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QUESTION 52
Examine the output of the following query:
SQL> SELECT c.name,a.addr,a.gets,a.misses,a.sleeps,
2 a.immediate_gets,a.immediate_misses,b.pid
3 FROM v$latch a, v$latchholder b, v$latchname c
4 WHERE a.addr = b.laddr(+) and a.latch# = c.latch#
5 AND c.name LIKE ‘&latch_name%’ ORDER BY a.latch#;
LATCH NAME ADDR GETS MISSES SLEEPS IMMEDIATE_GETS IMMEDIATE_MISSES ———— ——– ——– ——- —— ————– —————- shared pool
20016544 8520540 14112 3137 0 0
Which two conclusions can you draw from this? (Choose two.)

A. The latch was requested in no wait mode.
B. The latch was requested in willing-to-wait mode.
C. The shared pool operations to allocate and free memory in it caused the misses.
D. Automatic Memory Management is not enabled because the IMMEDIATE_GETS and IMMEDIATE_MISSES columns have zero in them.

Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 53
Examine the output of the query given below: SQL> SELECT mutex_type, location, sum(gets), sum(sleeps) FROM v$mutex_sleep_history GROUP BY mutex_type, location; MUTEX_TYPE LOCATION SUM(GETS) SUM(SLEEPS) ————– ————————————- ———- ———– Library Cache kglhdgn1 62 8669586 4538 Library Cache kglget2 2 2016618 24 Cursor Stat kkocsStoreBindAwareStats [KKSSTALOC8] 2975 1 Cursor Pin kkslce [KKSCHLPIN2] 666831 678 Library Cache kgllkdl1 85 3369224 110 Library Cache kglpnal1 90 224199 13 Library Cache kglic1 49 42068 10 Library Cache kglpin1 4 9620087 374 Library Cache kglpndl1 95 2065089 79 9 rows selected. Which statement is true?
A. Each row in the output represents a SQL statement that had to wait for mutexes.
B. The Cursor Stat and Cursor Pin SLEEPS indicate that the CURSOR_SHARING parameter is set to EXACT.
C. The GETS column shows the number of times a mutex/location was requested by the requesting session while being held by the blocking session.
D. The sum of numbers in the GETS and SLEEPS columns indicates the number of times a mutex/location was requested by the requesting session while being held by the blocking session.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 54
Examine the query output shown below:
SQL> SELECT sum(pins), sum(reloads), sum(reloads)/sum(pins) FROM v$librarycache;
SUM(PINS) SUM(RELOADS) SUM(RELOADS)/SUM(PINS)

16479 16000 0.9709327
Which statement describes the correct interpretation of the reloads-to-pin ratio and the action to be taken?

A. This ratio is reasonable. However, decrease the shared pool size for better performance.
B. This ratio is very high and the shared pool size should be increased immediately to reduce this ratio.
C. This ratio is reasonable. However, this needs monitoring. Increase the shared pool size only if the ratio crosses 1.
D. This ratio is reasonable. However, this needs monitoring. Increase the shared pool size only if the ratio falls below 0.1.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 55
You work as a DBA for a company and manage an online transaction processing (OLTP) system. You received complaints about the performance degradation of SQL statements executed by the application that uses this database.View the Exhibit and examine the output of the queries executed to investigate the performance issues.Which two actions can improve performance? (Choose two.)

A. increasing the size of the shared pool
B. setting the CURSOR_SHARING parameter to EXACT
C. decreasing the value set for the OPEN_CURSORS parameter
D. replacing literals with bind variables in SQL statements with the PLAN_HASH_VALUE 1337874392
E. replacing literals with bind variables in SQL statements with the PLAN_HASH_VALUE 1445457117

Correct Answer: AE
QUESTION 56
You work as a consultant DBA for various clients. A performance issue in one of the online transaction processing (OLTP) systems is reported to you and you received the Automatic Workload Repository (AWR) report generated in the database. The main sections of the AWR report are shown in the Exhibits. View the Exhibit named DBTIME and note % DB Time.

View the Exhibit named TIMEMODEL and note what has contributed to % DB Time. View the Exhibit named EFFICIENCY and examine the various percentages shown.
Identify the option that has the correct answers for the questions given below:
1) Which factor indicates the main problem?
2) What is the main problem?
3) What solution would you recommend?

A. 1) The Exhibit DBTIME shows that the DB CPU event consumed very high % DB Time. 2) The CPU is very slow. 3) Increase the number of processors.
B. 1) hard parse elapsed time has the majority time in parse time elapsed, which is shown in the TIMEMODEL Exhibit. 2) This is due to inadequate Database Buffer Cache. 3) Increase the size of database buffer cache.
C. 1) sql execute elapsed time and parse time elapsed are consuming very high % DB Time in the TIMEMODEL Exhibit. 2) There are too many soft parses. 3) Investigate the HOLD_CURSOR parameter setting in the application and set it appropriately.
D. 1) % Non-Parse CPU is low and Soft Parse % is also low in the EFFICIENCY Exhibit. This shows that very few statements are found in the cache. 2) There are too many hard parses. 3) Investigate the CURSOR_SHARING parameter setting and set it appropriately.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 57
You work as a consultant DBA for various clients. A performance issue in one of the online transaction processing (OLTP) systems is reported to you and you received the Automatic Workload Repository (AWR) report generated in the database. The main sections of the AWR report is shown in the Exhibits. View the Exhibit named DBTIME and note % DB Time.

View the Exhibit named TIMEMODEL and note what has contributed to % DB Time. View the Exhibit named EFFICIENCY and examine the various percentages shown.
Which option describes the correct understanding of the main problem?
A. The Exhibit DBTIME shows that the DB CPU event consumed very high % DB Time, which indicates that the CPU is very slow.
B. sql execute elapsed time and parse time elapsed are consuming very high % DB Time in the TIMEMODEL Exhibit. This indicates too many soft parses.
C. hard parse elapsed time has the majority time in parse time elapsed, which is shown in the TIMEMODEL Exhibit. This indicates inadequate database buffer cache.
D. % Non-Parse CPU: and Soft Parse %: are low in the EFFICIENCY Exhibit, which shows that very few statements are found in the cache. This indicates that there were too many hard parses.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 58
You work as a DBA for a company and you have the responsibility of managing one of its online transaction processing (OLTP) systems. The database
encountered performance-related problems and you generated an Automatic Workload Repository (AWR) report to investigate it further.
View the Exhibits and examine the AWR report.
Which is the appropriate solution to the problem in this database?
A. increasing the size of the shared pool
B. adding one more CPU to the system
C. setting the CURSOR_SHARING parameter to EXACT
D. configuring Java pool because it is not configured

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 59
You work on an online transaction processing (OLTP) database in which the SALES table has 10,000 rows but only four distinct products are sold. View the Exhibit named HIST to check the distribution of values in the table and the histograms on the table.

View the Exhibits named QUERY-1 and QUERY-2 that show details in the V$SQL view for the queries executed on the SALES table.

You check the plan table and notice that both the queries that executed on the SALES table used index range scan. The second query retrieved most of the rows in the table but used index range scan.

Why would the second query use the same plan?
A. because the plan was bind aware
B. because the bind peeking never happened
C. because the OPEN_CURSORS parameter is set to a very low value
D. because the optimizer did not consider selectivity due to the use of bind variables

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 60
You work on an online transaction processing (OLTP) database in which the SALES table has 10,000 rows but only four distinct products are sold. View the Exhibit named HIST to check data distribution in the table and the histograms on the table.

View the Exhibit named QUERY-1 that shows details in the V$SQL view for the query executed on the SALES table having product id 1.

Further, you query the SALES table thrice more in the following order:

query rows having product ID 4


query rows having product ID 2


query rows having product ID 4
View the Exhibit named QUERY-n to see the details about these queries.
What do you infer from this?
A. The second plan was created because the first plan was aged out.
B. The CURSOR_SHARING parameter value was changed to EXACT after the second query was executed.
C. The third plan was created because the first plan was aged out and the second plan had different selectivity.
D. The first two executions used the same plan because at parse time the optimizer did not consider selectivity as the cursor was not yet considered bind-aware.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 61
You are working for a company that uses huge applications to manage its customer details. During your regular performance checks, you executed the following query: SQL> show parameter shared_pool_reserved_size NAME TYPE VALUE —————————— ——————— —————– shared_pool_reserved_size big integer 6920601 SQL> SELECT free_space, used_space, request_misses, request_failures from V$SHARED_POOL_RESERVED; FREE_SPACE USED_SPACE REQUEST_MISSES REQUEST_FAILURES ———- ———- ————– —————- 6469776 555528 0 113 You observed that REQUEST_FAILURES is 113 but not increasing, and also that REQUEST_MISSES is not increasing. What would you interpret from this?
A. The reserved pool is very large. Consider reducing the size of the shared pool.
B. The reserved pool is large and has free space to satisfy requests. Consider reducing the size of the reserved pool.
C. The reserved pool is very small and is not finding enough memory to satisfy requests. Increase the size of the shared pool.
D. The reserved pool is very small and is not finding enough memory to satisfy requests. Increase the size of the reserved pool.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 62
You work for a company as a DBA. The company has an application to manage the details of its business and customer base. However, application users complain that updating the SALES record takes more time than it used to earlier. On investigation, you notice that the application performance degrades when a call is made to the UPDATE_INV procedure. Further, you execute the following query to investigate: SQL> SELECT name, type, sharable_mem, kept 2 FROM v$db_object_cache 3 WHERE sharable_mem > 4000 4 AND EXECUTIONS > 5 5 AND (type=’FUNCTION’ OR type=’PROCEDURE’) 6 / NAME TYPE SHARABLE_MEM KEPT ——————- ————– ————— ———– GETEMKEY FUNCTION 13695 YES UPDATE_INV PROCEDURE 14766 NO SETEMUSERCONTEXT PROCEDURE 13703 YES DECRYPT FUNCTION 17790 YES UPDATE_DEPT PROCEDURE 18765 NO What would you do to improve the performance?
A. Enable the result cache if not already enabled.
B. Flush the shared pool to make space for this procedure.
C. Keep the UPDATE_INV procedure by using the DBMS_SHARED_POOL.KEEP procedure.
D. Increase the size of the keep buffer pool to accommodate the UPDATE_INV procedure.
E. Ask the developers to modify and use literals instead of bind variables in the UPDATE_INV procedure.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 63
You work for a small manufacturing company as a DBA. The company has various applications to manage the details of its business and customer base. The company has only one sales outlet where the operator updates the SALES table in the sales application with the details when a product is sold. The company has many other applications for various other businesses that use the same database. The sales operator, while generating a report, noticed that there are some gaps generated in the serial number in the SLNO column during peak hours of business. On investigating, you find that the SLNO column in the SALES table uses the SLNSEQ sequence to generate the serial numbers when a record is inserted. During peak hours, you noticed the following: When the operator entered the sales details the last time, the sequence number was 1056300, but when you checked the sequence as follows, you found a gap of 100 numbers: SQL> SELECT sequence_name, last_number FROM user_sequences WHERE sequence_name=’SLNSEQ’; SEQUENCE_NAME LAST_NUMBER
SLNSEQ 1056400
You observed this behavior many times and only during peak hours.
What could be the problem and solution for this?

A. The reserved pool is not configured. Configure the reserved pool.
B. The keep buffer pool is not configured. Configure the keep buffer pool.
C. The sequence was created with a CACHE of 100 numbers. Re-create the sequence with a higher CACHE number.
D. The sequence is aging out of the shared pool. Keep the sequence in the shared pool using the DBMS_SHARED_POOL.KEEP procedure.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 64
You work as a DBA for a company and as a performance improvement measure, you implemented the result cache in your database. Many users in the company
say that performance has improved on the queries they use, but some users complain that they have not got any performance benefit on the queries they use.
You checked all the queries they use and the following is one of them:
SQL> SELECT /*+ RESULT_CACHE */ slnoq.currval as “SLNO”, prod_id, pdname, 2 cust_name FROM sales WHERE sl_date < sysdate;
View the Exhibit and examine the testing performed to check this.
Why is the result cache not used? (Choose all that apply.)
A. because the query uses SYSDATE
B. because the query uses an alias for a column
C. because the query uses the SLNOQ.CURRVAL sequence
D. because the table might have an index on the SL_DATE column

Correct Answer: AC QUESTION 65
You work as a DBA for a company and as a performance improvement measure, you implemented the result cache in your database. View the Exhibit named SETTING and note the result cache settings.

Many users in the company state that performance has improved on the queries they use but some users complain that they have not got any performance benefit
on the queries they use. You checked all the queries they use and the following is one of them:
SQL> SELECT slnoq.currval as “SLNO”, prod_id, pdname, 2 cust_name FROM sales WHERE sl_date < sysdate;
View the Exhibit named TEST and examine the testing performed to check this.
Why is the result cache not used? (Choose all that apply.)
A. because the query uses SYSDATE
B. because the query uses an alias for a column
C. because the query uses the SLNOQ.CURRVAL sequence
D. because the CLIENT_RESULT_CACHE_SIZE parameter is set to 0

Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 66
In which case is the database buffer cache NOT used?
A. when physical I/Os are performed to read from data files
B. when the database writer process writes to the SYSTEM tablespace
C. when the server process writes sort data to the temporary tablespace
D. when the database writer process writes undo data to the undo tablespace

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 67
Which two statements are true about the database buffer cache? (Choose two.)
A. A buffer can be written to by many processes at the same time.
B. A buffer containing a block that is identical to the block on disk is called free buffer.
C. A buffer containing a block that is being accessed by a process is called dirty buffer.
D. A buffer available to be overwritten with a different database block at any time is called a dirty buffer.
E. A buffer can contain a different version of a block that is available in a different buffer of the same cache.

Correct Answer: BE
QUESTION 68
You work as a DBA and you have the responsibility of managing a large online transaction processing (OLTP) system. You used the following query during the
performance tuning activity:
SQL> SELECT (1-((phy.value-phyd.value) / (cur.value + con.value))) * 100 2 “Cache Hit ratio”
3 FROM v$sysstat cur, v$sysstat con, v$sysstat phy, v$sysstat phyd 4 WHERE cur.name = ‘db block gets’
5 AND con.name = ‘consistent gets’
6 AND phy.name = ‘physical reads’
7 AND phyd.name = ‘physical reads direct’;
Cache Hit Ratio

Which understanding of this ratio is correct?
A. 98.43% of times the requests have found free buffers.
B. 98.43% of the total number of requests used the buffer cache.
C. 98.43% of times the requests were satisfied by performing physical I/Os.
D. 98.43% of times the requests have found the required data blocks in the buffer cache.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 69
You work as a DBA and have the responsibility of managing a large online transaction processing (OLTP) system. You used the following query during the
performance tuning activity:
SQL> SELECT (1-((phy.value-phyd.value) / (cur.value + con.value))) * 100 2 “Cache Hit ratio”
3 FROM v$sysstat cur, v$sysstat con, v$sysstat phy, v$sysstat phyd 4 WHERE cur.name = ‘db block gets’
5 AND con.name = ‘consistent gets’
6 AND phy.name = ‘physical reads’
7 AND phyd.name = ‘physical reads direct’;
Cache Hit Ratio

What can you conclude based on this ratio?
A. The database performance is very good because of reduced logical I/Os.
B. The database performance cannot be determined based only on this ratio.
C. Good database performance is guaranteed because very few physical I/Os are performed.
D. The database performance is very good because most of the requested data blocks are found in the buffer cache.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 70
You work as a DBA and have the responsibility of managing a large online transaction processing (OLTP) system. You used three queries to check the database performance as shown in the Exhibit.View the Exhibit and analyze the output.

What conclusion can you draw from this?
A. There are many physical I/Os happening.
B. There are many full table scans happening.
C. The data blocks are aging out of the buffer cache very fast.
D. There are many cursors trying to access the same data blocks.
E. The DBWn processes are not freeing sufficient buffers to meet the demand.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 71
Examine the following information from the AWR report: Top 5 Timed Events ~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~ % Total Event Waits Time (s) Call Time ————————————– ———— ———– ——— CPU time 559 88.80 log file parallel write 2,181 28 4.42 SQL*Net more data from client 516,611 27 4.24 db file parallel write 13,383 13 2.04 db file sequential read 563 2 .27 Which could cause waits on the db file sequential read event?
A. too many full table scans
B. too large a database buffer cache
C. too many waits occurring while reading multiple blocks synchronously
D. too many index range scans occurring which refers to blocks not in the database buffer cache

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 72

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QUESTION 77
You need to display the date 11-Oct-2007 in words as `Eleventh of October, Two Thousand Seven’. Which SQL statement would give the required result?
A. SELECT TO_CHAR(’11-oct-2007′, ‘fmDdspth “of” Month, Year’) FROM DUAL;
B. SELECT TO_CHAR(TO_DATE(’11-oct-2007′), ‘fmDdspth of month, year’) FROM DUAL;
C. SELECT TO_CHAR(TO_DATE(’11-oct-2007′), ‘fmDdthsp “of” Month, Year’) FROM DUAL;
D. SELECT TO_DATE(TO_CHAR(’11-oct-2007′,’fmDdspth ”of” Month, Year’)) FROM DUAL;

Correct Answer: C Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: Using the TO_CHAR Function with Dates TO_CHAR converts a datetime data type to a value of VARCHAR2 data type in the format specified by the format_model. A format model is a character literal that describes the format of datetime stored in a character string. For example, the datetime format model for the string ’11- Nov-1999′ is ‘DD-Mon-YYYY’. You can use the TO_CHAR function to convert a date from its default format to the one that you specify. Guidelines · The format model must be enclosed with single quotation marks and is case-sensitive. · The format model can include any valid date format element. But be sure to separate the date value from the format model with a comma. · The names of days and months in the output are automatically padded with blanks. · To remove padded blanks or to suppress leading zeros, use the fill mode fm element.
Elements of the Date Format Model ——————————————————————— DY Three-letter abbreviation of the day of the week DAY Full name of the day of the week DD Numeric day of the month
MM Two-digit value for the month MON Three-letter abbreviation of the month MONTH Full name of the month YYYY Full year in numbers YEAR Year spelled out (in English)
QUESTION 78
Which statement is true regarding the INTERSECT operator?
A. It ignores NULL values
B. The number of columns and data types must be identical for all SELECT statements in the query
C. The names of columns in all SELECT statements must be identical
D. Reversing the order of the intersected tables the result

Correct Answer: B Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
INTERSECT Returns only the rows that occur in both queries’ result sets, sorting them and removing
duplicates.
The columns in the queries that make up a compound query can have different names, but the output
result set will use the names of the columns in the first query.

QUESTION 79
You work as a database administrator at ABC.com. You study the exhibit carefully and examine the structure of CUSTOMRS AND SALES tables.

Evaluate the following SQL statement: Exhibit: Which statement is true regarding the execution of the above UPDATE statement?

A. It would execute and restrict modifications to only the column specified in the SELECT statement
B. It would not execute because two tables cannot be used in a single UPDATE statement
C. It would not execute because a sub query cannot be used in the WHERE clause of an UPDATE statement
D. It would not execute because the SELECT statement cannot be used in place of the table name

Correct Answer: A Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 80
The STUDENT_GRADES table has these columns:

STUDENT_ID NUMBER(12)
SEMESTER_END DATE
GPA NUMBER(4,3)

The registrar has asked for a report on the average grade point average (GPA), sorted from the highest
grade point average to each semester, starting from the earliest date.
Which statement accomplish this?

A. SELECT student_id, semester_end, gpa FROM student_grades ORDER BY semester_end DESC, gpa DESC;
B. SELECT student_id, semester_end, gpa FROM student_grades ORDER BY semester_end, gpa ASC
C. SELECT student_id, semester_end, gpa FROM student_grades ORDER BY gpa DESC, semester_end ASC;
D. SELECT student_id, semester_end, gpa FROM student_grades ORDER BY gpa DESC, semester_end DESC;
E. SELECT student_id, semester_end, gpa FROM student_grades ORDER BY gpa DESC, semester_end ASC;
F. SELECT student_id,semester_end,gpa FROM student_grades ORDER BY semester_end,gpa DESC
Correct Answer: F Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 81
You work as a database administrator at ABC.com. You study the exhibit carefully. Exhibit:

Evaluate the following query: Exhibit:

The above query produces an error on execution. What is the reason for the error?
A. An alias cannot be used in an expression
B. The alias MIDPOINT should be enclosed within double quotation marks for the CUST_CREDIT_LIMIT/2 expression
C. The MIDPOINT +100 expression gives an error because CUST_CREDIT_LIMIT contains NULL values
D. The alias NAME should not be enclosed within double quotation marks

Correct Answer: A Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 82
Which statement is true regarding synonyms?
A. Synonyms can be created only for a table
B. Synonyms are used to reference only those tables that are owned by another user
C. The DROP SYNONYM statement removes the synonym and the table on which the synonym has been created becomes invalid
D. A public synonym and a private synonym can exist with the same name for the same table

Correct Answer: D Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 83
You work as a database administrator at ABC.com. You study the exhibit carefully. Exhibit:

Examine the structure of PRODUCTS table.
Using the PRODUCTS table, you issue the following query to generate the names, current list price and discounted list price for all those products whose list price fails below $10 after a discount of 25% is applied on it.
Exhibit:

The query generates an error.
What is the reason of generating error?

A. The column alias should be put in uppercase and enclosed within double quotation marks in the WHERE clause
B. The parenthesis should be added to enclose the entire expression
C. The column alias should be replaced with the expression in the WHERE clause
D. The double quotation marks should be removed from the column alias

Correct Answer: C Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Note: You cannot use column alias in the WHERE clause.
QUESTION 84
Which one is a system privilege?
A. SELECT
B. DELETE
C. EXECUTE
D. ALTER TABLE
E. CREATE TABLE

Correct Answer: E Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 85
What is true about sequences?
A. The start value of the sequence is always 1.
B. A sequence always increments by 1.
C. The minimum value of an ascending sequence defaults to 1.
D. The maximum value of descending sequence defaults to 1.

Correct Answer: C Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 86
Examine the structure of the INVOICE table: Exhibit:

Which two SQL statements would execute successfully? (Choose two.)
A. SELECT inv_no,NVL2(inv_date,’Pending’,’Incomplete’) FROM invoice;
B. SELECT inv_no,NVL2(inv_amt,inv_date,’Not Available’) FROM invoice;
C. SELECT inv_no,NVL2(inv_date,sysdate-inv_date,sysdate) FROM invoice;
D. SELECT inv_no,NVL2(inv_amt,inv_amt*.25,’Not Available’) FROM invoice;

Correct Answer: AC Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: The NVL2 Function The NVL2 function provides an enhancement to NVL but serves a very similar purpose. It evaluates whether a column or expression of any data type is null or not. 5-6 The NVL function\ If the first term is not null, the second parameter is returned, else the third parameter is returned. Recall that the NVL function is different since it returns the original term if it is not null. The NVL2 function takes three mandatory parameters. Its syntax is NVL2(original, ifnotnull, ifnull), where original represents the term being tested. Ifnotnull is returned if original is not null, and ifnull is returned if original is null. The data types of the ifnotnull and ifnull parameters must be compatible, and they cannot be of type LONG. They must either be of the same type, or it must be possible to convert ifnull to the type of the ifnotnull parameter. The data type returned by the NVL2 function is the same as that of the ifnotnull parameter.
QUESTION 87
View the Exhibit and examine the description for the CUSTOMERS table.

You want to update the CUST_INCOME_LEVEL and CUST_CREDIT_LIMIT columns for the customer with the CUST_ID 2360. You want the value for the CUST_INCOME_LEVEL to have the same value as that of the customer with the CUST_ID 2560 and the CUST_CREDIT_LIMIT to have the same value as that of the customer with CUST_ID 2566.
Which UPDATE statement will accomplish the task?
A. UPDATE customers SET cust_income_level = (SELECT cust_income_level FROM customers WHERE cust_id = 2560), cust_credit_limit = (SELECT cust_credit_limit FROM customers WHERE cust_id = 2566) WHERE cust_id=2360;
B. UPDATE customers SET (cust_income_level,cust_credit_limit) = (SELECT cust_income_level, cust_credit_limit FROM customers WHERE cust_id=2560 OR cust_id=2566) WHERE cust_id=2360;
C. UPDATE customers SET (cust_income_level,cust_credit_limit) = (SELECT cust_income_level, cust_credit_limit FROM customers WHERE cust_id IN(2560, 2566) WHERE cust_id=2360;
D. UPDATE customers SET (cust_income_level,cust_credit_limit) = (SELECT cust_income_level, cust_credit_limit FROM customers WHERE cust_id=2560 AND cust_id=2566) WHERE cust_id=2360;

Correct Answer: A Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Updating Two Columns with a Subquery
You can update multiple columns in the SET clause of an UPDATE statement by writing multiple
subqueries. The syntax is as follows:
UPDATE table
SET column =
(SELECT column
FROM table
WHERE condition)
[ ,

column = (SELECT column FROM table WHERE condition)] [WHERE condition ] ;
QUESTION 88
A SELECT statement can be used to perform these three functions:
1.
Choose rows from a table.

2.
Choose columns from a table

3.
Bring together data that is stored in different tables by creating a link between them.
Which set of keywords describes these capabilities?
A. difference, projection, join
B. selection, projection, join
C. selection, intersection, join
D. intersection, projection, join
E. difference, projection, product

Correct Answer: B Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: choose rows from a table is SELECTION,
Choose column from a table is PROJECTION
Bring together data in different table by creating a link between them is JOIN.

Incorrect answer:
A answer should have SELECTION, PROJECTION and JOIN.
C answer should have SELECTION, PROJECTION and JOIN.
D answer should have SELECTION, PROJECTION and JOIN.
E answer should have SELECTION, PROJECTION and JOIN.

Refer: Introduction to Oracle9i: SQL, Oracle University Study Guide, 1-6

QUESTION 89
See the Exhibit and examine the structure and data in the INVOICE table:
Exhibit:

Which two SQL statements would execute successfully? (Choose two.)
A. SELECT MAX(inv_date),MIN(cust_id) FROM invoice;
B. SELECT AVG(inv_date-SYSDATE),AVG(inv_amt) FROM invoice;
C. SELECT MAX(AVG(SYSDATE-inv_date)) FROM invoice;
D. SELECT AVG(inv_date) FROM invoice;

Correct Answer: AB Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 90
You are currently located in Singapore and have connected to a remote database in Chicago. You issue the following command:
Exhibit:

PROMOTIONS is the public synonym for the public database link for the PROMOTIONS table. What is the outcome?
A. Number of days since the promo started based on the current Chicago data and time
B. Number of days since the promo started based on the current Singapore data and time.
C. An error because the WHERE condition specified is invalid
D. An error because the ROUND function specified is invalid Correct Answer: A

Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 91
Which is a valid CREATE TABLE statement?
A. CREATE TABLE EMP9$# AS (empid number(2));
B. CREATE TABLE EMP*123 AS (empid number(2));
C. CREATE TABLE PACKAGE AS (packid number(2));
D. CREATE TABLE 1EMP_TEST AS (empid number(2)); Correct Answer: A

Explanation Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: Table names and column names must begin with a letter and be 1-30 characters long.
Characters A-Z,a-z, 0-9, _, $ and # (legal characters but their use is discouraged).

Incorrect answer:
B Non alphanumeric character such as “*” is discourage in Oracle table name.
D Table name must begin with a letter.

Refer: Introduction to Oracle9i: SQL, Oracle University Study Guide, 9-4

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QUESTION 67
Which statements are true regarding system-partitioned tables? (Choose all that apply.)
A. Only a single partitioning key column can be specified.
B. All DML statements must use partition-extended syntax.
C. The same physical attributes must be specified for each partition.
D. Unique local indexes cannot be created on a system-partitioned table.
E. Traditional partition pruning and partitionwise joins are not supported on these tables.

Correct Answer: DE
QUESTION 68
The OPTIMIZER_USE_PLAN_BASELINES parameter is set to TRUE. The optimizer generates a plan for a SQL statement but does not find a matching plan in the SQL plan baseline. Which two operations are performed by the optimizer in this scenario? (Choose two.)
A. The optimizer adds the new plan to the plan history.
B. The optimizer selects the new plan for the execution of the SQL statement.
C. The optimizer adds the new plan to the SQL plan baseline as an accepted plan.
D. The optimizer adds the new plan to the SQL plan baseline but not in the ENABLED state.
E. The optimizer costs each of the accepted plans in the SQL plan baseline and picks the one with the lowest cost.

Correct Answer: AE
QUESTION 69
Which two statements about Oracle Direct Network File System (NFS) are true? (Choose two.)
A. It bypasses the OS file system cache
B. A separate NFS interface is required for use across Linux, UNIX, and Windows platforms.
C. It uses the operating system kernel NFS layer for user tasks and network communication modules.
D. File systems need not be mounted by the kernel NFS system when being served through Direct NFS.
E. Oracle Disk Manager can manage NFS on its own, without using the operating system kernel NFS driver.

Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 70
You are managing an Oracle Database 11 g instance with ASM storage. You lost an ASM disk group
DATA. You have RMAN backup of data as well as ASM metadata backup.
You want to re-create the missing disk group by using the ASMCMD md_restore command. Which of
these methods would you use to achieve this? (Choose all that apply.)

A. Restore metadata in an existing disk group by passing the existing disk group name as an input parameter.
B. Restore the disk group with changed disk group specification, failure group specification, disk group name, and other disk attributes.
C. Restore the disk group with the exact configuration as the backed-up disk group, using the same disk group name, same set of disks, and failure group configurations.
D. Restore the disk group with the exact configuration as the backed-up disk group, using the same disk group name, same set of disks, failure group configurations, and data on the disk group.

Correct Answer: ABC QUESTION 71
Evaluate the following command and Its output:
SQL>SELECT * FROM dba_temp_free_space;
TABLESPACE_NAME TABLESPACE_SIZE ALLOCATED_SPACE FREE_SPACE LMTEMP 250609664

101048576 149561088
Which two statements correctly interpret the output? (Choose two.)

A. FREE_SPACE indicates only the space that is currently unallocated.
B. ALLO CAT ED_S PACE indicates only the space currently allocated and in use.
C. FREE_SPACE indicates only the space that is currently allocated and available for reuse.
D. ALLO CAT ED_S PACE indicates both the space currently allocated and used, and the space that is available for reuse.
E. FREE_SPACE indicates both the space that is currently allocated and available for reuse, and the space that is currently unallocated.
Correct Answer: DE QUESTION 72
In your database, the RESULT_CACHE_MODE parameter has been set to MANUAL in the initialization parameter file.
You issued the following command:
SQL>SELECT /*+ RESULT_CACHE 7 sale_categoiy, sum(sale_amt) FROM sales
GROUP BY sale_categoiy;

Where would the result of this query be stored?

A. PGA
B. large pool
C. shared pool
D. database buffer cache

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 73
You are working on a CATDB database that contains an Oracle Database version 11.1 catalog schema owned by the userRC011. The INST1 database contains an Oracle Database version 10.1 catalog schema owned by the user RCAT10.
You want the RMAN to import metadata for database IDs 1423241 and 1423242, registered in RCAT10, into the recover catalog owned by RC011.
You executed the following RMAN commands:
RMAN> CONNECT CATALOG rco1 1/[email protected] RMAN> IMPORT CATALOG rcat1 0/[email protected];
What happens when you execute the above commands? (Choose all that apply.)
A. They deregister all databases registered in the RCAT10 catalog.
B. They import metadata for all registered databases in the RCAT10 database.
C. They register all the RCATIO-catalog registered databases in the RC011 catalog.
D. They overwrite all stored scripts in the RC011 catalog with the same name as that in the RCAT10 catalog.

Correct Answer: ABC
QUESTION 74
Which three are the valid statements in relation to SQL plan baselines? (Choose three.)
A. The plans can be manually loaded to the SQL plan baseline.
B. The plans in the SQL plan baseline are verified and accepted plans.
C. The plans generated for every SQL statement are stored in the SQL plan baseline by default.
D. The plan baselines are stored temporarily in the memory as long as the database instance is running.
E. For the SQL plan baselines to be accessible to the optimizer, the SYSAUX tablespace must be online.

Correct Answer: ABE
QUESTION 75
You run the SQL Tuning Advisor (STA) to tune a SQL statement that is part of a fixed SQL plan baseline. The STA generates a SQL profile for the SQL statement, which recommends that you accept the profile. Which statement is true when you accept the suggested SQL profile?
A. The tuned plan is not added to the SQL plan baseline.
B. The tuned plan is added to the fixed SQL plan baseline as a fixed plan.
C. The tuned plan is added to the fixed SQL plan baseline as a nonfixed plan.
D. The tuned plan is added to a new nonfixed SQL plan baseline as a nonfixed plan.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 76
Which three statements correctly describe the features of the I/O calibration process? (Choose three.)
A. Only one I/O calibration process can run at a time
B. It automates the resource allocation for the Automated Maintenance Tasks.
C. It improves the performance of the performance-critical sessions while running.
D. It can be used to estimate the maximum number of l/Os and maximum latency time for the system.
E. The latency time is computed only when the TIMED_STATISTICS initialization parameter is set to TRUE.
Correct Answer: ADE
QUESTION 77
Which two statements about the SQL Management Base (SMB) are true? (Choose two.)
A. It contains only SQL profiles generated by SQL Tuning Advisor.
B. It stores plans generated by the optimizer using a stored outline.
C. It is part of the data dictionary and stored in the SYSAUXtablespace.
D. It is part of the data dictionary and stored in the SYSTEM tablespace.
E. It contains the statement log, the plan history, plan baselines, and SQL profiles.

Correct Answer: CE
QUESTION 78
Sales details are being stored on a daily basis in the SALES_2007 table. A large amount of data is added to the table daily. To save disk space, you issued the following command:
ALTER TABLE sales_2007 COMPRESS FOR ALL OPERATIONS; What would be the outcome of this command?
A. It produces an error because data already exists in the table.
B. It produces an error because compression can be enabled at table creation only.
C. It compresses all data added or modified henceforth but the existing data in the table is not compressed immediately.
D. It immediately compresses all existing data as well as new data, resulting from either fresh additions or modifications to existing data.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 79
Which client requests to the database can be captured as a part of the workload capture? (Choose all that apply.)
A. flashback query
B. distributed transactions
C. logging in and logging out of sessions
D. all DDL statements having bind variables
E. direct path load of data from external files

Correct Answer: CD
QUESTION 80
Which two statements are true regarding the SQL Repair Advisor? (Choose two.)
A. The SQL Repair Advisor can be invoked to tune the performance of the regressed SQL statements.
B. The SQL Repair Advisor can be invoked even when the incident is not active for a SQL statement crash.
C. The SQL Repair Advisor is invoked by the Health Monitor when it encounters the problematic SQL statement.
D. The DBA can invoke the SQL Repair Advisor when he or she receives an alert generated when a SQL statement crashes and an incident is created in the ADR.
Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 81
Which setting enables the baselines by default in Oracle Database 11g?
A. setting the STATISTICS_LEVEL parameter to TYPICAL
B. adding filters to the Automatic Database Diagnostic Monitor (ADDM)
C. enabling Automated Maintenance Task using Oracle Enterprise Manager
D. setting the OPTIMIZER_USE_PENDING_STATISTICS parameter to TRUE
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 82
Which two activities are NOT supported by the Data Recovery Advisor? (Choose two.)
A. Diagnose and repair a data file corruption offline.
B. Diagnose and repair a data file corruption online.
C. Diagnose and repair failures on a standby database.
D. Recover from failures in the Real Application Cluster (RAC) environment.
Correct Answer: CD
QUESTION 83
In which cases is reference partitioning effective in enhancing performance?
A. It is effective only in partition pruning.
B. It is effective only in partitionwise joins provided that the query predicates are different from the partitioning key.
C. It is effective in both partition pruning as well as partitionwise joins provided that the query predicates are identical to the partitioning key.
D. It is effective in both partition pruning as well as partitionwise joins irrespective of whether the query predicates are different from or identical to the partitioning key.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 84
Your database initialization parameter file has the following entry:
SEC_MAX_FAILED_LOGIN_ATTEMPTS=3
Which statement is true regarding this setting?
A. It is enforced only if the password profile is enabled for the user.
B. It locks the user account after the specified number of attempts.
C. It drops the connection after the specified number of login attempts fail for any user.
D. It drops the connection after the specified number of login attempts fail only for users who have the SYSDBA privilege.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 85
Which statement is true for enabling Enterprise Manager Support Workbench in Oracle Database 11g to upload the physical files generated by Incident Packaging Service (IPS) to MetaLink?
A. The database must be running in ARCHIVELOG mode.
B. No special setup is required, and the feature is enabled by default.
C. The path for the Automatic Diagnostic Repository (ADR) must be configured with the DIAGNOSTIC_DEST initialization parameter.
D. The Enterprise Manager Support Workbench can be enabled only if the background process manageability monitor (MMON) is configured.
E. Select the Enable option in the Oracle Configuration Manager Registration window during the installation of the Oracle Database 11 g software, provide valid MetaLink credentials and select license agreement.
Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 86
Which two statements are true regarding Health Monitor checks in Oracle Database 11g? (Choose two.)
A. Health Monitor checks are always initiated manually when there is some critical error.
B. Health Monitor checks can be used to scan the contents of the redo log and archive logs for accessibility and corruption
C. Health Monitor checks can be used to verify the contents of dictionary entries for each dictionary object and fix it automatically.
D. Health Monitor checks can be used to verify the integrity of database files and report failures if these files are inaccessible, corrupt or inconsistent.
Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 87
a

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QUESTION 21
You have been asked by the HR Manager to define Oracle Alert to show all employees terminated in the
past six months.
Identify three pieces of information that is required to define this Alert. (Choose three.)

A. actions that you want Alert to perform
B. frequency with which you want to run this Alert
C. a SQL statement that retrieves terminated employees
D. name of the concurrent program to be run after Alert runs
E. database table name, which stores employee Information to specify In the Event Details section

Correct Answer: ABC
QUESTION 22
When a quotation is due to expire within the number of days you specified, then you receive the following message in the Notifications Summary window: Quotations active or approaching expiration: [number]. Where is this [number] set up in the system?
A. in the Quote Header – Warning Delay field
B. in the Systems Profile Options – PO: Quote Warning Delay
C. in Purchasing Options on the ‘Default’ Tab – Quote Warning Delay field
D. Lookup Code, which is an (LOV) list of Values, in the Quote Header – Warning Delay field

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 23
Select three true statements regarding the Workflow Document Creation prerequisite (PO Create Documents workflow). (Choose three.)
A. Catalog quote must not be expired, but may be inactive.
B. Supplier and supplier site are required on the requisition related to a contract purchase order.
C. If a system Item is not associated with the requisition line, a supplier item number is required.
D. Sourcing rules are required If the requisition originates in Oracle Purchasing or {Procurement.
E. No source document is required for the PO Create Documents workflow to create a release or purchase order.
F. The only time an approved supplier list is required is if your source document is a blanket purchase agreement and you are using a system item.

Correct Answer: BCF
QUESTION 24
Consider the following setups:
1) Purchasing System Option enforce Full Lot Quantity * Mandatory
2) Rounding Factor at the item level = 75%
3) Unit of Issue at the item level = Dozen
Select two statements that are true. (Choose two.)

A. If the user enters 6 each on an internal requisition, the quantity will be rounded to 0,
B. If the user enters 6 each on a purchase requisition, the quantity will be rounded to 0,
C. If the user enters 11 each on an internal requisition, the quantity will be rounded to 12 each,
D. If the user enters 11 each on a purchase requisition, the quantity will be rounded to 12 each,
E. An advisory message suggesting rounding and a suggested rounding quantity are displayed, but you can override this.

Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 25
Requisition Import groups all requisitions with the same group code under the same requisition header. If
no group code is specified, Requisition Import groups requisitions according to five types of groups that
can be optionally passed to the Requisition Import process. Identify them.
(Choose five.)

A. Group by Item.
B. Group by price.
C. Group by buyer.
D. Group by UOM.
E. Group by location.
F. Group by supplier.
G. Group by description.
H. Group all requisition lines under one requisition header

Correct Answer: ACEFH
QUESTION 26
While defining Approval Groups, which three objects can you define authorization rules for? (Choose three.)
A. Buyer
B. Location
C. Commodity
D. Item Category
E. Account Range
F. Document Amount
Correct Answer: BDE
QUESTION 27
Which two statements are true regarding approval workflows In Purchasing? (Choose two.)
A. You can limit approval levels in an Approval Group by Item Category.
B. Approval routing can cut across legal entities within a business group.
C. A Purchase Requisition and a Standard Purchase Order cannot have different approval levels.
D. The Hierarchy Forward Method routes the document to the first approver in the hierarchy who has the required approval limits for that document.
E. During Position Hierarchy setup, a constraint that must be considered is that the Subordinate must not be the manager of the Position Holder in their regular job roles.
Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 28
Which three are true about the Evaluated Receipt Settlement (ERS) proems? (Choose three)
A. Invoice is always created for the supplier site.
B. Invoice is always created In unapproved status,
C. Invoice currency is always defaulted from the purchase order currency.
D. Payment currency is always defaulted from the purchase order currency, E. Payment terms are always defaulted from the purchase order payment terms.
F. Amount is always determined by multiplying the Quantity received by the purchase order item unit price.

Correct Answer: BCF
QUESTION 29
There are four tabbed regions In the Supplier Item Catalog window (Negotiated Sources, Prior Purchases, Sourcing Rules, and Requisition Templates), but function security can be used to determine whether a user will be able to see all of them. In release R12, where is the requisition setup option that determines which of the tabbed regions is the default?
A. in the Profile Options setup
B. in the Lookup Codes setup
C. in the Document Types setup
D. in the Purchasing Options setup
E. in the Expense Account Rules setup
F. in the Requisition Preferences setup

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 30
Price Tolerance (%) on the Purchasing Options Control section refers to the percentage by which ___________.
A. the purchase order line price cannot exceed a price quote
B. the invoice price cannot exceed the purchase order line price
C. the purchase order line price cannot exceed the blanket amount
D. the supplier catalog price cannot exceed purchase order line price
E. the purchase order line price cannot exceed the requisition line price

Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 31
Select three statements that are true regarding the clearing account. (Choose three.)
A. An asset clearing account can also be used as a project clearing account.
B. You can have a maximum of one asset clearing account per asset category.
C. For each payables document you create, you can have a separate cash clearing account.
D. You can use Cash in Transit report in cash management only if cash clearing account and cash account are separate.
E. You use a separate cash clearing account and cash account to have visibility of the Cash in Transit on the balance sheet.

Correct Answer: BCE
QUESTION 32
Your client has the following requirements for electronic delivery of purchasing documents to indirect spend vendors:
1.
No third-party software should be needed; the built-in Oracle functionality should be used.

2.
No special supplier set up should be required; the supplier should need minimal resources to participate.

3.
No requirement for audit trail or confirmation. The best method within standard functionality is _____.
A. EDI
B. XML
C. Email
D. Facsimile
E. Direct interface

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 33
A Blanket Purchase Agreement Is created with the following cumulative price break:
Quantity > 0: Unit Price = $5 Quantity > 20: Unit Price = $4
Single line, single distribution releases are created as follows:
Release# 1 with quantity 15 Release# 2 with quantity 10
What are the unit price values on the releases?
A. Release1 $5, Release2 $5
B. Release1 $4, Release2 $4
C. Release1 $5, Release2 $4
D. It depends on the price tolerance for the line.
E. Release1 $5, Release2 $4 for a quantity of 5 and $5 for a quantity of 5

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 34
You match an unordered receipt to_____.
A. a purchase order shipment from any organization
B. a Return Material Authorization (RMA. from any organization
C. a purchase order shipment from the same organization for any supplier
D. a purchase release shipment from the same organization for the same supplier
E. a finally closed purchase order shipment from the same organization for the same supplier

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 35
Which four sources of information default records Into the Supplier Header? (Choose four.)
A. Invoice Options
B. System Options
C. Financial Options
D. Payables Options
E. Receiving Options
F. Purchasing Options
G. Approved supplier list

Correct Answer: CDEF
QUESTION 36
While implementing Oracle Payables, Oracle Purchasing, and Oracle General Ledger at GLO Ltd., you are informed by the accountant that the AP Clearing Account balance Is Increasing daily. To solve this issue, what would you check in the accounting process?
A. whether journals are posted regularly
B. whether suppliers are sequentially numbered
C. whether the month-end accrual process is run
D. whether invoices are matched to purchase orders and receipts
E. whether Oracle Payables transactions are reconciled with Oracle General Ledger

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 37
Consider the following scenario for inventory item A: 1) Standard Cost $10 Purchase Order Line Price: $12, Purchase Order Line Quantity: 10 2) Receipt Routing: Direct Delivery You created a receipt of 8 units for item A. Which option correctly describes the effect on different accounts?
A. Debit Material Account $80; Credit Inventory AP Accrual Account $96; Debit Invoice Price Variance Account $16; No effect on Purchase Price Variance Account
B. Debit Material Account $80; Credit Inventory AP Accrual Account $96; No effect on Invoice Price Variance Account; Debit Purchase Price Variance Account $16
C. Debit Material Account $80; Credit Inventory AP Accrual Account $80; No effect on Invoice Price Variance Account; Debit Purchase Price Variance Account $16
D. Credit Material Account $80; Debit Inventory AP Accrual Account $96; No effect on Invoice Price Variance Account; Credit Purchase Price Variance Account $16
E. Debit Material Account $96; Credit Inventory AP Accrual Account $96; No effect on Invoice Price Variance Account; Credit Purchase Price Variance Account $16

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 38
Which three are valid setup options for purchasing document types? (Choose three.)
A. Archive On
B. Forward Method
C. Default Hierarchy
D. Security Access Level
E. Can Change Hierarchy
F. Owner Cannot Approve
Correct Answer: ABC
QUESTION 39
Consider the following scenario for Inventory Item B.
1) Standard Cost: $10 2) Purchase Order Line Quantity: 100; Purchase Order Line Price: $12 3) Match Approval Level: Three-Way Matching; Receipt Routing: Direct Delivery 4) Received Quantity: 40 5) Invoice Price: $14; Invoiced Quantity: 20
Which option describes the effect on different accounts correctly?
A. Debit Material Account $480; Credit Inventory AP Accrual Account $240; Debit Invoice Price Variance Account $40; Debit Purchase Price Variance Account $0; Credit AP Liability Account $280
B. Debit Material Account $400; Credit Inventory AP Accrual Account $240; Debit Invoice Price Variance Account $40; Debit Purchase Price Variance Account $80; Credit AP Liability Account $280
C. Debit Material Account $400 ; Credit Inventory AP Accrual Account $240; Debit Invoice Price Variance Account $80; Debit Purchase price Variance Account $40; Credit AP Liability Account $280
D. Credit Material Account $400; Debit Inventory AP Accrual Account $240; Credit Invoice Price Variance Account $40; Credit Purchase Price Variance Account $80; Debit AP Liability Account $280
Correct Answer: B QUESTION 40
Identify four ways in which sourcing rules significantly improve efficiency of procurement processes. (Choose four.)
A. Allowing you to transfer from one supplier site to the other, if It is a global supplier.
B. Assigning sourcing rules at the item or item-organization level using an assignment set.
C. Giving you the ability to identify the priority to be given to the local sites of a global supplier.
D. Sourcing the highest percentage of an item from only those suppliers who ranked the highest.
E. Allowing you to identify the most efficient shipping method to be used for a specific sourcing rule,
F. Automatically allocating planned orders across different suppliers based on predetermined criteria such as rank and percentage.
G. Allowing the implementer to define a single sourcing rule for an item at the Item Master level, to cater to all inventory organizations.

Correct Answer: BCEF
QUESTION 41
Select three true statements about the default of sourcing Information for requisitions and purchase orders. (Choose three.)
A. The item price on a requisition can be defaulted from the Item attribute setup.
B. Buyer name cannot be defaulted onto a requisition, but you can assign notes to a buyer.
C. You can modify the last name of the requester defaulting from the Human Resources employee record.
D. You must use the Transfer From assignment on a sourcing rule for Item Information to default onto an Internal requisition.
E. When you assign a commodity to an approved supplier list, you do not need to assign the individual items in the commodity.
F. You can have the same item on a quotation and a blanket agreement but the supplier or supplier site must be different, so that It can default onto a requisition line.

Correct Answer: ADE
QUESTION 42
You receive a request to create a new menu. Instead of creating a new menu, you modify an existing menu and save It to a different User Menu Name. What happens after saving the menu with a different User Menu Name?
A. There will be two menus.
B. The original menu is disabled.
C. The new menu will not contain any functions.
D. The new menu will overwrite the original menu.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 43
A Global Single Instance (GS1) provides the global enterprise with a single, complete data model, Identify three features In Oracle Business Suite Release 12 that support a 6SL (Choose three.)
A. maintenance of third-party applications
B. automation of standardized documents and audit processes
C. decentralization of operations by regions, divisions, or processes
D. consolidation of data centers and lowering administrative overhead
E. capture of statutory and customary local requirements In the same database
Correct Answer: BDE
QUESTION 44
Identify two types of regions in Daily Business Intelligence. (Choose two.)
A. menu
B. table
C. folder
D. report
E. graph

Correct Answer: BE
QUESTION 45
A global company uses Oracle E-Business Suite Release 12 for Its operations In the U.S. and Canada. The company Is now adding Mexico to the Oracle E-Business Suite Release 12 Applications. As a system administrator, you need to set the MO: Operating Unit profile option for Mexico. Customer is not using Multi-Org Access Control.
You set the MO: Operating Unit profile option at the ____level.
A. Site
B. User
C. Application
D. Responsibility

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 46
Identify the sequence of steps to determine the Descriptive Flexfield name on a form in Oracle E- Business
Suite Release 12 with Diagnostics enabled.
1) Select Help > Diagnostics > Examine.
2) The username of the DFF appears in the Value field.
3) Select the DFF name from the list of values in the “Field” field.
4) Select the “$DESCRIPTIVE_FUEXFIELD$B value for the Block name.

A. 1, 2, 3, 4
B. 1 4, 3, 2
C. 1, 3, 4, 2
D. 4, 3, 1, 2
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 47
Which two parameters facilitate cross organization reports in a Multi-Org environment? (Choose two.)
A. Ledger
B. Legal Entity
C. Operating Unit
D. Reporting Level
E. Reporting Context

Correct Answer: DE
QUESTION 48
XYZ Corp. has operations In the U.S. and Canada. Within Canada, It has two separate Divisions due to Statutory requirements: one In Quebec and another In Ontario. How would you define the organization structure for XYZ Corp. from the Information given above?
A. two Ledgers, two Legal Entitles, and two Operating Units
B. two Ledgers, two Legal Entities, and three Operating Units
C. two Ledgers, three Legal Entities, and two Operating Units
D. two Ledgers, three Legal Entities, and three Operating Units
E. three Ledgers, three Legal Entities, and three Operating Units

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 49
Identify the four resources that Oracle Technology Network (OTM) provides. (Choose four.)
A. sample codes
B. Bug Database
C. technical articles
D. product downloads
E. product documentation
F. Applications Electronic Technical Reference Manuals (eTRM)

Correct Answer: ACDE
QUESTION 50
ABC Corp, has the following Organization Structure
1) Legal Entity: A 2) Operating Units: B end C 3) Balancing Entitles: 10. 20. and 30
Identify three correct statements regarding the Balancing Entity. (Choose three.)
A. Each Balancing Entity mutt balance within itself.
B. There can be multiple Balancing Entitles within an Operating Unit
C. Balancing Entity is the lowest postable unit in the Chart of Accounts.
D. Balancing Entitles can be automatically secured at the Legal Entity level.
E. Balancing Entities can be secured at the Operating Unit level through Security Rules

Correct Answer: ABE
QUESTION 51
Identify the two benefits of using Multi-Org Access Control. (Choose two.)
A. View asset information across multiple asset books
B. Restrict access to users based on their Organization assignment!
C. Submit and view data across different ledgers using a single responsibility.
D. Enter Payables Invoices for different Operating Units using a single responsibility.
E. View Consolidated requisitions across Operating Units using a single responsibility
Correct Answer: DE
QUESTION 52
Which two options would you use to restrict the functionality provided by a responsibility? (Choose two.)
A. creating an appropriate role
B. creating an appropriate group
C. constructing a new menu hierarchy
D. defining rules to exclude specific functions
Correct Answer: CD
QUESTION 53
A Ledger is a financial reporting entity. What is new in Oracle E-Business Suite Release 12 that facilitates generation of accounting entries?
A. Ledger
B. Chart of Accounts
C. Multi-Org Structure
D. Accounting Convention
E. Financial Accounting Calendar

Correct Answer: D

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QUESTION NO: 21
Identity the true statement about Custom Menus.
A. Custom menus can provide links to data forms, Business Rules, URLs, and Planning preferences.
B. Custom menus require Java scripting knowledge to create.
C. You can assign security to custom menus so that only specific users or groups can see the custom menu.
D. Custom menus are assigned to data forms only.
E. Custom menus are limited to a single list of tasks; you cannot group them into sub categories.
Answer: A
Explanation: Custom menus can be used to launch the following:


Business Rules


Context sensitive data forms


URL


Context sensitive Process Management

QUESTION NO: 22
A planner is supposed to be able to submit data within a data form.
What are all the possible causes for an end user not being able to enter data on a data form? Select all that apply.
A. The planning unit is set to first pass.
B. Another user owns the planning unit.
C. The user has read access to the members on the data form.
D. The form contains summary-level members in a bottom up version.
E. The form is set to Read Only.
Answer: C,D,E Explanation: C, E: By assigning access to a data form, you control which users can change its design (for example, its layout and instructions) and input data. Users can select only members to which they have read or write access. Users can edit data forms only if they have access to at least one member of each secured dimension. For example, if users have read-only access to the Europe entity, the rows and columns on data forms that include the Europe entity are displayed as read-only. Users can change data only for members to which they have write access.
D: For bottom-up versions, rows and columns with level 0 members allow data entry. Rows or columns set to a parent member are read-only. The point of view must also be set to the level 0 member to allow data entry on a bottom-up version. Target versions allow data entry in parent and children members.
If you assign children to bottom-up versions, these versions display as read-only parents on data forms.

QUESTION NO: 23
The Hyperion Planning administrator needs to run several calculations in a specific order against two different databases within the application. Identify the two options that are not valid.
A. Esscmd
B. Calc Script
C. Business Rule Sequence
D. MaxL
E. Business Rule Macro
Answer: A,D Explanation:
ESSCMD is the original command line interface for administration commands.
MaxL, a “multi-dimensional database access language” which provides both a superset of
ESSCMD commands, but with a syntax more akin to SQL, as well as support for MDX queries.

QUESTION NO: 24
Assuming the following dimensions and members:
Scenario – Actual, Budget and Year – 2010, 2011, you need to create a data form with two columns. One column should list Actual for 2010 and the second column should list Budget 2011. You do not want to show data for Actual 2011 even though the first three months of the year have been loaded from the GL.
What is the best way to only show the 2 columns in the data form?
A. You cannot build a data form with these two columns, hour columns will display: Actual >2010, Actual >2011, Budget->2010 and Budget >2011
B. Use Segments on the data form to create the asymmetric columns.
C. Use User Variables on the data form to create the asymmetric columns.
D. Use a composite data form to meet this requirement.
E. Use data suppression on the data form.
Answer: B
Explanation: Asymmetric rows and columns are ones in which different sets of members are selected across the same dimension.

QUESTION NO: 25
Identify the three true statements about weekly distribution.
A. For Weekly Distribution options 445, 454, 544, the quarterly values are treated as if they are divided into 13 weeks and the weeks are distributed via a pattern you specify.
B. The only valid weekly distribution options are 445, 454, and 544.
C. If you select the 4-5-4 Weekly distribution option, Planning treats the first month in the quarter as if it has 4 weeks, the second month as If it has 5 weeks, and the third month as if it has 4 weeks.
D. If you choose weekly distribution for Custom-based time periods. Planning will not distribute the data values across base periods.
E. Weekly distribution determines how data entered into summary periods should spread to its base periods.
Answer: A,C,E Explanation: A: If you select a weekly distribution pattern other than Even, Planning treats quarterly values as if they were divided into 13 weeks and distributes weeks according to the selected pattern.
E: Weekly distribution sets the monthly distribution pattern, based on the number of fiscal weeks in a month. This determines how data in summary time periods spreads within the base time period. When users enter data into summary time periods, such as quarters, the value is distributed over base time periods in the summary time period.

QUESTION NO: 26
What are the three supported methods to create and update a member and its properties (assuming Classic or non-Classic Planning applications)?
A. Planning Web Client
B. EAS
C. EPMA
D. DRM
E. Outline Load Utility
Answer: A,B,C Explanation: A: Planning Web Client provides complete functionality for Web users. Use the Web interface to roll out applications to large, distributed organizations without installing software on client computers. All software resides on the server. Many administrative features that were formerly in the Planning Desktop are now available through Planning Web.
B: Oracle Hyperion Essbase Administration Services (Essbase Administration Services) software is a robust, cross-platform graphical user interface that makes Essbase administration tasks easy to perform. Administrators can simultaneously view and edit properties for multiple Hyperion Essbase databases, applications, users, scripts, and other objects from a single intuitive view. Essbase Administration Services also provides wizards, editors, dynamic menus, and other tools to help you implement, monitor, and maintain analytic and enterprise performance management applications.
C: Enterprise Performance Management Architect (EPMA) enables administrators to manage, create, and deploy Hyperion applications within one interface. EPMA can do adds, moves, modify properties, etc.

QUESTION NO: 27
Identify the one Planning component that is not accessible over the Web.
A. Dimension Editor for Planning
B. Shared Services
C. Exchange Rates Definition
D. Planning Utilities
E. Create and Manage Database Options
F. Create Data Sources
Answer: D
Explanation: Hyperion Planning Utilities can only be used locally.
QUESTION NO: 28
Identify two true statements about the DATAEXPORT calc script command.
A. Using DATAEXPORT within the FIX statement of a calc script allows you to export specific data sets from an Essbase database.
B. DATAEXPORT only exports level zero data.
C. DATAEXPORT only exports to flat files.
D. DATAEXPORT only exports entire data blocks.
E. DATAEXPORT is faster than Essbase Report.
Answer: A,E
Explanation: A: To develop a calculation script that exports a subset of data, you first specify the
SET
DATAEXPORTOPTIONS command to define options for export content, format, and process Use
FIX#ENDFIX or EXCLUDE#ENDEXCLUDE calculations to select a slice of the database and
use a DATAEXPORTCOND command to select data based on data values.

Note: The DATAEXPORT command enables calculation scripts to export data in binary or text, or
directly to a relational database. A set of data-export-related calculation commands qualify what
data to export and provide various output and formatting options.

Compared to using other methods to export data, using a calculation script has the following
advantages and disadvantages:
Advantages:
Enables exporting a subset of data.

*
Supports multiple targets: flat files, relational databases, and binary files (not B, C, D)

*
Provides many flexible options for type and format or data.

*
As part of a calculation script, can be easily deployed in a batch process.

*
Can be very fast when the dynamic calculation export option is not used because DATAEXPORT directly accesses Kernel storage blocks in memory. (E)

*
Provides, through binary export-import, a faster way to back up and restore data because the compressed format used by binary export requires less storage for the export files.

*
Can be used as a debug tool to trace batch calculation results by using the DATAEXPORT command before and after other calculation commands to track data changes.
Disadvantages
Contains limited data formatting options compared to Report Writer formatting.
QUESTION NO: 29
Identify the three true statements about attribute dimensions.
A. Planning supports hierarchies and aliases for attribute dimensions.
B. Planning supports all attribute types (for example. Boolean, Date, Text).
C. Planning supports varying attributes (where an attribute can vary over one or more other dimensions).

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QUESTION 30
View the Exhibit and examine the description for the CUSTOMERS table.

You want to update the CUST_CREDIT_LIMIT column to NULL for all the customers, where CUST_INCOME_LEVEL has NULL in the CUSTOMERS table. Which SQL statement will accomplish the task?
A. UPDATE customers SET cust_credit_limit = NULL WHERE CUST_INCOME_LEVEL = NULL;
B. UPDATE customers SET cust_credit_limit = NULL WHERE cust_income_level IS NULL;
C. UPDATE customers SET cust_credit_limit = TO_NUMBER(NULL) WHERE cust_income_level = TO_NUMBER(NULL);
D. UPDATE customers SET cust_credit_limit = TO_NUMBER(‘ ‘,9999) WHERE cust_income_level IS NULL;

Correct Answer: B Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 31
Which two statements about sub queries are true? (Choose two.)
A. A sub query should retrieve only one row.
B. A sub query can retrieve zero or more rows.
C. A sub query can be used only in SQL query statements.
D. Sub queries CANNOT be nested by more than two levels.
E. A sub query CANNOT be used in an SQL query statement that uses group functions.
F. When a sub query is used with an inequality comparison operator in the outer SQL statement, the column list in the SELECT clause of the sub query should contain only one column.

Correct Answer: BF Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: sub query can retrieve zero or more rows, sub query is used with an inequality comparison operator in the outer SQL statement, and the column list in the SELECT clause of the sub query should contain only one column.
Incorrect answer: A sub query can retrieve zero or more rows C sub query is not SQL query statement D sub query can be nested E group function can be use with sub query
QUESTION 32
View the Exhibit and examine the structure of the PROMOTIONS table.

You have to generate a report that displays the promo name and start date for all promos that started after the last promo in the ‘INTERNET’ category.
Which query would give you the required output?
A. SELECT promo_name, promo_begin_date FROM promotions WHERE promo_begin_date > ALL (SELECT MAX(promo_begin_date) FROM promotions ) AND promo_category = ‘INTERNET’;
B. SELECT promo_name, promo_begin_date FROM promotions WHERE promo_begin_date IN (SELECT promo_begin_date FROM promotions WHERE promo_category=’INTERNET’);
C. SELECT promo_name, promo_begin_date FROM promotions WHERE promo_begin_date > ALL (SELECT promo_begin_date FROM promotions WHERE promo_category = ‘INTERNET’);
D. SELECT promo_name, promo_begin_date FROM promotions WHERE promo_begin_date > ANY (SELECT promo_begin_date FROM promotions WHERE promo_category = ‘INTERNET’);

Correct Answer: C Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 33
Which are /SQL*Plus commands? (Choose all that apply.)
A. INSERT
B. UPDATE
C. SELECT
D. DESCRIBE
E. DELETE
F. RENAME

Correct Answer: D Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Describe is a valid iSQL*Plus/ SQL*Plus command.
INSERT, UPDATE & DELETE are SQL DML Statements. A SELECT is an ANSI Standard SQL Statement

not an iSQL*Plus Statement. RENAME is a DDL Statement.
QUESTION 34
Which two statements are true regarding the COUNT function? (Choose two.)
A. COUNT(*) returns the number of rows including duplicate rows and rows containing NULL value in any of the columns
B. COUNT(cust_id) returns the number of rows including rows with duplicate customer IDs and NULL value in the CUST_ID column
C. COUNT(DISTINCT inv_amt) returns the number of rows excluding rows containing duplicates and NULL values in the INV_AMT column
D. A SELECT statement using COUNT function with a DISTINCT keyword cannot have a WHERE clause
E. The COUNT function can be used only for CHAR, VARCHAR2 and NUMBER data types

Correct Answer: AC Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Using the COUNT Function
The COUNT function has three formats:
COUNT(*)
COUNT(expr)
COUNT(DISTINCT expr)
COUNT(*) returns the number of rows in a table that satisfy the criteria of the SELECT statement, including
duplicate rows and rows containing null values in any of the columns. If a WHERE clause is included in the
SELECT statement, COUNT(*) returns the number of rows that satisfy the condition in the WHERE clause.
In contrast,
COUNT(expr) returns the number of non-null values that are in the column identified by expr. COUNT
(DISTINCT expr) returns the number of unique, non-null values that are in the column identified by expr.

QUESTION 35
Examine the description of the EMP_DETAILS table given below: Exhibit:

Which two statements are true regarding SQL statements that can be executed on the EMP_DETAIL table? (Choose two.)
A. An EMP_IMAGE column can be included in the GROUP BY clause
B. You cannot add a new column to the table with LONG as the data type
C. An EMP_IMAGE column cannot be included in the ORDER BY clause
D. You can alter the table to include the NOT NULL constraint on the EMP_IMAGE column

Correct Answer: BC Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: LONG Character data in the database character set, up to 2GB. All the functionality of LONG (and more) is provided by CLOB; LONGs should not be used in a modern database, and if your database has any columns of this type they should be converted to CLOB. There can only be one LONG column in a table. Guidelines A LONG column is not copied when a table is created using a subquery. A LONG column cannot be
included in a GROUP BY or an ORDER BY clause.
Only one LONG column can be used per table.
No constraints can be defined on a LONG column.
You might want to use a CLOB column rather than a LONG column.

QUESTION 36
Which CREATE TABLE statement is valid?
A. CREATE TABLE ord_details (ord_no NUMBER(2) PRIMARY KEY, item_no NUMBER(3) PRIMARY KEY, ord_date DATE NOT NULL);
B. CREATE TABLE ord_details (ord_no NUMBER(2) UNIQUE, NOT NULL, item_no NUMBER(3), ord_date DATE DEFAULT SYSDATE NOT NULL);
C. CREATE TABLE ord_details (ord_no NUMBER(2) , item_no NUMBER(3), ord_date DATE DEFAULT NOT NULL, CONSTRAINT ord_uq UNIQUE (ord_no), CONSTRAINT ord_pk PRIMARY KEY (ord_no));
D. CREATE TABLE ord_details (ord_no NUMBER(2), item_no NUMBER(3), ord_date DATE DEFAULT SYSDATE NOT NULL, CONSTRAINT ord_pk PRIMARY KEY (ord_no, item_no));

Correct Answer: D Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: PRIMARY KEY Constraint A PRIMARY KEY constraint creates a primary key for the table. Only one primary key can be created for each table. The PRIMARY KEY constraint is a column or a set of columns that uniquely identifies each row in a table. This constraint enforces the uniqueness of the column or column combination and ensures that no column that is part of the primary key can contain a null value. Note: Because uniqueness is part of the primary key constraint definition, the Oracle server enforces the uniqueness by implicitly creating a unique index on the primary key column or columns.
QUESTION 37
See the exhibit and examine the structure of the CUSTOMERS and GRADES tables: You need to display names and grades of customers who have the highest credit limit. Which two SQL statements would accomplish the task? (Choose two.)

A. SELECT custname, grade FROM customers, grades WHERE (SELECT MAX(cust_credit_limit) FROM customers) BETWEEN startval and endval;
B. SELECT custname, grade FROM customers, grades WHERE (SELECT MAX(cust_credit_limit) FROM customers) BETWEEN startval and endval AND cust_credit_limit BETWEEN startval AND endval;
C. SELECT custname, grade FROM customers, grades WHERE cust_credit_limit = (SELECT MAX(cust_credit_limit) FROM customers) AND cust_credit_limit BETWEEN startval AND endval;
D. SELECT custname, grade FROM customers , grades WHERE cust_credit_limit IN (SELECT MAX(cust_credit_limit) FROM customers) AND MAX(cust_credit_limit) BETWEEN startval AND endval;

Correct Answer: BC Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 38
See the Exhibit and Examine the structure of the CUSTOMERS table:

Using the CUSTOMERS table, you need to generate a report that shows an increase in the credit limit by 15% for all customers. Customers whose credit limit has not been entered should have the message “Not Available” displayed.
Which SQL statement would produce the required result?
A. SELECT NVL(cust_credit_limit,’Not Available’)*.15 “NEW CREDIT” FROM customers;
B. SELECT NVL(cust_credit_limit*.15,’Not Available’) “NEW CREDIT” FROM customers;
C. SELECT TO_CHAR(NVL(cust_credit_limit*.15,’Not Available’)) “NEW CREDIT” FROM customers;
D. SELECT NVL(TO_CHAR(cust_credit_limit*.15),’Not Available’) “NEW CREDIT” FROM customers;

Correct Answer: D Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
NVL Function
Converts a null value to an actual value:
Data types that can be used are date, character, and number.
Data types must match:

NVL(commission_pct,0)
NVL(hire_date,’01-JAN-97′)
NVL(job_id,’No Job Yet’)

QUESTION 39
You need to calculate the number of days from 1st Jan 2007 till date:
Dates are stored in the default format of dd-mm-rr.
Which two SQL statements would give the required output? (Choose two.)

A. SELECT SYSDATE – TO_DATE(’01/JANUARY/2007′) FROM DUAL;
B. SELECT TO_DATE(SYSDATE,’DD/MONTH/YYYY’)-’01/JANUARY/2007′ FROM DUAL;
C. SELECT SYSDATE – TO_DATE(’01-JANUARY-2007′) FROM DUAL
D. SELECT SYSDATE – ’01-JAN-2007′ FROM DUAL
E. SELECT TO_CHAR(SYSDATE,’DD-MON-YYYY’)-’01-JAN-2007′ FROM DUAL;

Correct Answer: AC Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 40
Which two are true about aggregate functions? (Choose two.)
A. You can use aggregate functions in any clause of a SELECT statement.
B. You can use aggregate functions only in the column list of the select clause and in the WHERE clause of a SELECT statement.
C. You can mix single row columns with aggregate functions in the column list of a SELECT statement by grouping on the single row columns.
D. You can pass column names, expressions, constants, or functions as parameter to an aggregate function.
E. You can use aggregate functions on a table, only by grouping the whole table as one single group.
F. You cannot group the rows of a table by more than one column while using aggregate functions.
Correct Answer: AD Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 41
See the structure of the PROGRAMS table:

Which two SQL statements would execute successfully? (Choose two.)
A. SELECT NVL(ADD_MONTHS(END_DATE,1),SYSDATE) FROM programs;
B. SELECT TO_DATE(NVL(SYSDATE-END_DATE,SYSDATE)) FROM programs;
C. SELECT NVL(MONTHS_BETWEEN(start_date,end_date),’Ongoing’) FROM programs;
D. SELECT NVL(TO_CHAR(MONTHS_BETWEEN(start_date,end_date)),’Ongoing’) FROM programs;

Correct Answer: AD Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
NVL Function
Converts a null value to an actual value:
Data types that can be used are date, character, and number.
Data types must match:

NVL(commission_pct,0)

NVL(hire_date,’01-JAN-97′)

NVL(job_id,’No Job Yet’)

MONTHS_BETWEEN(date1, date2): Finds the number of months between date1 and date2 . The result
can be positive or negative. If date1 is later than date2, the result is positive; if date1 is earlier than date2,
the result is negative. The noninteger part of the result represents a portion of the month.
MONTHS_BETWEEN returns a numeric value. – answer C NVL has different datatypes – numeric and
strings, which is not possible!

The data types of the original and if null parameters must always be compatible. They must either be of the
same type, or it must be possible to implicitly convert if null to the type of the original parameter. The NVL
function returns a value with the same data type as the original parameter.

QUESTION 42
You issue the following command to drop the PRODUCTS table: SQL>DROP TABLE products;
What is the implication of this command? (Choose all that apply.)
A. All data in the table are deleted but the table structure will remain
B. All data along with the table structure is deleted
C. All views and synonyms will remain but they are invalidated
D. The pending transaction in the session is committed
E. All indexes on the table will remain but they are invalidated
Correct Answer: BCD Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 43
Exhibit contains the structure of PRODUCTS table: Evaluate the following query:
What would be the outcome of executing the above SQL statement?
A. It produces an error
B. It shows the names of products whose list price is the second highest in the table.
C. It shown the names of all products whose list price is less than the maximum list price
D. It shows the names of all products in the table Correct Answer: B

Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 44
See the Exhibits and examine the structures of PRODUCTS, SALES and CUSTOMERS table: You issue the following query:
Which statement is true regarding the outcome of this query?
A. It produces an error because the NATURAL join can be used only with two tables
B. It produces an error because a column used in the NATURAL join cannot have a qualifier
C. It produces an error because all columns used in the NATURAL join should have a qualifier
D. It executes successfully

Correct Answer: B Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: Creating Joins with the USING Clause Natural joins use all columns with matching names and data types to join the tables. The USING clause can be used to specify only those columns that should be used for an equijoin. The Natural JOIN USING Clause The format of the syntax for the natural JOIN USING clause is as follows: SELECT table1.column, table2.column FROM table1 JOIN table2 USING (join_column1, join_column2…); While the pure natural join contains the NATURAL keyword in its syntax, the JOIN…USING syntax does not. An error is raised if the keywords NATURAL and USING occur in the same join clause. The JOIN…USING clause allows one or more equijoin columns to be explicitly specified in brackets after the USING keyword. This avoids the shortcomings associated with the pure natural join. Many situations demand that tables be joined only on certain columns, and this format caters to this requirement.
QUESTION 45
You work as a database administrator at ABC.com. You study the exhibit carefully.
Exhibit:

You want to create a SALE_PROD view by executing the following SQL statements:

Which statement is true regarding the execution of the above statement?
A. The view will be created and you can perform DLM operations on the view
B. The view will not be created because the join statements are not allowed for creating a view
C. The view will not be created because the GROUP BY clause is not allowed for creating a view
D. The view will be created but no DML operations will be allowed on the view
Correct Answer: D Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: Rules for Performing DML Operations on a View You cannot add data through a view if the view includes: Group functions A GROUP BY clause The DISTINCT keyword The pseudocolumn ROWNUM keyword Columns defined by expressions NOT NULL columns in the base tables that are not selected by the view
QUESTION 46
Which three statements are true regarding the data types in Oracle Database 10g/11g? (Choose three.)
A. The BLOB data type column is used to store binary data in an operating system file
B. The minimum column width that can be specified for a VARCHAR2 data type column is one
C. A TIMESTAMP data type column stores only time values with fractional seconds
D. The value for a CHAR data type column is blank-padded to the maximum defined column width
E. Only One LONG column can be used per table

Correct Answer: BDE Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
LONG Character data in the database character set, up to 2GB. All the functionality of LONG (and more) is
provided by CLOB; LONGs should not be used in a modern database, and if your database has any
columns of this type they should be converted to CLOB. There can only be one LONG column in a table.
DVARCHAR2 Variable-length character data, from 1 byte to 4KB. The data is stored in the database
character set. The VARCHAR2 data type must be qualified with a number indicating the maximum length
of the column.
If a value is inserted into the column that is less than this, it is not a problem: the value will only take up as
much space as it needs. If the value is longer than this maximum, the INSERT will fail with an error.
VARCHAR2(size)
Variable-length character data (A maximum size must be specified: minimum size is 1; maximum size is
4,000.)
BLOB Like CLOB, but binary data that will not undergo character set conversion by Oracle Net. BFILE A
locator pointing to a file stored on the operating system of the database server. The size of the files is
limited to 4GB.
TIMESTAMP This is length zero if the column is empty, or up to 11 bytes, depending on the precision
specified.
Similar to DATE, but with precision of up to 9 decimal places for the seconds, 6 places by default.

QUESTION 47
Which three are true? (Choose three.)
A. A MERGE statement is used to merge the data of one table with data from another.
B. A MERGE statement replaces the data of one table with that of another.
C. A MERGE statement can be used to insert new rows into a table.
D. A MERGE statement can be used to update existing rows in a table.

Correct Answer: ACD Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: The MERGE Statement allows you to conditionally insert or update data in a table. If the rows are present in the target table which match the join condition, they are updated if the rows are not present they are inserted into the target table
QUESTION 48
Which two statements are true regarding views? (Choose two.)
A. A sub query that defines a view cannot include the GROUP BY clause
B. A view is created with the sub query having the DISTINCT keyword can be updated
C. A Data Manipulation Language (DML) operation can be performed on a view that is created with the sub query having all the NOT NULL columns of a table
D. A view that is created with the sub query having the pseudo column ROWNUM keyword cannot be updated

Correct Answer: CD Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: Rules for Performing DML Operations on a View You cannot add data through a view if the view includes: Group functions A GROUP BY clause The DISTINCT keyword The pseudocolumn ROWNUM keyword Columns defined by expressions NOT NULL columns in the base tables that are not selected by the view
QUESTION 49
Examine the structure of the EMPLOYEES and NEW_EMPLOYEES tables:

Which DELETE statement is valid?
A. DELETE FROM employees WHERE employee_id = (SELECT employee_id FROM employees);
B. DELETE * FROM employees WHERE employee_id=(SELECT employee_id FROM new_employees);
C. DELETE FROM employees WHERE employee_id IN (SELECT employee_id FROM new_employees WHERE name = `Carrey’);
D. DELETE * FROM employees WHERE employee_id IN (SELECT employee_id FROM new_employees WHERE name = `Carrey’);

Correct Answer: C Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 50
View the Exhibits and examine the structures of the PROMOTIONS and SALES tables.

Evaluate the following SQL statements:

Which statement is true regarding the output of the above query?
A. It gives details of product IDs that have been sold irrespective of whether they had a promo or not
B. It gives the details of promos for which there have been no sales
C. It gives the details of promos for which there have been sales
D. It gives details of all promos irrespective of whether they have resulted in a sale or not Correct Answer: D

Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 51
Examine the structure of the EMPLOYEES table:

Which UPDATE statement is valid?
A. UPDATE employees SET first_name = `John’
SET last_name = `Smith’
WHERE employee_id = 180;

B. UPDATE employees SET first_name = `John’, SET last_name = `Smoth’ WHERE employee_id = 180;
C. UPDATE employee SET first_name = `John’ AND last_name = `Smith’ WHERE employee_id = 180;
D. UPDATE employee SET first_name = `John’, last_name = `Smith’ WHERE employee_id = 180;

Correct Answer: D Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 52
View the Exhibit and evaluate structures of the SALES, PRODUCTS, and COSTS tables.

Evaluate the following SQL statements: Which statement is true regarding the above compound query?

A. It shows products that have a cost recorded irrespective of sales
B. It shows products that were sold and have a cost recorded
C. It shows products that were sold but have no cost recorded
D. It reduces an error Correct Answer: C

Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 53
The PRODUCTS table has the following structure:

Evaluate the following two SQL statements:

Which statement is true regarding the outcome?
A. Both the statements execute and give the same result
B. Both the statements execute and give different results
C. Only the second SQL statement executes successfully
D. Only the first SQL statement executes successfully

Correct Answer: B Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: Using the NVL2 Function The NVL2 function examines the first expression. If the first expression is not null, the NVL2 function returns the second expression. If the first expression is null, the third expression is returned. Syntax NVL2(expr1, expr2, expr3) In the syntax: expr1 is the source value or expression that may contain a null expr2 is the value that is returned if expr1 is not null expr3 is the value that is returned if expr1 is null
QUESTION 54
Which statements are correct regarding indexes? (Choose all that apply.)
A. For each data manipulation language (DML) operation performed, the corresponding indexes are automatically updated.
B. A nondeferrable PRIMARY KEY or UNIQUE KEY constraint in a table automatically creates a unique index.
C. A FOREIGN KEY constraint on a column in a table automatically creates a non unique key D. When a table is dropped, the corresponding indexes are automatically dropped

Correct Answer: ABD Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 55
You work as a database administrator at ABC.com. You study the exhibit carefully. Exhibit:

Which two SQL statements would execute successfully? (Choose two.)
A. UPDATE promotions SET promo_cost = promo_cost+ 100 WHERE TO_CHAR(promo_end_date, ‘yyyy’) > ‘2000’;
B. SELECT promo_begin_date FROM promotions WHERE TO_CHAR(promo_begin_date,’mon dd yy’)=’jul 01 98′;
C. UPDATE promotions SET promo_cost = promo_cost+ 100 WHERE promo_end_date > TO_DATE(SUBSTR(’01-JAN-2000′,8));
D. SELECT TO_CHAR(promo_begin_date,’dd/month’) FROM promotions WHERE promo_begin_date IN (TO_DATE(‘JUN 01 98’), TO_DATE(‘JUL 01 98’));

Correct Answer: AB Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 56
Examine these statements:

CREATE ROLE registrar;
GRANT UPDATE ON student_grades TO registrar;
GRANT registrar to user1, user2, user3;

What does this set of SQL statements do?

A. The set of statements contains an error and does not work.
B. It creates a role called REGISTRAR, adds the MODIFY privilege on the STUDENT_GRADES object to the role, and gives the REGISTRAR role to three users.
C. It creates a role called REGISTRAR, adds the UPDATE privilege on the STUDENT_GRADES object to the role, and gives the REGISTRAR role to three users.
D. It creates a role called REGISTRAR, adds the UPDATE privilege on the STUDENT_GRADES object to the role, and creates three users with the role.
E. It creates a role called REGISTRAR, adds the UPDATE privilege on three users, and gives the REGISTRAR role to the STUDENT_GRADES object.
F. It creates a role called STUDENT_GRADES, adds the UPDATE privilege on three users, and gives the UPDATE role to the registrar.

Correct Answer: C Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: the statement will create a role call REGISTRAR, grant UPDATE on student_grades to registrar, grant the role to user1,user2 and user3.
Incorrect answer: A the statement does not contain error B there is no MODIFY privilege D statement does not create 3 users with the role E privilege is grant to role then grant to user F privilege is grant to role then grant to user
QUESTION 57
Examine the structure of the MARKS table:
Exhibit:

Which two statements would execute successfully? (Choose two.)
A. SELECT student_name,subject1 FROM marks WHERE subject1 > AVG(subject1);
B. SELECT student_name,SUM(subject1) FROM marks WHERE student_name LIKE ‘R%’;
C. SELECT SUM(subject1+subject2+subject3) FROM marks WHERE student_name IS NULL;
D. SELECT SUM(DISTINCT NVL(subject1,0)), MAX(subject1) FROM marks WHERE subject1 > subject2;

Correct Answer: CD Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 58
You are currently located in Singapore and have connected to a remote database in Chicago. You issue the following command:
Exhibit: PROMOTIONS is the public synonym for the public database link for the PROMOTIONS table. What is the outcome?

A. Number of days since the promo started based on the current Singapore data and time.
B. An error because the ROUND function specified is invalid
C. An error because the WHERE condition specified is invalid
D. Number of days since the promo started based on the current Chicago data and time Correct Answer: D

Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 59
Evaluate the following two queries: Exhibit:

Exhibit:

Which statement is true regarding the above two queries?
A. Performance would improve in query 2 only if there are null values in the CUST_CREDIT_LIMIT column
B. Performance would degrade in query 2
C. There would be no change in performance
D. Performance would improve in query 2

Correct Answer: C Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Note: The IN operator is internally evaluated by the Oracle server as a set of OR conditions, such as
a=value1 or a=value2 or a=value3. Therefore, using the IN operator has no performance benefits and is
used only for logical simplicity.

QUESTION 60
View the Exhibit and examine the structure of the CUSTOMERS and CUST_HISTORY tables.

The CUSTOMERS table contains the current location of all currently active customers. The CUST_HISTORY table stores historical details relating to any changes in the location of all current as well as previous customers who are no longer active with the company.
You need to find those customers who have never changed their address. Which SET operator would you use to get the required output?
A. INTERSECT
B. UNION ALL
C. MINUS

D. UNION Correct Answer: C
Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 61
You created an ORDERS table with the following description: Exhibit:

You inserted some rows in the table. After some time, you want to alter the table by creating the PRIMARY KEY constraint on the ORD_ID column.
Which statement is true in this scenario?
A. You cannot add a primary key constraint if data exists in the column
B. You can add the primary key constraint even if data exists, provided that there are no duplicate values
C. The primary key constraint can be created only a the time of table creation
D. You cannot have two constraints on one column

Correct Answer: B Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 62
Which object privileges can be granted on a view?
A. none
B. DELETE, INSERT,SELECT
C. ALTER, DELETE, INSERT, SELECT
D. DELETE, INSERT, SELECT, UPDATE

Correct Answer: D Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: Object privilege on VIEW is DELETE, INSERT, REFERENCES, SELECT and UPDATE. Incorrect answer: A Object privilege on VIEW is DELETE, INSERT, REFERENCES, SELECT and UPDATE B Object privilege on VIEW is DELETE, INSERT, REFERENCES, SELECT and UPDATE C Object privilege on VIEW is DELETE, INSERT, REFERENCES, SELECT and UPDATE
Refer: Introduction to Oracle9i: SQL, Oracle University Study Guide, 13-12
QUESTION 63
When does a transaction complete? (Choose all that apply.)
A. When a PL/SQL anonymous block is executed
B. When a DELETE statement is executed
C. When a data definition language statement is executed
D. When a TRUNCATE statement is executed after the pending transaction
E. When a ROLLBACK command is executed
Correct Answer: CDE Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 64
View the Exhibit and examine the structure of the CUSTOMERS table. Exhibit:

you issue the following SQL statement on the CUSTOMERS table to display the customers who are in the
same country as customers with the last name ‘king’ and whose credit limit is less than the maximum credit limit in countries that have customers with the last name ‘king’.

Which statement is true regarding the outcome of the above query?
A. It produces an error and the < operator should be replaced by < ANY to get the required output
B. It produces an error and the IN operator should be replaced by = in the WHERE clause of the main query to get the required output
C. It executes and shows the required result
D. It produces an error and the < operator should be replaced by < ALL to get the required output

Correct Answer: C Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 65
You need to create a table for a banking application. One of the columns in the table has the following requirements:
You want a column in the table to store the duration of the credit period The data in the column should be stored in a format such that it can be easily added and subtracted with DATE data type without using conversion The maximum period of the credit provision in the application is 30 days the interest has to be calculated for the number of days an individual has taken a credit for
Which data type would you use for such a column in the table?
A. INTERVAL YEAR TO MONTH
B. NUMBER
C. TIMESTAMP
D. DATE
E. INTERVAL DAY TO SECOND
Correct Answer: E Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 66
The STUDENT_GRADES table has these columns: Which statement finds students who have a grade point average (GPA) greater than 3.0 for the calendar year 2001?

A. SELECT student_id, gpa FROM student_grades WHERE semester_end BETWEEN ’01-JAN-2001′ AND ’31-DEC-2001′ OR gpa > 3.;
B. SELECT student_id, gpa FROM student_grades WHERE semester_end BETWEEN ’01-JAN-2001′ AND ’31-DEC-2001′ AND gpa gt 3.0;
C. SELECT student_id, gpa FROM student_grades WHERE semester_end BETWEEN ’01-JAN-2001′ AND ’31-DEC-2001′ AND gpa > 3.0;
D. SELECT student_id, gpa FROM student_grades WHERE semester_end BETWEEN ’01-JAN-2001′ AND ’31-DEC-2001′ OR gpa > 3.0;
E. SELECT student_id, gpa FROM student_grades WHERE semester_end > ’01-JAN-2001′ OR semester_end < ’31-DEC-2001′ AND gpa >= 3.0;

Correct Answer: C Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 67
View the Exhibit and examine the data in the PROMOTIONS table.

You need to display all promo categories that do not have ‘discount’ in their subcategory. Which two SQL statements give the required result? (Choose two.)
A. SELECT promo_category FROM promotions MINUS SELECT promo_category FROM promotions
WHERE promo_subcategory = ‘discount’;
B. SELECT promo_category FROM promotions INTERSECT SELECT promo_category FROM promotions WHERE promo_subcategory = ‘discount’;
C. SELECT promo_category FROM promotions MINUS SELECT promo_category FROM promotions WHERE promo_subcategory <> ‘discount’;
D. SELECT promo_category FROM promotions INTERSECT SELECT promo_category FROM promotions WHERE promo_subcategory <> ‘discount’;
Correct Answer: AD Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 68
You work as a database administrator at ABC.com. You study the exhibit carefully.
Exhibit:

and examine the structure of CUSTOMRS AND SALES tables:
Evaluate the following SQL statement:
Exhibit:
Which statement is true regarding the execution of the above UPDATE statement?
A. It would not execute because the SELECT statement cannot be used in place of the table name
B. It would execute and restrict modifications to only the column specified in the SELECT statement
C. It would not execute because a sub query cannot be used in the WHERE clause of an UPDATE statement
D. It would not execute because two tables cannot be used in a single UPDATE statement Correct Answer: B

Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 69
See the Exhibit and examine the structure of the PROMOTIONS table: Exhibit:

Using the PROMOTIONS table, you need to find out the average cost for all promos in the range $0-2000
and $2000-5000 in category A.
You issue the following SQL statements:
Exhibit:
What would be the outcome?
A. It generates an error because multiple conditions cannot be specified for the WHEN clause
B. It executes successfully and gives the required result
C. It generates an error because CASE cannot be used with group functions
D. It generates an error because NULL cannot be specified as a return value Correct Answer: B

Explanation Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: CASE Expression Facilitates conditional inquiries by doing the work of an IF-THEN-ELSE statement: CASE expr WHEN comparison_expr1 THEN return_expr1 [WHEN comparison_expr2 THEN return_expr2 WHEN comparison_exprn THEN return_exprn ELSE else_expr] END
QUESTION 70
Which two statements are true regarding the USING and ON clauses in table joins? (Choose two.)
A. The ON clause can be used to join tables on columns that have different names but compatible data types
B. A maximum of one pair of columns can be joined between two tables using the ON clause
C. Both USING and ON clause can be used for equijoins and nonequijoins
D. The WHERE clause can be used to apply additional conditions in SELECT statement containing the ON or the USING clause

Correct Answer: AD Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: Creating Joins with the USING Clause If several columns have the same names but the data types do not match, use the USING clause to specify the columns for the equijoin. Use the USING clause to match only one column when more than one column matches. The NATURAL JOIN and USING clauses are mutually exclusive Using Table Aliases with the USING clause When joining with the USING clause, you cannot qualify a column that is used in the USING clause itself. Furthermore, if that column is used anywhere in the SQL statement, you cannot alias it. For example, in the query mentioned in the slide, you should not alias the location_id column in the WHERE clause because the column is used in the USING clause. The columns that are referenced in the USING clause should not have a qualifier (table name oralias) anywhere in the SQL statement. Creating Joins with the ON Clause The join condition for the natural join is basically an equijoin of all columns with the same name. Use the ON clause to specify arbitrary conditions or specify columns to join. ANSWER C The join condition is separated from other search conditions. ANSWER D The ON clause makes code easy to understand.
QUESTION 71
Examine the structure of the EMPLOYEES table:

Which INSERT statement is valid?
A. INSERT INTO employees (employee_id, first_name, last_name, hire_date) VALUES ( 1000, `John’, `Smith’, `01/01/01′);
B. INSERT INTO employees(employee_id, first_name, last_name, hire_date) VALUES ( 1000, `John’, `Smith’, ’01 January 01′);
C. INSERT INTO employees(employee_id, first_name, last_name, Hire_date) VALUES ( 1000, `John’, `Smith’, To_date(`01/01/01′));
D. INSERT INTO employees(employee_id, first_name, last_name, hire_date) VALUES ( 1000, `John’, `Smith’, 01-Jan-01);

Correct Answer: D Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: It is the only statement that has a valid date; all other will result in an error. Answer A is incorrect, syntax error, invalid date format
QUESTION 72
The user Alice wants to grant all users query privileges on her DEPT table. Which SQL statement accomplishes this?
A. GRANT select ON dept TO ALL_USERS;
B. GRANT select ON dept TO ALL;
C. GRANT QUERY ON dept TO ALL_USERS
D. GRANT select ON dept TO PUBLIC;

Correct Answer: D Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: view the columns associated with the constraint names in the USER_CONS_COLUMNS view.
Incorrect answer: A table to view all constraints definition and names B show all object name belong to user C does not display column associated E no such view
Refer: Introduction to Oracle9i: SQL, Oracle University Study Guide, 10-25
QUESTION 73
Which is an iSQL*Plus command?
A. INSERT
B. UPDATE
C. SELECT
D. DESCRIBE
E. DELETE
F. RENAME

Correct Answer: D Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The only SQL*Plus command in this list: DESCRIBE. It cannot be used as SQL command. This command
returns a description of tablename, including all columns in that table, the datatype for each column and an
indication of whether the column permits storage of NULL values.

Incorrect answer:
A INSERT is not a SQL*PLUS command
B UPDATE is not a SQL*PLUS command
C SELECT is not a SQL*PLUS command
E DELETE is not a SQL*PLUS command
F RENAME is not a SQL*PLUS command

Refer: Introduction to Oracle9i: SQL, Oracle University Study Guide, 7
QUESTION 74
You work as a database administrator at ABC.com. You study the exhibit carefully. Exhibit

Using the PROMOTIONS table, you need to display the names of all promos done after January 1, 2001
starting with the latest promo.
Which query would give the required result? (Choose all that apply.)

A. SELECT promo_name,promo_begin_date FROM promotions WHERE promo_begin_date > ’01-JAN-01′ ORDER BY 1 DESC;
B. SELECT promo_name,promo_begin_date “START DATE” FROM promotions WHERE promo_begin_date > ’01-JAN-01′ ORDER BY “START DATE” DESC;
C. SELECT promo_name,promo_begin_date FROM promotions WHERE promo_begin_date > ’01-JAN-01′ ORDER BY 2 DESC;
D. SELECT promo_name,promo_begin_date FROM promotions WHERE promo_begin_date > ’01-JAN-01′ ORDER BY promo_name DESC;

Correct Answer: BC Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 75
See the Exhibit and examine the structure of the SALES, CUSTOMERS, PRODUCTS and ITEMS tables: The PROD_ID column is the foreign key in the SALES table, which references the PRODUCTS table. Similarly, the CUST_ID and TIME_ID columns are also foreign keys in the SALES table referencing the CUSTOMERS and TIMES tables, respectively.

Evaluate the following the CREATE TABLE command:
Exhibit: Which statement is true regarding the above command?

A. The NEW_SALES table would not get created because the column names in the CREATE TABLE command and the SELECT clause do not match
B. The NEW_SALES table would get created and all the NOT NULL constraints defined on the specified columns would be passed to the new table
C. The NEW_SALES table would not get created because the DEFAULT value cannot be specified in the column definition
D. The NEW_SALES table would get created and all the FOREIGN KEY constraints defined on the specified columns would be passed to the new table

Correct Answer: B Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Creating a Table Using a Subquery
Create a table and insert rows by combining the CREATE
TABLE statement and the AS subquery option.
CREATE TABLE table
[(column, column…)]
AS subquery;
Match the number of specified columns to the number of subquery columns.
Define columns with column names and default values.
Guidelines
The table is created with the specified column names, and the rows retrieved by the SELECT statement
are inserted into the table.
The column definition can contain only the column name and default value. If column specifications are
given, the number of columns must equal the number of columns in the subquery SELECT list.
If no column specifications are given, the column names of the table are the same as the column names in
the subquery.
The column data type definitions and the NOT NULL constraint are passed to the new table. Note that only
the explicit NOT NULL constraint will be inherited. The PRIMARY KEY column will not pass the NOT NULL
feature to the new column. Any other constraint rules are not passed to the new table. However, you can
add constraints in the column definition. 1Z0-051

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QUESTION 25
In which two aspects does hot patching differ from conventional patching? (Choose two.)
A. It consumes more memory compared with conventional patching.
B. It can be installed and uninstalled via OPatch unlike conventional patching.
C. It takes more time to install or uninstall compared with conventional patching.
D. It does not require down time to apply or remove unlike conventional patching.
E. It is not persistent across instance startup and shutdown unlike conventional patching.
Correct Answer: AD QUESTION 26
Which statement about the enabling of table compression in Oracle Database 11g is true?
A. Compression can be enabled at the table, tablespace, or partition level for direct loads only.
B. Compression can be enabled only at the table level for both direct loads and conventional DML.
C. Compression can be enabled at the table, tablespace, or partition level for conventional DML only.
D. Compression can be enabled at the table, tablespace, or partition level for both direct loads and conventional DML.

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 27
Which are the prerequisites for performing flashback transactions on your database? (Choose all that apply.)
A. Supplemental log must be enabled.
B. Supplemental log must be enabled for the primary key
C. Undo retention guarantee for the database must be configured.
D. Execute permission on the DBMS_FLASHBACK package must be granted to the user.

Correct Answer: ABD QUESTION 28
You are managing an Oracle Database 11 g database. You want to take the of size 100 TB on tape drive, but you have tape drives of only 10 GB each, quickly and efficiently?
A. intrafile parallel backup
B. parallel image copy backup
C. backup with MAXPIECESIZE configured for the channel
D. parallel backup with MAXPIECESIZE configured for the channel

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 29
Which statements are true regarding the Query Result Cache? (Choose all that apply.)
A. It can be set at the system, session, or table level.
B. It is used only across statements in the same session.
C. It can store the results from normal as well as flashback queries.
D. It can store the results of queries based on normal, temporary, and dictionary tables.

Correct Answer: AC QUESTION 30
You want to analyze a SQL Tuning Set (STS) using SQL Performance Analyzer in a test database. Which two statements are true regarding the activities performed during the test execution of SQLs in a SQL Tuning Set? (Choose two.)
A. Every SQL statement in the STS is considered only once for execution.
B. The SQL statements in the STS are executed concurrently to produce the execution plan and execution statistics.
C. The execution plan and execution statistics are computed for each SQL statement in the STS.
D. The effects of DDL and DML are considered to produce the execution plan and execution statistics.

Correct Answer: AC QUESTION 31
Which two changes and their effect on the system can be tested by using the Database Replay feature?
(Choose two.)
A. multiplexing of the control file
B. database and operating system upgrades
C. adding the redo log member to the database
D. changing the database storage to ASM-managed storage

Correct Answer: BD QUESTION 32
You executed the following commands:
SQL> ALTER SESSION SET OPTIMIZER_USE_PENDING_STATISTICS = false; SQL> EXECUTE
DBMS_STATS.SET_TABLE_PREFS(‘SHI, ‘CUSTOMERS’, ‘PUBLISH’.’false’);
SQL> EXECUTE DBMS_STATS.GATHER_TABLE_STATS(‘SH’, ‘CUSTOMERS’);

Which statement is correct regarding the above statistics collection on the SH.CUSTOMERS table in the above session?
A. The statistics are stored in the pending statistics table in the data dictionary.
B. The statistics are treated as the current statistics by the optimizer for all sessions.
C. The statistics are treated as the current statistics by the optimizer for the current sessions only.
D. The statistics are temporary and used by the optimizer for all sessions until this session terminates.

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 33
The Database Resource Manager is automatically enabled in the maintenance window that runs the Automated Maintenance Task. What is the reason for this?
A. to prevent the creation of an excessive number of scheduler job classes
B. to allow the Automated Maintenance Tasks to use system resources without any restriction
C. to allow resource sharing only among the Automated Maintenance Tasks in the maintenance window
D. to prevent the Automated Maintenance Tasks from consuming excessive amounts of system resources

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 34
Which is the source used by Automatic SQL Tuning that runs as part of the AUTOTASK framework?
A. SQL statements that are part of the AWR baseline only
B. SQL statements based on the AWR top SQL identification
C. SQL statements that are part of the available SQL Tuning Set (STS) only
D. SQL statements that are available in the cursor cache and executed by a user other than SYS

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 35
View the Exhibit and examine the output.

You executed the following command to enable Flashback Data Archive on the EXCHANGE_RATE table:
ALTER TABLE exchange_rate FLASHBACK ARCHIVE;
What is the outcome of this command?

A. The table uses the default Flashback Archive.
B. The Flashback Archive is created on the SYSAUXtablespace.
C. The Flashback Archive is created on the same tablespace where the tables are stored.
D. The command generates an error because no Flashback Archive name is specified and there is no default Flashback Archive-

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 36
View the Exhibit to examine the error during the database startup.

You open an RMAN session for the database instance. To repair the failure, you executed the following as
the first command in the RMAN session:
RMAN> REPAIR FAILURE;
Which statement describes the consequence of the command?

A. The command performs the recovery and closes the failures.
B. The command only displays the advice and the RMAN script required for repair.
C. The command produces an error because the ADVISE FAILURE command has not been executed before the REPAIR FAILURE command
D. The command executes the RMAN script to repair the failure and removes the entry from the Automatic Diagnostic Repository (ADR).

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 37
You issued the following command on the temporary tablespace LMTEMP in your database:
SQL>ALTER TABLESPACE Imtemp SHRINK SPACE KEEP 20M;
Which requirement must be fulfilled for this command to succeed?

A. The tablespace must be locally managed.
B. The tablespace must have only one temp file.
C. The tablespace must be made nondefault and offline.
D. The tablespace can remain as the default but must have no active sort operations. Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 38
You are working as a DBA on the decision support system. There is a business requirement to track and store all transactions for at least three years for a few tables in the database. Automatic undo management is enabled in the database. Which configuration should you use to accomplish this task?
A. Enable Flashback Data Archive for the tables.
B. Enable supplemental logging for the database.
C. Specify undo retention guarantee for the database.
D. Create Flashback Data Archive on the tablespace on which the tables are stored.
E. Query V$UNDOSTAT to determine the amount of undo that will be generated and create an undo tablespace for that size.

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 39
Your organization decided to upgrade the existing Oracle 10g database to Oracle 11 g database in a multiprocessor environment. At the end of the upgrade, you observe that the DBA executes the following script:
SQL>@utlrp.sql
What is the significance of executing this script?
A. It performs parallel recompilation of only the stored PL/SQL code.
B. It performs sequential recompilation of only the stored PL/SQL code.
C. It performs parallel recompilation of any stored PL/SQL as well as Java code.
D. It performs sequential recompilation of any stored PL/SQL as well as Java code.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 40
Which two are the uses of the ASM metadata backup and restore (AMBR) feature? (Choose two.)
A. It can be used to backup all data on ASM disks.
B. It can be used to re-create the ASM disk group with its attributes.
C. It can be used to recover the damaged ASM disk group along with the data.
D. It can be used to gather information about a preexisting ASM disk group with disk paths, disk name, failure groups, attributes, templates, and alias directory structure.
Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 41
You executed the following PL/SQL block successfully:

VARIABLE tname VARCHAR2(20)

BEGIN
dbms_addm.insert_finding_directive (NULL, DIR_NAME=>’Detail CPU Usage1, FINDING_NAME=>’CPU
Usage1,
MIN_ACTIVE_SESSIONS=>0,MIN_PERC_IMPACT=>90);
:tname := ‘database ADDM task4’;
dbms_addm.analyze_db(:tname, 150,162);
END;
/
Then you executed the following command:

SQL> SELECT dbms_addm.get_report(:tname) FROM DUAL; The above command produces Automatic
Database Diagnostic Monitor (ADDM) analysis____.

A. with the CPU Usage finding if it is less than 90
B. without the CPU Usage finding if it is less than 90
C. with the CPU Usage finding for snapshots below 90
D. with the CPU Usage finding for snapshots not between 150 and 162

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 42
Which statements describe the capabilities of the DBMS_NETWORK_ACL_ADMIN package? (Choose all that apply.)
A. It can be used to allow the access privilege settings for users but not roles.
B. It can be used to allow the access privilege settings for users as well as roles.
C. It can be used to control the time interval for which the access privilege is available to a user.
D. It can be used to selectively restrict the access for each user in a database to different host computers.
E. It can be used to selectively restrict a user’s access to different applications in a specific host computer.

Correct Answer: BCD
QUESTION 43
To generate recommendations to improve the performance of a set of SQL queries in an application, you
execute the following blocks of code:

BEGIN
dbms_advisor.create_task(dbms_advisor.sqlaccess_advisor,lTASK1l); END;
/
BEGIN
dbms_advisor.set_task_parameter(lTASK1l,lANALYSIS_SCOPElllALLl);
dbms_advisor.set_task_parameter(lTASK1,,,MODE,llCOMPREHENSIVEl); END;
/
BEGIN
dbms_advisor.execute_task(‘TASK1’);
dbms_output.put_line(dbms_advisor.get_task_script(‘TASK11)); END;
/
The blocks of code execute successfully; however, you do not get the required outcome.
What could be the reason?

A. A template needs to be associated with the task.
B. A workload needs to be associated with the task.
C. The partial or complete workload scope needs to be associated with the task.
D. The type of structures (indexes, materialized views, or partitions) to be recommended need to be specified for the task.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 44
You are managing an Oracle Database 11 g instance with ASM storage. The ASM instance is down. To know the details of the disks in the DATA disk group ,, you issued the following ASMCMD command:
ASMCMD> lsdsk-l -d DATA
Which statement is true regarding the outcome of this command?
A. The command succeeds but it retrieves only the disk names.
B. The command produces an error because the ASM instance is down.
C. The command succeeds but it shows only the status of the ASM instance.
D. The command succeeds and retrieves information by scanning the disk headers based on an ASMJDISKSTRING value.
Correct Answer: D QUESTION 45
You plan to set up the Automatic Workload Repository (AWR) baseline metric thresholds for a moving window baseline. Which action would you take before performing this task?
A. Compute the baseline statistics.
B. Take an immediate AWR snapshot.
C. Decrease the window size for the baseline.
D. Decrease the expiration time for the baseline.

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 46
You need to create a partitioned table to store historical data and you Issued the following command:

CREATE TABLE purchas_interval
PARTITION BY RANGE (time_id)
INTERVAL (NUMTOYMINTERVAL(1 ,’month1)) STORE IN (tbs1 ,tbs2,tbs3)

PARTITION p1 VALUES LESS THAN(TO_DATE(‘1-1-2005I, ‘dd-mm-yyyy’)), PARTITION p2 VALUES
LESS THAN(TO_DATE(‘1-1-2007’, ‘dd-mm-yyyy’))) AS
SELECT *
FROM purchases
WHERE time_id < TO_DATE(‘1-1-2007’l’dd-mm-yyyy’);

What is the outcome of the above command?

A. It returns an error because the range partitions P1 and P2 should be of the same range.
B. It creates two range partitions (P1, P2). Within each range partition, it creates monthwise subpartitions.
C. It creates two range partitions of varying range. For data beyond ‘1-1-2007,’ it creates partitions with a width of |_| one month each
D. It returns an error because the number of tablespaces (TBS1 ,TBS2,TBS3)specified does not match the number of range partitions (P1 ,P2) specified.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 47
View the Exhibit to examine the Automatic Database Diagnostic Monitor (ADDM) tasks.

You executed the following commands:

SQL> VAR tname VARCHAR2(60);
SQL> BEGIN
:tname := lmy_instance_analysis_mode_task,;
DBMS_ADDM .INSERT_SEGMENT_DIRECTIVE(:tname ,lSg_directivel ,’SCOTT1); END;

Which statement describes the consequence?

A. The ADDM task is filtered to suppress the Segment Advisor suggestions for the SCOTT schema.
B. The ADDM task is filtered to produce the Segment Advisor suggestions for the SCOTT schema only.
C. The PL/SQL block produces an error because the my_instance_analysis_mode_task task has not been reset to its initial state.
D. All subsequent ADDM tasks including my_instance_analysis_mode_task are filtered to suppress the Segment Advisor suggestions for the SCOTT schema.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 48
Examine the following PL/SQL block:

DECLARE
my_plans plsjnteger;
BEGIN
My_plans := DBMS_SPM.LOAD_PLANS_FROM_CURSOR_CACHE (sql_Id => ? 9twu5t2dn5xd?;
END;

Which statement is true about the plan being loaded into the SQL plan baseline by the above command?
A. It is loaded with the FIXED status.
B. It is loaded with the ACCEPTED status.
C. It is not loaded with the ENABLED status.
D. It is not loaded with the ACCEPTED status.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 49
View the Exhibit exhibit1 to observe the maintenance window property.

View the Exhibit exhibits to examine the output of the query. Which two statements describe the conclusions? (Choose two.)
A. The window duration should be increased.
B. RESOURCE_PERCENTAGE should be increased.
C. RESOURCE_PERCENTAGE should be decreased.
D. The repeat time for the window should be decreased.

Correct Answer: AB QUESTION 50
Evaluate the following statements: CREATE TABLE purchase_orders
(pojd NUMBER(4),
po_date TIMESTAMP,
supplie_id NUMBER(6),
po_total NUMBER(8,2),
CONSTRAINT order_pk PRIMARY KEY(po_id))
PARTITION BY RANGE(po_date)
(PARTITION Q1 VALUES LESS THAN (TO_DATE(?1-apr-2007?d-mon-yyyy?),

PARTITION Q2 VALUES LESS THAN (TO_DATE(?1-jul-2007?d-mon-yyyy?),

PARTITION Q3 VALUES LESS THAN (TO_DATE(?1-oct-2007?d-mon-yyyy?),

PARTITION Q4 VALUES LESS THAN (TO_DATE(?1-jan-2008?d-mon-yyyy?));

CREATE TABLE purchase_order_items
(po_id NUMBER(4) NOT NULL, product_id NUMBER(6) NOT NULL, unit_price NUMBER(8,2),
quantity NUMBER(8),

CONSTRAINT po_items_fk
FOREIGN KEY (po_id) REFERENCES purchase_orders(po_id)) PARTITION BY REFERENCE
(po_items_fk);

What are the two consequences of the above statements? (Choose two.)

A. Partitions of PURCHASE_ORDER_ITEMS have system-generated names.
B. Both PURCHASEjDRDERS and PURCHASEJDRDERJTEMS tables are created with four partitions each.
C. Partitions of the PURCHASEJDRDERJTEMS table exist in the same tablespaces as the partitions of the PURCHASEJDRDERS table.
D. The PURCHASEJDRDERJTEMS table inherits the partitioning key from the parent table by automatically duplicating the key columns.
E. Partition maintenance operations performed on the PURCHASEJDRDERJTEMS table are automatically reflected in the PURCHASEjDRDERS table.
Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 51
Which statements are true regarding SecureFile LOBs? (Choose all that apply.)
A. The amount of undo retained is user controlled.
B. SecureFile LOBs can be used only for nonpartitioned tables.
C. Fragmentation is minimized by using variable-sized chunks dynamically.
D. SecureFile encryption allows for random reads and writes of the encrypted data.
E. It automatically detects duplicate LOB data and conserves space by storing only one copy.
Correct Answer: CD
QUESTION 52
View the Exhibit for some of the current parameter settings.

A user logs in to the HR schema and issues the following commands:
SQL> CREATE TABLE emp (empno NUMBER(3), enameVARCHAR2(20), sal NUMBER(8,2));
SQL> INSERT INTO emp(empno,ename) VALUES(1 /JAMES’); At this moment, a second user also logs in to the HR schema and issues the following command:
SQL> ALTER TABLE emp MODIFY sal NUMBER(10,2);
What happens in the above scenario?
A. A deadlock is created.
B. The second user’s command executes successfully.
C. The second user’s session immediately produces the resource busy error.
D. The second user’s session waits for a time period before producing the resource busy error.

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 53
You upgraded Oracle Database 10g to Oracle Database 11 g. How would this affect the existing users’ passwords?
A. All passwords automatically become case-sensitive.
B. All passwords remain non-case-sensitive till they are changed.
C. All passwords remain non-case-sensitive and cannot be changed.
D. All passwords remain non-case-sensitive until their password attribute in the profile is altered.

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 54
What recommendations does the SQL Access Advisor provide for optimizing SQL queries? (Choose all that apply.)
A. selection of SQL plan baselines
B. partitioning of tables and indexes
C. creation of index-organized tables
D. creation of bitmap, function-based, and B-tree indexes
E. optimization of materialized views for maximum query usage and fast refresh

Correct Answer: BDE QUESTION 55
Your system has been upgraded from Oracle Database 10g to Oracle Database 11g. You imported SQL Tuning Sets (STS) from the previous version. After changing the OPTIMIZER_FEATURE_ENABLE parameter to 10.2.0.4 and running the SQL Performance Analyzer, you observed performance regression for a few SQL statements.
What would you do with these SQL statements?
A. Set OPTIMIZER_USE_PLAN_BASELINES to FALSE to prevent the use of regressed plans.
B. Capture the plans from the previous version using STS and then load them into the stored outline.
C. Capture the plans from the previous version using STS and then load them into SQL Management Base (SMB).
D. Set OPTIMIZER_CAPTURE_SQL_PLAN_BASELINES to FALSE to prevent the plans from being loaded to the SQL plan baseline.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 56
You are managing Oracle Database 11 g with an ASM storage with high redundancy. The following
command was issued to drop the disks from the dga disk group after five hours:
ALTER DISKGROUP dga OFFLINE DISKS IN FAILGROUP f2 DROP AFTER 5H; Which statement is true
in this scenario?

A. It starts the ASM fast mirror resync.
B. It drops all disk paths from the dga disk group.
C. All the disks in the dga disk group would be OFFLINE and the DISK_REPAIR_TIME disk attribute would be set to 5 hours.
D. All the disks in the dga disk group in failure group f2 would be OFFLINE and the DISK_REPAIR_TIME disk attribute would be set to 5 hours.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 57
View the Exhibit to observe the error.

You receive this error regularly and have to shut down the database instance to overcome the error. What can the solution be to reduce the chance of this error in future, when implemented?
A. locking the SGA in memory
B. automatic memory management
C. increasing the value of SGA_MAX_SIZE
D. setting the PRE_PAGE_SGA parameter to TRUE

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 58
Which three statements are true regarding the functioning of the Autotask Background Process (ABP)? (Choose three.)
A. It translates tasks into jobs for execution by the scheduler
B. It creates jobs without considering the priorities associated with them.
C. It determines the list of jobs that must be created for each maintenance window.
D. It is spawned by the MMON background process at the start of the maintenance window.
E. It maintains a repository in the SYSTEM tablespace to store the history of the execution of all tasks.

Correct Answer: ACD QUESTION 59
You executed the following commands in an RMAN session for your database instance that has failures:
RMAN> LIST FAILURE;
After some time, you executed the following command in the same session:

RMAN> ADVISE FAILURE;

But there are new failures recorded in the Automatic Diagnostic Repository (ADR) after the execution of
the last LIST FAILURE command. Which statement is true for the above ADVISE FAILURE command in
this scenario?

A. It produces a warning for new failures before advising for CRITICAL and HIGH failures.
B. It ignores new failures and considers the failures listed in the last LIST FAILURE command only.
C. It produces an error with recommendation to run the LIST FAILURE command before the ADVISE FAILURE command.
D. It produces advice only for new failures and the failures listed in the last LIST FAILURE command are ignored.

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 60
View the Exhibit to examine the output for the V$DIAG_INFO view.

Which statements are true regarding the location of diagnostic traces? (Choose all that apply.)
A. The path to the location of the background as well as the foreground process trace files is /u01/oracle/diag/rdbms/orclbi/orclbi/trace.
B. The location of the text alert log file is /u01/oracle/diag/rdbms/orclbi/orclbi/alert.
C. The location of the trace file for the current session is/u01/oracle/diag/rdbms/orclbi/orclbi/trace.
D. The location of the XML-formatted version of the alert log is /u01/oracle/diag/rdbms/orclbi/orclbi/alert.

Correct Answer: ACD QUESTION 61
Evaluate the following command:
SQL>ALTER SYSTEM SET db_securefile = ‘IGNORE1;

What is the impact of this setting on the usage of Secure Files?
A. It forces Basic Files to be created even if the SECUREFILE option is specified to create the LOB.
B. It forces Secure Files to be created even if the BASICFILE option is specified to create the LOB.
C. It does not allow the creation of Secure Files and generates an error if the SECUREFILE option is specified to create the LOB.
D. It ignores the SECUREFILE option only if a Manual Segment Space Management tablespace is used and creates a Basic File.

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 62
You are managing an Oracle Database 11g ASM instance with a disk group dg01 having three disks. One of the disks in the disk group becomes unavailable because of power failure. You issued the following command to change the DISK_REPAIR_TIME attribute from 3.6 hours to 5 hours:
ALTER DISKGROUP dg01 SET ATTRIBUTE ‘disk_repair_time’ = ‘5h’;
To which disks in the disk group will the new value be applicable?
A. all disks in the disk group
B. all disks that are currently in OFFLINE mode
C. all disks that are not currently in OFFLINE mode
D. all disks in the disk group only if all of them are ONLINE

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 63
You issued the following RMAN command to back up the database: RMAN> RUN{ ALLOCATE CHANNEL c1 DEVICE TYPE Sbt BACKUP DATABASE TAG quarterly KEEP FOREVER RESTORE POINT FY06Q4;}
Which two statements are true regarding the backup performed? (Choose two.)
A. Archived redo log files are backed up along with data files
B. Only data files are backed up and a restore point named FY06Q4 is created.
C. Archived log files are backed up along with data files, and the archived log files are deleted.
D. The command creates a restore point named FY06Q4 to match the SCN at which this backup is consistent.
Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 64
View the Exhibit to examine a portion of the output from the VALIDATE DATABASE command.
Which statement is true about the block corruption detected by the command?
A. No action is taken except the output in the Exhibit.
B. The corruption is repaired by the command implicitly.
C. The failure is logged into the Automatic Diagnostic Repository (ADR).
D. The ADVISE FAILURE command is automatically called to display the repair script.

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 65
Which two kinds of failures make the Data Recovery Advisor (DRA) generate a manual checklist? (Choose two.)
A. failures because a data file is renamed by error
B. failures when no standby database is configured
C. failures that require no archive logs to be applied for recovery
D. failures due to loss of connectivity-for example, an unplugged disk cable

Correct Answer: AD QUESTION 66
Which two statements are true regarding the starting of the database instance using the following command? (Choose two.)
SQL>STARTUP UPGRADE A. It enables all system triggers.
B. It allows only SYSDBA connections.
C. It ensures that all job queues remain active during the upgrade process.
D. It sets system initialization parameters to specific values that are required to enable database upgrade scripts to be run.

Correct Answer: BD

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QUESTION 20
In WLST, you enter the shutdown () command with no arguments. Which statement is true in this case?
A. The server you are connected to will shut down.
B. The command does a “Force” shutdown.
C. The command blocks user interaction.
D. The command has timeout of 30,000 milliseconds.
Correct Answer: A Explanation Explanation/Reference:

The WLST life cycle shutdown command gracefully shuts down a running server instance or cluster.
Reference: WebLogic Scripting Tool ,Life Cycle Commands
QUESTION 21
Which three statements are true about WebLogic users and groups?
A. A user is associated with a single security provider.
B. A user can be a member of several groups.
C. A group can contain other groups.
D. A group consists of a name and a password.
E. A group is associated with multiple security providers.
F. Both users and groups are assigned a keystore.

Correct Answer: ABC Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
B: For efficient security management, BEA recommends adding users to groups. A group is a collection of users who usually have something in common, such as
working in the same department in a company.

C: Example of group nesting:
Every user is a member of the everyone group.
The users group is nested within the everyone group.

Note: Security Providers – are modules that provide security service to application to protect Weblogic resource.
Types of security providers in WebLogic Server are
Authentication Provider, Authorization Provider, Auditing Providers, Credential Mapping Provider, Identity Asser- tion Provider, Principal Validation Provider,
Adjudication Providers, Role Mapping Providers, Certificate Lookup and Validation Providers, Keystore Providers and Realm Adapter providers

Incorrect answers:

D: There is no password for a group.
F: A keystore is a mechanism designed to store password-protected store private keys and trusted CA certificates. In the WebLogic Server security architecture, the WebLogic Keystore provider is used to access keystores. You cannot use a custom Keystore provider with WebLogic Server.
References: Securing WebLogic Resources, Users, Groups, And Security Roles
QUESTION 22
Your production JMS server and/or its consumers are not able to handle the incoming message workload. The number of messages on the server never stabilizes
and the server eventually becomes overload.
Which JMS server attribute will best help prevent the JMS server from being overloaded by producers?

A. Producer Pause High
B. Messages Threshold High
C. Reconnect Polity
D. Paging Directory
E. Pool Maximum Capacity

Correct Answer: B Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
JMS Configuration option ‘ Messages Threshold High’:
The upper threshold (number of messages stored in this JMS server) that triggers flow control and logging events. A value of -1 disables the events for this JMS
server. If the number of messages exceeds this threshold, the triggered events are:
Log Messages

-A message is logged on the server indicating a high threshold condition. Flow Control
-If flow control is enabled, the JMS server becomes armed and instructs producers to begin decreasing their message flow.
Reference: Administration Console Online Help, JMS Server: Configuration: Thresholds and Quotas
QUESTION 23
Which three statements are true about WebLogic clusters?
A. Clusters provide clients with transparent failover.
B. EJB applications can be targeted to an entire cluster.
C. All cluster members must bind to the same port number.
D. Cluster members replicate application data by using heartbeats.
E. Cluster members can be associated with one or more domains.
F. Web applications require a proxy in order to be used in a cluster.

Correct Answer: ABC Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
A: If an object is clustered, failover and load balancing for that object is available. In a WebLogic Server cluster, application processing can continue when a server instance fails. You “cluster” application components by deploying them on multiple server instances in the cluster–so, if a server instance on which a component is running fails, another server instance on which that component is deployed can continue application processing.
The choice to cluster WebLogic Server instances is transparent to application developers and clients.
B: A clustered application or application component is one that is available on multiple WebLogic Server instances in a cluster. If an object is clustered, failover and load balancing for that object is available. Deploy objects homogeneously–to every server instance in your cluster –to simplify cluster administration, maintenance, and troubleshooting.
Web applications can consist of different types of objects, including Enterprise Java Beans (EJBs), servlets, and Java Server Pages (JSPs).
Note: Load balancing and failover for EJBs and RMI objects is handled using replica-aware stubs, which can locate instances of the object throughout the cluster.
C: Cluster Multicast Address and Port
Identify the address and port you will dedicate to multicast communications for your cluster.

Incorrect answers:
D: Cluster heartbeats– Each WebLogic Server instance in a cluster uses multicast to broadcast regular “heartbeat” messages that advertise its availability. By monitoring heartbeat messages, server instances in a cluster determine when a server instance has failed.
E: All server instances in a cluster must reside in the same domain; you cannot “split” a cluster over multiple domains. Similarly, you cannot share a configured resource or subsystem between domains.
F: Proxy might be needed depending how you set up the architecture, but a proxy is not required for web applications.
Reference: Using WebLogic Server Clusters , Understanding WebLogic Server Clustering
QUESTION 24
Which three statements are true when an Administration Server is compared to a managed server?
A. A domain must have at least one of each type of server.
B. Administration Server keeps a domain log, but a Managed Server does not.
C. A Managed Server keeps a server log, but an Administration Server does not.
D. When a Managed Server comes up, it asks its Administration Server for the latest configuration.
E. An Administration Server manages the domain configuration.
F. JEE applications are deployed only to a Managed Server.

Correct Answer: DEF Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
D: When a Managed Server starts, it contacts the Administration Server to retrieve its configuration information. If a Managed Server is unable to connect to the specified Administration Server during startup, it can retrieve its configuration directly by reading a copy of the config.xml file and other files located on the Managed Server’s own file system.
E: One instance of WebLogic Server in each domain acts as an Administration Server. The Administration Server provides a central point for managing a WebLogic Server domain.
F: For a typical production system, BEA recommends that you deploy your applications only on Managed Servers. This practice allows you to dedicate the Administration Server to configuration and monitoring of the domain, while one or more Managed Servers service your applications.
Incorrect answers:
A: In a domain with only a single WebLogic Server instance, that server functions both as Administration Server and Managed Server.
B, C: Many WebLogic Server operations generate logs of their activity. Each server has its own log as well as a standard HTTP access log. These log files can be
configured and used in a variety of ways to monitor the health and activity of your servers and applications.

Reference: Overview of WebLogic Server System Administration
QUESTION 25
Which three tasks can be performed by the Node manager?
A. Start a server.
B. Define a node server.
C. Host the Node Manager console.
D. Automatically restart a failed server.
E. Kill a failed application on a server.
F. Kill the process of a server that did not shut down properly.

Correct Answer: ABD Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Node Manager enables you to perform these tasks:
*
Start and stop remote Managed Servers. (A)

*
Monitor the self-reported health of Managed Servers and automatically kill server instances whose health state is “failed”.

*
Automatically restart Managed Servers that have the “failed” health state, or have shut down unexpectedly due to a system crash or reboot. (D)
QUESTION 26
You have successfully created a global data source and connection pool via the administration console.
In which directory relative to the domain will this new data source and connection pool definition located?
A. in a directory named config/dataSource
B. in a directory named config/connPool
C. in a directory named config/resources
D. in a directory named config/jdbc
E. in a directory named config

Correct Answer: D Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
When you create a JDBC resource (data source or multi data source) using the Administration Console or using the WebLogic Scripting Tool (WLST), WebLogic Server creates a JDBC module in the config/jdbc subdirectory of the domain directory, and adds a reference to the module in the domain’s config.xml file.
Reference: Configuring WebLogic JDBC Resources
QUESTION 27
What is the maximum number of targets (standard or migrate) that you can configure for a JMS server?
A. 0
B. 1
C. 2
D. No limit

Correct Answer: D Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
To configure the migratable target servers for JMS-related service migration:
1.
If you have not already done so, in the Change Center of the Administration Console, click Lock & Edit (see Use the Change Center).

2.
In the Domain Structure tree, expand Environment, then select Migratable Targets.

3.
On the Summary of Migratable Targets page, click New.
On the Create a new Migratable Target page:
In Name, enter a name for the migratable target.
In Cluster, select a configured cluster for the migratable target.

Reference: Configure migratable targets for JMS-related services
QUESTION 28
You are deploying a web application called inventory.war. It has been installed and has the Stat* “Prepared.” It is targeted to the Managed Server named managed1. The web application’s context route is /inventory and the starting page is index.jsp
However, you want to test the application before allowing end users access to it. In the administration console, you select inventory-war, and then select Start and “Servicing only administration requests.
In your web browser, you need to enter a host and port followed by /inventory/index.jsp. What host and port would you use?
A. managed, host and port
B. Administration Server host and port
C. Managed1 host and Administration port
D. Administration Server host and Administration port

Correct Answer: D Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Servicing only administrative requests: Specifies that WebLogic Server make the application available in Administration Mode only. While in Administration mode, the application can be accessed only by internal clients through a configured Administration port.
Reference: Oracle Fusion Middleware Oracle WebLogic Server Administration Console Online Help 11g Release 1, A weblogic.Deployer Command-Line Reference
QUESTION 29
You deployed a simple web application WAR by using the administration console. Its state is currently “Active.”
In the administration console, under Configuration of the application, you change some deployment descriptor values.
What happens when you save such changes?
A. The changes are in memory and temporary
B. This is not possible because changes cannot be made to an “Active” application.
C. You are prompted to select a location for a new deployment plan where the changes will be stored.
D. The archive is opened and new versions of the deployment descriptors are placed within it.

Correct Answer: C Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Note: You can use the Administration Console to configure selected deployment descriptor element values for an EJB that is deployed as an exploded application. To configure editable deployment descriptor values for an EJB that is deployed as an exploded application:
1.
If you have not already done so, in the Change Center of the Administration Console, click Lock & Edit (see Use the Change Center).

2.
In the left pane of the Administration Console, select Deployments.

3.
In the right pane, click the desired EJB module.

4.
Select the Configuration > General tab.
Selected deployment descriptor elements for the EJB are listed.
5.
Enter new values for the elements you want change, and click Save.

6.
To activate these changes, in the Change Center of the Administration Console, click Activate Changes.
Not all changes take effect immediately–some require a restart
Reference: Oracle Fusion Middleware Oracle WebLogic Server Administration Console Online Help 11g Release 1, Configure deployment descriptor values
QUESTION 30
Your server includes an application that uses a generic JDBC data source to connect to a database. However, the network connection between the server and the database is not 100% reliable.
You wish to avoid scenarios in which the application fails due to a failed JDBC connection. Identify two data source attributes to help accomplish this.
A. Statement Cache
B. Pool Reserve Mode
C. Test Table Name
D. Test Connection Mode
E. Test Connections on Reserve

Correct Answer: AE Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
A: Each connection in a data source has its own individual cache of prepared and callable statements used on the connection. However, you configure statement cache options per data source. That is, the statement cache for each connection in a data source uses the statement cache options specified for the data source, but each connection caches it’s own statements.
E: When Test Connections On Reserve is enabled, when your application requests a connection from the data source, WebLogic Server tests the connection using the query specified in Test Table Name before giving the connection to the application.
Testing reserved connections can cause a delay in satisfying connection requests, but it makes sure that the connection is viable when the application gets the connection.
Reference: Oracle Fusion Middleware Oracle WebLogic Server Administration Console Online Help 11g Release 1, Configuring JDBC Data Sources http://docs.oracle.com/cd/E12839_01/web.1111/e13737/jdbc_datasources.htm#i1192665
QUESTION 31
You have selected Configuration Archive Enabled for the domain. When a configuration change and activated, where is the previous version of the configuration archived?
A. in the Oracle database
B. in the config directory
C. in the pending directory
D. in the console-ext directory
E. in the configArchive directory

Correct Answer: E Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
You can configure WebLogic Server to make backup copies of the configuration files. This facilitates recovery in cases where configuration changes need to be reversed or the unlikely case that configuration files become corrupted. When the Administration Server starts up, it saves a JAR file named config-booted.jar that contains the configuration files. When you make changes to the configuration files, the old files are saved in the configArchive directory under the domain directory, in a JAR file with a sequentially-numbered name like config-1.jar. Reference: Understanding Domain Configuration, Configuration File Archiving http:// docs.oracle.com/cd/E12840_01/wls/docs103/domain_config/config_files.html
QUESTION 32
When a typical application utilizes a JDBC data source, the process involves several steps. Identify three of these steps.
A. The application returns the connection to the data source.
B. The application looks up the data source using the JNDI name.
C. The application tests the connection to verify the database’s availability.
D. The application adds a new connection to the data source if none are available.
E. The application requests a connection from the data source.

Correct Answer: BDE Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Applications look up the data source on the JNDI tree or in the local application context (B) and then reserve a database connection with the getConnection (E) method. Data sources and their connection pools provide connection management processes that help keep your system running and performant.
B: JNDI Name – Enter the JNDI path to where this JDBC data source will be bound. Applications look up the data source on the JNDI tree by this name when reserving a connection.
Note: If you’ve done any work with JDBC DataSources in a Web application, you already understand the basic process: create an initial JNDI (Java Naming and Directory Interface) context, then use the context to perform a “lookup” to retrieve your DataSource.
Incorrect answers:
C: The test is optional and if it is executed by weblogic before releasing the connection to the application
Reference: Administration Console Online Help, Create JDBC data sources http://docs.oracle.com/cd/E15051_01/wls/docs103/ConsoleHelp/taskhelp/jdbc/ jdbc_datasources/ CreateDataSources.html
QUESTION 33
As an Oracle WebLogic Server administrator, you are given an EAR file application to deploy. Identity three reasons for creating an EAR file first.
A. After the .ear file has been deployed, the developer will not have to ask for your assistance to deploy it again.
B. The EAR file is created to avoid namespace clashes in the Java code.
C. The EAR file can contain multiple WAR, EAR, and other resources to easily bundle together.
D. The EAR file is required if you are deploying an application.
E. The EAR file can declare application-wide security roles definitions.

Correct Answer: ABE Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
E: An EARfile contains:

* Web module
A WAR file containing the view logics like JSPs, Servlets, Html contents. Every web module must have one Web Deployment descriptor placed inside “WEB-INF/
web.xml”

web.xml is a J2EE standard deployment descriptor. Among other settings, it has a set of elements for configuring security for the web application.
Note:
*
An EAR file provides a convenient way to bundle up all pieces of a J2EE application. It may contain Java Module, WAR Module or an EJB Jar module. An EAR can contain at least any one of these modules. EAR may contain more Modules as well.

*
To bring your portal online in a production environment, it is first necessary to prepare your portal application. Typical preparation steps include modifying deployment descriptors for the product, building the Enterprise archive (EAR) with all its pre-compiled classes, and deciding if you want to compress that EAR into an archive or leave it exploded.
Reference: Preparing and Deploying the EAR File
QUESTION 34
Identify three types of JMS resources that can be configured as a part of a JMS module.
A. JMS Distributed Destination
B. JMS Connection Factory
C. JMS Data Source
D. JMS Destination
E. JMS Server

Correct Answer: ABD Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Configurable JMS Resources in Modules
The following configuration resources are defined as part of a system module or an application module:

*
Distributed destinations (A, D)

*
Connection factories (B)

*
Queue and topic destinations

*
Templates

*
Quota

*
Foreign servers

*
MS store-and-forward (SAF) configuration items

All other JMS environment-related resources must be configured by the administrator as domain configuration resources. This includes:

*
JMS servers required (not E)

*
Store-and-Forward agents (optional)

*
Path service (optional)

*
Messaging bridges (optional)

*
Persistent stores (optional)
Reference: Configuring And Managing WebLogic JMS, Configurable JMS Resources in Modules
QUESTION 35
A managed server, myserver1, has a boot.properties file in the security directory. It was started with the startManageWeblogic.sh script(.cmd in windows) and his boot.properties file was used for its startup credentials.
You just used the administration console to change all administrator passwords. To continue using boot.properties, what can you do?
A. This is not possible. A boot.properties file can be used only with the Administration Server.
B. Delete boot.properties. In the administration console, under the myserver configuration, select Generate Boot Identity file.
C. You need not do anything- The password in boot .properties was automatically updated by administration console when you changed the password.
D. Edit boot.propetties. Type over the encrypted password with the new password in clear text. The next time myserver1 is started, it will encrypt the password in the file.
E. Delete boot .properties. Use the WLST encrypt () command to create a new boot.properties file containing the new password. Copy that file into the security directory of myserver1

Correct Answer: D Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
If you install the WebLogic Server Examples component, the default user weblogic is created that has permission to start and stop WebLogic Server. The default password is welcome1. If you change the password of the weblogic user, WebLogic Server does not automatically update this password in the boot.properties file, which is located in the DOMAIN_NAME/servers/AdminServer/security directory.
If you change the password for user weblogic, you can use either of the following workarounds so that you can continue to boot a WebLogic Server instance via that username and its new password:
*
Remove the boot.properties file. Subsequently each time you start WebLogic Server, you are prompted for the username and password. The changed password for the weblogic user will be accepted.

*
Modify the existing boot.properties file, changing the username and password as follows:
username=weblogic password=welcome1 Subsequently during the server startup process, the boot.properties file is encrypted again.
Reference: Oracle Fusion Middleware Oracle WebLogic Server Administration Console Online Help 11g Release 1, Limitation Regarding User weblogic http://docs.oracle.com/cd/E15523_01/web.1111/e13708/overview.htm
QUESTION 36
Refer to the Exhibit.

Which three statements are true about using the administration console to shut down a server?
A. The configuration must first be locked.
B. The choice “Force Shutdown Now” drops in-work requests.
C. Both the choices, “When work completes” and “Force Shutdown Now”, reject any new requests.
D. The choice “When work completes” allows in work requests to complete before the server down.
E. The administration console can be used to shut down Managed Servers, such as managed not the Administration Server.

Correct Answer: BCD Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
B: select Force Shutdown Now to stop the server immediately without completing ongoing tasks.
D: Select When Work Completes to gracefully shut down the server A graceful shutdown gives WebLogic Server subsystems time to complete certain application
processing currently in progress.
Screenshot:
Incorrect answers:
A: You can shutdown a managed server without selecting “lock & edit”.
E: The Administration server can also be shutdown.
QUESTION 37
Your company is developing batch order system that utilities JMS. Each order message that is created will be broadcasted to and consumed by several order processing and billing applications.
As part of configuring the domain that will support this system, which type of JMS destination resource should you create?
A. Grid
B. Queue
C. Topic
D. Batch
E. Client

Correct Answer: C Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
A JMS destination identifies a queue (point-to-point) or topic (publish/subscribe) resource within a JMS module.
A JMS topic identifies a publish/subscribe destination type for a JMS server. Topics are used for asynchronous peer communications. A message delivered to a
topic is distributed to all consumers that are subscribed to that topic.

Reference: Configuring Basic JMS System Resources,Queue and Topic Destination Configuration

QUESTION 38
You monitor a running JDBC data source with the console and note the following values:
Current Capacity = 10 Current Capacity High Count = 20
Identify two plausible explanations for these metrics.
A. The pool size has increased.
B. The pool size has decreased.
C. The workload was higher than it is now.
D. The workload was lower than it is now.
E. The statement cache size is 10.
F. The statement cache size is 20.

Correct Answer: BC Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
The pool size has decreased from a maximum 20 to 10.
The workload has been 20. Now it is 10. The workload was higher.

Note: Current Capacity: The current count of JDBC connections in the connection pool in the data source.
Current Capacity High Count: Highest number of database connections available or in use (current capacity) in this instance of the data source since the data
source was deployed.

Note:
Incorrect answers:
E, F: The statement cache deals with statements. Current capacity and Current Capacity High Count deals with connections.
Statement Cache Size shows the total number of statements to cache for each connection in each instance of the data source. WebLogic Server can reuse
statements in the cache without reloading the statements, which can increase server performance. Each connection in the connection pool has its own cache of
statements.

Reference: Administration Console Online Help, JDBC Data Source: Monitoring: Statistics

QUESTION 39
Identify the server attributes that you must configure to communicate with the server via HTTPS.
A. SSL Listen Address
B. SSL listen Port
C. SSL Listen Port Enabled
D. Production Mode Enabled
E. Startup Mode

Correct Answer: B Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Enabling SSL under WLS 10.3
See step 6) below.

Steps to configure WLS for SSL:
1) Open the WLS console
2) Select from the Domain Structure -> (your domain) -> Environment -> Servers
3) Select the server from the Summary of Servers page you wish to configure for SSL.
4) Under the Settings for (server name) page, select the Configuration tab, then General tab (the defaults).
5) If WLS is running in production mode, select the Lock & Edit button.
6) Select the SSL Listen Port Enabled checkbox, and enter your preferred port in the SSL Listen Port.
7) Press the Save button.
8) If WLS is running in production mode, select the Release Configuration button.

Reference: Enabling SSL and disabling non-SSL under WLS 10.3

QUESTION 40
You are creating a new domain by using the Configuration Wizard, based solely on the Basic WebLogic Server Domain product (no template). Select three resources that you can create while still in the Configuration Wizard.
A. Administration Server
B. Managed Server
C. Data Server
D. JMS Server
E. Cluster
F. Domain Log

Correct Answer: ABE Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
A: The Configure the Administration Server window prompts you to define the configuration information for the Administration Server, including: Administration Server name Listen address Nonsecure and secure (optional) listen ports
B: The Configure Managed Servers window prompts you to define the configuration information for one or more Managed Servers, including: Managed Server name Listen address Nonsecure and secure (optional) listen ports
E: The Configure Clusters window prompts you to define the configuration information for one or more clusters, including: Cluster name Multicast address and port Cluster address that identifies the Managed Servers in the cluster Frontend host if you are using a proxy server or a firewall. Frontend HTTP port if you are using a proxy server or a firewall. Reference: To create a custom domain with Managed Servers, a cluster, and application services http://docs.oracle.com/cd/E13196_01/ platform/docs81/confgwiz/tutorials.html
QUESTION 41
Which three statements are true about the administration console?
A. The administration console cannot be disabled.
B. The context path of the administration console may be changed.
C. The administration console may be extended.
D. If a domain is in Development Mode, the administration console no longer requires an administration-level user when logging in.
E. If a domain is in Production Mode, access to the administration console must be made through secure port.
F. If the domain’s Administration Port is enabled, access to the administration console must be made only through that port.

Correct Answer: BCF Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
B: The Console Context Path is an advance configuration option. The context path that you want to use in URLs that specify the Administration Console. Note: Create a new WebLogic Server domain based on a template. Templates allow you to re-create an existing do- main for use in another context, such as migrating a domain containing an application under development to a pro- duction environment.
C: An Administration Console extension is a WAR file that contains the resources for a section of a WebLogic Portal Web application. When you deploy the extension, the Administration Console creates an in-memory union of the files and directories in its WAR file with the files and directories in the extension WAR file. Once the extension has been deployed, it is a full member of the Administration Console: it is secured by the WebLogic Server security realm, it can navigate to other sections of the Administration Console, and if the extension modifies WebLogic Server resources, it participates in the change control process.
Incorrect answers:
A: Exposing the console in your production environment might be security issue. In those cases you can either dis- able the console or hide it. Needless to say if you disable the console then your only option is to depend on com- mand-line and scripting tools for any other administration activity or to even enable the console back. But hiding will provide a level or security.
To disable the console:
In the admin console navigate to –> General –> Advanced Options –> Console Enabled. De-select that option to disable console (restart required).
To hide the cosole:

E: Access through a secure port is recommended, but not required:
The administration port requires all communication to be secured using SSL. By default, all servers in a do- main use demonstration certificate files for SSL, but
these certificates are not appropriate for a production environment.

Reference: Administration Console Online Help, Advanced Configuration Options Reference: Extending the Administration Console for Oracle WebLogic Server 11g Release 1
QUESTION 42
Which three statements are true about deployment plans?
A. A plan is an XML file.
B. A plan is packaged within an application archive.
C. You can generate a new plan with the administration console.
D. A plan is a required to deploy EJB applications and modules.
E. A plan may override values in an application’s deployment descriptors.
F. A single application deployment can be associated with multiple plans.

Correct Answer: ACE Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
A: A deployment plan is an XML document that defines an application’s WebLogic Server deployment configuration for a specific WebLogic Server environment.
C: The Administration Console updates or creates new deployment plans as necessary when you change configuration properties for an installed application.
E: A deployment plan can apply changes to deployment properties stored in the application’s existing WebLogic Server deployment descriptors. Incorrect answers:
B: A deployment plan resides outside of an application’s archive file.
Reference: Overview of WebLogic Server Application Development, Deployment Plans
QUESTION 43
All the servers in your domain are running.
After you connect to the Administration Server in WLST you run the following command, which completes with no error:
Progress = deploy (appName = `salesapp’, path = `sales.war’, target = managed1, managed2′, planpath = `plan.xml’)
Which two statements are true?
A. The web application is now “Active.”
B. The command creates new deployment plan called plan.xml.
C. In the administration console, the name of this deployment is sales.war.
D. The web application has been targeted to managed1, managed2, and the Administration Server.
E. You can view the status of the deployment by sending a message to the object named progress.

Correct Answer: AE Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
They deploy command is used to deploy an application to a WebLogic Server instance. (A) The deploy command returns a WLSTProgress object that you can
access to check the status of the command. (E)

Note:
Syntax
deploy(appName, path, [targets], [stageMode], [planPath], [options])

*
appName
Name of the application or standalone J2EE module to be deployed.
*
targets
Optional. Comma-separated list of the target. Each target may be qualified with a J2EE module name (for example, [email protected]) enabling you to deploy
different modules of the application archive on different servers. This argument defaults to the server to which WLST is currently connected.

Note 2: The WebLogic Scripting Tool (WLST) is a command-line scripting interface that system administrators and operators use to monitor and manage WebLogic Server instances and domains.
Incorrect answers:
B: PlanPath is not created by default. The option createPlan is a Boolean value indicating that user would like to create a default plan. This option defaults to false.

* planPath Optional. Name of the deployment plan file. The filename can be absolute or relative to the application directory. This argument defaults to the plan/
plan.xml file in the application directory, if one exists.

C: sales.war is not the name of the deployment.

* path
Name of the application directory, archive file, or root of the exploded archive directory to be deployed.

Reference: WebLogic Scripting Tool, WLST Command and Variable Reference
QUESTION 44
Your task is to create and start a managed server on a “remote” computer (a computer other than the one where the domain has been created and the Administration server is currently running).
So far you have:
1.
Created the managed server, called startmanaged1, in the administration console

2.
Created a managed server” JAR file template by using the pack command or, the Administration server computer.
Which order of steps on the remote computer will successfully finish your task?
A. 3. Copy the JAR file from the Administration Server computer.
4.
Run the unpack command on the JAR file.

5.
In the new domain folder created by the command, start managed: by using the startManagedWebLogic. sh script (. cmd in Windows), which is found under its bin directory
B. 3. Install WebLogic Server.
4.
Copy the JAR file from the Administration Server computer.

5.
Run the unpack command on the JAR file.

6.
In the administration console, under the Control tab, select managed1 and click the Start button.
C. 3. Install WebLogic Server.
4.
Copy the JAR file from the Administration Server computer.

5.
Run the unpack command on the JAR file.

6.
In the new domain folder created by the command, start managed1 by using the Logic. sh script (. cmd in Windows), which is found under its bin directory.
D. 3. Install WebLogic Server.
4.
Copy the JAR file from the Administration Server computer.

5.
Run the unpack command on the JAR file.

6.
In the new domain folder created by the command, startmanaged1 by using the startManagedWeblogic.sh script (. cmd in Windows), which is found under its bin directory.

Correct Answer: D Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Creating a Managed Server on a Remote Machine
(Step 3) * Install WebLogic Server on the machines on which you want to host Managed Servers for the WebLogic domain.

*
Establish a session with the remote machine. You may use any valid method, such as telnet, to do so. Step 4:

*
Copy the Managed Server template to the remote machine.

*
On the remote machine, navigate to the WLS_HOME\common\bin directory.

*
(Step 5) Run the following command:
unpack -domain=domain -template=template.jar
Starting Managed Servers on a Remote Machine
*
Start the Administration Server for the WebLogic domain

*
On the remote machine, navigate to the directory for the WebLogic domain that you created *(Step 6) Start the Managed Server on the remote machine. On a Windows system, run one of the following commands at the DOS prompt: startmy_managed_server startManagedWebLogic my_managed_server admin-url On a UNIX system, run one of the following commands: ./startmy_managed_server.sh ./startManagedWebLogic.sh my_managed_server admin-url Reference: Oracle Fusion Middleware Oracle WebLogic Server Administration Console Online Help 11g Release 1, Reference: Creating and Starting a Managed Server on a Remote Machine
QUESTION 45
Identify three attributes of a WebLogic cluster.
A. Listen Address
B. Cluster Address
C. Cluster Factory
D. Messaging Mode
E. Servers
F. Targets

Correct Answer: BDE Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
WebLogic Cluster Attributes includes:
B: * ClusterAddress Defines the address to be used by clients to connect to this cluster. This address may be either a DNS host name that maps to multiple IP addresses or a comma separated list of single address host names or IP addresses. If network channels are configured, it is possible to set the cluster address on a per channel basis.
D: The Message Mode of a cluster can be either Unicast or multicast.
E: Managed Servers are included in a WebLogic cluster.
Note: The config.xml file is an XML document that describes the configuration of a WebLogic Server domain. config.xml consists of a series of XML elements. The Domain element is the top- level element, and all elements in the Domain descend from the Domain element. The Domain element includes child elements, such as the Server, Cluster, and Application elements. These child elements may have children of their own. For example, the Server element includes the child elements WebServer, SSL and Log. The Application element includes the child elements EJBComponent and WebAppComponent.
Each element has one or more configurable attributes. An attribute defined in config.dtd has a corresponding attribute in the configuration API. For example, the Server element has a ListenPort attribute, and likewise, the weblogic.management.configuration.ServerMBean has a ListenPort attribute. Configurable attributes are readable and writable, that is, ServerMBean has a getListenPort and a setListenPort method.
Reference: WebLogic Server Configuration Reference, Cluster attributes http://docs.oracle.com/cd/E13222_01/wls/docs81/config_xml/Cluster.html#447012
QUESTION 46
A client accesses a web application named companystore that is running on WebLogic Server. After adding several items to the shopping cart, the host server crashes. The client is automatically redirected to another server by a proxy, but the shopping cart is now empty. Which WebLogic Server feature would you enable to remedy this situation?
A. Application Persistence
B. Message Persistence
C. Session Replication
D. Dynamic Failover
E. Stateful Pooling

Correct Answer: C Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
In order for a cluster to provide high availability it must be able to recover from service failures. In clusters that utilize Web servers with WebLogic proxy plug-ins, the proxy plug-in handles failover transparently to the client. If a server fails, the plug-in locates the replicated HTTP session state on a secondary server and redirects the client’s request accordingly.
Reference: Using WebLogic Server Clusters, Failover and Replication in a Cluster
QUESTION 47
Which three statements are true about the Change Center in administration console?
A. The Change Center has a link to view the changes made so far.
B. The Change Center is available only in a Production Mode domain.
C. The Change Center has a link to view any servers that need to be restarted.
D. After activating the changes to a server’s configuration, you must always restart that server.
E. In a Development Mode domain, the configuration lock can be acquired automatically.
F. Changes must always be activated before they can be undone.

Correct Answer: ACE Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
A: You can view any changes that you have saved, but not yet activated, by clicking the View Changes and Restarts link in the Change Center.
C: The View Changes and Restarts link presents two tabs, Change List and Restart Checklist:
*
The Change List tab presents all changes that have been saved, but not yet activated.

*
The Restart Checklist lists all servers for which non-dynamic changes have been activated, but which require restarts before the changes become effective.
Incorrect:
D: is wrong because dynamic changes usually don’t require a restart if that is all that was changed. If it were mix of dynamic and non-dynamic changes it would require a restart.
F: is wrong because in production mode the change center has the “undo all changes” button so you don’t have to activate the changes before you undo them.
Reference: Using the Change Center http://docs.oracle.com/cd/E13222_01/wls/docs103/intro/console.html#wp1122447
QUESTION 48
Identify two methods for utilizing WebLogic Server’s production redeployment feature.
A. Specify a version identifier when deploying the application.
B. Include a version identifier in the application’s manifest file.
C. Provide a version identifier when running the Plan Generator tool.
D. Include a unique context root in the application’s descriptor files.

Correct Answer: AB Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
A: If you are testing the production redeployment feature, or you want to use production redeployment with an application that does not include a version string in the manifest file, specify a unique version string by using the -appversion option when deploying or redeploying an application
B: To assign a version identifier to an application, BEA recommends that you store a unique version string directly in the MANIFEST.MF file of the EAR or WAR being deployed.
Reference: Redeploying Applications in a Production Environment, Specifying an application version identifier http://docs.oracle.com/cd/E11035_01/wls100/deployment/redeploy.html#wp1020276
QUESTION 49
Identify four attributes of a JDBC data source.
A. URL
B. Targets
C. JNDI Name
D. Delivery Mode
E. Database Driver
F. Server Log

Correct Answer: ABCE Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
A: When creating a JDBC data source using the Administration Console, you are prompted to select a JDBC driver. The Administration Console provides the driver class name and helps you construct the URL as required by the driver.
B: JDBC Data Source: Targets. Use this page to select the servers or clusters on which you would like to deploy this JDBC data source.
C: JNDI Name, The JNDI path to where this data source is bound. By default, the JNDI name is the name of the data source.
E: When deciding which JDBC driver to use to connect to a database, you should try drivers from various vendors in your environment. In general, JDBC driver performance is dependent on many factors, especially the SQL code used in applications and the JDBC driver implementation.
Reference: Configuring and Managing WebLogic JDBC, Understanding JDBC Data Sources
QUESTION 50
Identify two reasons for defining machines and assigning servers to them in Weblogic Server.
A. A machine can be the proxy to a cluster.
B. A machine definition is required to configure the Node Manager.
C. To reference an instance of WebLogic Server, you must know its machine and port.
D. Machine is a required organizational unit. A domain contains machines and machines contain servers.
E. WebLogic Server uses server machine assignments to help it choose servers in a cluster on which to replicate session state.
F. The machine’s Cluster Weight attribute may be used by load balancers to help them determine how often to send requests to servers assigned to that machine.

Correct Answer: BE Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
B: The Administration Server uses the machine definition in conjunction with the Node Manager application to start remote WebLogic Server instances.
E: By default, WebLogic Server attempts to create session state replicas on a different machine than the one that hosts the primary session state. You can further control where secondary states are placed using replication groups. A replication group is a preferred list of clustered servers to be used for storing session state replicas. Using the WebLogic Server Console, you can define unique machine names that will host individual server instances. These machine names can be associated with new WebLogic Server instances to identify where the servers reside in your system. Machine names are generally used to indicate servers that run on the same machine.
Reference: Administration Console Online Help, Machines Reference: Failover and Replication in a Cluster
QUESTION 51
The computer that the Administration Server was running on has crashed and cannot be restarted. Which three steps are required to bring up the Administration Server on the backup computer?
A. Move the crashed computer’s IP address to the backup computer.
B. Have WebLoqic Server installed on the backup computer.
C. Have a copy of the configuration and security files of the domain on the backup computer.
D. Shut down the managed servers of the domain.
E. Start the Administration Server on the backup computer.

Correct Answer: BCE Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
If a machine crash prevents you from restarting the Administration Server on the same machine, you can recover management of the running Managed Servers as follows:
(B) 1. Install the WebLogic Server software on the new administration machine (if this has not already been done).
2. Make your application files available to the new Administration Server by copying them from backups or by using a shared disk. Your application files should be available in the same relative location on the new file system as on the file system of the original Administration Server. (C) 3. Make your configuration and security data available to the new administration machine by copying them from backups or by using a shared disk. For more information, refer to Directory and File Backups for Failure Recovery.
(E) 4. Restart the Administration Server on the new machine.
Reference: Avoiding and Recovering From Server Failure, Restarting an Administration Server on Another Machine
QUESTION 52
You received a signed certificate from a Certificate Authority and you wish to use the keytool command-line utility to store it in your keystore. Which command of keytool would you us
A. genkey pair
B. import cert
C. gensockey
D. importkeystore
E. storepasswd

Correct Answer: B Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
B: keytool import Reads the certificate or certificate chain (where the latter is supplied in a PKCS#7 formatted reply) from the file cert_file, and stores it in the keystore entry identified by alias. If no file is given, the certificate or PKCS#7 reply is read from stdin. keytool can import X.509 v1, v2, and v3 certificates, and PKCS#7 formatted certificate chains consisting of certificates of that type.
Incorrect answers:
A: keytool –genkey generates a key pair (a public key and associated private key). Wraps the public key into an X.509 v1 self-signed certificate, which is stored as a single-element certificate chain. This certificate chain and the private key are stored in a new keystore entry identified by alias.
Description: Loads a trusted CA certificate into a keystore. If the keystore does not exist, it is created.
Reference: Configuring Identity and Trust, Commonly Used keytool Commands http://docs.oracle.com/cd/E11035_01/wls100/secmanage/identity_trust.html
QUESTION 53
YCMJ are viewing the deployments in the administration console. A web application that is targeted to the Managed Server named server01 has a State of “Now.” Which statement best explains this State?
A. Server01 is running and the application has been installed.
B. Sarver01 is shut down and the application has been installed.
C. Server01 is running and the application has not been installed.
D. Server01 is shut down and the application has not been installed.
E. Server01 is running and the application was installed for the first time.
F. Server01 is running and the application has been installed, but is not servicing requests.

Correct Answer: E Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 54
Which three tasks are required to use JDBC session persistence for a web application?
A. Enable automatic migration on each server.
B. Create the session database table.
C. Configure SSL on each server.
D. Edit the weblogic.xml descriptor.
E. Create a multi data source.
F. Create a JDBC data source.
Correct Answer: BDF Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
To specify JDBC-based persistent session storage for a Web application, follow these steps:
1.
(B) Create a table named wl_servlet_sessions in the database

2.
Assign a connection pool that has read/write permissions to the wl_servlet_sessions database table to your WebLogic cluster.

3.
Assign the connection pool’s associated data source to the same cluster.

4.
(D) Edit the associated weblogic.xml file using an XML editor and set the value of thePersistentStoreType and PersistentStorePool parameters
Incorrect answer:
E: A multi data source is an abstraction around a group of data sources that provides load balancing or failover processing between the data sources associated with the multi data source.
Reference: Implementing Highly Available and Scalable Solutions Using the WebLogic Cluster, JDBC-Based Persistent Storage http://www.informit.com/articles/article.aspx?p=101737&seqNum=7
QUESTION 55
Which three statements are true about the default behavior of WebLogic Server proxy plug-ins?
A. The proxy will pin a client to a specific server if a session cookie is created.
B. The proxy fails over to another server if a connection or request times out.
C. The proxy distributes requests to cluster members based on their CPU usage.
D. The proxy dynamically learns the latest locations of cluster members.
E. The proxy always uses SSL, regardless of the client’s protocol.
F. The proxy replicates session data to its backup proxy.

Correct Answer: ABD Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
A: When the HTTP client requests the servlet, HttpClusterServlet proxies the request to the WebLogic Server cluster. HttpClusterServlet maintains the list of all servers in the cluster, and the load balancing logic to use when accessing the cluster. In the above example, HttpClusterServlet routes the client request to the servlet hosted on WebLogic Server A. WebLogic Server A becomes the primary server hosting the client’s servlet session. To provide failover services for the servlet, the primary server replicates the client’s servlet session state to a secondary WebLogic Server in the cluster. This ensures that a replica of the session state exists even if the primary server fails (for example, due to a network failure). In the example above, Server B is selected as the secondary. The servlet page is returned to the client through the HttpClusterServlet, and the client browser is instructed to write a cookie that lists the primary and secondary locations of the servlet session state. If the client browser does not support cookies, WebLogic Server can use URL rewriting instead. Figure, Accessing Servlets and JSPs using a Proxy:

B: In clusters that utilize Web servers with WebLogic proxy plug-ins, the proxy plug-in handles failover transparently to the client. If a server fails, the plug-in
locates the replicated HTTP session state on a secondary server and redirects the client’s request accordingly.

D: The WebLogic proxy plug-in maintains a list of WebLogic Server instances that host a clustered servlet or JSP, and forwards HTTP requests to those instances
on a round-robin basis.
Incorrect answers:

C: The WebLogic proxy plug-in maintains a list of WebLogic Server instances that host a clustered servlet or JSP, and forwards HTTP requests to those instances
on a round-robin basis. This load balancing method is described in Round Robin Load Balancing. The plug-in also provides the logic necessary to locate the
replica of a client’s HTTP session state if a WebLogic Server instance should fail.

F: SSL Parameters for Web Server Plug-ins
Parameter: SecureProxy
Default: OFF
Description: Set this parameter to ON to enable the use of the SSL protocol for all communication between the plug-in and WebLogic Server.

Reference: Using WebLogic Server Clusters, Failover and Replication in a Cluster Reference: Using WebLogic Server Clusters, Load Balancing in a Cluster
QUESTION 56
Refer to the Exhibit

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QUESTION 12
Which two methods would you use to change the runlevel on Linux machine? (Choose two.)
A. Specify the runlevel in the rc#.d directory.
B. Specify the runlevel in the init command.
C. Specify the runlevel in the chmod command.
D. Specify the runlevel as an argument for the inittab file.
E. Specify the runlevel at startup by using the boot loader program.

Correct Answer: BE
QUESTION 13
You want to change the runlevel of a Linux machine from 4 to 5 dynamically. Which method can you use to accomplish this?
A. Specify the runlevel in the init command.
B. Specify the runlevel in the /etc/inittab file.
C. Specify the runlevel in the /etc/rc.d/rc. local file.
D. Specify the runlevel while booting using Grand Unified Bootloader (GRUB).

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 14
The size of the System Global Area (SGA) is 2 GB. You want to ensure that the shmmax parameter is set correctly for each startup of the machine. Which command needs to be run only once to ensure this setting?
A. cd /proc/sys/vm echo 2147483648 > shmmax
B. cd /proc/sys/kernel echo 1073741824 > shmmax
C. cd /proc/sys/kernel echo 2147483648 > shmmax
D. vi ./skel/.bashrc kernel, shmmax = 2147483648
E. vi /etc/sysctl.conf … kernel. shmmax = 2147483648
Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 15
Which three statements are true about Oracle Clustered File System (OCFS)? (Choose three.)
A. There is no limit on the number of files on OCFS.
B. You can use OCFS for database files as well as general files.
C. You can create an OCFS using Logical Volume Manager (LVM).
D. You must modify the Linux kernel parameters before mounting OCFS.
E. Standard file system commands, such as mkdir, rmdir, and mv, are available on OCFS.

Correct Answer: ABE QUESTION 16
In the database instance running on a Linux machine, you receive an out-of-memory error due to the undersizing of shared pool. You observed that the following error was recorded always during peak hours in the trace file that is available in the USER_DUMP_DEST directory:
ORA-04031: unable to allocate 4000 bytes of shared memory On investigation, you found that SGA_MAX_SIZE was larger than the sum of the sizes of all SGA components and you do not have scope to increase it further.
What would be one of the solutions to reduce the probability of getting this error in future?
A. Implement hugepages in the system.
B. Increase the swap space in the system.
C. Set the PRE_PAGE_SGA parameter to TRUE.
D. Implement Automatic Shared Memory Management.

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 17
You executed the ipcs -m command to list all the shared memory segments in your Oracle server. View the Exhibit exhibit1 that shows the output of this command.

Later, you executed the same command to check the shared memory segments.
View the Exhibit exhibit2 that shows the output of this command.
Why is the large shared memory segment not listed in the second Exhibit?

A. The Oracle database instance is shut down.
B. The swap space has been increased in the system.
C. The Oracle database instance is configured in shared server mode.
D. The large pool size set for the Oracle database instance is reset to zero.

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 18
View the Exhibit.

Examine the highlighted entry in the /etc/fstab file. Which two statements are true about this entry? (Choose two.)
A. The entry sets the size of the shared memory segment.
B. The entry creates a shared memory file system on /dev/shm.
C. The entry enables bigpages for the shared memory file system.
D. When a database instance is started with the extended buffer cache enabled, then /dev/shm corresponds to the database buffer cache.

Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 19
To gather the various statistics for the database and the operating system (OS) on a Linux machine, you created a script, snap.sh. You want to collect the statistics every day at 6:30 p.m.
To automate the process, you added the following entry in the crontab file as the oracle user:
30 18 *** $ORACLE_BASE/admin/scripts/snap.sh
What changes would you have to do to ensure the successful execution of the snap.sh script? (Choose all that apply.)
A. The user must be assigned the root group.
B. The user should be listed in the /etc/cron. allow file.
C. Set the $PATH shell variable to include the path of the crontab command.
D. Set the ORACLE_HOME and ORACLE_SID environment variables in the snap.sh script.

Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 20
You have the following entry in the /etc/fstab file: /dev/hda5 /opt ext3 data=writeback 1 0 What is true about the data=writeback part of the entry with respect to the ext3 file system?
A. It disables filesystem caching.
B. The entry resizes the file system.
C. The entry changes the run level to single-user mode.
D. The entry specifies a tuning parameter for asynchronous input/output (I/O).
E. The entry sets the journaling level so that only the changes to the file system metadata are logged.
F. The entry sets the journaling level so that the changes to the file system data as well as the metadata are logged.

Correct Answer: E QUESTION 21
You created two databases using Database Configuration Assistant (DBCA). Both the databases use the same set of Oracle executables. Which two statements are correct in this scenario? (Choose two.)
A. Both the databases cannot share the same listener.
B. The Oracle Universal Installer (OUI) will be run as the root user.
C. Two oraenv scripts need to be customized, one for each database.
D. The oratab file will have a separate entry for each database instance.
E. Both the databases would have the same Oracle home but different Oracle SIDs.

Correct Answer: DE QUESTION 22
You upgraded the RAM of your system from 1 GB to 2 GB. The applications running on the system perform memory-intensive operations. What swap space size is recommended for the smooth performance of the system?
A. 2 * the size of physical memory
B. 1.5 * the size of physical memory
C. 0.75 * the size of physical memory
D. equal to the size of physical memory

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 23
A non-General Public License (GPL) driver was loaded on a Linux machine. To verify that the module has tainted the kernel, you executed the cat /proc/sys/kernel/tainted command and received the following output:
[[email protected] root]#cat /proc/sys/kernel/tainted 1
What do you infer from the output? (Choose all that apply.)
A. A proprietary module has been loaded.
B. A module is marked unsupported by the vendor.
C. All the loaded modules have General Public License (GPL).
D. A module was force-loaded by using the insmod -f command.

Correct Answer: AD QUESTION 24
Tom has installed the Oracle software and created an Oracle database with the following settings:
Oracle home: /oracle/OraHome1 Instance name: ora_mn1 He has created the ora_sc1 script in the /etc/rc.d/init.d directory, which contains the commands to start up
and shut down the Oracle services. Tom wants to:
1) start up the database as the start priority 10 in run levels 3 and 4 2) shut down the database as the stop priority 99 Which set of steps should Tom use to complete the tasks?
A. 1. Edit the /etc/oratab file: ora_mn1:/oracle/OraHome1: Y
2.
Ensure that the run levels are specified in the service script:
chkconfig: 34 10 99
3.
Set the script permissions:
chmod 700 ora_sc1
4.
Register the service:
chkconfig –add ora_sc1

B. 1. Edit the /etc/oratab file: /oracle/OraHome1 :ora_lmn1: Y
2.
Ensure that the run levels are specified in the service script:
chkconfig: 99 10 34
3.
Set the script permissions:
chmod 700 ora_sc1

C. Edit the $ORACLE_HOME/bin/dbstart file: /oracle/OraHome1 :ora_lmn1: Y Ensure that the run levels are specified in the service script: chkconfig: 34 10 99
3.
Set the script permissions:
chmod 700 ora_sc1
4.
Register the service:
chkconfig –add ora_sc1

D. 1. Edit the $ORACLE_HOME/bin/dbstart file: ora_mn1:/oracle/OraHome1: Y
2.
Ensure that the run levels are specified in the service script:
chkconfig: 34 99 10
3.
Set the script permissions:
chmod 700 ora_sc1
4.
Register the service:
chkconfig -add dbstart
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 25
Which area in the Linux memory map contains Oracle user processes and background processes?
A. Page cache area
B. Shared library area
C. Application code area
D. Application memory area
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 26
You have a Linux machine with an Oracle database instance running in it.
The database users log on and log off from the database instance frequently. The page size for the system is 4 KB and the SGA size is 100 MB. To reduce the page fault, you set the PRE_PAGE_SGA parameter to TRUE for the database instance. After some time you observed that the process startup duration has increased significantly. What could be the reason for this?
A. The SGA has been locked into physical memory.
B. Each server process that starts must access every page in SGA.
C. The session memory for the new connections is allocated from SGA.
D. The SGA size is adjusted by the Automatic Shared Memory Management feature during every new connection.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 27
You find that oracleasm scandisks command is not discovering all your ASM disks. Which tool or utility can provide you details about what SCANDISKS is doing?
A. strace utility

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QUESTION 1
Which six files are involved in database recovery for block storage option after a database crash?
A. Essn.pag data
B. Essn.ind index
C. Essn.dat
D. Temp.dat
E. Dbname.esm – kernel file that contains control information for db recovery
F. Dbname.tct – transaction control table
G. Dbname.ind – free fragment file for data and index free fragments
H. DBname.otl
I. Metadata folder

Correct Answer: ABEFGH Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
If there is a problem with any one of these essential database files, the entire database becomes corrupted
and Essbase Server cannot start the database:

*
essn.pag (A)

*
essn.ind (B)

*
dbname.esm (E)

*
dbname.tct (F)

*
dbname.ind (G)

*
dbname.otl (for block storage databases) (H): Outline file, which stores all metadata for a database and defines how data is stored, but does not store data itself
To restore the database, delete these file, restart the database, and reload from data files or from export files backed up before the corruption.
References:
QUESTION 2
Which two options would provide a better design for the following accounts and metrics?

A. If there are a small number of accounts that require FTE and Expense dollars, split Accounts and Metrics into 2 dimensions
B. If there are a large number of accounts that require FTE and Expense dollars, split Accounts and Metrics into 2 dimensions
C. If reporting dictates FTE and dollars in the columns and accounts in the rows, split Accounts and Metrics into 2 dimensions
D. If block size is large, then keep Accounts and Metrics as one dimension with a dense dimension

Correct Answer: BD Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Use Application Design Best Practices, Minimize the number of dimensions, Avoid Repetition in dimensions, Avoid inter dimensional irrelevance.

QUESTION 3
Identify the two true statements about incremental loading.
A. Allows for real time data access for end users.
B. Creates *subscribes* along the main slice in the database.
C. Materialization of slices is required to provide users the correct query results.
D. Different materialized views may exist within a slice as compared to the main slice of the database.

Correct Answer: AC Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
A: Incremental loading and fast aggregation can provide near real-time analysis of transactional data.
C: Incremental loading creates subcubes or slices alongside the primary slice of the database.
Note: Following a data load, Essbase ASO does not store any aggregate values, but instead calculates them on demand. For large databases, where the time required to generate these values may become inconvenient, the database can materialize one or more aggregate “views”, made up of one aggregate level from each dimension (for example, the database may calculate all combinations of the fifth generation of Product with the third generation of Customer), and these views are then used to generate other aggregate values where possible. This process can be partially automated, where the administrator specifies the amount of disk space that may be used, and the database generates views according to actual usage. This approach has a major drawback in that the cube cannot be treated for calculation purposes as a single large hypercube, because aggregate values cannot be directly controlled, so write-back from front-end tools is limited, and complex calculations that cannot be expressed as MDX expressions are not possible.
Hyperion Essbase – System 9 Database Administrator’s Guide
QUESTION 4
You should back up the following three for ASO.
A. Hyperion_Home \common
B. Essbaseinstallfolder\bin
C. ARBORPATH \app\appname
D. Essbaseinstallfolder \locale
E. Essbase.sec
F. Essbase.cfg

Correct Answer: CEF Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
C: The application directory should be backup up. BAckups for ASO File system backups are the best method for aggregate storage databases. To backup an ASO database, 9.1. Stop the application. 9.2. Using the File system to back up the arborpath\app\appname
E: essbase.sec* — Essbase security file
F: essbase.cfg — Essbase Server configuration file
References:
QUESTION 5
You have the following analysis requirement. Products roll up to Product Family which rolls up to Product Category. You also need to group Products by Product Manager. Product Managers may manage one or more Products across product families. You do not need to create reports with Product Manager by Product Family. You need to secure products by Product Manager for planning submissions.
You consider Shared members as a solution because of which two options?
A. Shared members provide cross tab reporting (Product Manager in the rows and Product Family across the column)
B. Shared members provide additional categorization but results in a smaller database then if you were to add Product Manager as a separate dimension
C. You can assign security to shared members
D. Shared members can be assigned to sparse members only

Correct Answer: BC Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: The data values associated with a shared member come from another member with the same name. The shared member stores a pointer to data contained in the other member, and the data is stored only once. To define a member as shared, an actual nonshared member of the same name must exist. Using shared members lets you use members repeatedly throughout a dimension. Essbase stores the data value only once, but it displays in multiple locations. Storing the data value only once saves space and improves processing efficiency. (B)
Shared members must be in the same dimension. Data can be shared by multiple members.
QUESTION 6
Identify four disadvantages / considerations when using a transparent partition.
A. Old data
B. Slow retrievals
C. Slow calculations if referencing dynamic calc members in the source
D. Outline sync complexities
E. Increased network load
F. Downtime required to sync data

Correct Answer: BCDE Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Disadvantages of Transparent Partitions
*
Outline synchronization is required (D)
If you make changes to one outline, the two outlines are no longer synchronized. Although Essbase makes
whatever changes it can to replicated and transparent partitions when the outlines are not synchronized,
Essbase may not be able to make the data in the data source available in the data target. Essbase tracks
changes that you make to block storage outlines and provides tools to keep your block storage outlines
synchronized.
Note:
Essbase does not enable automatic synchronization of aggregate storage outlines. You must manually
make the same changes to the source and target outlines.
*
Transparent partitions increase network activity, because Essbase transfers the data at the data source
across the network to the data target. Increased network activity results in slower retrieval times for users.

(E)

*
Because more users are accessing the data source, retrieval time may be slower. (B)
*
If the data source fails, users at both the data source and the data target are affected. Therefore, the
network and data source must be available whenever users at the data source or data target need them.
*
(C) When you perform a calculation on a transparent partition, Essbase performs the calculation using
the current values of the local data and transparent dependents. Essbase does not recalculate the values
of transparent dependents, because the outlines for the data source and the data target may be so
different that such a calculation is inaccurate. To calculate all partitions, issue a CALC ALL command for
each individual partition, and then perform a CALC ALL command at the top level using the new values for
each partition.
*
Formulas assigned to members in the data source may produce calculated results that are inconsistent
with formulas or consolidations defined in the data target, and vice versa.
Note: Advantages of Transparent Partitions Transparent partitions can solve many database problems, but transparent partitions are not always the ideal partition type.

*
You need less disk space, because you are storing the data in one database.

*
The data accessed from the data target is always the latest version. (not A)

*
When the user updates the data at the data source, Essbase makes those changes at the data target.

*
Individual databases are smaller, so they can be calculated more quickly.

*
The distribution of the data is invisible to the end user and the end user’s tools.

*
You can load the data from either the data source or data target.

*
You can enable write-back functionality for aggregate storage databases by creating a transparent partition between an aggregate storage database as the source and a block storage database as the target.
QUESTION 7
Assuming Sales and Year are sparse and Actual is dense, what two actions will the following calc script perform?
FIX (Actual, @CY, Sales) DATAEXPORT “BINFILE” “data.txt”; ENDFIX
A. Export the data for actual, current year, sales into a text file called data.txt
B. Export the data for actual, current year into a text file called data.txt
C. Export data blocks in a compressed encrypted format
D. Create a text file that can be imported using the DATAIMPORTBIN calc command in another database that has different dimensionality

Correct Answer: AC Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The FIX…ENDFIX command block restricts database calculations to a subset of the database. All
commands nested between the FIX and ENDFIX statements are restricted to the specified database
subset.
Syntax:
FIX (fixMbrs)COMMANDS ;ENDFIX

fixMbrs: A member name or list of members from any number of database dimensions.

DATAEXPORT writes data to a text file, binary file, or as direct input to a relational file using ODBC. The
data blocks will be saved in a compressed encrypted format to a text file. For a binary output
file:DATAEXPORT “Binfile” “fileName”

QUESTION 8
A calculation script is performed on a database for which Create Block on Equation is OFF. The command SET CREATEBLOCKONEQ ON is issued immediately before an equation in the script. Which statement accurately describe when blocks will be created?
A. Blocks will be created ONLY when the equation assigns non-constant values to members of a sparse dimension
B. Blocks will be created ONLY when the equation assigns constant values to members of a sparse dimension
C. Blocks will be created when the equation assigns either constant or non-constant values to members of a sparse dimension.
D. No blocks will be created.

Correct Answer: C Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
C: Blocks are always (whether or not CREATEBLOCKONEQ is ON or OFF) created when a constant value is assigned to a member of a sparse dimension (for which a block does not exist). When SET CREATEBLOCKONEQ ON blocks will also be created when an non-constant value is assigned to a member of a sparse dimension (for which a block does not exist) in a new block.
Note: If this would be a select two alternative question, the alternatives would have to be reworded slightly
differently.

Note #1:
The SET CREATEBLOCKONEQ command controls, within a calculation script, whether or not new blocks
are created when a calculation formula assigns anything other than a constant to a member of a sparse
dimension. SET CREATEBLOCKONEQ overrides the Create Block on Equation setting for the database.

Syntax: SET CREATEBLOCKONEQ ON|OFF;
ON: When a calculation formula assigns a non-constant value to a member of a sparse dimension for
which a block does not exist, Analytic Services creates a new block.

Note #2: The Create Blocks on Equation setting is a database property. The initial value for the Create
Blocks on Equation setting is OFF; no new blocks are created when something other than a constant is
assigned to a sparse dimension member. You can use Administration Services or MaxL to set the Create
Blocks on Equation setting to ON at the database-level. For more information about enabling the Create
Blocks on Equation property for a database, see MaxL documentation in the Technical Reference or
Administration Services online help.
For more specific control, you can use the SET CREATEBLOCKONEQ calculation command within a
calculation script to control creation of new blocks at the time the command is encountered in the script.
Use of the SET CREATEBLOCKONEQ calculation command has the following characteristics:

*
When Analytic Services encounters a SET CREATEBLOCKONEQ command within a calculation script, Analytic Services ignores the database-level setting.

*
Where needed in the calculation script, you can use multiple SET CREATEBLOCKONEQ commands to define the Create Blocks on Equation setting value for the calculations that follow each command.

*
The value set by the SET CREATEBLOCKONEQ command stays in affect until the next SET CREATEBLOCKONEQ command is processed or the calculation script is finished.
References:
QUESTION 9
Market size is an attribute dimension with the following members: Large, Medium, and Small.
Which of the following options below represent valid syntax statements in a calc script?
A. FIX (@ATTRIBUTE(Large))
B. Calc Dim (Accounts, Markets, “Market Size”);
C. Calc Dim (Accounts, Markets, Market Size);
D. FIX(Large)

Correct Answer: AB Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
For example, using Sample Basic, assume this statement is in a calculation script:
FIX (@children(january))CALC DIM (Accounts, Product, Market)ENDFIX
QUESTION 10
Moving a stored entity member in a sparse dimension causes_________.
A. a Full restructure
B. an Index restructure
C. an Outline restructure
D. No restructure

Correct Answer: B Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
If a member of a sparse dimension is moved, deleted, or added, Essbase restructures the index and
creates new index files. Restructuring the index is relatively fast; the time required depends on the index
size.

QUESTION 11
During a multidimensional analysis getting data from a supplemental data source is an example of________.
A. Drill across
B. Drill Through
C. Trending
D. Pivoting

Correct Answer: A Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
QUESTION 12
Identify the two true statements about expense reporting tags.
A. Provide accurate time balance calculations
B. Provide accurate variance reporting on revenue and expense accounts
C. Are assigned to the dimension tagged Time
D. Are assigned to the dimension tagged Accounts
E. Are assigned to the Dimension containing variance members.

Correct Answer: BD Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
B: The variance reporting calculation requires that any item that represents an expense to the company
must have an expense reporting tag.
Essbase provides two variance reporting properties: expense and non-expense. The default is non-
expense.
Variance reporting properties define how Essbase calculates the difference between actual and budget
data in members with the @VAR or @VARPER function in their member formulas.

D: Expense reporting is tagged to the accounts dimension such that variance, profit etc. Member will not
show the negative value when we calculate it.

Note: The first, last, average, and expense tags are available exclusively for use with accounts dimension members.
QUESTION 13
You are building a sales analysis model. In this model there is no requirement for calculation. The user needs to aggregate data across all dimensions and wants to archive many years of data. Archived data will be analyzed once in while.
What types of cube would you build using Essbase for this kind of requirement?
A. Block Storage
B. XOLAP
C. Aggregate Storage
D. Virtual Cube

Correct Answer: C Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Consider using the aggregate storage storage model if the following is true for your database:

*The database is sparse and has many dimensions, and/or the dimensions have many levels of members.
*The database is used primarily for read-only purposes, with few or no data updates. (C) *The outline
contains no formulas except in the dimension tagged as Accounts. *Calculation of the database is
frequent, is based mainly on summation of the data, and does not rely on calculation scripts.

QUESTION 14
How are the ASO data files managed?
A. Page files
B. Index files
C. Table spaces
D. Bin files

Correct Answer: C Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
With regard to ASO, table spaces are comparable to page and index files For ASO – the data is stored in
table spaces in a .dat file in the \App\Appname\default folder. Again the format is some type of binary and
you cannot open the file and do anything with the contents.

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