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Microsoft Power Platform MB-600 exam practice test questions

QUESTION 1
A client is preparing to go live with a Dynamics 365 Sales implementation that uses Microsoft Azure Active Directory
(Azure AD) group to manage security. The chief compliance officer (CCO) requires that all solutions meet the following
requirements:
1.
Undergo security testing to verify they are secure.
2.
Address the needs of users with disabilities.
You need to recommend additional tests to be performed.
Which tests should you recommend? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
A. Perform bounds testing by using a user account assigned to the custom security role directly.
B. Perform accessibility testing in the same model-driven apps the users will be using.
C. Perform penetration testing on the Azure AD tenant.
D. Perform user acceptance tests for all security user stories.
Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 2
DRAG DROP
You are implementing Dynamics 365 Customer Service for your company.
The company is deciding whether to use an on-premises or online implementation. One of the biggest concerns is about
disaster recovery processes.
You need to explain how each system would be recovered with minimal effort and loss of data in case of a disaster.
Which recovery method should you use? To answer, drag the appropriate recovery methods to the correct location.
Each recovery method may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between
panes or
scroll to view content.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Select and Place:  

softwarexam mb-600 exam questions-q2

Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-gb/power-platform/admin/backup-restore-environments

QUESTION 3
You are architecting a Dynamics 365 Customer Service instance for a company call center. The company has an SLA
with a primary customer that requires monitoring by using KPIs. The SLA states the following:
1.
Support must be provided 24 hours per day, seven days a week.
2.
Issues must be resolved within four hours of case creation.
You need to recommend tools that will assist the client with tracking these requirements.
Which two tools should you recommend? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
A. enhanced SLAs with Timer Control
B. First Response by KPI
C. enhanced SLA upgrade
D. Resolve by KPI
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 4
HOTSPOT
A client plans to implement a sales platform to help with sales activities.
The sales platform must have the following capabilities:
1.
Handle a high volume of sales calls that has transcription and call analytics.
2.
Provide support for sales reps in the field on Android or iOS devices.
3.
Include social networking capabilities by using email and LinkedIn.
You need to recommend solutions to help the client achieve the goal.
What should you recommend? To answer, select the appropriate option in the answer area.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

softwarexam mb-600 exam questions-q4

Correct Answer:

softwarexam mb-600 exam questions-q4-2

QUESTION 5
A company has a list of contacts in a Microsoft Excel file. The company wants to load the contact information into
Dynamics 365 Sales.
You need to recommend a data-loading solution.
What should you recommend?
A. Use the Dynamics 365 Import Tool.
B. Use the Import from Excel feature.
C. Use the Excel Template feature
D. Add to an existing list of contacts in a static worksheet.
Correct Answer: A
Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/dynamics365/customerengagement/on-premises/basics/import-contacts

QUESTION 6
Note: This question is part of series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a
unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, while
others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not
appear in the review screen.
You want to integrate Microsoft Teams with Dynamics 365 Customer Service.
You install both apps, but Teams is not working when in Dynamics 365 Customer Service.
You need to troubleshoot the situation.
Solution: Change settings in Teams.
Does the solution meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 7
HOTSPOT
You are designing the security model for a company implementing Dynamics 365 Sales.
This company is a large organization with several divisions that have several sets of customer bases. The company has
the following requirements:
1.
Permissions must be set at a high level for these divisions and granulized as they get assigned to different
departments.
2.
Centralized support staff need read/write access to accounts and the ability to assign accounts to salespeople.
3.
Large-scale projects need cross-functional groups to have permissions to the same accounts.
Which security model should you use for each requirement? To answer, select the appropriate option in the answer
area.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

softwarexam mb-600 exam questions-q7

Correct Answer:

softwarexam mb-600 exam questions-q7

QUESTION 8
You design a solution for a client that is moving from Microsoft Dynamics CRM on-premises to Dynamics 365 Sales.
During user acceptance testing, testers report significant performance issues.
You need to recommend a solution to mitigate the performance issues.
What should you recommend?
A. Increase the plug-in execution time limit of the organization to five minutes.
B. Create a Microsoft Azure Service Bus endpoint in Dynamics 365 Sales. Implement business logic in Azure functions.
C. Enable direct access to a Microsoft Azure-replicated SQL database.
D. Implement workflows. Schedule workflows to run at daily intervals.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 9
You need to determine which legacy data sources the college should continue to use.
Which two data sources should you recommend? Each correct answer presents a partial solution.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
A. CSV file
B. proprietary database
C. SQL database
D. Excel
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 10
You are a Dynamics 365 Customer Service consultant for an internet support company.
The company lacks a budget to buy third-party ISVs or add-ons.
The company requires a new system that achieves the following:
1.
All support issues must come in by email, need to be logged, and assigned to the support group
2.
Accounts must synchronize with the parent company Oracle database
3.
Reports must be sent to the executives on a weekly basis
4.
No custom code will be used in the system
You need to recommend the components that should be configured.
Which two components should you recommend? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
A. Microsoft Azure Service Bus
B. Common Data Services
C. Microsoft Forms Pro
D. Power BI
E. server-side synchronization
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 11
DRAG DROP
You are designing a customer self-service Power Apps portal for Dynamics 365 Sales.
The portal will contain thousands of image files that are associated with the customer order histories.
The portal must meet the following requirements:
All image files must be hosted in the portal.
The portal must use the URL http://portal.tailspintoys.com/.
Performance issues must be minimized when loading the portal page.
You need to recommend a process for the company.
Which four actions should you recommend be performed in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate actions from
the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.
Select and Place:

softwarexam mb-600 exam questions-q11

Correct Answer:

softwarexam mb-600 exam questions-q11-2

Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/powerapps/maker/portals/faq

QUESTION 12
HOTSPOT
A client is implementing Dynamics 365 Sales. As part of the implementation, an older system with a large amount of
transactions is becoming obsolete, though the data continues to be valuable.
You need to recommend solutions that have the least impact on the database size and entity count in Dynamics 365
based on precise requirements.
Which solutions should you recommend? To answer, select the appropriate option in the answer area.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

softwarexam mb-600 exam questions-q12

QUESTION 13
A company asks you to migrate more than 5,000 records from Dynamics 365 Customer Engagement (on-premises) to
the online version of Dynamics 365 Sales.
You used a third-party utility to migrate the data. The city and state are displayed in the field that should show the street
address.
You must get the data migrated properly in the next 24 hours but have no one to help with this task. You have no other
add-ins and do not want any more customization.
You need to resolve the issues to migrate the data.
What should you do?
A. Remove data, ensure that field mappings of city and state are correct, and then migrate the data.
B. Create a custom connector in the Common Data Service, and then migrate the data.
C. Export the street address field, make changes, and then import the changes.
D. Manually edit the street address, state, and city field, and then enter appropriate data.
Correct Answer: A

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QUESTION 1
Refer to the exhibit. What does the imp-null tag represent in the MPLS VPN cloud?

softwarexam 300-410 exam questions-q1

A. Pop the label
B. Impose the label
C. Include the EXP bit
D. Exclude the EXP bit
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2
When provisioning a device in Cisco DNA Center, the engineer sees the error message “Cannot select the device. Not
compatible with template”. What is the reason for the error?
A. The template has an incorrect configuration.
B. The software version of the template is different from the software version of the device.
C. The changes to the template were not committed.
D. The tag that was used to filter the templates does not match the device tag.
Correct Answer: D
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/cloud-systems-management/network-automation-andmanagement/dna-center/1-2-10/user_guide/b_cisco_dna_center_ug_1_2_10/b_dnac_ug_1_2_10_chapter_0111.html

QUESTION 3
Which next hop is going to be used for 172.17.1.0/24 ?

softwarexam 300-410 exam questions-q3

A. 10.0.0.1
B. 192.168.1.2
C. 10.0.0.2
D. 192.168.3.2
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4
DRAG DROP
Drag and drop the MPLS terms from the left onto the correct definitions on the right.
Select and Place:

softwarexam 300-410 exam questions-q4

QUESTION 5
DRAG DROP
Drag and drop the addresses from the left onto the correct IPv6 filter purposes on the right.
Select and Place:

softwarexam 300-410 exam questions-q3

QUESTION 6
Which statement about IPv6 RA Guard is true?
A. It does not offer protection in environments where IPv6 traffic is tunneled.
B. It cannot be configured on a switch port interface in the ingress direction.
C. Packets that are dropped by IPv6 RA Guard cannot be spanned.
D. It is not supported in hardware when TCAM is programmed.
Correct Answer: A
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/ios-xml/ios/ipv6_fhsec/configuration/xe-16/ip6f-xe-16-book/ip6-raguard.pdf 

QUESTION 7
Refer to the exhibit. R2 is a route reflector, and R1 and R3 are route reflector clients. The route reflector learns the route to 172.16.25.0/24 from R1, but it does not advertise to R3. What is the reason the route is not advertised?

softwarexam 300-410 exam questions-q7

A. R2 does not have a route to the next hop, so R2 does not advertise the prefix to other clients.
B. Route reflector setup requires full IBGP mesh between the routers.
C. In route reflector setup, only classful prefixes are advertised to other clients.
D. In route reflector setups, prefixes are not advertised from one client to another.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 8softwarexam 300-410 exam questions-q8

Refer to the exhibit. An administrator that is connected to the console does not see debug messages when remote
users log in. Which action ensures that debug messages are displayed for remote logins?
A. Enter the transport input ssh configuration command.
B. Enter the terminal monitor exec command.
C. Enter the logging console debugging configuration command.
D. Enter the aaa new-model configuration command.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 9
Which statement about IPv6 ND inspection is true?
A. It learns and secures bindings for stateless autoconfiguration addresses in Layer 3 neighbor tables.
B. It learns and secures bindings for stateless autoconfiguration addresses in Layer 2 neighbor tables.
C. It learns and secures bindings for stateful autoconfiguration addresses in Layer 3 neighbor tables.
D. It learns and secures bindings for stateful autoconfiguration addresses in Layer 2 neighbor tables.
Correct Answer: B Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/ios-xml/ios/ipv6_fhsec/configuration/15-s/ip6f-15-sbook/ip6-snooping.pdf

QUESTION 10
Which command enables NAT-PT on an IPv6 interface?
A. IPv6 nat-pt enable
B. ipv6 nat
C. ipv6 nat-pt
D. ipv6 nat enable
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 11
Refer to the exhibit. After applying IPsec, the engineer observed that the DMVPN tunnel went down, and both spoke-tospoke and hub were not establishing. Which two actions resolve the issue? (Choose two.)

softwarexam 300-410 exam questions-q11

A. Change the mode from mode tunnel to mode transport on R3.
B. Remove the crypto isakmp key cisco address 10.1.1.1 on R2 and R3.
C. Configure the crypto isakmp key cisco address 192.1.1.1 on R2 and R3.
D. Configure the crypto isakmp key cisco address 0.0.0.0 on R2 and R3.
E. Change the mode from mode transport to mode tunnel on R2.
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 12

softwarexam 300-410 exam questions-q12

Refer to the exhibit. An engineer is troubleshooting BGP on a device but discovers that the clock on the device does not
correspond to the time stamp of the log entries. Which action ensures consistency between the two times?
A. Configure the service timestamps log uptime command in global configuration mode.
B. Configure the logging clock synchronize command in global configuration mode.
C. Configure the service timestamps log datetime localtime command in global configuration mode.
D. Make sure that the clock on the device is synchronized with an NTP server.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 13
Which command displays the IP routing table information that is associated with VRF-Lite?
A. show ip vrf
B. show ip route vrf
C. show run vrf
D. show ip protocols vrf
Correct Answer: B
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/lan/catalyst4500/12-2/50sg/configuration/guide/Wrapper-46SG/vrf.html#wp1045708

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Contents

  • Exam Information
  • Cisco 820-605 Dumps[Exam Video, Practice questions]
  • Download PDF file & Online test

Cisco 820-605 ExamInformation

820-605 CSM
Certification: Cisco Customer Success Manager Specialist
Duration: 90 minutes (55 – 65 questions)
Available language: English

Cisco 820-605 Dumps

Cisco Customer Success Manager Specialist 820-605 Exam Practice Questions

QUESTION 1
Which outcome is the best that a Customer Success Manager can achieve for a customer?
A. adoption of all the licenses and features the customer purchased leading to expansion to improve the customer\\’s
business
B. full adoption of all the technologies the customer purchased
C. removing barriers so the customer achieves the fastest time to value possible from the solution they purchased
D. ensuring the customers deployment teams and end users are trained and ready to adopt the technology
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 2
The customer plans to relocate to a new building in the existing area to reduce cost. The company wants to retain talent
through this transition. Which two business outcomes are critical to the company\\’s success? (Choose two.)
A. risk management
B. employee satisfaction
C. cost efficiency
D. credibility E. sustainability
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 3
Which two actions are critical when communicating with executives? (Choose two.)
A. Keep services as a primary topic
B. Focus on the value achieved
C. Incorporate the sales team\\’s plan
D. Target executive priorities
E. Focus on technical details
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 4
A Customer Success Manager must deliver high touch customer success experience. Which customer engagement model must be used?
A. Utilize a digital engagement so all your customers experience the touch of customer success
B. Utilize people to focus on the elite customers for a 1:1 or 1:few onsite customer success experience
C. Utilize the service team to form a larger internal team to lead the engagement
D. Utilize people to focus your customers in a 1:many customer success experience
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 5
In which stage does the Customer Success Manager initially validate stakeholders?
A. onboarding
B. deployment
C. utilization
D. purchase
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 6
Which of these is included in a success plan?
A. confidential customer information
B. customer business outcomes
C. customer HR processes
D. services cost
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 7
What is the financial implication of churn?
A. loss of revenue
B. increased production
C. reduced product utilization
D. contract expansion
Correct Answer: A
Reference: https://www.clientsuccess.com/blog/true-cost-customer-churn-part-1/

QUESTION 8
In an onboarding session, introductions to new stakeholders were made, new KPIs were collated, and desired use
cases were discussed. Which step does the Customer Success Manager take next?
A. Document the session, stakeholder interests, and metrics for leadership
B. Create a success plan to be reviewed with the customer at the next review meeting
C. Provide technical configuration for development
D. Discuss new opportunities and new products to purchase
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9
Which method is directly associated with evaluating a customer outcome?
A. milestones
B. key performance indicators
C. metrics
D. benchmarks
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 10
Throughout the customer lifecycle, opportunities can occur that lead to customers becoming advocates for the
Customer Success Manager\\’s company. Which two opportunities can lead to advocacy? (Choose two.)
A. moments of success when the customer acknowledges progress
B. successful contract renewal
C. green health scores over intermittent time periods
D. continuing results based on the unexpected value
E. results that are not measurable
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 11
You are a Customer Success Manager and have just been assigned a strategic new account. Which course of action is
the best to help you prepare for the first customer introduction meeting?
A. Engage with the account team to understand the expansion opportunities
B. Perform a deep analysis of all the sales orders to the past 24 months
C. Build an understanding of your customer\\’s business and market trends and priorities
D. Speak the internal contacts to understand the customer sentiment and outstanding escalations
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 12
From a Customer Success perspective, which reason to monitor your customer\\’s health is the most important?
A. It provides the opportunity to address any changes in the customer\\’s experience or actions around the solution
B. It allows the customer to identify unused licenses so they can be addressed via a service improvement plan
C. Understanding your customer\\’s health directly enables renewals
D. It gives the customer valuable insight so they can automatically renew critical on time
Correct Answer: C
Reference: https://www.gainsight.com/customer-success-best-practices/how-to-score-customer-health/

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QUESTION 1
Which two steps should be performed before installing HyperFlex? (Choose two.)
A. Determine and download recommended installer OVA version required
B. Complete the pre-installation checklist.
C. Determine and download recommended hypervisor
D. Download service profile templates
E. Determine and download virtual machine OS! required
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 2
How much memory is reserved for the controller VM in the HX220c?
A. 48 GB
B. 12 GB
C. 24 GB
D. 78 GB
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3
Which two components are automatically configured from the information provided to the HyperFlex installer? (Choose
two )
A. the network
B. operating system deployment preparation
C. controller VM configuration
D. application dependencies
E. server firmware policy
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 4
Which uses for the system drive in an HX node are valid? (Choose two.)
A. Migration
B. Saving and restoring program state
C. Virtual machine store
D. Garbage collection
E. Write Cache
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 5
What does the letter W indicate when selecting CPUs for your HX Node (le. HX-CPU 8170M)?
A. support of 1.5 TB/socket of memory
B. support for all flash drive array
C. support for NVMe
D. support for 768 TB/socket of memory
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 6
How many DIMMs are supported per memory channel in the Cisco UCS M5 server?
A. 2
B. 1
C. 8
D. 4
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 7
What is the minimum amount of memory required for an HX node?
A. 192 GB
B. 64 GB
C. 32 GB
D. 128 GB
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 8
Refer to the exhibit.

softwarexam 700-905 exam questions-q8

Which VIC model supports two wire connectivity to each Fabric Interconnect?
A. VIC 1227
B. VIC 1557
C. VIC 1387
D. VIC 1457
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 9
What is the maximum size of an HXDP cluster running 3.5.1?
A. 64 nodes
B. 8 nodes
C. 16 nodes
D. 32 nodes
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10
Which three advantages of using the M5 generation of HyperFlex servers over the M4 generation are valid? (Choose
three )
A. Support for Cisco VICs
B. Multiple GPUs
C. M.2 SATA drive support for faster disk I/O
D. DDR3 memory
E. Microsoft Hyper-V support
F. NVMe support
Correct Answer: CEF

QUESTION 11
If a GPU card is Installed in HyperFlex nodes before a cluster is created, which action can be used to automatically build
the service profile in UCS Manager?
A. Check Run UCS Manager Configuration during the cluster creation process
B. Check the extended memory option during the cluster creation process
C. Check the GPU workflow during the cluster creation process
D. Check the administrative workflow option during the cluster creation process
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 12
Which two processes does Disk Failure initiate? (Choose two)
A. The affected cluster is marked as unhealthy and placed into standby mode
B. If the replication factor is sufficient for the failure, the system is marked as unhealthy but remains operational
C. Distributed pooled data is migrated off nodes to master data store.
D. Performance is almost unaffected Sets 1-minute timer until self-healing starts.
E. Self-healing mode is initiated and data replication factors applied.
Correct Answer: BD

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Exam Code: 70-463
Exam Name: Implementing a Data Warehouse with Microsoft SQL Server 2012
Updated: Sep 18, 2017
Q&As: 230

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Question No : 15 – (Topic 1) You are designing an enterprise star schema that will consolidate data from three
independent data marts. One of the data marts is hosted on SQL Azure.
Most of the dimensions have the same structure and content. However, the geography
dimension is slightly different in each data mart.
You need to design a consolidated dimensional structure that will be easy to maintain while
ensuring that all dimensional data from the three original solutions is represented.
What should you do?
A. Create a junk dimension for the geography dimension.
B. Implement change data capture.
C. Create a conformed dimension for the geography dimension.
D. Create three geography dimensions.
070-463 exam Answer: C
 Question No : 16 – (Topic 1)
To facilitate the troubleshooting of SQL Server Integration Services (SSIS) packages, a
logging methodology is put in place.
The methodology has the following requirements:
The deployment process must be simplified.
All the logs must be centralized in SQL Server.
Log data must be available via reports or T-SQL.
Log archival must be automated.
You need to configure a logging methodology that meets the requirements while minimizing
the amount of deployment and development effort.
What should you do?
A. Open a command prompt and run the gacutil command.
B. Open a command prompt and execute the package by using the SQL Log provider and
running the dtexecui.exe utility.
C. Add an OnError event handler to the SSIS project.
D. Use an msi file to deploy the package on the server.
E. Configure the output of a component in the package data flow to use a data tap.
F. Run the dtutil command to deploy the package to the SSIS catalog and store the
configuration in SQL Server.
G. Open a command prompt and run the dtexec /rep /conn command.
H. Open a command prompt and run the dtutil /copy command.
I. Open a command prompt and run the dtexec /dumperror /conn command.
J. Configure the SSIS solution to use the Project Deployment Model.
K. Create a reusable custom logging component and use it in the SSIS project.
Answer: J
Explanation:
Question No : 17 – (Topic 1)  You are developing a 070-463 dumps SQL Server Integration Services (SSIS) project that copies a large amount of rows from a SQL Azure database. The project uses the Package Deployment  Model. This project is deployed to SQL Server on a test server.You need to ensure that the project is deployed to the SSIS catalog on the production
server.What should you do?
A. Open a command prompt and run the dtexec /dumperror /conn command.
B. Create a reusable custom logging component and use it in the SSIS project.
C. Open a command prompt and run the gacutil command.
D. Add an OnError event handler to the SSIS project.
E. Open a command prompt and execute the package by using the SQL Log provider and
running the dtexecui.exe utility.
F. Open a command prompt and run the dtexec /rep /conn command.
G. Open a command prompt and run the dtutil /copy command.
H. Use an msi file to deploy the package on the server.
I. Configure the SSIS solution to use the Project Deployment Model.
J. Configure the output of a component in the package data flow to use a data tap.
K. Run the dtutil command to deploy the package to the SSIS catalog and store the
configuration in SQL Server.
Answer: I
Explanation: References:
Question No : 18 – (Topic 1) You are developing a SQL Server Integration Services (SSIS) package.
To process complex scientific data originating from a SQL Azure database, a custom task
component is added to the project.You need to ensure that the custom component is deployed on a test environment
correctly.What should you do?
A. Add an OnError event handler to the SSIS project.
B. Open a command prompt and run the gacutil command.
C. Configure the SSIS solution to use the Project Deployment Model.
D. Open a command prompt and run the dtexec /dumperror /conn command.
E. Configure the output of a component in the package data flow to use a data tap.
F. Open a command prompt and execute the package by using the SQL Log provider and
running the dtexecui.exe utility.
G. Open a command prompt and run the dtexec /rep /conn command.
H. Run the dtutil command to deploy the package to the SSIS catalog and store the
configuration in SQL Server.
I. Use an msi file to deploy the package on the server.
J. Open a command prompt and run the dtutil /copy command.
K. Create a reusable custom logging component and use it in the SSIS project.
Answer: B
Reference:
QUESTION 19
At which checkpoint does the rewrite () perform the TWURL modification?
A. Client In
B. Client Out
C. Server In
D. Server Out
070-463 pdf Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 20
When creating a TCP tunnel service in explicit mode, you must also configure a forwarding host?
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 21
In regards to authentication the ProxySG does not support origin-redirects with CONNECT method.
A. True
B. False
070-463 vce Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 22
What are the available actions for any given category, when defining ProxyClient content filtering
configuration? (Choose all that apply)
(a) Allow
(b) Deny
(c) Temporanily Allow
(d) Warm
A. a & b only
B. a, b & c only
C. a, b & d only
D. All of the above
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 23
Which statement is correct about WWW-Authenticate header?
A. It is request header used only with Basic Authentication to send username and password to a proxy or
a Web server
B. It is a request header used to send credentials
C. It is a response header used with HTTP 401 status code to negotiate method of authentication and
send NTLM challenge to the client.
070-463 exam Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 24
The authentication mode origin-ip-redirect allows an administrator to assign a Time To Live (TTL) for the
surrogate credentials. Meanwhile the authentication mode origin- cookie-redirect does not provide this
feature.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 25
What is the meaning of the metacharacter \ (backslash) in regular expressions?
A. escape character
B. any character except newline
C. zero or character
D. zero or more character
70-463 dumps Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 26
When configuring forwarding in PoxySG, what are the possible load balancing methods? (Choose all that
apply)
(a) Round Robin
(b) Fastest ICMP Reply
(c) Least Connections
(d) Least Delay
A. a & c only
B. b & d only
C. a & d only
D. b & c only
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 27
ICAP responses may be cached on a ProxySG, i.e, for some Web requests ICAP processing may be
completed without involving ProxyAV
A. True
B. False
070-463 pdf Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 28
Which of the following are true when enabling the early intercept attribute for a proxy service?
(Choose all that apply)
(a) It is automatically enabled when the detect protocol attribute is enabled.
(b) The ProxySG completes the three-way TCP handshake with the client before establishing a connection
to the upstream server.
(c) It can be used with any protocol.
A. a & c only
B. a & b only
C. c only
D. All of the above
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 29
When implementing failover with ProxySG appliances, configurations and policies on the master are
automatically replicated to members of the failover group.
A. True
B. False
70-463 vce Correct Answer: A

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Exam Code: 70-410
Exam Name: Installing and Configuring Windows Server 2012
Updated: Aug 31, 2017
Q&As: 503

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QUESTION 30
Which principle of training best describes a previously active client, who has been ill and bed-ridden for a
prolonged period of time?
A. Overload
B. Specificity
C. Reversibility
D. Progression
070-410 exam Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 31
If you are palpating the thumb side of the forearm in the wrist area, what pulse are you checking?
A. Humeral
B. Ulnar
C. Brachial
D. Radial
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 32
What is the correct order of the regions of the spinal column, from superior to inferior?
A. Cervical, lumbar, thoracic, sacral and coccyx.
B. Coccyx, sacral, lumbar, thoracic, and cervical.
C. Cervical, thoracic, lumbar, coccyx, and sacral.
D. Cervical, thoracic, lumbar,sacral, and coccyx.
70-410 dumps Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 33
Which muscle is an antagonist of the hamstrings?
A. Gastrocnemius
B. Iliopsoas
C. Gracilis
D. Sartorius
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 34
Which of the following physiological changes does NOT occur when a client improves aerobic capacity?
A. The muscles will be able to extract more oxygen from the blood.
B. Total lung volume will increase in proportion to the total accumulated time of high-intensity exercise.
C. The oxygen carrying capacity of the blood will increase.
D. The amount of air the lungs can take in will increase because of increases in the rate and depth of
breathing.
070-410 pdf Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 35
As the intensity of dynamic exercise increases, which of the following sets of responses occurs?
A. Heart rate, systolic blood pressure, and diastolic blood pressure increase.
B. Heart rate and systolic blood pressure increase, diastolic pressure remains unchanged.
C. Heart rate and systolic blood pressure increase, stroke volume and cardiac output remain the same.
D. Stroke volume decreases, heart rate and cardiac output increase.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 36
From a seated position, with dumbbells to the sides, raising the dumbbells laterally to shoulder level with
elbows slightly flexed, exercises primarily the _______:
A. bicep brachii and latisimus dorsi
B. posterior deltoid
C. anterior deltoid and triceps brachii
D. middle deltoid.
070-410 vce Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 37
What is the major muscle used to flex the hip joint?
A. Vastus lateralis
B. Iliopsoas
C. Biceps femoris
D. Gluteus maximus
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 38
A subject with elbows held at 90 degrees of flexion is handed a 150 lb (68.1kg) barbell. Even though he
exerts maximal tension, the barbell causes the joint angle to increase to 170 degrees. Which one of the
following describes the muscle action during the extension?
A. Isotonic concentric
B. Isotonic eccentric
C. Isokinetic concentric
D. Isokinetic eccentric
070-410 exam Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 39
Type II muscle fibers:
A. Have a high capacity to generate energy through the electron transport system.
B. Have a high capacity to generate energy from fat.
C. Are recruited at a higher percentage of maximum force than Type I fibers.
D. Have high endurance capabilities.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 40
Which of the following is a normal blood pressure (BP) response to aerobic exercise?
A. Both systolic and diastolic BP increase proportionately to increases in workload.
B. Systolic BP increases and diastolic BP decreases.
C. Systolic BP increases proportionately to increases in workload and diastolic BP remains unchanged or
decreases slightly.
D. Systolic and diastolic BP both decrease at the onset of exercise, then increase in proportion to the
increase in intensity.
70-410 dumps Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 41
Which rotator cuff muscle abducts the arm?
A. Infraspinatus
B. Supraspinatus
C. Subscapularis
D. Medial deltoid
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 42
Which energy system has the highest capacity for ATP production?
A. ATP-CP
B. Rapid glycolysis
C. Slow glycolysis
D. Oxidative phosphorylation
070-410 pdf Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 43
What plane divides the body into upper and lower sections?
A. Sagittal
B. Frontal
C. Transverse
D. Median
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 44
When performing neck flexion in the sagittal plane, which of the following exercises best mimics that
movement?
A. Cartwheel
B. Somersault
C. Bicep curl
D. Leg curl
070-410 vce Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 45
Under which of the following circumstances would you expect to see the highest rise in blood lactate?
A. During maximal exercise lasting between 60 and 180 seconds in the untrained client
B. Prior to treadmill walking in the cardiac patient
C. During maximal exercise lasting between 60 and 180 seconds in the athlete
D. After moderate intensity cycling exercise in the client with Type 2 diabetes
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 46
Typical movements in the weight room such as a biceps curl using free weights and leg press actions
using a machine are best described as ____________ muscle actions.
A. plyometric
B. isokinetic
C. ballistic
D. isotonic
070-410 exam Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 47
The latissimus dorsi acts as the prime mover during the concentric phase of which of the following
exercises?
A. lat pulldown
B. flat bench press
C. lateral raise
D. incline bench press
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 48
Which of the following bones facilitate the movement of the chest during both 70-410 dumps inspiration and expiration?
A. clavicle
B. scapula
C. carpal
D. scalene
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 49
Which of the following is characterized as a plane (uniaxial) joint?
A. Coxal (hip)
B. Atlantooccipital
C. Radiocarpal (wrist)
D. Sacroiliac
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 50
Which of the following indicates the reason why a female who is pregnant should avoid exercise in the
supine position after the first trimester?
A. obstruction of arterial blood flow
B. risk of orthostatic hypotension due to obstructed venous return
C. obstruction of the diaphragm
D. risk of decreased oxygen consumption due to pressure on the uterus
070-410 pdf Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 51
As a response to a progressive resistance training program, which of the following demonstrates the
predominant contribution to an increase in the cross-sectional area of a muscle?
A. atrophy and possibly hypertrophy
B. hyperplasia and possibly hypertrophy
C. atrophy and possibly hyperplasia
D. hypertrophy and possibly hyperplasia
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 52
What is an appropriate precaution and/or modification for exercising in higher ambient temperatures?
A. Take salt tablets.
B. Drink eight ounces of water once per hour.
C. Select proper loose-fitting, lightweight clothing.
D. Train in clothes designed to trap and hold body heat.
070-410 vce Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 53
What is the intensity recommendation for the initial conditioning stage of a cardiovascular program?
A. 10% to 20% of heart rate reserve
B. 20% to 30% of heart rate reserve
C. 40% to 60% of heart rate reserve
D. 60% to 85% of heart rate reserve
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 54
Approximately how long is the initial conditioning phase of a cardiovascular training program?
A. Four weeks
B. Eight weeks
C. Twelve weeks
D. Sixteen weeks
070-410 exam Correct Answer: A

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400-051 CCIE Collaboration Practice Questions

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QUESTION 1
Refer to the exhibit.

Pass4itsure Cisco 400-051 exam questions q1

An engineer is configuring dynamic Call routing and DN learning between two Cisco Unified CM and Two Cisco Unified
CME systems. Which two configuration steps are required for all this feature to work? (Choose two)
A. Configure routers A and to use a different autonomous system number for DN routing
B. Configure routers A and to use EIGRP for IP Routing
C. Configure Cisco Unified CM A+B as service advertisement framework clients
D. Configure router A and to use OSPF for IP Routing
E. Configure Cisco Unified CME A+B as service advertisements forwarders
F. Configure routers A and to use the same autonomous system number for DN Routing
Correct Answer: CF

QUESTION 2
On a Cisco Unified Communications Manager SIP trunk with a single remote device and OPTIONS ping feature
enabled, which response from the SIP remote peer causes the trunk to be marked as “Out of Service”?
A. 401 Unauthorized
B. 505 Version Not Supported C. 406 Not Acceptable
D. 408 Request Timeout
E. 500 Server Internal Error
Correct Answer: D
408 Request Timeout Couldn\\’t find the user in time. The server could not produce a response within a suitable amount
of time, for example, if it could not determine the location of the user in time. The client MAY repeat the request without
modifications at any later time
References: http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/List_of_SIP_response_codes

QUESTION 3Pass4itsure Cisco 400-051 exam questions q8-2
Refer to the exhibit. Which description of a User Agent Server that sends this message this message is true?

Pass4itsure Cisco 400-051 exam questions q3

A. The UAS sends this message in response to an earlier ACK received.
B. It is not possible for the UAS to send this message.
C. The UAS sends this message in response to an earlier PRACK received.
D. The UAS sends this single message in response to an earlier INVITE that contains PRACK.
E. The UAS sends this message in response to an earlier INVITE received.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 4
Which Cisco Unified Contact Center Express data store contains user scripts, grammars, and documents?
A. configuration data store
B. repository data store
C. agent data store
D. historical data store
E. script data store
Correct Answer: B
Unified CCX applications might use auxiliary files that interact with callers, such as scripts, pre-recorded prompts,
grammars, and custom Java classes. Depending on each implementation, Unified CCX applications use some or all of
the following file types. The Unified CCX Server\\’s local disk prompt, grammar, and document files are synchronized
with the central repository during Unified CCX engine startup and during run-time when the Repository datastore is
modified.

QUESTION 5
Which four presence statuses are supported in Cisco IM and Presence federation with Microsoft Lync server? (Choose
four.)
A. offline
B. on the phone
C. busy
D. idle
E. invisible
F. in a meeting
G. available
H. away
Correct Answer: ABGH

QUESTION 6
Which three issues prevent a customer from seeing the presence status of a new contact in their Jabber contact list?
(Choose three.)
A. incoming calling search space on SIP trunk to IMandP
B. IMandP incoming ACL blocking inbound status
C. subscribe calling search space on SIP trunk to IMandP
D. PC cannot resolve the FQDN of IMandP
E. Owner user ID is not set on device.
F. Primary DN is not set in end user configuration for that user.
G. Subscriber calling search space is not defined on user\\’s phone.
Correct Answer: BCD
References: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/voice-unified-communications/unified-presence/97443-cupscupc-ts.html

QUESTION 7
Which two Cisco IOS multipoint video conferencing profiles are supported on the Cisco Integrated Router Generation 2
with packet voice and video digital signal processor 3? (Choose two.)
A. homogeneous
B. rendezvous
C. guaranteed-audio
D. scheduled
E. guaranteed-video F. ad-hoc
Correct Answer: AC
Q. What video conferences are supported?
A. Three types of video profiles are supported: homogeneous conferences (video switching), heterogeneous
conferences (video mixing), and guaranteed audio conferences (best-effort video).
References: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/products/collateral/unified-communications/voice-video-conferencing-isrrouters/qa_c67-649850.html

QUESTION 8
Drag and drop the logical components of a traditional SDN infrastructure into the correct order.
Similar to open system interconnection model (OSI model), working your way up from the network infrastructure layer.
Select and Place:

Pass4itsure Cisco 400-051 exam questions q8

Correct Answer:

Pass4itsure Cisco 400-051 exam questions q8-2

QUESTION 9
Which Cisco Unified Communications Manager deployment model for clustering over the IP WAN mandates a primary
and a backup subscriber at the same site?
A. multisite with centralized call processing
B. multisite with distributed call processing
C. local failover
D. remote failover
E. remote failover with Cisco Unified Communications Manager Express as SRST
Correct Answer: C
Clustering Over the IP WAN You may deploy a single Unified CM cluster across multiple sites that are connected by an
IP WAN with QoS features enabled. This section provides a brief overview of clustering over the WAN. For further
information, refer to the chapter on Call Processing. Clustering over the WAN can support two types of
deployments:?ocal Failover Deployment Model
Local failover requires that you place the Unified CM subscriber and backup servers at the same site, with no WAN
between them. This type of deployment is ideal for two to four sites with Unified CM.
?emote Failover Deployment Model
Remote failover allows you to deploy primary and backup call processing servers split across the WAN. Using this type
of deployment, you may have up to eight sites with Unified CM subscribers being backed up by Unified CM subscribers
at
another site.
References: http://www.cisco.com/en/US/docs/voice_ip_comm/cucm/srnd/4x/42models.html

QUESTION 10
Users report that they are unable to control their Cisco 6941 desk phone from their Jabber client, but the Jabber client
works as a soft phone. Which two configuration changes allow this? (Choose two)
A. Assign group “Standard CTI Allow Control of Phones supporting Connected Xfer and Conf” to the user.
B. Set the End User page to the Primary Extension on the desk phone.
C. Set the Owner User ID on the desk phone.
D. Assign group “Standard CTI Enabled User Group” to the user.
E. Assign group “Standard CTI Allow Control of Phones Supporting Rollover Mode” to the user.
Correct Answer: AE

QUESTION 11
Refer to the exhibit. An engineer is analyzing a SIP call between the Cisco Unified Communications Manager on the left
to Cisco Unified Border Element on the right. Based on information displayed, which behavior can be determined from
the exhibit?

Pass4itsure Cisco 400-051 exam questions q11Pass4itsure Cisco 400-051 exam questions q11

A. The midcall-signaling block command is configured on Cisco Unified Border Element so re-invites are not consumed.
B. The call has interworking issues where the user is not experiencing audio.
C. The call is terminated because the 200 OK messages are not arriving to Cisco Unified Communications Manager.
D. The mid-call re-invite negotiated for Call Hold/Resume supplementary service.
Correct Answer: DA. The midcall-signaling block command is configured on Cisco Unified Border Element so re-invites are not consumed.
B. The call has interworking issues where the user is not experiencing audio.
C. The call is terminated because the 200 OK messages are not arriving to Cisco Unified Communications Manager.
D. The mid-call re-invite negotiated for Call Hold/Resume supplementary service.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 12
Which entity signs a Cisco IP phone LSC?
A. Godaddy.com Enrollment Server
B. Manufacturer Certificate Authority
C. Registration Authority
D. Certificate Authority Proxy Function
E. Cisco Certificate Authority
Correct Answer: D
By default, LSC certificates are not installed on Cisco IP phones. Cisco IP phones that are required to use LSC
certificates must be provisioned to allow TLS transactions before deployment in the field. LSC certificates can be
provisioned to the Cisco IP phones through the Certificate Authority Proxy Function (CAPF) process. This process is
completed using TLS and USB tokens coupled with the CTL client. Moreover, the Cisco ASA Phone Proxy feature can
serve LSC certificates to the Cisco IP phones. Cisco IP phones will only work with the Cisco ASA Phone Proxy and will
not establish secure connectivity with the Cisco Unified Communications Manager.

QUESTION 13
Refer to the exhibit.

Pass4itsure Cisco 400-051 exam questions q13

An engineer mapped the enhance location call admission control configuration to match the physical links and
bandwidth allowances. Assuming no other calls are consuming any bandwidth, how many G722 calls are allowed
between site A and site G?
A. 5
B. 7
C. 12
D. 25
E. 37
Correct Answer: B

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QUESTION 1
Which two statements are true regarding Cisco ISE? (Choose two.)
A. The major business outcomes of ISE are enhanced user experience and secure VLAN segmentation.
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C. Without integration with any other product, ISE can track the actual physical location of a wireless endpoint as it
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Which two activities should occur during an SE\\’s demo process? (Choose two.)
A. determining whether the customer would like to dive deeper during a follow up.
B. asking the customer to provide network drawings or white board the environment for you.
C. identifying which capabilities require demonstration.
D. leveraging a company such as Complete Communications to build a financial case.
E. highlighting opportunities that although not currently within scope would result in lower operational costs and
complexity.
Correct Answer: CE

QUESTION 3
Which node enables Cisco ISE to share contextual information on a device with Cisco Stealthwatch?
A. Monitoring and Troubleshooting Node
B. pXGrid Controller
C. Policy Administration Node
D. Inline Posture Node
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4
Which two options help you sell Cisco ISE? (Choose two.)
A. Downplaying the value of pxGrid as compared to RESTful APIs
B. Explaining ISE support for 3rd party network devices
C. Showcasing the entire ISE feature set
D. Referring to TrustSec as being only supported on Cisco networks
E. Discussing the importance of custom profiling
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 5
Which two Cisco ISE use cases typically involve the highest level of implementation complexity? (Choose two.)
A. Guest and wireless access
B. Software-defined access
C. Device management
D. Asset visibility
E. Software-defined segmentation
Correct Answer: BE

QUESTION 6
How would Cisco ISE handle authentication for your printer that does not have a supplicant?
A. ISE would not authenticate the printer as printers are not subject to ISE authentication.
B. ISE would authenticate the printer using 802.1X authentication.
C. ISE would authenticate the printer using MAB.
D. ISE would authenticate the printer using web authentication.
E. ISE would authenticate the printer using MAC RADIUS authentication.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 7
Which are two Cisco ISE that benefits our customers? (Choose two.)
A. provides network access control
B. helps them stop and contain real-time threats
C. enables them to set traffic priorities across the network
D. helps them accelerate application deployment and delivery
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 8
Which component of the SD-Access fabric is responsible for communicating with networks that are external to the
fabric?
A. edge nodes
B. control plane nodes
C. intermediate nodes
D. border nodes
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 9
Which three key differentiators that DNA Assurance provides that our competitors are unable match? (Choose three.)
A. Support for Overlay Virtual Transport
B. On-premise and cloud-base analytics
C. Apple Insights
D. VXLAN support
E. Proactive approach to guided remediation
F. Network time travel
Correct Answer: BEF

QUESTION 10
Which feature is supported on the Cisco vEdge platform?
A. single sign-on
B. IPv6 transport (WAN)
C. 2-factor authentication
D. license enforcement
E. reporting
F. non-Ethernet interfaces
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 11
Which two options are primary functions of Cisco ISE? (Choose two.)
A. providing VPN access for any type of device
B. providing information about every device that touches the network
C. enabling WAN deployment over any type of connection
D. automatically enabling, disabling, or reducing allocated power to certain devices
E. enforcing endpoint compliance with network security policies
F. allocating resources
Correct Answer: BE

QUESTION 12
Which element of the Cisco SD-WAN architecture facilitates the functions of controller discovery and NAT traversal?
A. vBond orchestrator
B. vManage
C. vSmart controller
D. vEdge
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 13
Which option will help build your customers platform during the discovery phase?
A. business case
B. detailed design
C. POV report
D. high-level design
E. PO
Correct Answer: A

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Related Microsoft Azure Exam pdf

Microsoft exam certification information

AZ-103 Microsoft Azure Administrator: https://www.microsoft.com/en-us/learning/exam-az-103.aspx

Starting on May 1, 2019, you only need to pass Exam AZ-103 to earn this certification. This new exam combines the skills covered in AZ-100 and AZ-101 (which retired on May 1, 2019), with the majority of the new exam
coming from AZ-100.

Candidates for this exam are Azure Administrators who manage cloud services that span storage, security, networking,
and compute cloud capabilities. Candidates have a deep understanding of each service across the full IT lifecycle and take requests for infrastructure services, applications, and environments. They make recommendations on services to use for optimal performance and scale, as well as provision, size, monitor, and adjust resources as appropriate.

Skills measured

  • Manage Azure subscriptions and resources (15-20%)
  • Implement and manage storage (15-20%)
  • Deploy and manage virtual machines (VMs) (15-20%)
  • Configure and manage virtual networks (30-35%)
  • Manage identities (15-20%)

Microsoft Azure az-103 Online Exam Practice Questions

QUESTION 1
You need to recommend a solution for App1. The solution must meet the technical requirements.
What should you include in the recommendation? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area;
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:pass4itsure az-103 exam question q1

Correct Answer:

pass4itsure az-103 exam question q1-2

This reference architecture shows how to deploy VMs and a virtual network configured for an N-tier application, using
SQL Server on Windows for the data tier.

pass4itsure az-103 exam question q1-3

Scenario: You have a public-facing application named App1. App1 is comprised of the following three tiers:
A SQL database
A web front end
A processing middle tier
Each tier is comprised of five virtual machines. Users access the web front end by using HTTPS only.
Technical requirements include:
Move all the virtual machines for App1 to Azure.
Minimize the number of open ports between the App1 tiers.
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/architecture/reference-architectures/n-tier/n-tier-sql-server

QUESTION 2
You have an Azure subscription that contains several virtual machines and an Azure Log Analytics workspace named
Workspace1. You create a log search query as shown in the following exhibit.pass4itsure az-103 exam question q2

Use the drop-down menus to select the answer choice that completes each statement based on the information
presented in the graphic. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

pass4itsure az-103 exam question q2-1

Correct Answer:

pass4itsure az-103 exam question q2-2

Box 1: 14 days
Two weeks will be covered.
Note: Startofweek returns the start of the week containing the date, shifted by an offset, if provided.
Start of the week is considered to be a Sunday.
Endofweek returns the end of the week containing the date, shifted by an offset, if provided.
Last day of the week is considered to be a Saturday.
Box 2:
The render operator renders results in as graphical output. Timechart is a Line graph, where the first column is x-axis,
and should be datetime. Other columns are y-axes. In this case the Y axis has avg(CounterValue) Values.
References:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/azure-monitor/log-query/log-query-overview
https://docs-analytics-eus.azurewebsites.net/queryLanguage/query_language_renderoperator.html

QUESTION 3
SIMULATION
Please wait while the virtual machine loads. Once loaded, you may proceed to the lab section. This may take a few
minutes, and the wait time will not be deducted from your overall test time.
When the Next button is available, click it to access the lab section. In this section, you will perform a set of tasks in a
live environment. While most functionality will be available to you as it would be in a live environment, some functionality
(e.g, copy and paste, ability to navigate to external websites) will not be possible by design.
Scoring is based on the outcome of performing the tasks stated in the lab. In other words, it doesn’t matter how you
accomplish the task, if you successfully perform it, you will earn credit for that task.
Labs are not timed separately, and this exam may have more than one lab that you must complete. You can use as
much time as you would like to complete each lab. But, you should manage your time appropriately to ensure that you
are able to complete the lab(s) and all other sections of the exam in the time provided.
Please note that once you submit your work by clicking the Next button within a lab, you will NOT be able to return to
the lab.
You may now click next to proceed to the lab.
Use the following login credentials as needed:
Azure Username: XXXXXXX Azure Password: XXXXXXX The following information is for technical support purposes
only: Lab Instance: 9172796pass4itsure az-103 exam question q3

Task 2
You plan to store media files in the rg1lod9172796 storage account.
You need to configure the storage account to store the media files. The solution must ensure that only users who have
access keys can download the media files and that the files are accessible only over HTTPS.
What should you do from the Azure portal?
A. See solution below.
Correct Answer: A
Step 1: Navigate to the rg1lod9172796n1 storage account.
Step 2: Click on the settings menu called Firewalls and virtual networks.
Step 3: Ensure that you have elected to allow access from \\’Selected networks\\’.
Step 4: To grant access to an internet IP range, enter the address range of 131.107.2.0 to 131.107.2.255 (in CIDR
format) under Firewall, Address Ranges.
References:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/storage/common/storage-network-security

QUESTION 4
You need to deploy two Azure web apps named WebApp1 and WebApp2. The web apps have the following
requirements: WebApp1 must be able to use staging slots WebApp2 must be able to access the resources located on
an Azure virtual network
What is the least costly plan that you can use to deploy each web app? To answer, select the appropriate options in the
answer area; NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:pass4itsure az-103 exam question q4

Correct Answer:

pass4itsure az-103 exam question q4-1

References:
https://azure.microsoft.com/en-au/pricing/details/app-service/windows/ https://azure.microsoft.com/en-gb/pricing/details/app-service/plans/

QUESTION 5
You have an Azure Linux virtual machine that is protected by Azure Backup.
One week ago, two files were deleted from the virtual machine.
You need to restore the deleted files to an on-premises computer as quickly as possible.
Which four actions should you perform in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions to
the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.
Select and Place:pass4itsure az-103 exam question q5

Correct Answer:

pass4itsure az-103 exam question q5-1

To restore files or folders from the recovery point, go to the virtual machine and choose the desired recovery point.
Step 0. In the virtual machine\\’s menu, click Backup to open the Backup dashboard.
Step 1. In the Backup dashboard menu, click File Recovery.
Step 2. From the Select recovery point drop-down menu, select the recovery point that holds the files you want. By
default, the latest recovery point is already selected.
Step 3: To download the software used to copy files from the recovery point, click Download Executable (for Windows
Azure VM) or Download Script (for Linux Azure VM, a python script is generated).
Step 4: Copy the files by using AzCopy
AzCopy is a command-line utility designed for copying data to/from Microsoft Azure Blob, File, and Table storage, using
simple commands designed for optimal performance. You can copy data between a file system and a storage account,
or
between storage accounts.
References:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/backup/backup-azure-restore-files-from-vm
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/storage/common/storage-use-azcopy

QUESTION 6
You have two Azure Active Directory (Azure AD) tenants named contoso.com and fabrikam.com. You have a Microsoft
account that you use to sign in to both tenants. You need to configure the default sign-in tenant for the Azure portal.
What should you do?
A. From the Azure portal, configure the portal settings.
B. From the Azure portal, change the directory.
C. From Azure Cloud Shell, run Set-AzureRmContext.
D. From Azure Cloud Shell, run Set-AzureRmSubscription.
Correct Answer: B
Change the subscription directory in the Azure portal.
The classic portal feature Edit Directory, that allows you to associate an existing subscription to your Azure Active
Directory (AAD), is now available in Azure portal. It used to be available only to Service Admins with Microsoft accounts,
but
now it\\’s available to users with AAD accounts as well.
To get started:
1.
Go to Subscriptions.
2.
Select a subscription.
3.
Select Change directory. Incorrect Answers:
C: The Set-AzureRmContext cmdlet sets authentication information for cmdlets that you run in the current session. The
context includes tenant, subscription, and environment information.
References: https://azure.microsoft.com/en-us/updates/edit-directory-now-in-new-portal/

QUESTION 7
You have an Azure subscription that contains two resource groups named RG1 and RG2. RG2 does not contain any
resources. RG1 contains the resources in the following table.pass4itsure az-103 exam question q7

Which resource can you move to RG2?
A. W10_OsDisk
B. VNet1
C. VNet3
D. W10
Correct Answer: B
When moving a virtual network, you must also move its dependent resources. For example, you must move gateways
with the virtual network. VM W10, which is in Vnet1, is not a dependent resource. Incorrect Answers:
A: Managed disks don\\’t support move.
C: Virtual networks (classic) can\\’t be moved.
D: Virtual machines with the managed disks cannot be moved.
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/azure-resource-manager/resource-group-move-resources#virtual-machines-limitations

QUESTION 8
DRAG DROP
You have an Azure subscription that contains a storage account.
You have an on-premises server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2016. Server1 has 2 TB of data.
You need to transfer the data to the storage account by using the Azure Import/Export service.
In which order should you perform the actions? To answer, move all actions from the list of actions to the answer area
and arrange them in the correct order.
NOTE: More than one order of answer choices is correct. You will receive credit for any of the correct orders you select.
Select and Place:pass4itsure az-103 exam question q8

Correct Answer:

pass4itsure az-103 exam question q8-1

At a high level, an import job involves the following steps:
Step 1: Attach an external disk to Server1 and then run waimportexport.exe
Determine data to be imported, number of drives you need, destination blob location for your data in Azure storage.
Use the WAImportExport tool to copy data to disk drives. Encrypt the disk drives with BitLocker.
Step 2: From the Azure portal, create an import job.
Create an import job in your target storage account in Azure portal. Upload the drive journal files.
Step 3: Detach the external disks from Server1 and ship the disks to an Azure data center.
Provide the return address and carrier account number for shipping the drives back to you.
Ship the disk drives to the shipping address provided during job creation.
Step 4: From the Azure portal, update the import job
Update the delivery tracking number in the import job details and submit the import job.
The drives are received and processed at the Azure data center.
The drives are shipped using your carrier account to the return address provided in the import job.
References:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/storage/common/storage-import-export-service

QUESTION 9
You have an Azure subscription that contains a virtual network named VNet1. VNet1 uses an IP address space of
10.0.0.0/16 and contains the subnets in the following table.pass4itsure az-103 exam question q9

Subnet1 contains a virtual appliance named VM1 that operates as a router.
You create a routing table named RT1.
You need to route all inbound traffic to VNet1 through VM1.
How should you configure RT1?
Hot Area:

pass4itsure az-103 exam question q9-1

Correct Answer:

pass4itsure az-103 exam question q9-2

QUESTION 10
You have an Azure subscription that contains the resources in the following table.pass4itsure az-103 exam question q10

To which subnets can you apply NSG1?
A. the subnets on VNet2 only
B. the subnets on VNet1 only
C. the subnets on VNet2 and VNet3 only
D. the subnets on VNet1, VNet2, and VNet3
E. the subnets on VNet3 only
Correct Answer: E
All Azure resources are created in an Azure region and subscription. A resource can only be created in a virtual network
that exists in the same region and subscription as the resource.
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/virtual-network/virtual-network-vnet-plan-design-arm

QUESTION 11
Your company registers a domain name of contoso.com.
You create an Azure DNS named contoso.com and then you add an A record to the zone for a host named www that
has an IP address of 131.107.1.10.
You discover that Internet hosts are unable to resolve www.contoso.com to the 131.107.1.10 IP address.
You need to resolve the name resolution issue.
Solution: You modify the SOA record in the contoso.com zone
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B
Modify the NS record, not the SOA record.
Note: The SOA record stores information about the name of the server that supplied the data for the zone; the
administrator of the zone; the current version of the data file; the number of seconds a secondary name server should
wait before
checking for updates; the number of seconds a secondary name server should wait before retrying a failed zone
transfer; the maximum number of seconds that a secondary name server can use data before it must either be
refreshed or
expire; and a default number of seconds for the time-to-live file on resource records.
References: https://searchnetworking.techtarget.com/definition/start-of-authority-record

QUESTION 12
You have an Azure Service Bus.
You need to implement a Service Bus queue that guarantees first in first-out (FIFO) delivery of messages.
What should you do?
A. Set the Lock Duration setting to 10 seconds.
B. Enable duplicate detection.
C. Set the Max Size setting of the queue to 5 GB.
D. Enable partitioning.
E. Enable sessions.
Correct Answer: E
Through the use of messaging sessions you can guarantee ordering of messages, that is first-in-first- out (FIFO)
delivery of messages.
References:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/service-bus-messaging/service-bus-azure-and-service-bus-queues-compared-contrasted

QUESTION 13
You need to implement App2 to meet the application requirements.
What should you include in the implementation? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area;
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:pass4itsure az-103 exam question q13

Correct Answer:

pass4itsure az-103 exam question q13-1

A newly developed API must be implemented as an Azure function named App2. App2 will use a blob storage trigger.
App2 must process new blobs immediately.
This requires “Always On”.
The cost of App1 and App2 must be minimized
The Standard pricing tier is the cheapest tier that supports Always On.

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Valid information provided by Microsoft officials

Exam 70-744: Securing Windows Server 2016 – Microsoft: https://www.microsoft.com/en-us/learning/exam-70-744.aspx

Candidates for this exam secure Windows Server 2016 environments. Candidates are familiar with the methods and technologies used to harden server environments and secure virtual machine infrastructures using Shielded and encryption-supported virtual machines and Guarded Fabric.

Candidates manage the protection of Active Directory and Identity infrastructures and manage privileged identities using Just in
Time (JIT) and Just Enough Administration (JEA) approaches, as well as implement Privileged Access Workstations (PAWs) and secure servers using the Local Administrator Password Solution (LAPS).

pass4itsure 70-744 exam Skills measured

This exam measures your ability to accomplish the technical tasks listed below.

  • Implement Server Hardening Solutions (25-30%)
  • Secure a Virtualization Infrastructure (5-10%)
  • Secure a Network Infrastructure (10-15%)
  • Manage Privileged Identities (25-30%)
  • Implement Threat Detection Solutions (15-20%)
  • Implement Workload-Specific Security (5-10%)

The latest Microsoft MCSE 70-744 exam practice questions test your strength

QUESTION 1
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains
a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution,
while others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to It. As a result, these questions will not
appear in the review screen.
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. All servers run Windows Server 2016. All client
computers run Windows 10. The relevant objects in the domain are configured as shown in the following table.pass4itsure 70-744 exam question q1

You need to assign User1 the right to restore files and folders on Server1 and Server2. Solution: You create a Group
Policy object (GPO), you link the GPO to the Servers OU, and then you modify the Users Rights Assignment in the
GPO. Does this meet the goat?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B
References: https://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/cc771990(v=ws.11).aspx

QUESTION 2
The network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains the servers configured as
shown in the following table.pass4itsure 70-744 exam question q2

All servers run Windows Server 2016. All client computers run Windows 10 and are domain members. All laptops are
protected by using BitLocker Drive Encryption (BitLocker).
You have an organizational unit (OU) named OU1 that contains the computer accounts of application servers.
An OU named OU2 contains the computer accounts of the computers in the marketing department.
A Group Policy object (GPO) named GP1 is linked to OU1.
A GPO named GP2 is linked to OU2.
All computers receive updates from Server1.
You create an update rule named Update1.
You need to ensure that you can encrypt the operating system drive of VM1 by using BitLocker.
Which Group Policy should you configure?
A. Configure use of hardware-based encryption for operating system drives
B. Configure TPM platform validation profile for native UEFI firmware configurations
C. Require additional authentication at startup
D. Configure TPM platform validation profile for BIOS-based firmware configurations
Correct Answer: C
As there is not a choice “Enabling Virtual TPM for the virtual machine VM1”, then we have to use a fall-back method for
enabling BitLocker in VM1. https://www.howtogeek.com/howto/6229/how-to-use-bitlocker-on-drives-without-tpm/

pass4itsure 70-744 exam question q2-1

QUESTION 3
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains 100 servers.
You deploy the Local Administrator Password Solution (LAPS) to the network.
You deploy a new server named FinanceServer5, and join FinanceServerS to the domain.
You need to ensure that the passwords of the local administrators of FinanceServer5 are available to the LAPS
administrators.
What should you do?
A. On FinanceServerS, register AdmPwd.dll.
B. On FmanceServerS, install the LAPS Windows PowerShell module.
C. In the domain, modify the permissions for the computer account of FmanceServer5.
D. In the domain, modify the permissions of the Domain Controllers organizational unit (OU).
Correct Answer: A
References: https://gallery.technet.microsoft.com/Step-by-Step-Deploy-Local-7c9ef772

QUESTION 4
Note: Thb question Is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question In the series contains
a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution,
while others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this section, you willNOTbeabletorrturntoit.Asa result, these questions will not appear in
the review screen.
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains multiple Hyper-V hosts.
You need to deploy several critical line-of-business applications to the network to meet the following requirements:
*The resources of the applications must be isolated from the physical host
*Each application must be prevented from accessing the resources of the other applications.
*The configurations of the applications must be accessible only from the operating system that hosts the application.
Solution: You deploy one Windows container to host all of the applications.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/virtualization/windowscontainers/about/

QUESTION 5
You have a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2016. Server1 has the Windows Server Update Services
server role installed.
Windows Server Update Services (WSUS) updates for Server1 are stored on a volume named D. The hard disk that
contains volume D fails.
You replace the hard disk. You recreate volume D and the WSUS folder hierarchy in the volume.
You need to ensure that the updates listed in the WSUS console are available in the WSUS folder. What should you
run?
A. wsusutil.exe /import
B. wsusutil.exe /reset
C. Set-WsusServerSynchronization
D. Invoke-WsusServerCleanup
Correct Answer: B
https://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/cc720466%28v=ws.10%29.aspx?f=255and MSPPError=-2147217396
WSUSutil.exe is a tool that you can use to manage your WSUS server from the command line. WSUSutil.exeis located
in the % drive%\\Program Files\\UpdateServices\\Tools folder on your WSUS server.You can run specific commands
with WSUSutil.exe to perform specific functions, as summarized in thefollowing table.The syntax you would use to run
WSUSutil.exe with specific commands follows the table.pass4itsure 70-744 exam question

QUESTION 6
Your network contains an Active Directory forest named contoso.com. The forest functional level is Windows Server
2012. The forest contains a single domain. The domain contains multiple Hyper-V hosts.
You plan to deploy guarded hosts.
You deploy a new server named Server22 to a workgroup.
You need to configure Server22 as a Host Guardian Service server.
What should you do before you initialize the Host Guardian Service on Server22?
A. Install the Active Directory Domain Services server role on Server22.
B. Obtain a certificate.
C. Raise the forest functional level.
D. Join Server22 to the domain.
Correct Answer: D
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/windows-server/virtualization/guarded-fabric-shielded-vm/guarded-fabricchoose-where-
to-install-hgs The only technical requirement for installing HGS in an existing forest is that it be added to the root
domain; non-root domains are not supported.

QUESTION 7
You have a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2016.
You need to identify the default action for the inbound traffic when Server1 connects to the domain.
Which cmdlet should you use?
A. Get-NetIPSecRule
B. Get-NetFirewallRule
C. Get-NetFirewallProfile
D. Get-NetFirewallSetting
E. Get-NetFirewallPortFilter
F. Get-NetFirewallAddressFilter
G. Get-NetFirewallApplicationFilter
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 8
You implement Just Enough Administration (JEA) on several file servers that run Windows Server 2016. The Role
Capability file from a server named Server5 contains the following code.pass4itsure 70-744 exam question q8

Which action can be performed by a user who connects to Server5?
A. Create a new file share.
B. Modify the properties of any share.
C. Stop any process.
D. View the NTFS permissions of any folder.
Correct Answer: B
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/powershell/jea/role-capabilitiesFocus on the 3rd Visible Cmdlets in this question
`SmbShare\\Set-*\\’The PowerShell “SmbShare” module has the following “Set-*” cmdlets, as reported by “Get-
Command -ModuleSmbShare” command:

pass4itsure 70-744 exam question q8-1

The “Set-SmbShare” cmdlet is then visible on Server5\\’s JEA endpoint, and allows JEA users to modify the properties
of any file share. https://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/itpro/powershell/windows/smbshare/set-smbshare

QUESTION 9
The network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains the servers configured as
shown in the following table.pass4itsure 70-744 exam question q9

All servers run Windows Server 2016. All client computers run Windows 10 and are domain members.
All laptops are protected by using BitLocker Drive Encryption (BitLocker).
You have an organizational unit (OU) named OU1 that contains the computer accounts of application servers.
An OU named OU2 contains the computer accounts of the computers in the marketing department.
A Group Policy object (GPO) named GP1 is linked to OU1.
A GPO named GP2 is linked to OU2.
All computers receive updates from Server1.
You create an update rule named Update1.
You need to prepare the environment to support applying Update1 to the laptops only.
What should you do? Choose Two.
A. Tool to use: Active Directory Administrative Center
B. Tool to use: Active Directory Users and Computers
C. Tool to use: Microsoft Intune
D. Tool to use: Update Services
E. Type of object to create: A computer group
F. Type of object to create: A distribution group
G. Type of object to create: A mobile device group
H. Type of object to create: A security group
I. Type of object to create: An OU
Correct Answer: DE
https://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/cc708458(v=ws.10).aspx

QUESTION 10
You have the servers configured as shown in the following table.pass4itsure 70-744 exam question q10

You purchase a Microsoft Azure subscription, and you create three Microsoft Operations Management Suite (OMS)
workspaces named Workspace1, Workspace2, and Workspace3 You need to deploy Microsoft Monitoring Agent to the
servers to meet the following requirements:
-Antimalware data from all the servers must be visible in Workspace1.
-Security and audit data from the domain controllers and the virtualization hosts must be visible in Workspace2.
-System update data from all the servers in all the workgroups must be visible in Workspaceand
How many OMS agents should you deploy?
A. 10
B. 33
C. 73
D. 45
Correct Answer: C
-Antimalware data from all the servers must be visible in Workspace1.-Security and audit data from the domain
controllers and the virtualization hosts must be visible in Workspace2.-System update data from all the servers in all the
workgroups must be visible in Workspaceand”All the servers” mean all 5 domain controllers, plus all member servers
(physical and virtual, domain andworkgroup) and virtualization hosts, so there are noexemptions.All servers in the above
table mentioned must install OMS Microsoft Monitoring agents

QUESTION 11
_____ enables easier management for BitLocker enabled desktops and servers in a domain environment by providing
automatic unlock of operating system volumes at system reboot when connected to a wired corporate network. This
feature requires the client hardware to have a DHCP driver implemented in its UEFI firmware.
A. Network Unlock
B. EFS recovery agent
C. JEA
D. Credential Guard
Correct Answer: A
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/windows/device-security/bitlocker/bitlocker-how-to-enable-network-unlock

QUESTION 12
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains
a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution,
while others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this sections, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not
appear in the review screen.
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a server named Server1
that runs Windows Server 2016.
You need to prevent NTLM authentication on Server1.
Solution: From a Group Policy, you configure the Kerberos Policy. Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B
References: https://www.rootusers.com/implement-ntlm-blocking-in-windows-server-2016/

QUESTION 13
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com.
The domain contains a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2016.
You need to prevent NTLM authentication on Server1.
Solution: From Windows PowerShell, you run the New-ADAuthenticationPolicy cmdlet.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B
ADDS Authentication Policy does not provide ability to prevent the use of NTLM authentication.

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