonomous-system number for an Enhanced Interior Gateway Routing Protocol (EIGRP) routing process to run within a VPN routing and forwarding (VRF) instance, use the autonomous-system command in address-family configuration mode. To remove the autonomous-system for an EIGRP routing process from within a VPN VRF instance, use the no form of this command. autonomous-system autonomous-system-number no autonomous-system autonomous-system-number
QUESTION 6
Which type of traffic does DHCP snooping drop?
A. discover messages
B. DHCP messages where the source MAC and client MAC do not match
C. traffic from a trusted DHCP server to client
D. DHCP messages where the destination MAC and client MAC do not match
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The switch validates DHCP packets received on the untrusted interfaces of VLANs with DHCP snooping enabled. The switch forwards the DHCP packet unless any of the following conditions occur (in which case the packet is dropped): The switch receives a packet (such as a DHCPOFFER, DHCPACK, DHCPNAK, or DHCPLEASEQUERY packet) from a DHCP server outside the network or firewall. The switch receives a packet on an untrusted interface, and the source MAC address and the DHCP client hardware address do not match. This check is performed only if the DHCP snooping MAC address verification option is turned on. · The switch receives a DHCPRELEASE or DHCPDECLINE message from an untrusted host with an entry in the DHCP snooping binding table, and the interface information in the binding table does not match the interface on which the message was received. The switch receives a DHCP packet that includes a relay agent IP address that is not 0.0.0.0. To support trusted edge switches that are connected to untrusted aggregation-switch ports, you can enable the DHCP option-82 on untrusted port feature, which enables untrusted aggregation- switch ports to accept DHCP packets that include option-82 information. Configure the port on the edge switch that connects to the aggregation switch as a trusted port. 

QUESTION 7
Refer to the exhibit.
300-101 dumps

Which command only announces the 1.2.3.0/24 network out of FastEthernet 0/0?
A. distribute list 1 out
B. distribute list 1 out FastEthernet0/0
C. distribute list 2 out
D. distribute list 2 out FastEthernet0/0
300-101 pdf Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Access list 2 is more specific, allowing only 1.2.3.0/24, whereas access list 1 permits all 1.0.0.0/8 networks. This question also asks us to apply this distribute list only to the outbound direction of the fast Ethernet 0/0 interface, so the correct command is “distribute list 2 out FastEthernet0/0.”

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Exam Code: 210-260
Exam Name: Implementing Cisco Network Security
Q&As: 310

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Question: 40
Amy is a sales person for your company and she earns her pay based on commission. Amy’s pay is known as variable pay or what other term?
A. Fixed pay
B. Commission only
C. Base pay
D. At risk pay
210-260 exam Answer: D
Explanation:
Amy’s pay is a variable pay because her level of income is based on how well she sells. When an employee is paid a variable pay it is also known as “at risk pay.”Answer option C is incorrect. Base pay is a fixed amount of pay for doing a job. Amy’s pay varies and isn’t fixed. Answer option A is incorrect. Fixed pay isn’t technically a HR Professional term, though it’s often
used with base pay. Answer option B is incorrect. Commission only pay is a slang to describe “at risk pay” or variable pay.
Question: 41
Jennifer is the HR Professional for her organization. Her supervisor, Dan, has asked Jennifer to find the Compa-ratio for Sam. Sam earns $40,000 as a mechanic, but the midpoint for a mechanic is actually $50,000. What is the Compa-ratio for Sam?
A. -$10,000
B. 80 percent
C. 125 percent
D. $10,000
Answer: B
Explanation:
The compa-ratio helps organizations determine how closely an employee’s pay is in synch with market. You must also consider the length of employment, service, skills, and other factors in the decision for compensation. The ratio is found by dividing the employees’ salary ($40,000) by the midpoint for the role ($50,000) for the ratio of 80 percent. Answer options A, D, and C are incorrect. These are not valid calculations for the compa-ratio.

Question: 42
You are a HR Professional for your organization. You have presented an idea to your staff. The staff members then discuss their ideas based on your presentation. All of the ideas are recorded and collectively ranked from most important to least important (or some other ordinal scale). Through this process a selection or forecast can be made for the organization. What forecasting technique have you used in this scenario?
A. Nominal group technique
B. Ratio analysis
C. Brainstorming
D. Delphi Technique
210-260 dumps Answer: A
Explanation:
The nominal group technique is a facilitated workshop to present an idea, allow brainstorming of additional ideas, and then the solutions are ranked by the group. A forecast can then be created based on the outcome of the exercise. Answer option C is incorrect. This is more than just brainstorming as brainstorming does not begin with a presented idea or a ranking of ideas to predict an outcome. Answer option D is incorrect. The Delphi Technique uses rounds of anonymous surveys to build
consensus. Answer option B is incorrect. Ratio analysis is a mathematical forecasting technique using two or more variables to predict a likely outcome.
Question: 43
Which of the following are narrative methods of appraisal that require managers to describe the employee’s performance? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose three.
A. Daily review
B. Field review
C. Essay review
D. Critical incident review
Answer: D, B, and C
Explanation:
The narrative methods of appraisal that require managers to describe the employee’s performance are as follows:
1.Critical incident review
2.Field review
3.Essay review
The critical incident review requires that during the review period supervisors make notes of successful and unsuccessful performance issues for each employee. A field review appraisal may be conducted by someone other than the supervisor. This can be a person from outside the organization. In the essay review, the reviewer has to write a short description about each employee’s performance during the year. Answer option A is incorrect. There is no such narrative method of appraisal as daily review.
Question: 44
There are seven stages of internal consulting that an HR Professional must be familiar with. Consider this scenario: Frances has developed an HR training plan for her organization. The plan is comprehensive, aggressive, and will provide organizational development for all levels of employees in the company. Frances is presenting her plan to her organization’s management. What level of internal consulting is Fran participating in?
A. Reviewing, transitioning, and evaluating the project
B. Gaining agreement to the project plan
C. Presenting the findings and recommendations
D. Exploring the situation
210-260 pdf Answer: B
Explanation:
Frances is meeting with the management to gain their agreement on the project plan. The plan has not yet been approved.
Answer option C is incorrect. This choice is tempting, but as the plan is not yet approved, this choice is invalid. Answer option A is incorrect. This is the final stage of internal consulting; since the plan has not yet been implemented, this choice is incorrect. Answer option D is incorrect. Exploring the situation is the first stage of internal consulting. Once the HR Professional moves past this phase, the plan is developed and presented for approval.

Question: 45
Heather’s organization works with a labor union work force. Heather has heard rumors that the union has been trying to create a hot cargo agreement with a supplier. What is a hot cargo agreement?
A. It’s an agreement that an employer will stop doing business with a non-union business.
B. It’s a threat that the union will slow down processing orders for non-union shops.
C. It’s an agreement to rush orders for union-based businesses.
D. It forces suppliers to join the union.
Answer: A
Explanation:
A hot cargo agreement is an agreement an employer makes to stop doing business with other, usually non-union based businesses. Answer options D, B, and C are incorrect. These are’nt valid definitions of a hot cargo agreement.

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Exam Name: Introducing Cisco Data Center Technologies
Q&As: 85

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QUESTION NO: 21
Which one of the following file types cannot be imported to Visual RF Plan?
A. dwg
B. jpg
C. tiff
D. gif
E. bmp
200-155 exam 
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 22
Aruba’s recommended best option for authenticating guest users is:
A. Temporary employee account
B. Kerberos
C. Captive Portal
D. Windows logon
E. Email address
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 23
Aliases are used in firewall policies to:
A. Apply firewall polices to ports in a stateful manner
B. Make firewall rules act like traditional ACLs
C. Ease readability and maintainability for source and destination addresses
D. Are a part of roles, not the firewall
E. Are applied as an action in a rule
200-155 dumps 
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 24
An Aruba AP 125 is capable of supporting which of the following network types? (Select three)
A. 802.11b
B. 802.11n
C. 802.11a
D. 802.11w
E. 802.11p
Answer: A,B,C
QUESTION NO: 25
What does SET ORIENTATION option do in the Visual RF Plan edit tool?
A. Set the horizontal plane on each floor
B. Give the option to resize a floor
C. Sets the North/South orientation of the building
D. Sets the proper vertical floor plan alignment
E. Allows the planner to set the directional antenna orientation
200-155 pdf 
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 26
Which of the following is true of an Aruba Mobility Controller acting as a layer 3 router? (Select two):
A. The Mobility Controller is the client’s default router.
B. The Mobility Controller acts as a bridge.
C. DHCP can be provided by the network infrastructure or the Mobility Controller.
D. The Mobility Controller supports BGP.
E. OSPF must be configured
Answer: A,C
QUESTION NO: 27
Which of these is NOT a valid license type? (Select two)
A. RFprotect
B. Application Security
C. Base AOS
D. PEF NG
E. Content Security
200-155 vce 
Answer: B,C
QUESTION NO: 28
In a Campus AP deployment, an access point has been provisioned statically with an IP address, subnet mask, default gateway and Controller IP address. Control Plane Security has been disabled. Both the Controller and the Access Point are using 6.1 firmware. If a 3rd party firewall is placed in between the AP and controller, what traffic would need to be allowed for the AP to boot successfully and broadcast Wireless Networks? (Select two)
A. DHCP
B. PAPI
C. GRE
D. SNMP
E. NTP
Answer: B,C
QUESTION NO: 29
Web based captive portal can be authenticated by the following types of databases: (Select two)
A. Internal
B. PEAP
C. RADIUS
D. Kerberos
E. Tacacs
200-155 exam 
Answer: A,C
QUESTION NO 30
Why should the number of services on a server be limited to required services?
A. Every open service represents a potential vulnerability.
B. Closed systems require special connectivity services.
C. Running extra services makes machines more efficient.
D. All services are inherently stable and secure.
E. Additional services make machines more secure.
Answer:A
QUESTION NO 31
intrusion detection involves comparing traffic to known characteristics of malicious traffic, known as attack signatures.
A. Pattern matching B.
Statistical anomaly C.
Behavioral analysis D.
Host
E. Network
Answer:A
QUESTION NO 32
Which of the following calculations is used when selecting countermeasures?
A. Annualized Rate of Occurrence
B. Single Loss Expectancy
C. Annualized Loss Expectancy
D. Business Impact Analysis
E. Business Continuity Plan
200-155 dumps Answer: C

QUESTION NO 33
Which tool can be used to view the logical and physical topology of an MDS SAN?
A. Switch Manager
B. Device Manager
C. EWS
D. Fabric Manager
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 34
What describes External DAS?
A. Host provided content addressed objects
B. Host provided data addressing
C. Array provided global access volumes

D. Array provided device management
200-155 pdf 
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 35
What are the five core elements of the data center infrastructure?
A. Applications, Databases, JBOD, Networks, Storage Arrays
B. Applications, Databases, Servers/Operating Systems, SAN, JBOD
C. Applications, Databases, Servers/Operating Systems, DAS, NAS
D. Applications, Databases, Servers/Operating Systems, Networks, Storage Arrays
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 36
Which technology supports high availability of data?
A. Clustering
B. Flushing
C. Journaling
D. Caching
200-155 vce Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 37
Which task is an example of monitoring the health of a data center object?
A. Viewing rates of data transmission of all disks
B. Detecting when a file system has reached critical utilization
C. Examining the operational status of a device port
D. Listing the servers attached to a particular storage array
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 38
A company has two SAN islands approximately one mile apart. The company wants to link both sites over its public WAN connection. The fabrics must remain separate but allow device access from either site. Which protocol is recommended to connect the sites?
A. FCIP
B. FCP
C. iFCP
D. iSCSI
200-155 exam 
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 39
What are the three key data center management activities that are interdependent?
A. Manageability, Integrity, Cost
B. Provisioning, Monitoring, Reporting
C. Installation, Configuration, Problem Solving
D. Scalability, Accessibility, Security
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 40
A Copy on First Access replica has been created. The source devices are being used for production operations. When is data copied from the source to the target?
A. A read or write issued for the first time to a location on the source
B. A write issued for the first time to a location on the source
C. All I/Os issued to a location on the source
D. A read issued for the first time from a location on the source
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 41
Which statement describes logical volumes?
A. May consist of interleaved physical disks
B. May be a partition of a larger physical disk
C. May be presented to a host as several larger physical disks
D. May consist of several file systems
200-155 dumps 
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 42
What is a physical component of a storage environment?
A. Bus
B. Application
C. Operating system
D. Protocol
Correct Answer: A

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Exam Name: Upgrading Your Skills to MCSA Windows Server 2012
Q&As: 427

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QUESTION 15
You have a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012.
You promote Server1 to a domain controller.
You need to view the service location (SRV) records that Server1 registers in DNS.
What should you do on Server1?
A. Open the Netlogon.dns file.
B. Run ipconfig /displaydns.
C. Run Get-DnsServerDiagnostics.
D. Open the SrC. sys file.
70-417  exam 
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Netlogon.dns – If you are using non-Microsoft DNS servers to support Active Directory, you can verify SRV
locator resource records by viewing Netlogon.dns. Netlogon.dns is located in the %systemroot%\System32
\Config folder. You can use a text editor, such as Microsoft Notepad, to view this file.
The first record in the file is the domain controller’s Lightweight Directory Access Protocol (LDAP) SRV
record.
References:
QUESTION 16
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named adatum.com. The domain contains a member
server named Server1 and a domain controller named DC2. All servers run Windows Server 2012 R2.
On DC2, you open Server Manager and you add Server1 as another server to manage.
From Server Manager on DC2, you right-click Server1 as shown in the exhibit. (Click the Exhibit button.)

70-417 dumps

You need to ensure that when you right-click Server1, you see the option to run the DHCP console.
What should you do?
A. On DC2, install the Role Administration Tools.
B. On DC2 and Server1, run winrmquickconfig.
C. In the domain, add DC2 to the DHCP Administrators group.
D. On Server1, install the Feature Administration Tools.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
You need to install the feature administrations tools for the dhcp . Need to install DHCP management tools
on DC2 then you will have access to dhcp management.
QUESTION 17
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains three
servers named Server1, Server2, and Server3.
You create a server group named ServerGroup1.
You discover the error message shown in the following exhibit. (Click the Exhibit button.)

70-417 dumps

You need to ensure that Server2 can be managed remotely by using Server Manager.
What should you do?
A. On Server2, run the netdom.exe command.
B. On Server2, run the net stop netlogon command, and then run the net start netlogon command.
C. On DC1, run the Enable-PSSessionConfigurationcmdlet.
D. On Server2, modify the membership of the Remote Management Users group.
70-417 dumps 
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
This is a security issue. To be able to access Server2 remotely through Server Manager the user need to
be a member of the Remote Management Users group.
References:
Training Guide: Installing and Configuring Windows Server 2012, Chapter 3 Server Remote Management,
Lesson 1: Server Manager, p. 90-92
QUESTION 18
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. All servers run Windows Server
2012 R2. The domain contains a server named Server1.
You install the Windows PowerShell Web Access gateway on Server1.
You need to provide administrators with the ability to manage the servers in the domain by using the
Windows PowerShell Web Access gateway.
Which two cmdlets should you run on Server1? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose
two.)

A. Install PswaWebApplication
B. Add PswaAuthorizationRule
C. Set-WSManlnstance
D. Set-WSManQuickConfig
E. Set-BCAuthentication
Correct Answer: AB
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Configure PowerShell Web Access Gateway using the following PowerShell Cmdlet.
Install-PswaWebApplication UseTestCertificate
Running the cmdlet installs the Windows PowerShell Web Access web application within the IIS Default
Web Site container. The cmdlet creates the infrastructure required to run Windows PowerShell Web
Access on the default website
Add-PswaAuthorizationRule
Adds a new authorization rule to the Windows PowerShell Web Access authorization rule set.
Parameters:
ComputerGroupName
ComputerName
ConfigurationName
RuleName
UserGroupName
UserName
Credential (Windows Server 2012 R2 and later)
References:
QUESTION 19
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a server
named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 and a server named Server2 that runs Windows Server
2008 R2 Service Pack 1 (SP1). Both servers are member servers. On Server2, you install all of the software required to ensure that Server2 can be managed remotely from Server Manager. You need to ensure that you can manage Server2 from Server1 by using Server Manager. Which two tasks should you perform on Server2? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose two.)
A. Run the Enable-PSRemotingcmdlet.
B. Run the Configure-SMRemoting.psl script.
C. Run the Enable-PSSessionConfigurationcmdlet.
D. Run the Set-ExecutionPolicycmdlet.
E. Run the systempropertiesremote.exe command.
70-417 pdf 
Correct Answer: BD
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
To configure Server Manager remote management by using Windows PowerShell On the computer that
you want to manage remotely, open a Windows PowerShell session with elevated user rights.
In the Windows PowerShell session, type the following, and then press Enter. Set-ExecutionPolicy –
ExecutionPolicyRemoteSigned (D) Type the following, and then press Enter to enable all required firewall
rule exceptions.
  Configure-SMRemoting.ps1 -force enable (B)
QUESTION NO: 20
Which two features are customizable in backup reports? (Select two.)
A. page orientation
B. report header
C. report font
D. page size
E. report footer
Answer: B,E
QUESTION NO: 21
Which two configuration changes can be made in order to reduce network traffic within a Central Administration Server (CAS) environment? (Select two.)
A. keep the catalog files centralized
B. increase the interval time for job status updates
C. ensure that jobs created on the Managed Media Server (MMS) are monitored from the CAS
D. ensure jobs logs and histories are being sent to the CAS less frequently
E. enable some alerts to be rolled up to the CAS less frequently
70-417 vce 
Answer: B,D
QUESTION NO: 22

A backup administrator has noticed that backups to a tape drive are running slow. What should be
done to improve performance?
A. enable the option ‘Write SCSI pass-through mode’, which allows Symantec Backup Exec 2010
to write directly to the drive
B. configure the buffer size to be a higher value than what is currently configured
C. set the Remote Agent Priority to High which dedicates more CPU cycles for the backup
D. lower the buffer count on the tape device to ensure data is written to the device more quickly
Answer: B

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Exam Name: Developing ASP.NET MVC 4 Web Applications
Q&As: 136

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QUESTION 56
Which of the following is a level for maturing the Quality Assurance Processes?
A. Controlling
B. Verification
C. Business Requirements
D. Relational Requirements
70-486 exam Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 57
The purpose of the ___________ is to define the work activities that will accomplish the business
objectives.
A. Management Plan
B. Business Plan
C. Quality Plan
D. Work Plan
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 58
It is very easy to distinguish between accidental loss and intentional loss, with respect to security activities.
A. True
B. False
70-486 dumps Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 59
Which of the following should be kept under version control?
A. Code
B. Procedures
C. Plans
D. Operating Systems
E. All of the above
Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 60
COQ is also known as ‘Price of Non-Conformance’.
A. True
B. False
70-486 pdf Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 61
Customer surveys are:
A. Objective Baselines
B. Subjective Baselines
C. Predictive Baselines
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 62
When making a judgment while compliance monitoring, experience plays a larger role when:
A. The standard is objective
B. The standard is subjective
C. Standards should not be a factor
D. None of the above
70-486 vce Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 63
Which one of the following best describes “mission statement” for a company or an organization?
A. How will we show success?
B. How will we achieve objectives?
C. Why do we exist?
D. What is our long term program?
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 64
If a programmer follows a series of steps to write a computer program, the programmer is following:
A. A Workbench
B. A Procedure
C. A Standard
D. Entry Criteria
E. Exit Criteria
70-486 exam Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 65
When dealing with a complaint, to get on the same physical wavelength with a client you should:
A. Stand if they are standing
B. Provide your undivided attention
C. Physically show interest
D. React positively
E. All of the above
Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 66
Which one of the following is NOT a component of CMMi maturity levels?
A. Common Practices
B. Specific Goals
C. Process Areas

D. Generic Goals
70-486 dumps Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 67
If your IT organization adopted function points as the means to measure program size, this would enable
you to estimate programming staff because you would know a program of 200 function points is twice as
large as a program of 100 function points. This type of data is called:
A. Nominal Data
B. Ordinal Data
C. Interval Data
D. Ratio Data
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 68
Unit testing, system testing and user acceptance testing are examples of:
A. Verification
B. Validation
70-486 pdf Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 69
The core activity of Process Definition is not only defining the process but also:
A. Performing walkthroughs of the process before publication
B. Piloting the process
C. Marketing the process
D. All of the above
E. None of the above
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 70
In statistics, the mean and median are called:
A. SPC
B. Measures of Central Tendency
C. Variance
D. Standard Deviation
E. Control Chart
70-486 vce Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 71
One of the attributes of an effective security control is dividing responsibility for any event among two or
more people. This security attribute is called:
A. Simplicity
B. Fail Safe
C. Open Design
D. Separation of Privilege
E. Psychological Acceptability
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 72
Which of the following statements completely interprets the ‘Act’ phase of PDCA cycle?
A. Correct the abnormality and prevent its recurrence
B. Correct the abnormality
C. Prevent the recurrence of abnormality
D. Follow quality control activities
70-486 exam Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 73
Management tools:
A. Have a Mathematical Focus
B. Facilitate Decision Making
C. Require Automation
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 74
Tracking the status of each requirement throughout the development and test phases is called:
A. Requirements Checking
B. Requirements Verification
C. In-Process Review
D. Requirements Tracing
E. Phase-End Review
70-486 dumps Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 75
Acceptance Testing is normally designed and performed by:
A. The Developer
B. The Quality Control Manager
C. The Product Development Manager
D. The User
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 76
In control charts, accepted practice uses a width of _________________________around the population
mean (?) to establish the control limits.
A. Plus or minus one standard deviation
B. Plus or minus two standard deviations
C. Plus or minus three standard deviations
D. Plus or minus four standard deviations
E. Plus or minus five standard deviations
70-486 pdf Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 77
The acronym CMM stands for:
A. Continuous Maturity Model
B. Computer Methods and Models

C. Capability Maturity Model
D. Change Management Model
E. Continuous Maturity Methods
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 78
Out of the three critical aspects of Toyota’s JIT concept, which one is the most important?
A. Reduction of Waste
B. Perfect Quality
C. Employee Involvement
D. None of the above
70-486 vce Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 79
Security passwords should be changed:
A. On a regular basis
B. Whenever somebody leaves an area
C. When password compromise is suspected
D. All of the above
E. None of the above
Correct Answer: D

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Exam Name: Troubleshooting and Maintaining Cisco IP Networks
Q&As: 118

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QUESTION 23
Identify the injection attack represented in the diagram below:
A. XPath Injection Attack
B. XML Request Attack
C. XML Injection Attack
D. Frame Injection Attack
300-135 exam Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 24
Which of the following approaches to vulnerability assessment relies on the administrator providing baseline of system configuration and then scanning continuously without incorporating any information found at the time of scanning?
A. Service-based Assessment Solutions
B. Product-based Assessment Solutions
C. Tree-based Assessment
D. Inference-based Assessment
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 25
The Web parameter tampering attack is based on the manipulation of parameters exchanged between client and server in order to modify application data, such as user credentials and permissions, price and quantity of products, etc. Usually, this information is stored in cookies, hidden form fields, or URL Query Strings, and is used to increase application functionality and control. This attack takes advantage of the fact that many programmers rely on hidden or fixed fields (such as a hidden tag in a form or a parameter in a URL) as the only security measure for certain operations. Attackers can easily modify these parameters to bypass the security mechanisms that rely on them. What is the best way to protect web applications from parameter tampering attacks?
A. Validating some parameters of the web application
B. Minimizing the allowable length of parameters
C. Using an easily guessable hashing algorithm
D. Applying effective input field filtering parameters
300-135 dumps Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 26
Vulnerability assessment is an examination of the ability of a system or application, including the current security procedures and controls, to withstand assault.
What does a vulnerability assessment identify?
A. Disgruntled employees
B. Weaknesses that could be exploited
C. Physical security breaches
D. Organizational structure
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 27
This is a group of people hired to give details of the vulnerabilities present in the system found after a penetration test. They are elite and extremely competent penetration testers and intrusion analysts. This team prepares a report on the vulnerabilities in the system, attack methods, and how to defend against them.
What is this team called?
A. Blue team
B. Tiger team
C. Gorilla team
D. Lion team
300-135 pdf Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 28
ARP spoofing is a technique whereby an attacker sends fake (“spoofed”) Address Resolution Protocol
(ARP) messages onto a Local Area Network. Generally, the aim is to associate the attacker’s MAC
address with the IP address of another host (such as the default gateway), causing any traffic meant for
that IP address to be sent to the attacker instead. ARP spoofing attack is used as an opening for other
attacks.

What type of attack would you launch after successfully deploying ARP spoofing?
A. Parameter Filtering
B. Social Engineering
C. Input Validation
D. Session Hijacking
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 29
Amazon Consulting Corporation provides penetration testing and managed security services to companies. Legality and regulatory compliance is one of the important components in conducting a successful security audit. Before starting a test, one of the agreements both the parties need to sign relates to limitations, constraints, liabilities, code of conduct, and indemnification considerations between the parties. Which agreement requires a signature from both the parties (the penetration tester and the company)?
A. Non-disclosure agreement
B. Client fees agreement
C. Rules of engagement agreement
D. Confidentiality agreement
300-135 vce Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 30
QinQ provides a simplified Layer 2 VPN tunnel.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 31
Which statements about QinQ are true? (Select 2 Answers)
A. QinQ saves VLANs on the public network.
B. To avoid VLAN conflict, the customer must negotiate with the service provider before modifying the
VLANs on its private network.
C. When the service provider upgrades the network, the configurations on the user network do not need to
be modified.
D. All of the above
Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 32
Some vendors set the TPID value in the outer VLAN tag of QinQ packets to the non-protocol value.
To be compatible with these vendors’ devices, the TPID value on Huawei switches is adjustable.
Which is the default value of the TPID value on Huawei switches?
A. 0x9200
B. 0x9100
C. 0x8200
D. 0x8100
300-135 exam Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 33
Which types of interfaces can be configured with selective QinQ? (Select 2 Answers)
A. Access interface
B. Trunk interface
C. Hybrid interface
D. dot1q-tunnel interface
Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 34
The STP protocol can prevent broadcast storms caused by loops on the Layer 2 network.
A. True
B. False
300-135 dumps Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 35
The STP protocol cannot prevent MAC address table flapping caused by loops on the Layer 2 network.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 36
Which are the port roles defined in STP?
A. Root Port
B. Designated Port
C. Alternate Port
D. All of the above
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 37
How many port states are defined by STP?
A. 3
B. 4
C. 5
D. 6
300-135 pdf Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 38
Each STP switch has a unique switch ID. Which two entries does the switch ID contain?
A. Two-byte switch priority
B. Six-byte MAC address
C. Two-byte switch priority and six-byte MAC address
D. Six-byte switch priority and six-byte MAC address
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 39
On an STP network, before the interface status transits from non-forwarding to forwarding, how many
Forward Delay intervals does the interface wait for?
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5
300-135 vce Correct Answer: A

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Exam Code: 070-463
Exam Name: Implementing a Data Warehouse with Microsoft SQL Server 2012
Updated: Sep 18, 2017
Q&As: 230

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Question No : 15 – (Topic 1) You are designing an enterprise star schema that will consolidate data from three
independent data marts. One of the data marts is hosted on SQL Azure.
Most of the dimensions have the same structure and content. However, the geography
dimension is slightly different in each data mart.
You need to design a consolidated dimensional structure that will be easy to maintain while
ensuring that all dimensional data from the three original solutions is represented.
What should you do?
A. Create a junk dimension for the geography dimension.
B. Implement change data capture.
C. Create a conformed dimension for the geography dimension.
D. Create three geography dimensions.
070-463 exam Answer: C
Question No : 16 – (Topic 1)
To facilitate the troubleshooting of SQL Server Integration Services (SSIS) packages, a
logging methodology is put in place.
The methodology has the following requirements:
The deployment process must be simplified.
All the logs must be centralized in SQL Server.
Log data must be available via reports or T-SQL.
Log archival must be automated.
You need to configure a logging methodology that meets the requirements while minimizing
the amount of deployment and development effort.
What should you do?
A. Open a command prompt and run the gacutil command.
B. Open a command prompt and execute the package by using the SQL Log provider and
running the dtexecui.exe utility.
C. Add an OnError event handler to the SSIS project.
D. Use an msi file to deploy the package on the server.
E. Configure the output of a component in the package data flow to use a data tap.
F. Run the dtutil command to deploy the package to the SSIS catalog and store the
configuration in SQL Server.
G. Open a command prompt and run the dtexec /rep /conn command.
H. Open a command prompt and run the dtutil /copy command.
I. Open a command prompt and run the dtexec /dumperror /conn command.
J. Configure the SSIS solution to use the Project Deployment Model.
K. Create a reusable custom logging component and use it in the SSIS project.
Answer: J
Explanation:
Question No : 17 – (Topic 1)  You are developing a 070-463 dumps SQL Server Integration Services (SSIS) project that copies a large amount of rows from a SQL Azure database. The project uses the Package Deployment  Model. This project is deployed to SQL Server on a test server.You need to ensure that the project is deployed to the SSIS catalog on the production
server.What should you do?
A. Open a command prompt and run the dtexec /dumperror /conn command.
B. Create a reusable custom logging component and use it in the SSIS project.
C. Open a command prompt and run the gacutil command.
D. Add an OnError event handler to the SSIS project.
E. Open a command prompt and execute the package by using the SQL Log provider and
running the dtexecui.exe utility.
F. Open a command prompt and run the dtexec /rep /conn command.
G. Open a command prompt and run the dtutil /copy command.
H. Use an msi file to deploy the package on the server.
I. Configure the SSIS solution to use the Project Deployment Model.
J. Configure the output of a component in the package data flow to use a data tap.
K. Run the dtutil command to deploy the package to the SSIS catalog and store the
configuration in SQL Server.
Answer: I
Explanation: References:
Question No : 18 – (Topic 1) You are developing a SQL Server Integration Services (SSIS) package.
To process complex scientific data originating from a SQL Azure database, a custom task
component is added to the project.You need to ensure that the custom component is deployed on a test environment
correctly.What should you do?
A. Add an OnError event handler to the SSIS project.
B. Open a command prompt and run the gacutil command.
C. Configure the SSIS solution to use the Project Deployment Model.
D. Open a command prompt and run the dtexec /dumperror /conn command.
E. Configure the output of a component in the package data flow to use a data tap.
F. Open a command prompt and execute the package by using the SQL Log provider and
running the dtexecui.exe utility.
G. Open a command prompt and run the dtexec /rep /conn command.
H. Run the dtutil command to deploy the package to the SSIS catalog and store the
configuration in SQL Server.
I. Use an msi file to deploy the package on the server.
J. Open a command prompt and run the dtutil /copy command.
K. Create a reusable custom logging component and use it in the SSIS project.
Answer: B
Reference:
QUESTION 19
At which checkpoint does the rewrite () perform the TWURL modification?
A. Client In
B. Client Out
C. Server In
D. Server Out
070-463 pdf Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 20
When creating a TCP tunnel service in explicit mode, you must also configure a forwarding host?
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 21
In regards to authentication the ProxySG does not support origin-redirects with CONNECT method.
A. True
B. False
070-463 vce Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 22
What are the available actions for any given category, when defining ProxyClient content filtering
configuration? (Choose all that apply)
(a) Allow
(b) Deny
(c) Temporanily Allow
(d) Warm
A. a & b only
B. a, b & c only
C. a, b & d only
D. All of the above
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 23
Which statement is correct about WWW-Authenticate header?
A. It is request header used only with Basic Authentication to send username and password to a proxy or
a Web server
B. It is a request header used to send credentials
C. It is a response header used with HTTP 401 status code to negotiate method of authentication and
send NTLM challenge to the client.

070-463 exam Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 24
The authentication mode origin-ip-redirect allows an administrator to assign a Time To Live (TTL) for the
surrogate credentials. Meanwhile the authentication mode origin- cookie-redirect does not provide this
feature.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 25
What is the meaning of the metacharacter \ (backslash) in regular expressions?
A. escape character
B. any character except newline
C. zero or character
D. zero or more character
070-463 dumps Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 26
When configuring forwarding in PoxySG, what are the possible load balancing methods? (Choose all that
apply)
(a) Round Robin
(b) Fastest ICMP Reply
(c) Least Connections
(d) Least Delay
A. a & c only
B. b & d only
C. a & d only
D. b & c only
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 27
ICAP responses may be cached on a ProxySG, i.e, for some Web requests ICAP processing may be
completed without involving ProxyAV
A. True
B. False
070-463 pdf Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 28
Which of the following are true when enabling the early intercept attribute for a proxy service?
(Choose all that apply)
(a) It is automatically enabled when the detect protocol attribute is enabled.
(b) The ProxySG completes the three-way TCP handshake with the client before establishing a connection
to the upstream server.
(c) It can be used with any protocol.
A. a & c only
B. a & b only
C. c only
D. All of the above

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 29
When implementing failover with ProxySG appliances, configurations and policies on the master are
automatically replicated to members of the failover group.
A. True
B. False
070-463 vce Correct Answer: A

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Exam Code: 070-410
Exam Name: Installing and Configuring Windows Server 2012
Updated: Aug 31, 2017
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QUESTION 30
Which principle of training best describes a previously active client, who has been ill and bed-ridden for a
prolonged period of time?
A. Overload
B. Specificity
C. Reversibility
D. Progression
070-410 exam Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 31
If you are palpating the thumb side of the forearm in the wrist area, what pulse are you checking?
A. Humeral
B. Ulnar
C. Brachial
D. Radial
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 32
What is the correct order of the regions of the spinal column, from superior to inferior?
A. Cervical, lumbar, thoracic, sacral and coccyx.
B. Coccyx, sacral, lumbar, thoracic, and cervical.
C. Cervical, thoracic, lumbar, coccyx, and sacral.
D. Cervical, thoracic, lumbar,sacral, and coccyx.
070-410 dumps Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 33
Which muscle is an antagonist of the hamstrings?
A. Gastrocnemius
B. Iliopsoas
C. Gracilis
D. Sartorius
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 34
Which of the following physiological changes does NOT occur when a client improves aerobic capacity?
A. The muscles will be able to extract more oxygen from the blood.

B. Total lung volume will increase in proportion to the total accumulated time of high-intensity exercise.
C. The oxygen carrying capacity of the blood will increase.
D. The amount of air the lungs can take in will increase because of increases in the rate and depth of
breathing.
070-410 pdf Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 35
As the intensity of dynamic exercise increases, which of the following sets of responses occurs?
A. Heart rate, systolic blood pressure, and diastolic blood pressure increase.
B. Heart rate and systolic blood pressure increase, diastolic pressure remains unchanged.
C. Heart rate and systolic blood pressure increase, stroke volume and cardiac output remain the same.
D. Stroke volume decreases, heart rate and cardiac output increase.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 36
From a seated position, with dumbbells to the sides, raising the dumbbells laterally to shoulder level with
elbows slightly flexed, exercises primarily the _______:
A. bicep brachii and latisimus dorsi
B. posterior deltoid
C. anterior deltoid and triceps brachii
D. middle deltoid.
070-410 vce Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 37
What is the major muscle used to flex the hip joint?
A. Vastus lateralis
B. Iliopsoas
C. Biceps femoris
D. Gluteus maximus
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 38
A subject with elbows held at 90 degrees of flexion is handed a 150 lb (68.1kg) barbell. Even though he
exerts maximal tension, the barbell causes the joint angle to increase to 170 degrees. Which one of the
following describes the muscle action during the extension?
A. Isotonic concentric
B. Isotonic eccentric
C. Isokinetic concentric
D. Isokinetic eccentric
070-410 exam Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 39
Type II muscle fibers:
A. Have a high capacity to generate energy through the electron transport system.
B. Have a high capacity to generate energy from fat.
C. Are recruited at a higher percentage of maximum force than Type I fibers.
D. Have high endurance capabilities.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 40
Which of the following is a normal blood pressure (BP) response to aerobic exercise?
A. Both systolic and diastolic BP increase proportionately to increases in workload.
B. Systolic BP increases and diastolic BP decreases.
C. Systolic BP increases proportionately to increases in workload and diastolic BP remains unchanged or
decreases slightly.
D. Systolic and diastolic BP both decrease at the onset of exercise, then increase in proportion to the
increase in intensity.
070-410 dumps Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 41
Which rotator cuff muscle abducts the arm?
A. Infraspinatus
B. Supraspinatus
C. Subscapularis
D. Medial deltoid
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 42
Which energy system has the highest capacity for ATP production?
A. ATP-CP
B. Rapid glycolysis
C. Slow glycolysis
D. Oxidative phosphorylation
070-410 pdf Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 43
What plane divides the body into upper and lower sections?
A. Sagittal
B. Frontal
C. Transverse
D. Median
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 44
When performing neck flexion in the sagittal plane, which of the following exercises best mimics that
movement?
A. Cartwheel
B. Somersault
C. Bicep curl
D. Leg curl
070-410 vce Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 45
Under which of the following circumstances would you expect to see the highest rise in blood lactate?
A. During maximal exercise lasting between 60 and 180 seconds in the untrained client
B. Prior to treadmill walking in the cardiac patient
C. During maximal exercise lasting between 60 and 180 seconds in the athlete
D. After moderate intensity cycling exercise in the client with Type 2 diabetes
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 46
Typical movements in the weight room such as a biceps curl using free weights and leg press actions
using a machine are best described as ____________ muscle actions.
A. plyometric
B. isokinetic
C. ballistic
D. isotonic
070-410 exam Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 47
The latissimus dorsi acts as the prime mover during the concentric phase of which of the following
exercises?
A. lat pulldown
B. flat bench press
C. lateral raise
D. incline bench press
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 48
Which of the following bones facilitate movement of the chest during both 070-410 dumps inspiration and expiration?
A. clavicle
B. scapula
C. carpal
D. scalene
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 49
Which of the following is characterized as a plane (uniaxial) joint?
A. Coxal (hip)
B. Atlantooccipital
C. Radiocarpal (wrist)
D. Sacroiliac
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 50
Which of the following indicates the reason why a female who is pregnant should avoid exercise in the
supine position after the first trimester?
A. obstruction of arterial blood flow
B. risk of orthostatic hypotension due to obstructed venous return
C. obstruction of the diaphragm

D. risk of decreased oxygen consumption due to pressure on the uterus
070-410 pdf Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 51
As a response to a progressive resistance training program, which of the following demonstrates the
predominant contribution to an increase in cross-sectional area of a muscle?
A. atrophy and possibly hypertrophy
B. hyperplasia and possibly hypertrophy
C. atrophy and possibly hyperplasia
D. hypertrophy and possibly hyperplasia
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 52
What is an appropriate precaution and/or modification for exercising in higher ambient temperatures?
A. Take salt tablets.
B. Drink eight ounces of water once per hour.
C. Select proper loose fitting, lightweight clothing.
D. Train in clothes designed to trap and hold body heat.
070-410 vce Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 53
What is the intensity recommendation for the initial conditioning stage of a cardiovascular program?
A. 10% to 20% of heart rate reserve
B. 20% to 30% of heart rate reserve
C. 40% to 60% of heart rate reserve
D. 60% to 85% of heart rate reserve
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 54
Approximately how long is the initial conditioning phase of a cardiovascular training program?
A. Four weeks
B. Eight weeks
C. Twelve weeks
D. Sixteen weeks
070-410 exam Correct Answer: A

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