Month: May 2020

Cisco 820-605 Dumps Full Questions – Exam Study Guide & Free

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Contents

  • Exam Information
  • Cisco 820-605 Dumps[Exam Video, Practice questions]
  • Download PDF file & Online test

Cisco 820-605 ExamInformation

820-605 CSM
Certification: Cisco Customer Success Manager Specialist
Duration: 90 minutes (55 – 65 questions)
Available language: English

Cisco 820-605 Dumps

Cisco 820-605 Exam Video

Cisco Customer Success Manager Specialist 820-605 Exam Practice Questions

QUESTION 1
Which outcome is the best that a Customer Success Manager can achieve for a customer?
A. adoption of all the licenses and features the customer purchased leading to expansion to improve the customer\\’s
business
B. full adoption of all the technologies the customer purchased
C. removing barriers so the customer achieves the fastest time to value possible from the solution they purchased
D. ensuring the customers deployment teams and end users are trained and ready to adopt the technology
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 2
The customer plans to relocate to a new building in the existing area to reduce cost. The company wants to retain talent
through this transition. Which two business outcomes are critical to the company\\’s success? (Choose two.)
A. risk management
B. employee satisfaction
C. cost efficiency
D. credibility E. sustainability
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 3
Which two actions are critical when communicating with executives? (Choose two.)
A. Keep services as a primary topic
B. Focus on the value achieved
C. Incorporate the sales team\\’s plan
D. Target executive priorities
E. Focus on technical details
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 4
A Customer Success Manager must deliver high touch customer success experience. Which customer engagement model must be used?
A. Utilize a digital engagement so all your customers experience the touch of customer success
B. Utilize people to focus on the elite customers for a 1:1 or 1:few onsite customer success experience
C. Utilize the service team to form a larger internal team to lead the engagement
D. Utilize people to focus your customers in a 1:many customer success experience
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 5
In which stage does the Customer Success Manager initially validate stakeholders?
A. onboarding
B. deployment
C. utilization
D. purchase
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 6
Which of these is included in a success plan?
A. confidential customer information
B. customer business outcomes
C. customer HR processes
D. services cost
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 7
What is the financial implication of churn?
A. loss of revenue
B. increased production
C. reduced product utilization
D. contract expansion
Correct Answer: A
Reference: https://www.clientsuccess.com/blog/true-cost-customer-churn-part-1/

QUESTION 8
In an onboarding session, introductions to new stakeholders were made, new KPIs were collated, and desired use
cases were discussed. Which step does the Customer Success Manager take next?
A. Document the session, stakeholder interests, and metrics for leadership
B. Create a success plan to be reviewed with the customer at the next review meeting
C. Provide technical configuration for development
D. Discuss new opportunities and new products to purchase
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9
Which method is directly associated with evaluating a customer outcome?
A. milestones
B. key performance indicators
C. metrics
D. benchmarks
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 10
Throughout the customer lifecycle, opportunities can occur that lead to customers becoming advocates for the
Customer Success Manager\\’s company. Which two opportunities can lead to advocacy? (Choose two.)
A. moments of success when the customer acknowledges progress
B. successful contract renewal
C. green health scores over intermittent time periods
D. continuing results based on the unexpected value
E. results that are not measurable
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 11
You are a Customer Success Manager and have just been assigned a strategic new account. Which course of action is
the best to help you prepare for the first customer introduction meeting?
A. Engage with the account team to understand the expansion opportunities
B. Perform a deep analysis of all the sales orders to the past 24 months
C. Build an understanding of your customer\\’s business and market trends and priorities
D. Speak the internal contacts to understand the customer sentiment and outstanding escalations
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 12
From a Customer Success perspective, which reason to monitor your customer\\’s health is the most important?
A. It provides the opportunity to address any changes in the customer\\’s experience or actions around the solution
B. It allows the customer to identify unused licenses so they can be addressed via a service improvement plan
C. Understanding your customer\\’s health directly enables renewals
D. It gives the customer valuable insight so they can automatically renew critical on time
Correct Answer: C
Reference: https://www.gainsight.com/customer-success-best-practices/how-to-score-customer-health/

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QUESTION 1
Which two steps should be performed before installing HyperFlex? (Choose two.)
A. Determine and download recommended installer OVA version required
B. Complete the pre-installation checklist.
C. Determine and download recommended hypervisor
D. Download service profile templates
E. Determine and download virtual machine OS! required
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 2
How much memory is reserved for the controller VM in the HX220c?
A. 48 GB
B. 12 GB
C. 24 GB
D. 78 GB
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3
Which two components are automatically configured from the information provided to the HyperFlex installer? (Choose
two )
A. the network
B. operating system deployment preparation
C. controller VM configuration
D. application dependencies
E. server firmware policy
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 4
Which uses for the system drive in an HX node are valid? (Choose two.)
A. Migration
B. Saving and restoring program state
C. Virtual machine store
D. Garbage collection
E. Write Cache
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 5
What does the letter W indicate when selecting CPUs for your HX Node (le. HX-CPU 8170M)?
A. support of 1.5 TB/socket of memory
B. support for all flash drive array
C. support for NVMe
D. support for 768 TB/socket of memory
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 6
How many DIMMs are supported per memory channel in the Cisco UCS M5 server?
A. 2
B. 1
C. 8
D. 4
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 7
What is the minimum amount of memory required for an HX node?
A. 192 GB
B. 64 GB
C. 32 GB
D. 128 GB
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 8
Refer to the exhibit.

softwarexam 700-905 exam questions-q8

Which VIC model supports two wire connectivity to each Fabric Interconnect?
A. VIC 1227
B. VIC 1557
C. VIC 1387
D. VIC 1457
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 9
What is the maximum size of an HXDP cluster running 3.5.1?
A. 64 nodes
B. 8 nodes
C. 16 nodes
D. 32 nodes
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10
Which three advantages of using the M5 generation of HyperFlex servers over the M4 generation are valid? (Choose
three )
A. Support for Cisco VICs
B. Multiple GPUs
C. M.2 SATA drive support for faster disk I/O
D. DDR3 memory
E. Microsoft Hyper-V support
F. NVMe support
Correct Answer: CEF

QUESTION 11
If a GPU card is Installed in HyperFlex nodes before a cluster is created, which action can be used to automatically build
the service profile in UCS Manager?
A. Check Run UCS Manager Configuration during the cluster creation process
B. Check the extended memory option during the cluster creation process
C. Check the GPU workflow during the cluster creation process
D. Check the administrative workflow option during the cluster creation process
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 12
Which two processes does Disk Failure initiate? (Choose two)
A. The affected cluster is marked as unhealthy and placed into standby mode
B. If the replication factor is sufficient for the failure, the system is marked as unhealthy but remains operational
C. Distributed pooled data is migrated off nodes to master data store.
D. Performance is almost unaffected Sets 1-minute timer until self-healing starts.
E. Self-healing mode is initiated and data replication factors applied.
Correct Answer: BD

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Exam Name: Implementing a Data Warehouse with Microsoft SQL Server 2012
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Question No : 15 – (Topic 1) You are designing an enterprise star schema that will consolidate data from three
independent data marts. One of the data marts is hosted on SQL Azure.
Most of the dimensions have the same structure and content. However, the geography
dimension is slightly different in each data mart.
You need to design a consolidated dimensional structure that will be easy to maintain while
ensuring that all dimensional data from the three original solutions is represented.
What should you do?
A. Create a junk dimension for the geography dimension.
B. Implement change data capture.
C. Create a conformed dimension for the geography dimension.
D. Create three geography dimensions.
070-463 exam Answer: C
 Question No : 16 – (Topic 1)
To facilitate the troubleshooting of SQL Server Integration Services (SSIS) packages, a
logging methodology is put in place.
The methodology has the following requirements:
The deployment process must be simplified.
All the logs must be centralized in SQL Server.
Log data must be available via reports or T-SQL.
Log archival must be automated.
You need to configure a logging methodology that meets the requirements while minimizing
the amount of deployment and development effort.
What should you do?
A. Open a command prompt and run the gacutil command.
B. Open a command prompt and execute the package by using the SQL Log provider and
running the dtexecui.exe utility.
C. Add an OnError event handler to the SSIS project.
D. Use an msi file to deploy the package on the server.
E. Configure the output of a component in the package data flow to use a data tap.
F. Run the dtutil command to deploy the package to the SSIS catalog and store the
configuration in SQL Server.
G. Open a command prompt and run the dtexec /rep /conn command.
H. Open a command prompt and run the dtutil /copy command.
I. Open a command prompt and run the dtexec /dumperror /conn command.
J. Configure the SSIS solution to use the Project Deployment Model.
K. Create a reusable custom logging component and use it in the SSIS project.
Answer: J
Explanation:
Question No : 17 – (Topic 1)  You are developing a 070-463 dumps SQL Server Integration Services (SSIS) project that copies a large amount of rows from a SQL Azure database. The project uses the Package Deployment  Model. This project is deployed to SQL Server on a test server.You need to ensure that the project is deployed to the SSIS catalog on the production
server.What should you do?
A. Open a command prompt and run the dtexec /dumperror /conn command.
B. Create a reusable custom logging component and use it in the SSIS project.
C. Open a command prompt and run the gacutil command.
D. Add an OnError event handler to the SSIS project.
E. Open a command prompt and execute the package by using the SQL Log provider and
running the dtexecui.exe utility.
F. Open a command prompt and run the dtexec /rep /conn command.
G. Open a command prompt and run the dtutil /copy command.
H. Use an msi file to deploy the package on the server.
I. Configure the SSIS solution to use the Project Deployment Model.
J. Configure the output of a component in the package data flow to use a data tap.
K. Run the dtutil command to deploy the package to the SSIS catalog and store the
configuration in SQL Server.
Answer: I
Explanation: References:
Question No : 18 – (Topic 1) You are developing a SQL Server Integration Services (SSIS) package.
To process complex scientific data originating from a SQL Azure database, a custom task
component is added to the project.You need to ensure that the custom component is deployed on a test environment
correctly.What should you do?
A. Add an OnError event handler to the SSIS project.
B. Open a command prompt and run the gacutil command.
C. Configure the SSIS solution to use the Project Deployment Model.
D. Open a command prompt and run the dtexec /dumperror /conn command.
E. Configure the output of a component in the package data flow to use a data tap.
F. Open a command prompt and execute the package by using the SQL Log provider and
running the dtexecui.exe utility.
G. Open a command prompt and run the dtexec /rep /conn command.
H. Run the dtutil command to deploy the package to the SSIS catalog and store the
configuration in SQL Server.
I. Use an msi file to deploy the package on the server.
J. Open a command prompt and run the dtutil /copy command.
K. Create a reusable custom logging component and use it in the SSIS project.
Answer: B
Reference:
QUESTION 19
At which checkpoint does the rewrite () perform the TWURL modification?
A. Client In
B. Client Out
C. Server In
D. Server Out
070-463 pdf Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 20
When creating a TCP tunnel service in explicit mode, you must also configure a forwarding host?
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 21
In regards to authentication the ProxySG does not support origin-redirects with CONNECT method.
A. True
B. False
070-463 vce Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 22
What are the available actions for any given category, when defining ProxyClient content filtering
configuration? (Choose all that apply)
(a) Allow
(b) Deny
(c) Temporanily Allow
(d) Warm
A. a & b only
B. a, b & c only
C. a, b & d only
D. All of the above
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 23
Which statement is correct about WWW-Authenticate header?
A. It is request header used only with Basic Authentication to send username and password to a proxy or
a Web server
B. It is a request header used to send credentials
C. It is a response header used with HTTP 401 status code to negotiate method of authentication and
send NTLM challenge to the client.
070-463 exam Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 24
The authentication mode origin-ip-redirect allows an administrator to assign a Time To Live (TTL) for the
surrogate credentials. Meanwhile the authentication mode origin- cookie-redirect does not provide this
feature.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 25
What is the meaning of the metacharacter \ (backslash) in regular expressions?
A. escape character
B. any character except newline
C. zero or character
D. zero or more character
70-463 dumps Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 26
When configuring forwarding in PoxySG, what are the possible load balancing methods? (Choose all that
apply)
(a) Round Robin
(b) Fastest ICMP Reply
(c) Least Connections
(d) Least Delay
A. a & c only
B. b & d only
C. a & d only
D. b & c only
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 27
ICAP responses may be cached on a ProxySG, i.e, for some Web requests ICAP processing may be
completed without involving ProxyAV
A. True
B. False
070-463 pdf Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 28
Which of the following are true when enabling the early intercept attribute for a proxy service?
(Choose all that apply)
(a) It is automatically enabled when the detect protocol attribute is enabled.
(b) The ProxySG completes the three-way TCP handshake with the client before establishing a connection
to the upstream server.
(c) It can be used with any protocol.
A. a & c only
B. a & b only
C. c only
D. All of the above
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 29
When implementing failover with ProxySG appliances, configurations and policies on the master are
automatically replicated to members of the failover group.
A. True
B. False
70-463 vce Correct Answer: A

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QUESTION 30
Which principle of training best describes a previously active client, who has been ill and bed-ridden for a
prolonged period of time?
A. Overload
B. Specificity
C. Reversibility
D. Progression
070-410 exam Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 31
If you are palpating the thumb side of the forearm in the wrist area, what pulse are you checking?
A. Humeral
B. Ulnar
C. Brachial
D. Radial
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 32
What is the correct order of the regions of the spinal column, from superior to inferior?
A. Cervical, lumbar, thoracic, sacral and coccyx.
B. Coccyx, sacral, lumbar, thoracic, and cervical.
C. Cervical, thoracic, lumbar, coccyx, and sacral.
D. Cervical, thoracic, lumbar,sacral, and coccyx.
70-410 dumps Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 33
Which muscle is an antagonist of the hamstrings?
A. Gastrocnemius
B. Iliopsoas
C. Gracilis
D. Sartorius
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 34
Which of the following physiological changes does NOT occur when a client improves aerobic capacity?
A. The muscles will be able to extract more oxygen from the blood.
B. Total lung volume will increase in proportion to the total accumulated time of high-intensity exercise.
C. The oxygen carrying capacity of the blood will increase.
D. The amount of air the lungs can take in will increase because of increases in the rate and depth of
breathing.
070-410 pdf Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 35
As the intensity of dynamic exercise increases, which of the following sets of responses occurs?
A. Heart rate, systolic blood pressure, and diastolic blood pressure increase.
B. Heart rate and systolic blood pressure increase, diastolic pressure remains unchanged.
C. Heart rate and systolic blood pressure increase, stroke volume and cardiac output remain the same.
D. Stroke volume decreases, heart rate and cardiac output increase.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 36
From a seated position, with dumbbells to the sides, raising the dumbbells laterally to shoulder level with
elbows slightly flexed, exercises primarily the _______:
A. bicep brachii and latisimus dorsi
B. posterior deltoid
C. anterior deltoid and triceps brachii
D. middle deltoid.
070-410 vce Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 37
What is the major muscle used to flex the hip joint?
A. Vastus lateralis
B. Iliopsoas
C. Biceps femoris
D. Gluteus maximus
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 38
A subject with elbows held at 90 degrees of flexion is handed a 150 lb (68.1kg) barbell. Even though he
exerts maximal tension, the barbell causes the joint angle to increase to 170 degrees. Which one of the
following describes the muscle action during the extension?
A. Isotonic concentric
B. Isotonic eccentric
C. Isokinetic concentric
D. Isokinetic eccentric
070-410 exam Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 39
Type II muscle fibers:
A. Have a high capacity to generate energy through the electron transport system.
B. Have a high capacity to generate energy from fat.
C. Are recruited at a higher percentage of maximum force than Type I fibers.
D. Have high endurance capabilities.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 40
Which of the following is a normal blood pressure (BP) response to aerobic exercise?
A. Both systolic and diastolic BP increase proportionately to increases in workload.
B. Systolic BP increases and diastolic BP decreases.
C. Systolic BP increases proportionately to increases in workload and diastolic BP remains unchanged or
decreases slightly.
D. Systolic and diastolic BP both decrease at the onset of exercise, then increase in proportion to the
increase in intensity.
70-410 dumps Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 41
Which rotator cuff muscle abducts the arm?
A. Infraspinatus
B. Supraspinatus
C. Subscapularis
D. Medial deltoid
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 42
Which energy system has the highest capacity for ATP production?
A. ATP-CP
B. Rapid glycolysis
C. Slow glycolysis
D. Oxidative phosphorylation
070-410 pdf Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 43
What plane divides the body into upper and lower sections?
A. Sagittal
B. Frontal
C. Transverse
D. Median
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 44
When performing neck flexion in the sagittal plane, which of the following exercises best mimics that
movement?
A. Cartwheel
B. Somersault
C. Bicep curl
D. Leg curl
070-410 vce Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 45
Under which of the following circumstances would you expect to see the highest rise in blood lactate?
A. During maximal exercise lasting between 60 and 180 seconds in the untrained client
B. Prior to treadmill walking in the cardiac patient
C. During maximal exercise lasting between 60 and 180 seconds in the athlete
D. After moderate intensity cycling exercise in the client with Type 2 diabetes
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 46
Typical movements in the weight room such as a biceps curl using free weights and leg press actions
using a machine are best described as ____________ muscle actions.
A. plyometric
B. isokinetic
C. ballistic
D. isotonic
070-410 exam Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 47
The latissimus dorsi acts as the prime mover during the concentric phase of which of the following
exercises?
A. lat pulldown
B. flat bench press
C. lateral raise
D. incline bench press
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 48
Which of the following bones facilitate the movement of the chest during both 70-410 dumps inspiration and expiration?
A. clavicle
B. scapula
C. carpal
D. scalene
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 49
Which of the following is characterized as a plane (uniaxial) joint?
A. Coxal (hip)
B. Atlantooccipital
C. Radiocarpal (wrist)
D. Sacroiliac
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 50
Which of the following indicates the reason why a female who is pregnant should avoid exercise in the
supine position after the first trimester?
A. obstruction of arterial blood flow
B. risk of orthostatic hypotension due to obstructed venous return
C. obstruction of the diaphragm
D. risk of decreased oxygen consumption due to pressure on the uterus
070-410 pdf Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 51
As a response to a progressive resistance training program, which of the following demonstrates the
predominant contribution to an increase in the cross-sectional area of a muscle?
A. atrophy and possibly hypertrophy
B. hyperplasia and possibly hypertrophy
C. atrophy and possibly hyperplasia
D. hypertrophy and possibly hyperplasia
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 52
What is an appropriate precaution and/or modification for exercising in higher ambient temperatures?
A. Take salt tablets.
B. Drink eight ounces of water once per hour.
C. Select proper loose-fitting, lightweight clothing.
D. Train in clothes designed to trap and hold body heat.
070-410 vce Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 53
What is the intensity recommendation for the initial conditioning stage of a cardiovascular program?
A. 10% to 20% of heart rate reserve
B. 20% to 30% of heart rate reserve
C. 40% to 60% of heart rate reserve
D. 60% to 85% of heart rate reserve
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 54
Approximately how long is the initial conditioning phase of a cardiovascular training program?
A. Four weeks
B. Eight weeks
C. Twelve weeks
D. Sixteen weeks
070-410 exam Correct Answer: A

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