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QUESTION 30
View the Exhibit and examine the description for the CUSTOMERS table.

You want to update the CUST_CREDIT_LIMIT column to NULL for all the customers, where CUST_INCOME_LEVEL has NULL in the CUSTOMERS table. Which SQL statement will accomplish the task?
A. UPDATE customers SET cust_credit_limit = NULL WHERE CUST_INCOME_LEVEL = NULL;
B. UPDATE customers SET cust_credit_limit = NULL WHERE cust_income_level IS NULL;
C. UPDATE customers SET cust_credit_limit = TO_NUMBER(NULL) WHERE cust_income_level = TO_NUMBER(NULL);
D. UPDATE customers SET cust_credit_limit = TO_NUMBER(‘ ‘,9999) WHERE cust_income_level IS NULL;

Correct Answer: B Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 31
Which two statements about sub queries are true? (Choose two.)
A. A sub query should retrieve only one row.
B. A sub query can retrieve zero or more rows.
C. A sub query can be used only in SQL query statements.
D. Sub queries CANNOT be nested by more than two levels.
E. A sub query CANNOT be used in an SQL query statement that uses group functions.
F. When a sub query is used with an inequality comparison operator in the outer SQL statement, the column list in the SELECT clause of the sub query should contain only one column.

Correct Answer: BF Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: sub query can retrieve zero or more rows, sub query is used with an inequality comparison operator in the outer SQL statement, and the column list in the SELECT clause of the sub query should contain only one column.
Incorrect answer: A sub query can retrieve zero or more rows C sub query is not SQL query statement D sub query can be nested E group function can be use with sub query
QUESTION 32
View the Exhibit and examine the structure of the PROMOTIONS table.

You have to generate a report that displays the promo name and start date for all promos that started after the last promo in the ‘INTERNET’ category.
Which query would give you the required output?
A. SELECT promo_name, promo_begin_date FROM promotions WHERE promo_begin_date > ALL (SELECT MAX(promo_begin_date) FROM promotions ) AND promo_category = ‘INTERNET’;
B. SELECT promo_name, promo_begin_date FROM promotions WHERE promo_begin_date IN (SELECT promo_begin_date FROM promotions WHERE promo_category=’INTERNET’);
C. SELECT promo_name, promo_begin_date FROM promotions WHERE promo_begin_date > ALL (SELECT promo_begin_date FROM promotions WHERE promo_category = ‘INTERNET’);
D. SELECT promo_name, promo_begin_date FROM promotions WHERE promo_begin_date > ANY (SELECT promo_begin_date FROM promotions WHERE promo_category = ‘INTERNET’);

Correct Answer: C Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 33
Which are /SQL*Plus commands? (Choose all that apply.)
A. INSERT
B. UPDATE
C. SELECT
D. DESCRIBE
E. DELETE
F. RENAME

Correct Answer: D Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Describe is a valid iSQL*Plus/ SQL*Plus command.
INSERT, UPDATE & DELETE are SQL DML Statements. A SELECT is an ANSI Standard SQL Statement

not an iSQL*Plus Statement. RENAME is a DDL Statement.
QUESTION 34
Which two statements are true regarding the COUNT function? (Choose two.)
A. COUNT(*) returns the number of rows including duplicate rows and rows containing NULL value in any of the columns
B. COUNT(cust_id) returns the number of rows including rows with duplicate customer IDs and NULL value in the CUST_ID column
C. COUNT(DISTINCT inv_amt) returns the number of rows excluding rows containing duplicates and NULL values in the INV_AMT column
D. A SELECT statement using COUNT function with a DISTINCT keyword cannot have a WHERE clause
E. The COUNT function can be used only for CHAR, VARCHAR2 and NUMBER data types

Correct Answer: AC Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Using the COUNT Function
The COUNT function has three formats:
COUNT(*)
COUNT(expr)
COUNT(DISTINCT expr)
COUNT(*) returns the number of rows in a table that satisfy the criteria of the SELECT statement, including
duplicate rows and rows containing null values in any of the columns. If a WHERE clause is included in the
SELECT statement, COUNT(*) returns the number of rows that satisfy the condition in the WHERE clause.
In contrast,
COUNT(expr) returns the number of non-null values that are in the column identified by expr. COUNT
(DISTINCT expr) returns the number of unique, non-null values that are in the column identified by expr.

QUESTION 35
Examine the description of the EMP_DETAILS table given below: Exhibit:

Which two statements are true regarding SQL statements that can be executed on the EMP_DETAIL table? (Choose two.)
A. An EMP_IMAGE column can be included in the GROUP BY clause
B. You cannot add a new column to the table with LONG as the data type
C. An EMP_IMAGE column cannot be included in the ORDER BY clause
D. You can alter the table to include the NOT NULL constraint on the EMP_IMAGE column

Correct Answer: BC Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: LONG Character data in the database character set, up to 2GB. All the functionality of LONG (and more) is provided by CLOB; LONGs should not be used in a modern database, and if your database has any columns of this type they should be converted to CLOB. There can only be one LONG column in a table. Guidelines A LONG column is not copied when a table is created using a subquery. A LONG column cannot be
included in a GROUP BY or an ORDER BY clause.
Only one LONG column can be used per table.
No constraints can be defined on a LONG column.
You might want to use a CLOB column rather than a LONG column.

QUESTION 36
Which CREATE TABLE statement is valid?
A. CREATE TABLE ord_details (ord_no NUMBER(2) PRIMARY KEY, item_no NUMBER(3) PRIMARY KEY, ord_date DATE NOT NULL);
B. CREATE TABLE ord_details (ord_no NUMBER(2) UNIQUE, NOT NULL, item_no NUMBER(3), ord_date DATE DEFAULT SYSDATE NOT NULL);
C. CREATE TABLE ord_details (ord_no NUMBER(2) , item_no NUMBER(3), ord_date DATE DEFAULT NOT NULL, CONSTRAINT ord_uq UNIQUE (ord_no), CONSTRAINT ord_pk PRIMARY KEY (ord_no));
D. CREATE TABLE ord_details (ord_no NUMBER(2), item_no NUMBER(3), ord_date DATE DEFAULT SYSDATE NOT NULL, CONSTRAINT ord_pk PRIMARY KEY (ord_no, item_no));

Correct Answer: D Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: PRIMARY KEY Constraint A PRIMARY KEY constraint creates a primary key for the table. Only one primary key can be created for each table. The PRIMARY KEY constraint is a column or a set of columns that uniquely identifies each row in a table. This constraint enforces the uniqueness of the column or column combination and ensures that no column that is part of the primary key can contain a null value. Note: Because uniqueness is part of the primary key constraint definition, the Oracle server enforces the uniqueness by implicitly creating a unique index on the primary key column or columns.
QUESTION 37
See the exhibit and examine the structure of the CUSTOMERS and GRADES tables: You need to display names and grades of customers who have the highest credit limit. Which two SQL statements would accomplish the task? (Choose two.)

A. SELECT custname, grade FROM customers, grades WHERE (SELECT MAX(cust_credit_limit) FROM customers) BETWEEN startval and endval;
B. SELECT custname, grade FROM customers, grades WHERE (SELECT MAX(cust_credit_limit) FROM customers) BETWEEN startval and endval AND cust_credit_limit BETWEEN startval AND endval;
C. SELECT custname, grade FROM customers, grades WHERE cust_credit_limit = (SELECT MAX(cust_credit_limit) FROM customers) AND cust_credit_limit BETWEEN startval AND endval;
D. SELECT custname, grade FROM customers , grades WHERE cust_credit_limit IN (SELECT MAX(cust_credit_limit) FROM customers) AND MAX(cust_credit_limit) BETWEEN startval AND endval;

Correct Answer: BC Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 38
See the Exhibit and Examine the structure of the CUSTOMERS table:

Using the CUSTOMERS table, you need to generate a report that shows an increase in the credit limit by 15% for all customers. Customers whose credit limit has not been entered should have the message “Not Available” displayed.
Which SQL statement would produce the required result?
A. SELECT NVL(cust_credit_limit,’Not Available’)*.15 “NEW CREDIT” FROM customers;
B. SELECT NVL(cust_credit_limit*.15,’Not Available’) “NEW CREDIT” FROM customers;
C. SELECT TO_CHAR(NVL(cust_credit_limit*.15,’Not Available’)) “NEW CREDIT” FROM customers;
D. SELECT NVL(TO_CHAR(cust_credit_limit*.15),’Not Available’) “NEW CREDIT” FROM customers;

Correct Answer: D Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
NVL Function
Converts a null value to an actual value:
Data types that can be used are date, character, and number.
Data types must match:

NVL(commission_pct,0)
NVL(hire_date,’01-JAN-97′)
NVL(job_id,’No Job Yet’)

QUESTION 39
You need to calculate the number of days from 1st Jan 2007 till date:
Dates are stored in the default format of dd-mm-rr.
Which two SQL statements would give the required output? (Choose two.)

A. SELECT SYSDATE – TO_DATE(’01/JANUARY/2007′) FROM DUAL;
B. SELECT TO_DATE(SYSDATE,’DD/MONTH/YYYY’)-’01/JANUARY/2007′ FROM DUAL;
C. SELECT SYSDATE – TO_DATE(’01-JANUARY-2007′) FROM DUAL
D. SELECT SYSDATE – ’01-JAN-2007′ FROM DUAL
E. SELECT TO_CHAR(SYSDATE,’DD-MON-YYYY’)-’01-JAN-2007′ FROM DUAL;

Correct Answer: AC Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 40
Which two are true about aggregate functions? (Choose two.)
A. You can use aggregate functions in any clause of a SELECT statement.
B. You can use aggregate functions only in the column list of the select clause and in the WHERE clause of a SELECT statement.
C. You can mix single row columns with aggregate functions in the column list of a SELECT statement by grouping on the single row columns.
D. You can pass column names, expressions, constants, or functions as parameter to an aggregate function.
E. You can use aggregate functions on a table, only by grouping the whole table as one single group.
F. You cannot group the rows of a table by more than one column while using aggregate functions.
Correct Answer: AD Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 41
See the structure of the PROGRAMS table:

Which two SQL statements would execute successfully? (Choose two.)
A. SELECT NVL(ADD_MONTHS(END_DATE,1),SYSDATE) FROM programs;
B. SELECT TO_DATE(NVL(SYSDATE-END_DATE,SYSDATE)) FROM programs;
C. SELECT NVL(MONTHS_BETWEEN(start_date,end_date),’Ongoing’) FROM programs;
D. SELECT NVL(TO_CHAR(MONTHS_BETWEEN(start_date,end_date)),’Ongoing’) FROM programs;

Correct Answer: AD Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
NVL Function
Converts a null value to an actual value:
Data types that can be used are date, character, and number.
Data types must match:

NVL(commission_pct,0)

NVL(hire_date,’01-JAN-97′)

NVL(job_id,’No Job Yet’)

MONTHS_BETWEEN(date1, date2): Finds the number of months between date1 and date2 . The result
can be positive or negative. If date1 is later than date2, the result is positive; if date1 is earlier than date2,
the result is negative. The noninteger part of the result represents a portion of the month.
MONTHS_BETWEEN returns a numeric value. – answer C NVL has different datatypes – numeric and
strings, which is not possible!

The data types of the original and if null parameters must always be compatible. They must either be of the
same type, or it must be possible to implicitly convert if null to the type of the original parameter. The NVL
function returns a value with the same data type as the original parameter.

QUESTION 42
You issue the following command to drop the PRODUCTS table: SQL>DROP TABLE products;
What is the implication of this command? (Choose all that apply.)
A. All data in the table are deleted but the table structure will remain
B. All data along with the table structure is deleted
C. All views and synonyms will remain but they are invalidated
D. The pending transaction in the session is committed
E. All indexes on the table will remain but they are invalidated
Correct Answer: BCD Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 43
Exhibit contains the structure of PRODUCTS table: Evaluate the following query:
What would be the outcome of executing the above SQL statement?
A. It produces an error
B. It shows the names of products whose list price is the second highest in the table.
C. It shown the names of all products whose list price is less than the maximum list price
D. It shows the names of all products in the table Correct Answer: B

Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 44
See the Exhibits and examine the structures of PRODUCTS, SALES and CUSTOMERS table: You issue the following query:
Which statement is true regarding the outcome of this query?
A. It produces an error because the NATURAL join can be used only with two tables
B. It produces an error because a column used in the NATURAL join cannot have a qualifier
C. It produces an error because all columns used in the NATURAL join should have a qualifier
D. It executes successfully

Correct Answer: B Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: Creating Joins with the USING Clause Natural joins use all columns with matching names and data types to join the tables. The USING clause can be used to specify only those columns that should be used for an equijoin. The Natural JOIN USING Clause The format of the syntax for the natural JOIN USING clause is as follows: SELECT table1.column, table2.column FROM table1 JOIN table2 USING (join_column1, join_column2…); While the pure natural join contains the NATURAL keyword in its syntax, the JOIN…USING syntax does not. An error is raised if the keywords NATURAL and USING occur in the same join clause. The JOIN…USING clause allows one or more equijoin columns to be explicitly specified in brackets after the USING keyword. This avoids the shortcomings associated with the pure natural join. Many situations demand that tables be joined only on certain columns, and this format caters to this requirement.
QUESTION 45
You work as a database administrator at ABC.com. You study the exhibit carefully.
Exhibit:

You want to create a SALE_PROD view by executing the following SQL statements:

Which statement is true regarding the execution of the above statement?
A. The view will be created and you can perform DLM operations on the view
B. The view will not be created because the join statements are not allowed for creating a view
C. The view will not be created because the GROUP BY clause is not allowed for creating a view
D. The view will be created but no DML operations will be allowed on the view
Correct Answer: D Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: Rules for Performing DML Operations on a View You cannot add data through a view if the view includes: Group functions A GROUP BY clause The DISTINCT keyword The pseudocolumn ROWNUM keyword Columns defined by expressions NOT NULL columns in the base tables that are not selected by the view
QUESTION 46
Which three statements are true regarding the data types in Oracle Database 10g/11g? (Choose three.)
A. The BLOB data type column is used to store binary data in an operating system file
B. The minimum column width that can be specified for a VARCHAR2 data type column is one
C. A TIMESTAMP data type column stores only time values with fractional seconds
D. The value for a CHAR data type column is blank-padded to the maximum defined column width
E. Only One LONG column can be used per table

Correct Answer: BDE Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
LONG Character data in the database character set, up to 2GB. All the functionality of LONG (and more) is
provided by CLOB; LONGs should not be used in a modern database, and if your database has any
columns of this type they should be converted to CLOB. There can only be one LONG column in a table.
DVARCHAR2 Variable-length character data, from 1 byte to 4KB. The data is stored in the database
character set. The VARCHAR2 data type must be qualified with a number indicating the maximum length
of the column.
If a value is inserted into the column that is less than this, it is not a problem: the value will only take up as
much space as it needs. If the value is longer than this maximum, the INSERT will fail with an error.
VARCHAR2(size)
Variable-length character data (A maximum size must be specified: minimum size is 1; maximum size is
4,000.)
BLOB Like CLOB, but binary data that will not undergo character set conversion by Oracle Net. BFILE A
locator pointing to a file stored on the operating system of the database server. The size of the files is
limited to 4GB.
TIMESTAMP This is length zero if the column is empty, or up to 11 bytes, depending on the precision
specified.
Similar to DATE, but with precision of up to 9 decimal places for the seconds, 6 places by default.

QUESTION 47
Which three are true? (Choose three.)
A. A MERGE statement is used to merge the data of one table with data from another.
B. A MERGE statement replaces the data of one table with that of another.
C. A MERGE statement can be used to insert new rows into a table.
D. A MERGE statement can be used to update existing rows in a table.

Correct Answer: ACD Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: The MERGE Statement allows you to conditionally insert or update data in a table. If the rows are present in the target table which match the join condition, they are updated if the rows are not present they are inserted into the target table
QUESTION 48
Which two statements are true regarding views? (Choose two.)
A. A sub query that defines a view cannot include the GROUP BY clause
B. A view is created with the sub query having the DISTINCT keyword can be updated
C. A Data Manipulation Language (DML) operation can be performed on a view that is created with the sub query having all the NOT NULL columns of a table
D. A view that is created with the sub query having the pseudo column ROWNUM keyword cannot be updated

Correct Answer: CD Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: Rules for Performing DML Operations on a View You cannot add data through a view if the view includes: Group functions A GROUP BY clause The DISTINCT keyword The pseudocolumn ROWNUM keyword Columns defined by expressions NOT NULL columns in the base tables that are not selected by the view
QUESTION 49
Examine the structure of the EMPLOYEES and NEW_EMPLOYEES tables:

Which DELETE statement is valid?
A. DELETE FROM employees WHERE employee_id = (SELECT employee_id FROM employees);
B. DELETE * FROM employees WHERE employee_id=(SELECT employee_id FROM new_employees);
C. DELETE FROM employees WHERE employee_id IN (SELECT employee_id FROM new_employees WHERE name = `Carrey’);
D. DELETE * FROM employees WHERE employee_id IN (SELECT employee_id FROM new_employees WHERE name = `Carrey’);

Correct Answer: C Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 50
View the Exhibits and examine the structures of the PROMOTIONS and SALES tables.

Evaluate the following SQL statements:

Which statement is true regarding the output of the above query?
A. It gives details of product IDs that have been sold irrespective of whether they had a promo or not
B. It gives the details of promos for which there have been no sales
C. It gives the details of promos for which there have been sales
D. It gives details of all promos irrespective of whether they have resulted in a sale or not Correct Answer: D

Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 51
Examine the structure of the EMPLOYEES table:

Which UPDATE statement is valid?
A. UPDATE employees SET first_name = `John’
SET last_name = `Smith’
WHERE employee_id = 180;

B. UPDATE employees SET first_name = `John’, SET last_name = `Smoth’ WHERE employee_id = 180;
C. UPDATE employee SET first_name = `John’ AND last_name = `Smith’ WHERE employee_id = 180;
D. UPDATE employee SET first_name = `John’, last_name = `Smith’ WHERE employee_id = 180;

Correct Answer: D Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 52
View the Exhibit and evaluate structures of the SALES, PRODUCTS, and COSTS tables.

Evaluate the following SQL statements: Which statement is true regarding the above compound query?

A. It shows products that have a cost recorded irrespective of sales
B. It shows products that were sold and have a cost recorded
C. It shows products that were sold but have no cost recorded
D. It reduces an error Correct Answer: C

Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 53
The PRODUCTS table has the following structure:

Evaluate the following two SQL statements:

Which statement is true regarding the outcome?
A. Both the statements execute and give the same result
B. Both the statements execute and give different results
C. Only the second SQL statement executes successfully
D. Only the first SQL statement executes successfully

Correct Answer: B Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: Using the NVL2 Function The NVL2 function examines the first expression. If the first expression is not null, the NVL2 function returns the second expression. If the first expression is null, the third expression is returned. Syntax NVL2(expr1, expr2, expr3) In the syntax: expr1 is the source value or expression that may contain a null expr2 is the value that is returned if expr1 is not null expr3 is the value that is returned if expr1 is null
QUESTION 54
Which statements are correct regarding indexes? (Choose all that apply.)
A. For each data manipulation language (DML) operation performed, the corresponding indexes are automatically updated.
B. A nondeferrable PRIMARY KEY or UNIQUE KEY constraint in a table automatically creates a unique index.
C. A FOREIGN KEY constraint on a column in a table automatically creates a non unique key D. When a table is dropped, the corresponding indexes are automatically dropped

Correct Answer: ABD Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 55
You work as a database administrator at ABC.com. You study the exhibit carefully. Exhibit:

Which two SQL statements would execute successfully? (Choose two.)
A. UPDATE promotions SET promo_cost = promo_cost+ 100 WHERE TO_CHAR(promo_end_date, ‘yyyy’) > ‘2000’;
B. SELECT promo_begin_date FROM promotions WHERE TO_CHAR(promo_begin_date,’mon dd yy’)=’jul 01 98′;
C. UPDATE promotions SET promo_cost = promo_cost+ 100 WHERE promo_end_date > TO_DATE(SUBSTR(’01-JAN-2000′,8));
D. SELECT TO_CHAR(promo_begin_date,’dd/month’) FROM promotions WHERE promo_begin_date IN (TO_DATE(‘JUN 01 98’), TO_DATE(‘JUL 01 98’));

Correct Answer: AB Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 56
Examine these statements:

CREATE ROLE registrar;
GRANT UPDATE ON student_grades TO registrar;
GRANT registrar to user1, user2, user3;

What does this set of SQL statements do?

A. The set of statements contains an error and does not work.
B. It creates a role called REGISTRAR, adds the MODIFY privilege on the STUDENT_GRADES object to the role, and gives the REGISTRAR role to three users.
C. It creates a role called REGISTRAR, adds the UPDATE privilege on the STUDENT_GRADES object to the role, and gives the REGISTRAR role to three users.
D. It creates a role called REGISTRAR, adds the UPDATE privilege on the STUDENT_GRADES object to the role, and creates three users with the role.
E. It creates a role called REGISTRAR, adds the UPDATE privilege on three users, and gives the REGISTRAR role to the STUDENT_GRADES object.
F. It creates a role called STUDENT_GRADES, adds the UPDATE privilege on three users, and gives the UPDATE role to the registrar.

Correct Answer: C Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: the statement will create a role call REGISTRAR, grant UPDATE on student_grades to registrar, grant the role to user1,user2 and user3.
Incorrect answer: A the statement does not contain error B there is no MODIFY privilege D statement does not create 3 users with the role E privilege is grant to role then grant to user F privilege is grant to role then grant to user
QUESTION 57
Examine the structure of the MARKS table:
Exhibit:

Which two statements would execute successfully? (Choose two.)
A. SELECT student_name,subject1 FROM marks WHERE subject1 > AVG(subject1);
B. SELECT student_name,SUM(subject1) FROM marks WHERE student_name LIKE ‘R%’;
C. SELECT SUM(subject1+subject2+subject3) FROM marks WHERE student_name IS NULL;
D. SELECT SUM(DISTINCT NVL(subject1,0)), MAX(subject1) FROM marks WHERE subject1 > subject2;

Correct Answer: CD Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 58
You are currently located in Singapore and have connected to a remote database in Chicago. You issue the following command:
Exhibit: PROMOTIONS is the public synonym for the public database link for the PROMOTIONS table. What is the outcome?

A. Number of days since the promo started based on the current Singapore data and time.
B. An error because the ROUND function specified is invalid
C. An error because the WHERE condition specified is invalid
D. Number of days since the promo started based on the current Chicago data and time Correct Answer: D

Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 59
Evaluate the following two queries: Exhibit:

Exhibit:

Which statement is true regarding the above two queries?
A. Performance would improve in query 2 only if there are null values in the CUST_CREDIT_LIMIT column
B. Performance would degrade in query 2
C. There would be no change in performance
D. Performance would improve in query 2

Correct Answer: C Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Note: The IN operator is internally evaluated by the Oracle server as a set of OR conditions, such as
a=value1 or a=value2 or a=value3. Therefore, using the IN operator has no performance benefits and is
used only for logical simplicity.

QUESTION 60
View the Exhibit and examine the structure of the CUSTOMERS and CUST_HISTORY tables.

The CUSTOMERS table contains the current location of all currently active customers. The CUST_HISTORY table stores historical details relating to any changes in the location of all current as well as previous customers who are no longer active with the company.
You need to find those customers who have never changed their address. Which SET operator would you use to get the required output?
A. INTERSECT
B. UNION ALL
C. MINUS

D. UNION Correct Answer: C
Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 61
You created an ORDERS table with the following description: Exhibit:

You inserted some rows in the table. After some time, you want to alter the table by creating the PRIMARY KEY constraint on the ORD_ID column.
Which statement is true in this scenario?
A. You cannot add a primary key constraint if data exists in the column
B. You can add the primary key constraint even if data exists, provided that there are no duplicate values
C. The primary key constraint can be created only a the time of table creation
D. You cannot have two constraints on one column

Correct Answer: B Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 62
Which object privileges can be granted on a view?
A. none
B. DELETE, INSERT,SELECT
C. ALTER, DELETE, INSERT, SELECT
D. DELETE, INSERT, SELECT, UPDATE

Correct Answer: D Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: Object privilege on VIEW is DELETE, INSERT, REFERENCES, SELECT and UPDATE. Incorrect answer: A Object privilege on VIEW is DELETE, INSERT, REFERENCES, SELECT and UPDATE B Object privilege on VIEW is DELETE, INSERT, REFERENCES, SELECT and UPDATE C Object privilege on VIEW is DELETE, INSERT, REFERENCES, SELECT and UPDATE
Refer: Introduction to Oracle9i: SQL, Oracle University Study Guide, 13-12
QUESTION 63
When does a transaction complete? (Choose all that apply.)
A. When a PL/SQL anonymous block is executed
B. When a DELETE statement is executed
C. When a data definition language statement is executed
D. When a TRUNCATE statement is executed after the pending transaction
E. When a ROLLBACK command is executed
Correct Answer: CDE Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 64
View the Exhibit and examine the structure of the CUSTOMERS table. Exhibit:

you issue the following SQL statement on the CUSTOMERS table to display the customers who are in the
same country as customers with the last name ‘king’ and whose credit limit is less than the maximum credit limit in countries that have customers with the last name ‘king’.

Which statement is true regarding the outcome of the above query?
A. It produces an error and the < operator should be replaced by < ANY to get the required output
B. It produces an error and the IN operator should be replaced by = in the WHERE clause of the main query to get the required output
C. It executes and shows the required result
D. It produces an error and the < operator should be replaced by < ALL to get the required output

Correct Answer: C Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 65
You need to create a table for a banking application. One of the columns in the table has the following requirements:
You want a column in the table to store the duration of the credit period The data in the column should be stored in a format such that it can be easily added and subtracted with DATE data type without using conversion The maximum period of the credit provision in the application is 30 days the interest has to be calculated for the number of days an individual has taken a credit for
Which data type would you use for such a column in the table?
A. INTERVAL YEAR TO MONTH
B. NUMBER
C. TIMESTAMP
D. DATE
E. INTERVAL DAY TO SECOND
Correct Answer: E Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 66
The STUDENT_GRADES table has these columns: Which statement finds students who have a grade point average (GPA) greater than 3.0 for the calendar year 2001?

A. SELECT student_id, gpa FROM student_grades WHERE semester_end BETWEEN ’01-JAN-2001′ AND ’31-DEC-2001′ OR gpa > 3.;
B. SELECT student_id, gpa FROM student_grades WHERE semester_end BETWEEN ’01-JAN-2001′ AND ’31-DEC-2001′ AND gpa gt 3.0;
C. SELECT student_id, gpa FROM student_grades WHERE semester_end BETWEEN ’01-JAN-2001′ AND ’31-DEC-2001′ AND gpa > 3.0;
D. SELECT student_id, gpa FROM student_grades WHERE semester_end BETWEEN ’01-JAN-2001′ AND ’31-DEC-2001′ OR gpa > 3.0;
E. SELECT student_id, gpa FROM student_grades WHERE semester_end > ’01-JAN-2001′ OR semester_end < ’31-DEC-2001′ AND gpa >= 3.0;

Correct Answer: C Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 67
View the Exhibit and examine the data in the PROMOTIONS table.

You need to display all promo categories that do not have ‘discount’ in their subcategory. Which two SQL statements give the required result? (Choose two.)
A. SELECT promo_category FROM promotions MINUS SELECT promo_category FROM promotions
WHERE promo_subcategory = ‘discount’;
B. SELECT promo_category FROM promotions INTERSECT SELECT promo_category FROM promotions WHERE promo_subcategory = ‘discount’;
C. SELECT promo_category FROM promotions MINUS SELECT promo_category FROM promotions WHERE promo_subcategory <> ‘discount’;
D. SELECT promo_category FROM promotions INTERSECT SELECT promo_category FROM promotions WHERE promo_subcategory <> ‘discount’;
Correct Answer: AD Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 68
You work as a database administrator at ABC.com. You study the exhibit carefully.
Exhibit:

and examine the structure of CUSTOMRS AND SALES tables:
Evaluate the following SQL statement:
Exhibit:
Which statement is true regarding the execution of the above UPDATE statement?
A. It would not execute because the SELECT statement cannot be used in place of the table name
B. It would execute and restrict modifications to only the column specified in the SELECT statement
C. It would not execute because a sub query cannot be used in the WHERE clause of an UPDATE statement
D. It would not execute because two tables cannot be used in a single UPDATE statement Correct Answer: B

Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 69
See the Exhibit and examine the structure of the PROMOTIONS table: Exhibit:

Using the PROMOTIONS table, you need to find out the average cost for all promos in the range $0-2000
and $2000-5000 in category A.
You issue the following SQL statements:
Exhibit:
What would be the outcome?
A. It generates an error because multiple conditions cannot be specified for the WHEN clause
B. It executes successfully and gives the required result
C. It generates an error because CASE cannot be used with group functions
D. It generates an error because NULL cannot be specified as a return value Correct Answer: B

Explanation Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: CASE Expression Facilitates conditional inquiries by doing the work of an IF-THEN-ELSE statement: CASE expr WHEN comparison_expr1 THEN return_expr1 [WHEN comparison_expr2 THEN return_expr2 WHEN comparison_exprn THEN return_exprn ELSE else_expr] END
QUESTION 70
Which two statements are true regarding the USING and ON clauses in table joins? (Choose two.)
A. The ON clause can be used to join tables on columns that have different names but compatible data types
B. A maximum of one pair of columns can be joined between two tables using the ON clause
C. Both USING and ON clause can be used for equijoins and nonequijoins
D. The WHERE clause can be used to apply additional conditions in SELECT statement containing the ON or the USING clause

Correct Answer: AD Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: Creating Joins with the USING Clause If several columns have the same names but the data types do not match, use the USING clause to specify the columns for the equijoin. Use the USING clause to match only one column when more than one column matches. The NATURAL JOIN and USING clauses are mutually exclusive Using Table Aliases with the USING clause When joining with the USING clause, you cannot qualify a column that is used in the USING clause itself. Furthermore, if that column is used anywhere in the SQL statement, you cannot alias it. For example, in the query mentioned in the slide, you should not alias the location_id column in the WHERE clause because the column is used in the USING clause. The columns that are referenced in the USING clause should not have a qualifier (table name oralias) anywhere in the SQL statement. Creating Joins with the ON Clause The join condition for the natural join is basically an equijoin of all columns with the same name. Use the ON clause to specify arbitrary conditions or specify columns to join. ANSWER C The join condition is separated from other search conditions. ANSWER D The ON clause makes code easy to understand.
QUESTION 71
Examine the structure of the EMPLOYEES table:

Which INSERT statement is valid?
A. INSERT INTO employees (employee_id, first_name, last_name, hire_date) VALUES ( 1000, `John’, `Smith’, `01/01/01′);
B. INSERT INTO employees(employee_id, first_name, last_name, hire_date) VALUES ( 1000, `John’, `Smith’, ’01 January 01′);
C. INSERT INTO employees(employee_id, first_name, last_name, Hire_date) VALUES ( 1000, `John’, `Smith’, To_date(`01/01/01′));
D. INSERT INTO employees(employee_id, first_name, last_name, hire_date) VALUES ( 1000, `John’, `Smith’, 01-Jan-01);

Correct Answer: D Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: It is the only statement that has a valid date; all other will result in an error. Answer A is incorrect, syntax error, invalid date format
QUESTION 72
The user Alice wants to grant all users query privileges on her DEPT table. Which SQL statement accomplishes this?
A. GRANT select ON dept TO ALL_USERS;
B. GRANT select ON dept TO ALL;
C. GRANT QUERY ON dept TO ALL_USERS
D. GRANT select ON dept TO PUBLIC;

Correct Answer: D Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: view the columns associated with the constraint names in the USER_CONS_COLUMNS view.
Incorrect answer: A table to view all constraints definition and names B show all object name belong to user C does not display column associated E no such view
Refer: Introduction to Oracle9i: SQL, Oracle University Study Guide, 10-25
QUESTION 73
Which is an iSQL*Plus command?
A. INSERT
B. UPDATE
C. SELECT
D. DESCRIBE
E. DELETE
F. RENAME

Correct Answer: D Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The only SQL*Plus command in this list: DESCRIBE. It cannot be used as SQL command. This command
returns a description of tablename, including all columns in that table, the datatype for each column and an
indication of whether the column permits storage of NULL values.

Incorrect answer:
A INSERT is not a SQL*PLUS command
B UPDATE is not a SQL*PLUS command
C SELECT is not a SQL*PLUS command
E DELETE is not a SQL*PLUS command
F RENAME is not a SQL*PLUS command

Refer: Introduction to Oracle9i: SQL, Oracle University Study Guide, 7
QUESTION 74
You work as a database administrator at ABC.com. You study the exhibit carefully. Exhibit

Using the PROMOTIONS table, you need to display the names of all promos done after January 1, 2001
starting with the latest promo.
Which query would give the required result? (Choose all that apply.)

A. SELECT promo_name,promo_begin_date FROM promotions WHERE promo_begin_date > ’01-JAN-01′ ORDER BY 1 DESC;
B. SELECT promo_name,promo_begin_date “START DATE” FROM promotions WHERE promo_begin_date > ’01-JAN-01′ ORDER BY “START DATE” DESC;
C. SELECT promo_name,promo_begin_date FROM promotions WHERE promo_begin_date > ’01-JAN-01′ ORDER BY 2 DESC;
D. SELECT promo_name,promo_begin_date FROM promotions WHERE promo_begin_date > ’01-JAN-01′ ORDER BY promo_name DESC;

Correct Answer: BC Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 75
See the Exhibit and examine the structure of the SALES, CUSTOMERS, PRODUCTS and ITEMS tables: The PROD_ID column is the foreign key in the SALES table, which references the PRODUCTS table. Similarly, the CUST_ID and TIME_ID columns are also foreign keys in the SALES table referencing the CUSTOMERS and TIMES tables, respectively.

Evaluate the following the CREATE TABLE command:
Exhibit: Which statement is true regarding the above command?

A. The NEW_SALES table would not get created because the column names in the CREATE TABLE command and the SELECT clause do not match
B. The NEW_SALES table would get created and all the NOT NULL constraints defined on the specified columns would be passed to the new table
C. The NEW_SALES table would not get created because the DEFAULT value cannot be specified in the column definition
D. The NEW_SALES table would get created and all the FOREIGN KEY constraints defined on the specified columns would be passed to the new table

Correct Answer: B Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Creating a Table Using a Subquery
Create a table and insert rows by combining the CREATE
TABLE statement and the AS subquery option.
CREATE TABLE table
[(column, column…)]
AS subquery;
Match the number of specified columns to the number of subquery columns.
Define columns with column names and default values.
Guidelines
The table is created with the specified column names, and the rows retrieved by the SELECT statement
are inserted into the table.
The column definition can contain only the column name and default value. If column specifications are
given, the number of columns must equal the number of columns in the subquery SELECT list.
If no column specifications are given, the column names of the table are the same as the column names in
the subquery.
The column data type definitions and the NOT NULL constraint are passed to the new table. Note that only
the explicit NOT NULL constraint will be inherited. The PRIMARY KEY column will not pass the NOT NULL
feature to the new column. Any other constraint rules are not passed to the new table. However, you can
add constraints in the column definition. 1Z0-051

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QUESTION 25
In which two aspects does hot patching differ from conventional patching? (Choose two.)
A. It consumes more memory compared with conventional patching.
B. It can be installed and uninstalled via OPatch unlike conventional patching.
C. It takes more time to install or uninstall compared with conventional patching.
D. It does not require down time to apply or remove unlike conventional patching.
E. It is not persistent across instance startup and shutdown unlike conventional patching.
Correct Answer: AD QUESTION 26
Which statement about the enabling of table compression in Oracle Database 11g is true?
A. Compression can be enabled at the table, tablespace, or partition level for direct loads only.
B. Compression can be enabled only at the table level for both direct loads and conventional DML.
C. Compression can be enabled at the table, tablespace, or partition level for conventional DML only.
D. Compression can be enabled at the table, tablespace, or partition level for both direct loads and conventional DML.

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 27
Which are the prerequisites for performing flashback transactions on your database? (Choose all that apply.)
A. Supplemental log must be enabled.
B. Supplemental log must be enabled for the primary key
C. Undo retention guarantee for the database must be configured.
D. Execute permission on the DBMS_FLASHBACK package must be granted to the user.

Correct Answer: ABD QUESTION 28
You are managing an Oracle Database 11 g database. You want to take the of size 100 TB on tape drive, but you have tape drives of only 10 GB each, quickly and efficiently?
A. intrafile parallel backup
B. parallel image copy backup
C. backup with MAXPIECESIZE configured for the channel
D. parallel backup with MAXPIECESIZE configured for the channel

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 29
Which statements are true regarding the Query Result Cache? (Choose all that apply.)
A. It can be set at the system, session, or table level.
B. It is used only across statements in the same session.
C. It can store the results from normal as well as flashback queries.
D. It can store the results of queries based on normal, temporary, and dictionary tables.

Correct Answer: AC QUESTION 30
You want to analyze a SQL Tuning Set (STS) using SQL Performance Analyzer in a test database. Which two statements are true regarding the activities performed during the test execution of SQLs in a SQL Tuning Set? (Choose two.)
A. Every SQL statement in the STS is considered only once for execution.
B. The SQL statements in the STS are executed concurrently to produce the execution plan and execution statistics.
C. The execution plan and execution statistics are computed for each SQL statement in the STS.
D. The effects of DDL and DML are considered to produce the execution plan and execution statistics.

Correct Answer: AC QUESTION 31
Which two changes and their effect on the system can be tested by using the Database Replay feature?
(Choose two.)
A. multiplexing of the control file
B. database and operating system upgrades
C. adding the redo log member to the database
D. changing the database storage to ASM-managed storage

Correct Answer: BD QUESTION 32
You executed the following commands:
SQL> ALTER SESSION SET OPTIMIZER_USE_PENDING_STATISTICS = false; SQL> EXECUTE
DBMS_STATS.SET_TABLE_PREFS(‘SHI, ‘CUSTOMERS’, ‘PUBLISH’.’false’);
SQL> EXECUTE DBMS_STATS.GATHER_TABLE_STATS(‘SH’, ‘CUSTOMERS’);

Which statement is correct regarding the above statistics collection on the SH.CUSTOMERS table in the above session?
A. The statistics are stored in the pending statistics table in the data dictionary.
B. The statistics are treated as the current statistics by the optimizer for all sessions.
C. The statistics are treated as the current statistics by the optimizer for the current sessions only.
D. The statistics are temporary and used by the optimizer for all sessions until this session terminates.

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 33
The Database Resource Manager is automatically enabled in the maintenance window that runs the Automated Maintenance Task. What is the reason for this?
A. to prevent the creation of an excessive number of scheduler job classes
B. to allow the Automated Maintenance Tasks to use system resources without any restriction
C. to allow resource sharing only among the Automated Maintenance Tasks in the maintenance window
D. to prevent the Automated Maintenance Tasks from consuming excessive amounts of system resources

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 34
Which is the source used by Automatic SQL Tuning that runs as part of the AUTOTASK framework?
A. SQL statements that are part of the AWR baseline only
B. SQL statements based on the AWR top SQL identification
C. SQL statements that are part of the available SQL Tuning Set (STS) only
D. SQL statements that are available in the cursor cache and executed by a user other than SYS

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 35
View the Exhibit and examine the output.

You executed the following command to enable Flashback Data Archive on the EXCHANGE_RATE table:
ALTER TABLE exchange_rate FLASHBACK ARCHIVE;
What is the outcome of this command?

A. The table uses the default Flashback Archive.
B. The Flashback Archive is created on the SYSAUXtablespace.
C. The Flashback Archive is created on the same tablespace where the tables are stored.
D. The command generates an error because no Flashback Archive name is specified and there is no default Flashback Archive-

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 36
View the Exhibit to examine the error during the database startup.

You open an RMAN session for the database instance. To repair the failure, you executed the following as
the first command in the RMAN session:
RMAN> REPAIR FAILURE;
Which statement describes the consequence of the command?

A. The command performs the recovery and closes the failures.
B. The command only displays the advice and the RMAN script required for repair.
C. The command produces an error because the ADVISE FAILURE command has not been executed before the REPAIR FAILURE command
D. The command executes the RMAN script to repair the failure and removes the entry from the Automatic Diagnostic Repository (ADR).

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 37
You issued the following command on the temporary tablespace LMTEMP in your database:
SQL>ALTER TABLESPACE Imtemp SHRINK SPACE KEEP 20M;
Which requirement must be fulfilled for this command to succeed?

A. The tablespace must be locally managed.
B. The tablespace must have only one temp file.
C. The tablespace must be made nondefault and offline.
D. The tablespace can remain as the default but must have no active sort operations. Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 38
You are working as a DBA on the decision support system. There is a business requirement to track and store all transactions for at least three years for a few tables in the database. Automatic undo management is enabled in the database. Which configuration should you use to accomplish this task?
A. Enable Flashback Data Archive for the tables.
B. Enable supplemental logging for the database.
C. Specify undo retention guarantee for the database.
D. Create Flashback Data Archive on the tablespace on which the tables are stored.
E. Query V$UNDOSTAT to determine the amount of undo that will be generated and create an undo tablespace for that size.

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 39
Your organization decided to upgrade the existing Oracle 10g database to Oracle 11 g database in a multiprocessor environment. At the end of the upgrade, you observe that the DBA executes the following script:
SQL>@utlrp.sql
What is the significance of executing this script?
A. It performs parallel recompilation of only the stored PL/SQL code.
B. It performs sequential recompilation of only the stored PL/SQL code.
C. It performs parallel recompilation of any stored PL/SQL as well as Java code.
D. It performs sequential recompilation of any stored PL/SQL as well as Java code.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 40
Which two are the uses of the ASM metadata backup and restore (AMBR) feature? (Choose two.)
A. It can be used to backup all data on ASM disks.
B. It can be used to re-create the ASM disk group with its attributes.
C. It can be used to recover the damaged ASM disk group along with the data.
D. It can be used to gather information about a preexisting ASM disk group with disk paths, disk name, failure groups, attributes, templates, and alias directory structure.
Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 41
You executed the following PL/SQL block successfully:

VARIABLE tname VARCHAR2(20)

BEGIN
dbms_addm.insert_finding_directive (NULL, DIR_NAME=>’Detail CPU Usage1, FINDING_NAME=>’CPU
Usage1,
MIN_ACTIVE_SESSIONS=>0,MIN_PERC_IMPACT=>90);
:tname := ‘database ADDM task4’;
dbms_addm.analyze_db(:tname, 150,162);
END;
/
Then you executed the following command:

SQL> SELECT dbms_addm.get_report(:tname) FROM DUAL; The above command produces Automatic
Database Diagnostic Monitor (ADDM) analysis____.

A. with the CPU Usage finding if it is less than 90
B. without the CPU Usage finding if it is less than 90
C. with the CPU Usage finding for snapshots below 90
D. with the CPU Usage finding for snapshots not between 150 and 162

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 42
Which statements describe the capabilities of the DBMS_NETWORK_ACL_ADMIN package? (Choose all that apply.)
A. It can be used to allow the access privilege settings for users but not roles.
B. It can be used to allow the access privilege settings for users as well as roles.
C. It can be used to control the time interval for which the access privilege is available to a user.
D. It can be used to selectively restrict the access for each user in a database to different host computers.
E. It can be used to selectively restrict a user’s access to different applications in a specific host computer.

Correct Answer: BCD
QUESTION 43
To generate recommendations to improve the performance of a set of SQL queries in an application, you
execute the following blocks of code:

BEGIN
dbms_advisor.create_task(dbms_advisor.sqlaccess_advisor,lTASK1l); END;
/
BEGIN
dbms_advisor.set_task_parameter(lTASK1l,lANALYSIS_SCOPElllALLl);
dbms_advisor.set_task_parameter(lTASK1,,,MODE,llCOMPREHENSIVEl); END;
/
BEGIN
dbms_advisor.execute_task(‘TASK1’);
dbms_output.put_line(dbms_advisor.get_task_script(‘TASK11)); END;
/
The blocks of code execute successfully; however, you do not get the required outcome.
What could be the reason?

A. A template needs to be associated with the task.
B. A workload needs to be associated with the task.
C. The partial or complete workload scope needs to be associated with the task.
D. The type of structures (indexes, materialized views, or partitions) to be recommended need to be specified for the task.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 44
You are managing an Oracle Database 11 g instance with ASM storage. The ASM instance is down. To know the details of the disks in the DATA disk group ,, you issued the following ASMCMD command:
ASMCMD> lsdsk-l -d DATA
Which statement is true regarding the outcome of this command?
A. The command succeeds but it retrieves only the disk names.
B. The command produces an error because the ASM instance is down.
C. The command succeeds but it shows only the status of the ASM instance.
D. The command succeeds and retrieves information by scanning the disk headers based on an ASMJDISKSTRING value.
Correct Answer: D QUESTION 45
You plan to set up the Automatic Workload Repository (AWR) baseline metric thresholds for a moving window baseline. Which action would you take before performing this task?
A. Compute the baseline statistics.
B. Take an immediate AWR snapshot.
C. Decrease the window size for the baseline.
D. Decrease the expiration time for the baseline.

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 46
You need to create a partitioned table to store historical data and you Issued the following command:

CREATE TABLE purchas_interval
PARTITION BY RANGE (time_id)
INTERVAL (NUMTOYMINTERVAL(1 ,’month1)) STORE IN (tbs1 ,tbs2,tbs3)

PARTITION p1 VALUES LESS THAN(TO_DATE(‘1-1-2005I, ‘dd-mm-yyyy’)), PARTITION p2 VALUES
LESS THAN(TO_DATE(‘1-1-2007’, ‘dd-mm-yyyy’))) AS
SELECT *
FROM purchases
WHERE time_id < TO_DATE(‘1-1-2007’l’dd-mm-yyyy’);

What is the outcome of the above command?

A. It returns an error because the range partitions P1 and P2 should be of the same range.
B. It creates two range partitions (P1, P2). Within each range partition, it creates monthwise subpartitions.
C. It creates two range partitions of varying range. For data beyond ‘1-1-2007,’ it creates partitions with a width of |_| one month each
D. It returns an error because the number of tablespaces (TBS1 ,TBS2,TBS3)specified does not match the number of range partitions (P1 ,P2) specified.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 47
View the Exhibit to examine the Automatic Database Diagnostic Monitor (ADDM) tasks.

You executed the following commands:

SQL> VAR tname VARCHAR2(60);
SQL> BEGIN
:tname := lmy_instance_analysis_mode_task,;
DBMS_ADDM .INSERT_SEGMENT_DIRECTIVE(:tname ,lSg_directivel ,’SCOTT1); END;

Which statement describes the consequence?

A. The ADDM task is filtered to suppress the Segment Advisor suggestions for the SCOTT schema.
B. The ADDM task is filtered to produce the Segment Advisor suggestions for the SCOTT schema only.
C. The PL/SQL block produces an error because the my_instance_analysis_mode_task task has not been reset to its initial state.
D. All subsequent ADDM tasks including my_instance_analysis_mode_task are filtered to suppress the Segment Advisor suggestions for the SCOTT schema.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 48
Examine the following PL/SQL block:

DECLARE
my_plans plsjnteger;
BEGIN
My_plans := DBMS_SPM.LOAD_PLANS_FROM_CURSOR_CACHE (sql_Id => ? 9twu5t2dn5xd?;
END;

Which statement is true about the plan being loaded into the SQL plan baseline by the above command?
A. It is loaded with the FIXED status.
B. It is loaded with the ACCEPTED status.
C. It is not loaded with the ENABLED status.
D. It is not loaded with the ACCEPTED status.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 49
View the Exhibit exhibit1 to observe the maintenance window property.

View the Exhibit exhibits to examine the output of the query. Which two statements describe the conclusions? (Choose two.)
A. The window duration should be increased.
B. RESOURCE_PERCENTAGE should be increased.
C. RESOURCE_PERCENTAGE should be decreased.
D. The repeat time for the window should be decreased.

Correct Answer: AB QUESTION 50
Evaluate the following statements: CREATE TABLE purchase_orders
(pojd NUMBER(4),
po_date TIMESTAMP,
supplie_id NUMBER(6),
po_total NUMBER(8,2),
CONSTRAINT order_pk PRIMARY KEY(po_id))
PARTITION BY RANGE(po_date)
(PARTITION Q1 VALUES LESS THAN (TO_DATE(?1-apr-2007?d-mon-yyyy?),

PARTITION Q2 VALUES LESS THAN (TO_DATE(?1-jul-2007?d-mon-yyyy?),

PARTITION Q3 VALUES LESS THAN (TO_DATE(?1-oct-2007?d-mon-yyyy?),

PARTITION Q4 VALUES LESS THAN (TO_DATE(?1-jan-2008?d-mon-yyyy?));

CREATE TABLE purchase_order_items
(po_id NUMBER(4) NOT NULL, product_id NUMBER(6) NOT NULL, unit_price NUMBER(8,2),
quantity NUMBER(8),

CONSTRAINT po_items_fk
FOREIGN KEY (po_id) REFERENCES purchase_orders(po_id)) PARTITION BY REFERENCE
(po_items_fk);

What are the two consequences of the above statements? (Choose two.)

A. Partitions of PURCHASE_ORDER_ITEMS have system-generated names.
B. Both PURCHASEjDRDERS and PURCHASEJDRDERJTEMS tables are created with four partitions each.
C. Partitions of the PURCHASEJDRDERJTEMS table exist in the same tablespaces as the partitions of the PURCHASEJDRDERS table.
D. The PURCHASEJDRDERJTEMS table inherits the partitioning key from the parent table by automatically duplicating the key columns.
E. Partition maintenance operations performed on the PURCHASEJDRDERJTEMS table are automatically reflected in the PURCHASEjDRDERS table.
Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 51
Which statements are true regarding SecureFile LOBs? (Choose all that apply.)
A. The amount of undo retained is user controlled.
B. SecureFile LOBs can be used only for nonpartitioned tables.
C. Fragmentation is minimized by using variable-sized chunks dynamically.
D. SecureFile encryption allows for random reads and writes of the encrypted data.
E. It automatically detects duplicate LOB data and conserves space by storing only one copy.
Correct Answer: CD
QUESTION 52
View the Exhibit for some of the current parameter settings.

A user logs in to the HR schema and issues the following commands:
SQL> CREATE TABLE emp (empno NUMBER(3), enameVARCHAR2(20), sal NUMBER(8,2));
SQL> INSERT INTO emp(empno,ename) VALUES(1 /JAMES’); At this moment, a second user also logs in to the HR schema and issues the following command:
SQL> ALTER TABLE emp MODIFY sal NUMBER(10,2);
What happens in the above scenario?
A. A deadlock is created.
B. The second user’s command executes successfully.
C. The second user’s session immediately produces the resource busy error.
D. The second user’s session waits for a time period before producing the resource busy error.

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 53
You upgraded Oracle Database 10g to Oracle Database 11 g. How would this affect the existing users’ passwords?
A. All passwords automatically become case-sensitive.
B. All passwords remain non-case-sensitive till they are changed.
C. All passwords remain non-case-sensitive and cannot be changed.
D. All passwords remain non-case-sensitive until their password attribute in the profile is altered.

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 54
What recommendations does the SQL Access Advisor provide for optimizing SQL queries? (Choose all that apply.)
A. selection of SQL plan baselines
B. partitioning of tables and indexes
C. creation of index-organized tables
D. creation of bitmap, function-based, and B-tree indexes
E. optimization of materialized views for maximum query usage and fast refresh

Correct Answer: BDE QUESTION 55
Your system has been upgraded from Oracle Database 10g to Oracle Database 11g. You imported SQL Tuning Sets (STS) from the previous version. After changing the OPTIMIZER_FEATURE_ENABLE parameter to 10.2.0.4 and running the SQL Performance Analyzer, you observed performance regression for a few SQL statements.
What would you do with these SQL statements?
A. Set OPTIMIZER_USE_PLAN_BASELINES to FALSE to prevent the use of regressed plans.
B. Capture the plans from the previous version using STS and then load them into the stored outline.
C. Capture the plans from the previous version using STS and then load them into SQL Management Base (SMB).
D. Set OPTIMIZER_CAPTURE_SQL_PLAN_BASELINES to FALSE to prevent the plans from being loaded to the SQL plan baseline.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 56
You are managing Oracle Database 11 g with an ASM storage with high redundancy. The following
command was issued to drop the disks from the dga disk group after five hours:
ALTER DISKGROUP dga OFFLINE DISKS IN FAILGROUP f2 DROP AFTER 5H; Which statement is true
in this scenario?

A. It starts the ASM fast mirror resync.
B. It drops all disk paths from the dga disk group.
C. All the disks in the dga disk group would be OFFLINE and the DISK_REPAIR_TIME disk attribute would be set to 5 hours.
D. All the disks in the dga disk group in failure group f2 would be OFFLINE and the DISK_REPAIR_TIME disk attribute would be set to 5 hours.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 57
View the Exhibit to observe the error.

You receive this error regularly and have to shut down the database instance to overcome the error. What can the solution be to reduce the chance of this error in future, when implemented?
A. locking the SGA in memory
B. automatic memory management
C. increasing the value of SGA_MAX_SIZE
D. setting the PRE_PAGE_SGA parameter to TRUE

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 58
Which three statements are true regarding the functioning of the Autotask Background Process (ABP)? (Choose three.)
A. It translates tasks into jobs for execution by the scheduler
B. It creates jobs without considering the priorities associated with them.
C. It determines the list of jobs that must be created for each maintenance window.
D. It is spawned by the MMON background process at the start of the maintenance window.
E. It maintains a repository in the SYSTEM tablespace to store the history of the execution of all tasks.

Correct Answer: ACD QUESTION 59
You executed the following commands in an RMAN session for your database instance that has failures:
RMAN> LIST FAILURE;
After some time, you executed the following command in the same session:

RMAN> ADVISE FAILURE;

But there are new failures recorded in the Automatic Diagnostic Repository (ADR) after the execution of
the last LIST FAILURE command. Which statement is true for the above ADVISE FAILURE command in
this scenario?

A. It produces a warning for new failures before advising for CRITICAL and HIGH failures.
B. It ignores new failures and considers the failures listed in the last LIST FAILURE command only.
C. It produces an error with recommendation to run the LIST FAILURE command before the ADVISE FAILURE command.
D. It produces advice only for new failures and the failures listed in the last LIST FAILURE command are ignored.

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 60
View the Exhibit to examine the output for the V$DIAG_INFO view.

Which statements are true regarding the location of diagnostic traces? (Choose all that apply.)
A. The path to the location of the background as well as the foreground process trace files is /u01/oracle/diag/rdbms/orclbi/orclbi/trace.
B. The location of the text alert log file is /u01/oracle/diag/rdbms/orclbi/orclbi/alert.
C. The location of the trace file for the current session is/u01/oracle/diag/rdbms/orclbi/orclbi/trace.
D. The location of the XML-formatted version of the alert log is /u01/oracle/diag/rdbms/orclbi/orclbi/alert.

Correct Answer: ACD QUESTION 61
Evaluate the following command:
SQL>ALTER SYSTEM SET db_securefile = ‘IGNORE1;

What is the impact of this setting on the usage of Secure Files?
A. It forces Basic Files to be created even if the SECUREFILE option is specified to create the LOB.
B. It forces Secure Files to be created even if the BASICFILE option is specified to create the LOB.
C. It does not allow the creation of Secure Files and generates an error if the SECUREFILE option is specified to create the LOB.
D. It ignores the SECUREFILE option only if a Manual Segment Space Management tablespace is used and creates a Basic File.

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 62
You are managing an Oracle Database 11g ASM instance with a disk group dg01 having three disks. One of the disks in the disk group becomes unavailable because of power failure. You issued the following command to change the DISK_REPAIR_TIME attribute from 3.6 hours to 5 hours:
ALTER DISKGROUP dg01 SET ATTRIBUTE ‘disk_repair_time’ = ‘5h’;
To which disks in the disk group will the new value be applicable?
A. all disks in the disk group
B. all disks that are currently in OFFLINE mode
C. all disks that are not currently in OFFLINE mode
D. all disks in the disk group only if all of them are ONLINE

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 63
You issued the following RMAN command to back up the database: RMAN> RUN{ ALLOCATE CHANNEL c1 DEVICE TYPE Sbt BACKUP DATABASE TAG quarterly KEEP FOREVER RESTORE POINT FY06Q4;}
Which two statements are true regarding the backup performed? (Choose two.)
A. Archived redo log files are backed up along with data files
B. Only data files are backed up and a restore point named FY06Q4 is created.
C. Archived log files are backed up along with data files, and the archived log files are deleted.
D. The command creates a restore point named FY06Q4 to match the SCN at which this backup is consistent.
Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 64
View the Exhibit to examine a portion of the output from the VALIDATE DATABASE command.
Which statement is true about the block corruption detected by the command?
A. No action is taken except the output in the Exhibit.
B. The corruption is repaired by the command implicitly.
C. The failure is logged into the Automatic Diagnostic Repository (ADR).
D. The ADVISE FAILURE command is automatically called to display the repair script.

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 65
Which two kinds of failures make the Data Recovery Advisor (DRA) generate a manual checklist? (Choose two.)
A. failures because a data file is renamed by error
B. failures when no standby database is configured
C. failures that require no archive logs to be applied for recovery
D. failures due to loss of connectivity-for example, an unplugged disk cable

Correct Answer: AD QUESTION 66
Which two statements are true regarding the starting of the database instance using the following command? (Choose two.)
SQL>STARTUP UPGRADE A. It enables all system triggers.
B. It allows only SYSDBA connections.
C. It ensures that all job queues remain active during the upgrade process.
D. It sets system initialization parameters to specific values that are required to enable database upgrade scripts to be run.

Correct Answer: BD

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QUESTION 22
Which statement is true about configuring users for OMi? (Select three.)
A. They can assume either an administrator’s or an operator’s role, but not both.
B. There needs to be a corresponding user on the OS level.
C. They are separate from other HP BSM modules’ users.
D. Capabilities on the group level are merged with the individual ones.
E. Single-sign-on configurations in the HP BSM platform will be honored.
F. You can export/import them to exchange with other OMi servers.

Correct Answer: DEF
QUESTION 23
How can an OMi user access graphical details of historical load characteristics related to an event?
A. Select Admin > Operations Management > Service Perspective, and then select the event of interest. In the Actions panel, select the Show Performance Graph item in the list.
B. Select Applications > Operations Management > Event Perspective, and then select the event of interest. In the Actions panel, select the Show Performance Graph item in the list.
C. Select Applications > Operations Management > Service Perspective, and then select the event of interest. In the Actions panel, select the Show Performance Graph item in the list.
D. Select Applications > Operations Management > Performance Perspective, and then select the event of interest. In the Actions panel, select the Show Performance Graph item in the list.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 24
When defining a tool, what is a type of run-time parameter that can be inserted into a command?
A. CI Attributes
B. Event Settings
C. HP BSM Host
D. Management Server Attributes
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 25
What is the primary reason for associating a tool with a category?
A. to aid in report creation
B. to assign tools to CI types
C. to control access to tools
D. to sort the list of tools in the operator interface
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 26
What is a key benefit of OMi?
A. frees up operator time by passing incidents across to subject matter experts
B. pinpoints who fixed incidents
C. frees up subject matter experts by de-skilling diagnosis of incidents
D. shows how quickly incidents were fixed

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 27
What is a key benefit of TBEC?
A. to identify the affected CIs
B. to identify the servers from which the message came
C. to give the status of affected CIs
D. to enable the identification of root cause events

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 28
How does OMi, in ITIL terminology, provide the highest value?
A. as an incident correlator
B. as an incident consolidator
C. as an integration between the CMDB and incidents
D. as an Operations Bridge

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 29
For most executives, what is the primary financial driver for investing in OMi?
A. to enable first line IT operations staff to resolve a larger percentage of technical issues
B. to enable first line IT operations staff to quickly and seamlessly escalate to the more experienced subject matter experts
C. to enable experienced subject matter experts to access event information and tools
D. to enable IT managers to easily determine the effectiveness of each IT operations team member

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 30
What does OMi in the HP BSM Platform provide?
A. bottom up analysis from agentry
B. bottom up analysis from Operations Manager
C. the link between bottom up and top down analyses
D. top down analysis of service information

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 31
In a comprehensive HP BSM deployment, OMi is required to provide which functionality to the BSM solution set?
A. consolidated view of events received from a wide variety of sources in the IT environment
B. Top View graphical display of business services and underlying CIs, color-coded based on KPI status
C. the capability to alert business service owners of performance and threshold breaches
D. Impact Analysis, based on interdependencies between CIs and preconfigured impact rules
Correct Answer: A QUESTION 32
Which statement is true about the Health Indicator?
A. It provides detailed information about the health of the HP BSM server.
B. It provides the connection between events and KPIs.
C. It is reset upon closure of an event.
D. It is synchronized with the domain manager.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 33
An HP BSM installation already has an Event Management license deployed. Which additional license is required in order to include a system managed by a third-party (non-HP) management solution, where events are consolidated in OMi?
A. Target Connector license
B. Topology-Based Event Correlation license
C. No additional license is required
D. Operations Manager license

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 34
Which panels used by operators to search, select, analyze, and resolve events does the OMi user interface provide by default? (Select three.)
A. Health Perspective
B. Event Perspective
C. System Availability Management
D. Key Indicator Perspective
E. Performance Perspective
F. Service Level Management Perspective

Correct Answer: ABE
QUESTION 35
Why is a Global ID used?
A. to allow CIs to be mapped to models in the CMDB
B. to identify the system uniquely
C. to identify the CI uniquely across the BTO portfolio
D. to identify the source of Operations Manager messages
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 36
Which statement is true about Event Type Indicator (ETI) values used in TBEC rules?
A. ETIs are not used in TBEC rules.
B. The name and value of the ETI must match those specified in the TBEC rule.
C. The name of the ETI must match the one specified in the TBEC rule.
D. The value of the ETI must match one of the values specified in the TBEC rule.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 37
An event that has been identified as a “cause” event is closed by an operator, and all of the associated

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QUESTION NO: 21
Which tools can be used to perform the initial server configuration on a ProLiant ML 300-series server on which you will install SUSE Linux Enterprise Server 11? (Select two.)
A. Insight Control Advisor
B. ROM-Based Setup Utility
C. Extensible Firmware Interface
D. HP Smart Setup
E. Option ROM Configuration for Arrays
Answer: B,E Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 22 HOTSPOT
Click the Task button. Your customer requires an application for health monitoring of a ProLiant server. His internal policies, prevent him from using SNMP. Click on the option that you must check during assisted installation from the SmartStart CD.
Answer:

Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 23
You finished an installation of Windows Server 2008 on a ProLiant server, but you notice in device manager that some devices are not installed properly and the HP System Management Homepage (SMH) is not available. How can these issues be resolved?
A. Assign a different IRQ for each of the devices using the ROM-Based Setup Utility.
B. Restore the operating system to the latest checkpoint using the System Recovery feature.
C. Enable missing devices in the ROM-Based Setup Utility and change firewall settings to enable communication with the SMH on port 2381.
D. Install the latest ProLiant Support Pack for Windows Server 2008.
Answer: D Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 24
When preparing a Scope of Work to assess RAID requirements, which factor is the most critical to properly sizing the solution?
A. disaster tolerance

B. cache size
C. mirror sizing
D. disk stripe size
Answer: A Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 25
Which action is recommended when accessing Version Control Repository Manager (VCRM) from Version Control Agent (VCA)?
A. use Built in VCRM user account
B. use Administrator account
C. modify existing account VCA Operator
D. create a separate account for VCRM with administrator rights and use this account
Answer: D Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 26
Which statements are correct regarding ProLiant 100-Series servers? (Select two.)
A. They use the Rom-Based Setup Utility (RBSU).
B. They support the Intelligent Platform Management Interface (IPMI).
C. They can have Lights-Out 100 or Lights-Out 100i for remote management.
D. They ship with HP Insight Foundation Suite for ProLiants.
E. They use Trusted Platform Modules for setup.
Answer: B,C Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 27
Which common industry standard technology is used to monitor servers, storage and network devices?

A. Simple Environment Management Protocol (SEMP)
B. Automatic Server Recovery (ASR)
C. Intelligent Platform Management Interface (IPMI)
D. Internet Control Message Protocol (ICMP)
Answer: C Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 28
What provides a consolidated view of HP server system health?
A. Array Diagnostic Utility (ADU)
B. SmartStart CD
C. ROM-Based Setup Utility (RBSU)
D. System Management Homepage (SMH)
Answer: D Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 29
What is used to access the Integrated Management Log?
A. Easy Set-up CD
B. Event Viewer
C. Insight Diagnostics
D. Firmware Maintenance CD
Answer: C Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 30
Which HP server series provides Watchdog Timer?
A. 100 Series
B. 300 Series C. 500 Series

D. 700 Series
Answer: A Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 31
Which features do Serial Attached SCSI and Fiber Channel have in common? (Select two.)
A. dual port hard drive interface
B. support for up to 15 meters external cable length
C. half duplex data transfer
D. compatible frame format
E. the number of supported devices
Answer: A,D Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 32
What is needed to install storage controller drivers during a Windows operating system installation from a CD using virtual floppy in a ProLiant SL170z G6 Server?
A. iLO firmware update .bin file
B. SmartStart version 8.30 or higher
C. LO100i Advance Pack
D. iLO 2 Advance Pack
Answer: C Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 33
Which storage solution offers a highly available configuration and 24×7 software support?
A. EVA4400
B. MSA2000

C. LH P4000
D. X3000
Answer: A Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 34
A customer complains about bad performance on their DL380 G6 ESX Server. What can be done in the RBSU to improve performance?
A. enable memory mirroring
B. disable cores
C. enable Intel virtualization
D. disable VT-d2 technology
Answer: C Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 35
What is the result of having RAID levels with stripe sizes that are too large?
A. many cross-stripe transfers (split I/Os) and reduced performance
B. poor load balancing across drives
C. higher file fragmentation rate
D. fewer cross-stripe transfers (split I/Os) and increased performance
Answer: B Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 36
What can be used to determine the cause of poor performance issues?
A. VMM
B. PMP
C. VPM D. IPM
Answer: B Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 37
Your customer has ProLiant servers with redundant power supplies. He wants a high availability redundant UPS solution. What should you advise him to buy?
A. one UPS equipped with the optional UPS Management Card
B. two UPSs, both equipped with the optional UPS Management Card
C. two UPSs, both equipped with an optional Extended Runtime Module
D. one UPS with an optional Extended Runtime Module
Answer: B Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 38
Which HP utility provides a simplified view of HP web-enabled management agents?
A. HP Insight Diagnostics Online Edition
B. Intelligent Platform Management Interface (IPMI) Event Log
C. HP System Management Homepage
D. Integrated Management Log
Answer: C Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 39
Which troubleshooting step are you currently performing when replacing parts?
A. evaluate the data
B. check if problem is resolved
C. develop the action plan
D. execute the action plan

Answer: D Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 40
Which step of the HP Troubleshooting Methodology includes documenting the results of each attempt to resolve a problem?
A. implement preventive measures
B. determine whether the problem is solved
C. execute the action plan
D. develop the action plan
Answer: C Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 41
Which service offering provides the customer with two-hour response time for software issues and four-hour on-site response commitment for hardware issue resolution?
A. 4-Hour 24×7 Same Day
B. Proactive 24
C. 4-Hour Same Business Day
D. HP Support Plus
Answer: B Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 42
What do you recommend to a customer once you have fixed the issue and verified the solution? (Select two.)
A. Implement a new set of procedures, software, and administrative maintenance to attain a higher level of availability.
B. Uninstall HP software from servers to prepare them for production.
C. List the order of people or groups to contact and the information needed by each.

D. Add fault-tolerant elements to critical subsystems.
E. Configure HP Insight Service agents to be notified when the problem reoccurs.
Answer: A,D Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 43
Which preventive measure should you recommend to a customer to provide proactive notification of critical updates and product changes for ProLiant servers?
A. HP IT Resource Center
B. Online Agent Reference Set
C. Subscriber’s Choice
D. Version Control Repository Manager
Answer: C Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 44
Which technologies are features of Advanced Memory Protection of Intel CPUs utilized in HP ProLiant G6 Servers? (Select three.)
A. memory mirroring
B. RAID memory
C. Lockstep Support
D. interleaved memory
E. Advanced ECC
Answer: A,C,E Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 45
What are characteristics of Care Pack Services? (Select two.)
A. pre-failure notification

B. can be purchased with the server
C. can be purchased during warranty period
D. parts and labor support
Answer: B,C Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 46
When implementing an offsite backup storage plan, which backup solution should be considered when requirements call for remote mirror operations with access to the primary server?
A. cold site
B. mirrored site
C. hot site
D. warm site
Answer: C Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 47
How many simultaneous threads can a fully populated dual socket, six core AMD-based server execute?
A. 2 threads
B. 6 threads
C. 12 threads
D. 24 threads
Answer: C Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 48
What can be used to verify system ROM family and version using the online method? (Select two.)
A. Array Configuration Utility

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QUESTION 1
A company is migrating three applications currently running on three separate HP-UX Integrity servers. The plan is to migrate them into a Superdome 2 Serv. three applications are business critical, and the main focus is the uptime, as any interruptions cause financial losses.
Which HP-UX virtualization technology provides the best solution?
A. Create a single nPar.
B. Create three nPars.
C. Create three vPars
D. Create three Integrity Virtual Machines
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 2
Which functionalities does AutoFS provide? (Select three.)
A. may be configured to modify NFS filesystem permissions when needed
B. may be configured to provide load balancing across multiple NFS servers
C. automatically exports filesystems on the NFS server when needed
D. automatically unmounts NFS filesystems that are no longer being accessed
E. automatically updates /etc/fstab on NFS clients when needed
F. automatically mounts NFS filesystems when needed
Correct Answer: ACE

QUESTION 3
Which methods allow you to install an Integrity server using an Ignite-UX server on a different subnet? (Select two)
A. Use the dbprofileEFI command
B. Use the ifconfigEFI command.
C. Use the loadfile command
D. Use a boot helper system
E. Use the lanboot command
Correct Answer: BE

QUESTION 4
A customer has a version 6 2 Integrity VM, and they convert this guest to a vPar using the following command:

The hpvmmodify command completes successfully. When they attempt to boot the guest in vPar mode, they get the following output

What ate the possible reasons the vPar failed to boot? (Select two)
A. TheVM guest was running a version of HP-UX 1li v3 prior 10 the September 2011 update release, which is not a supported vPar OS
B. The VM guest did not have the required vPar guest kit installed and therefore cannot run in vPar mode
C. The VM guest was running HP-UX 11i v2 which is not a supported vPar OS
D. The VM guest was not configured with sufficient memory to run as a vPar guest
E. The VM guest was running a version of HP-UX 11i v3 prior to the September 2012 update release, which is not a supported vPar OS
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 5
Which tool can be used to modify nPar configurations?
A. HP System Insight Manager (HP SIM)
B. HP System Management Homepage (HP SMH)
C. iLO Monarch Management Processor
D. Domain Management Processor
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 6
Which statement about auditing Standard Mode Security Extensions (SMSE) is correct?
A. SMSE uses an external daemon to maintain the audit logs.
B. SMSE Audit log files can be read by the users of the SMSE-Administrator Group “smeadm”.
C. SMSE auditing is available on HP-UX 11i v1, HP-UX 11i v2, and HP-UX lit v3.
D. SMSE auditing is compatible with NIS and LDAP.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 7
How do you boot a firmware-based vPar over the network on the HP Integrity Superdorne 2 server?
A. Use the vparboot command from the Virtualization Services Platform (VSP), and run the vparconsole command. Use the CO command to getfor console. Then use the lanbootEFI command.
B. Use the vparconsole command to connect to the vPaiiLO, and use the PC command to power on the vPar Use the Co command to get to the console use the lanbootEFI command.
C. Login to the Superdome 2QA, and use the vparboot command. Use the COcommand to connect to the console. Then use the lanbootEFI console
D. Login to another vPar on the same nPar. Use the vparboot-I <ignite server IP> command to lanboot the vPar.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 8
Which tools can be used to manage nPars on a Superdome 2 server? (Select two)
A. Insight Control Environment
B. Onboard Administrator GUI
C. Virtual Server Management
D. Onboard Administrator CLI
E. VSP CLI
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 9
A customer needs a partitioning solution that provides dedicated resources and electrical isolation. Which HP solution should the customer use?
A. vPars
B. Integrity VM
C. HP Containers
D. nPars
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 10
Refer to the exhibit

Which configuration produces the output?

A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 11
The HP-UX 11i v3 mass storage stack has different load balancing policies available. Which policy is the default?
A. preferred_path
B. closest _ path
C. least_cmd_load
D. round robin

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 12
What are the customer benefits of the HP-UX Operating Environments (e.g. VSE-OE, HA-OE. DC-OE), as compared lo ordering the same software separately? (Select three)
A. Reduced purchasing cost for customer
B. Reduced amount of codewords required to manage software
C. Performance of HP applications tuned with the HP-UX OS
D. Reduced amount of disk space used for OS and HP applications
E. Reduced new-system sales quote and configuration complexity
F. reduced number of service contracts

Correct Answer: ACF QUESTION 13
Which HP-UX tool can be used to get detailed low level metrics of code running on Itanium processors?
A. prospect
B. caliper
C. sar
D. Isof

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 14
A customer is moving to an Integrity platform but has legacy PA-RISC applications that cannot be recompiled on Integrity. Which type of container can provide binary emulation environment for the customer’s applications?
A. PA RISC Container
B. System Container
C. HP 9000 Container
D. Workload Container

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 15
Which command can you use to display all network interfaces including interface link state interface type, and driver type?
A. nwmgr
B. ioscankfnClan
C. netstat -an
D. lanscan

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 16
Which tools can be used to create a user account? (Select two.)
A. System Management Homepage (HP SMH)
B. addusr command
C. useradca command
D. setuid command
E. mxuser command

Correct Answer: AD QUESTION 17
Which command will register the directory /tools as a software depot?
A. swagentd -d /tools
B. swinstall — 1 bundle /tools
C. make_ depots -d /tools
D. swreg –1 depot /tools

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 18
What is the full POS1X shell path?
A. /usr/bin/bash
B. /usr/local/bin/sh
C. /usr/bin/sh
D. /usr/bin/csh

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 19
A customer is using PRM in Fair Share Scheduler mode to allocate CPU resources among several and applications. Users are complaining about poor application performance, and you think PRM is capping the CPU utilization for their application. You use Glance to examine the WAIT TVFNTS for the applicationprocess.
What do you look for in Glance to confirm that PRM is capping the CPU utilization for the application?
A. The primary wait event is “System”.
B. The primary wait event is “IPC”
C. The primary wait event is “Priority”.
D. The primary wait event is “Scheduler”

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 20
What is the unique partitioning feature of nPars?
A. I/O sharing in cell-based servers
B. Electrical isolation from other partitions
C. VM isolation in blade-based servers
D. Storage sharing in blade-based servers
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 21
Which command starts the auditing capabilities of HP Standard Mode Security Extensions (SMSE)?
A. /sbin/init .d/securemode start
B. /sbin/init .d/trustsys start
C. /sbin/init .d/auditing start
D. /sbin/init.d/hpsmse start
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 22
Which components form part of the HP-UX OS kernel? (Select three.)
A. UFC
B. Power Module
C. EFl
D. Scheduler
E. Process Table
F. BCH
Correct Answer: ACF

QUESTION 23
A system administrator needs to add a LAN interface to the running Integrity VM v6.2 guest “vml”. The administrator runs the command:

Which action is necessary for the new interface to be usable?
A. Log into vm1 and run the command ioscan.
B. Restart the virtual switch local net
C. Restart vm1
D. No action is needed

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 24
Given the output below, what is indicated by the line starting with “memory”?

A. Memory pages already used for paging needs
B. Amount of memory reserved by the kernel for its own internal use
C. Amount of memory calculated for pseudo-swap
D. Memory allocated by the kernel for possible future paging needs
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 25
A customer wants a partitioning solution that has the ability to move running workloads to eliminate downtime and increase flexibility, especially for proactive maintenance and workload balancing. Which solutions provide this capability? (Select two)
A. nPars
B. vPars v5
C. Integrity VM v6
D. Integrity VM v4
E. vPars v6
Correct Answer: BE

QUESTION 26
A customer wants to run some jobs periodically on a database inside ot HK-UA integrity virtual machines.
At which level does the administrator need to assign rights to allow the user account to create and execute cron jobs?
A. at the HP-UX OS level on the HP-UX Integrity VM only
B. at the database level and at the HP-UX Integrity VM HP-UX OS level
C. at the database level and at the HP-UX Integrity Host OS level
D. at the HP-UX OS level on the HP-UX Integrity Host only
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 27
A server is running in nPars mode. Which command should be used to change the system to vPars mode (vPars v5)?
A. parmodify
B. vparreset
C. vparenv
D. vparboot
Correct Answer: D

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QUESTION 21
Which action is required at the guest operating system level to enable it to run on a virtual machine?
A. A key code must be loaded into the registry and validated by VMware.
B. The VMware driver must be loaded for full network support.
C. No action is required because VMware is transparent to the operating system.
D. A VMware license must be loaded on each guest.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 22
What can be used by a QoS policy to classify traffic? (Select two.)
A. packet size
B. egress port
C. TCP port number
D. TCP window size
E. VLAN ID
Correct Answer: CE
QUESTION 23
Which advantages do ACLs offer? (Select two.)
A. fewer necessary support staff
B. increased network security
C. smaller broadcast domain
D. reduced network complexity
E. improved network performance
Correct Answer: BE QUESTION 24
How many World Wide Names (WWNs) does Virtual Connect Manager make available?
A. 64 total available WWNs
B. 64 ranges for a total of 128 WWNs
C. 64 ranges for a total of 1024 WWNs
D. 128 ranges of 64 WWNS Correct Answer: C QUESTION 25
Click the Exhibit button.

Identify the port type shown in the blue outlined area.
A. fiber
B. SFP+
C. RJ-45
D. dedicated

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 26
A device with a non-compliant 802.1Q network adapter (NIC) is plugged into which type of switch port?
A. workstation
B. untagged
C. trunk
D. tagged Correct Answer: B QUESTION 27
What best describes the functionality of the Virtual Connect Ethernet module?
A. Layer 2 switch
B. Layer 3 switch
C. pass-thru module
D. Ethernet port aggregator

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 28
Click the Exhibit button.

What does the illustration reveal about the hardware configuration of the HP Integrity BL860c server blade? (Select two.)
A. The LOM is not a Flex-10 module.
B. The Flex-10 interface is in mezzanine Slot 2.
C. Ports 5 and 6 are preferred for connectivity.
D. Ports 7 through 12 are defective.
E. VLANs A and B are incorrectly configured.
QUESTION 29
What is the advantage of using Virtual Connect Flex-10 technology in a VMware environment?
A. It becomes tightly linked with VMware for better management through vCenter.
B. It eliminates the limit on NIC connections imposed by default on each VMware server.
C. It enables full VLAN support in VMware including multiple tagging functionality.
D. It allows bandwidth to be allocated as necessary to each VMware service or application.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 30
What are valid reasons for creating trunk links between switches? (Select three.)
A. Standby link capabilities are available with dynamic trunks.
B. A greater number of VLANs can be supported.
C. Capacity is maximized by increasing the number of links available for data flow.
D. Guaranteed load balancing prevents unbalanced traffic load across links.
E. There is improved availability because of the lower risk of link failure.
F. The overall error count on the switch is decreased.

Correct Answer: ACE
QUESTION 31
Click the Exhibit button.

What is the status of the Windows Server 2008 NICs under View Network Connections with the server profile configuration shown in the exhibit?
A. Only the NICs represented by Ports 1 and 2 will be shown.
B. All the NICs will display as connected.
C. All the NICs will display as disconnected.
D. Two NICs will display as connected and six will display as disconnected.

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 32
What is the default global parameter setting for how Virtual Connect handles VLANs?
A. Native VLANs Tag mode
B. Tunnel VLANs Tag mode
C. Enable VLANs Tag mode
D. Map VLANs Tag mode Correct Answer: D QUESTION 33
What does a priority value of 101110 denote?
A. VLAN scheduling
B. Stacked QoS
C. Layer 2 QoS
D. Layer 3 QoS

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 34
When a Flex-10 server adapter is deployed in a Virtual Connect Flex-10 environment, how are the FlexNICs recognized by the operating system?
A. as individual 10GbE NICs, until the correct driver is loaded by the operating system at boot time
B. as individual NICs, after the correct license key has been loaded and verified by the Onboard Administrator
C. as individual 1GbE NICs, until the correct driver is loaded by the operating system at boot time
D. transparently, because the server ROM recognizes each FlexNIC as an individual NIC with its own driver Correct Answer: D QUESTION 35
How many BladeSystem c7000 enclosures are supported in a single Virtual Connect domain?
B. 4
C. 8
D. 16

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 36
Which management interface provides the administrator with the most control over switch parameters and monitoring functions?
A. SNMP
B. Web browser
C. Menu
D. CLI

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 37
You are creating a connection between multiple server blades and an external switch on a single VLAN. All traffic from the servers is tagged. What must you create within Virtual Connect if it is globally set for VLAN Tunnel mode?
A. simple vNET with Tunnel mode option enabled
B. Shared Uplink Set
C. simple vNET with Tunnel mode option disabled
D. untagged uplink trunk

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 38
Where are broadcasts flooded in Layer 2 switches?
A. to only those nodes in the same subnet as the originating node
B. through all ports except the port the broadcast came in on
C. through all ports in the same VLAN except the port it came in on
D. through all ports and all VLANs on the switch

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 39
Which tasks are only used for defining a Shared Uplink Set for Virtual Connect Ethernet? (Select three.)
A. Optionally set native VLAN.
B. Define server profile.
C. Assign one or multiple networks per server NIC.
D. Assign only one network per server NIC.
E. Select unassigned uplinks.
F. Specify VLAN names/IDs.

Correct Answer: ACF
QUESTION 40
What is required for a Layer 3 switch to route between directly connected VLANs? (Select two.)
A. IP routing must be globally enabled on the switch.
B. Dynamic Layer 3 routing protocol must be enabled and configured.
C. There must be multi-netted IP addresses on all VLAN interfaces on the switch.
D. An IP address must be configured for each VLAN that will be forwarded.
E. A DHCP helper address must be defined on each participating VLAN.
Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 41
In an IP subnet without VLANs, each subnet terminates at the interface. How are IP subnets with VLANs different?
A. VLAN IP subnets terminate at each port.
B. VLAN IP interfaces are more easily multi-netted with VLANs.
C. VLAN IP subnets allow for greater control with ACLs.
D. VLAN IP subnets are logically separated from the router.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 42
What is the function of the active member of a dynamic LACP trunk?
A. determines the trunk link used for each given Layer 2 node-to-node conversation
B. requests dynamic port utilization from the receiving node to the sending node to form the LACP trunk
C. listens for BPDUs and forms a dynamic trunk when a MAC address of the same partner is heard on multiple ports
D. sends BPDUs and forms a dynamic trunk if a partner hears its MAC address on multiple ports
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 43
What is a limitation of the VMware vNetwork standard switch?
A. Tagged VLANs are not supported in a virtual switch.
B. MAC forwarding tables are not implemented in a virtual switch.
C. Virtual machines cannot communicate through the virtual switch.
D. Spanning tree is not supported in a virtual switch.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 44
Which Virtual Connect tagging mode is limited to 320 VLANs per Virtual Connect Ethernet module?
A. Tunnel VLAN Tags
B. Tagged VLAN
C. Map VLAN Tags
D. Transparent VLAN Tags

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 45
On which criterion do standard ACLs provide security?
A. range of destination IP addresses
B. range of source IP addresses
C. IP precedence
D. ICMP and IGMP message types

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 46
Which parameters are part of a Bridge Protocol Data Unit (BPDU) transmission? (Select two.)
A. Switch Port ID
B. Port Duplex ID
C. Switch MAC address
D. Port POE parameters
E. Management IP address

Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 47
Click the Exhibit button.

You have connected the cables as shown in the exhibit: What is the result of this configuration?
A. Switch 1, Ports 1, 3, 5, and 8 can communicate with all ports in Switch 2, except Port 8.
B. Connections between Switches 1 and 2 will cause a Layer 2 loop.
C. No VLAN 10 ports can communicate without a router or Layer 3 switch.
D. In Switch 1, only Ports 2, 7, and 8 can communicate together. Correct Answer: B QUESTION 48
Which advantage does Flex-10 technology provide?
A. increased Layer 2 switch port count
B. increased CPU performance
C. decreased number of interconnect modules
D. increased dynamic management functionality

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 49
Which status describes a virtual router interface?
A. It is only considered up if the state of the physical port is up.
B. It is always up and not directly associated with a physical port.
C. It is considered up if at least one VLAN’s port’s members is up.
D. It is only considered up if the status of the interface protocol is also up.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 50
Which topologies are in a typical enterprise network? (Select three.)
A. access
B. user
C. web
D. distribution
E. core
F. server

Correct Answer: ADE
QUESTION 51
What is the purpose of a RADIUS server for switch management?
A. log file storage and consolidation
B. storage of configuration files and software images
C. central user database
D. SNMP management application server

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 52
Which OSI model layer uses frames? (Select two.)
A. Layer 2
B. Network
C. Layer 4
D. Session
E. Data Link

Correct Answer: AE
QUESTION 53
What are advantages of using Layer 3 to connect from the access layer to the core? (Select three.)
A. flatter network with fewer hops
B. equal cost balancing on all links with OSPF
C. extended broadcast domains
D. loop control using spanning tree
E. VRRP configuration not required
F. no link blocking involved
Correct Answer: BEF
QUESTION 54
Click the Exhibit button.

What will be the status of Trunk 1 and Trunk 2 in the exhibit?
A. One trunk will be in an active state and the other will be in a standby state.
B. Both trunks will be in an active state.
C. Both trunks will be in a standby state because the VLANs are duplicated in the switches.
D. Both trunks will be in a standby state because the VLANs are duplicated in Virtual Connect.
QUESTION 55
How can MSTP be configured to ensure that VLANs are not orphaned?
A. Ensure that the switches with the lowest MAC addresses are directly connected.
B. Allow the assignment of VLAN priorities on each individual interface to influence traffic flow.
C. Define the appropriate MSTP region version number in each switch’s configuration file
D. Allow the VLANs to be divided across multiple instances, each with unique root bridges and paths.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 56
At which OSI model layer does a router work?
A. Session
B. Transport
C. Application
D. Network

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 57
Which protocols are industry-standard switch protocols? (Select two.)
A. LLDP
B. CDP
C. LLTD
D. STP
E. EGRP

Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 58
What must you define when configuring Virtual Connect Ethernet for a server blade that can support tagged Ethernet frames in VLANs 20, 30, 50, and 60?
A. a vNet in Map VLAN tags mode
B. a vNet in Tunnel VLAN tags mode
C. a Shared Uplink Set in Map VLAN tags mode
D. a Shared Uplink Set in Tunnel VLAN tags mode

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 59
How does a simple vNet handle VLAN tags in Map mode?
A. accepts only untagged frames from the servers or the switch
B. accepts only tagged frames from the servers and only untagged frames from the switch
C. accepts tagged or untagged frames from the switch and only untagged frames from the servers
D. accepts tagged or untagged frames from the servers or the switch
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 60
Which features differentiate Virtual Connect Ethernet interconnect modules from switches? (Select three.)
A. All changes affect the network.
B. They are managed with the servers.
C. They are part of the server system.
D. They are part of the infrastructure network.
E. Any changes are transparent to the network.
F. They are part of the LAN network.
Correct Answer: BCE
QUESTION 61
Which command do you use to view information about the status and configuration of HP Integrity virtual machines?
A. hpvmconfig
B. hpvmstatus
C. hpvm -status
D. vmstatus
Correct Answer: B

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QUESTION 21
What is the default login directory when accessing the Global Shell?
A. /home
B. /home/user-name
C. /
D. /export/home/user-name

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 22
Which utility enables you to log on to managed servers and run native commands from within a Global Shell session?
A. rlogin
B. ROSH
C. SSH
D. telnet
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 23
Which ROSH syntax is used to copy a script to a managed server and run it?
A. rosh -n server-name -l user-name command-name
B. rosh -n server-name -l user-name -s file-name
C. rosh -n server-name -l user-name -c file-name
D. rosh -n server-name -l user-name –run file-name
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 24
What is one of the ways HP Server Automation secures communications between components?
A. TCP Wrappers
B. SSL/TLS
C. IPsec
D. X.503 certificates
Correct Answer: B QUESTION 25
How long are Server Automation security certificates valid, by default?
A. 6 months
B. 1 year
C. 5 years
D. 10 years

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 26
Server Authentication enforces a very granular system of role-based access controls. Which parameter can security administrators use to set up authorization?
A. users
B. customer administrators
C. facility
D. Security policy

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 27
In HP Server Automation, how long is the audit trail stored by default?
A. 1 month
B. 6 months
C. 1 year
D. 2 years

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 28
Which external authentication source does HP Server Automation support?
A. SmartCard
B. Kerberos
C. LDAP
D. NIS+

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 29
Which set of rules (which may contain individual hecks? expresses the desired state of a managed server configuration objects (for example,Which set of rules (which may contain individual ?hecks? expresses the desired state of a managed server? configuration objects (for example, a server file system directory structure or files, a server Windows Registry, or application configuration)?a server? file system directory structure or files, a server? Windows Registry, or application configuration)?
A. Snapshot
B. Audit
C. Compliance policy
D. Compliance scan

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 30
A snapshot specification can capture the state of the configuration on a server known to have a good configuration (a golden server). This can be used to compare against other target servers. How is this

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QUESTION NO: 21
Which actions can you take using the My Changes/Checkouts window? (Select two.)
A. check in changes
B. create snapshots
C. abandon changes
D. check out changes
E. revert changes
Answer: A,C
QUESTION NO: 22
A version number is listed as 7.5 in the Flow History window. What does this indicate?
A. The flow was created in version 7.5 of Operations Orchestration.
B. The flow has been saved 7 times and restored 5 times.
C. The flow has been checked into Central 7 times by 5 different flow authors.
D. The flow was checked into Central 7 times and saved 5 times in Studio since the last check in.
Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 23
Where is the default directory for the shared public repository for a Windows installation?
A. C:\Program Files\Hewlett-Packard\Operations Orchestration\Central\rcrepo
B. C:\Program Files\Hewlett-Packard\Operations Orchestration\Central\pubrepo
C. C:\Program Files\Hewlett-Packard\Operations Orchestration\Studio\pubrepo
D. C:\Program Files\Hewlett-Packard\Operations Orchestration\Studio\sharerepo
Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 24
Where is documentation stored that is generated from folders in the Studio Library?
A. Central Documentation tab.
B. a directory that you specify on your file system
C. in the Central/docs directory
D. It is deployed to the Remote Action Server.
Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 25
How do you invoke the object history window?
A. Click the Repositorypull down menu and click Show History.
B. Double-click a flow and then click the Show History tab.
C. Right-click an object, point to Repository and click Show History.
D. Click the Tools pull down menu bar and click Show History.
Answer: C QUESTION NO: 26

What is used to add a new repository?
A. Repository tab in Central
B. Tools menu item in Studio
C. Administration tab in Central
D. Repository menu item in Studio
Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 27
How do you access the Flow Variable panel?
A. View menu in Studio
B. Current Runs tab in Central
C. Flow Library tab in Central
D. Authoring pane in Studio
Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 28
What do the Step Into, Step Over, and Step Out icons impact in the debugger? (Select two.)
A. operations
B. response overrides
C. steps
D. closing the debugging session
E. sub-flows
Answer: C,E

QUESTION NO: 29
By default, where does the Web Services Wizard create a WSDL operation?
A. Library-> Wizards
B. Library-> WSDL
C. Library-> My Ops Flows
D. Library-> Operations

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QUESTION 21
Which feature allows SAN switches to accept multiple WWPN registrations on a single port?
A. DCB
B. ISL Tracking
C. SCM
D. NPM

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 22
Which BYOD services are provided by HP Intelligent Management Center? (Select two)
A. End user compression
B. Storage federation
C. Routing optimization
D. Device compliance
E. User authentication

Correct Answer: DE QUESTION 23
When designing a solution, what defines the maximum tolerable amount of data loss from an IT service due to a major incident?
A. SLO
B. RPO
C. SLA
D. RTO

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 24
Which HP 3PAR StoreServ tool can be used to collect detailed server configuration information such as the OS type and version, WWN of HBAs, the iSCSI name and host multipathing information over a secure communication channel?
A. Recovery Manager
B. Web Services API
C. System Reporter
D. Host Explorer

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 25
Which improvement to the standard features of HP StoreEasy Storage enables deduplication of data?
A. HP StoreOnce software
B. HP Smart Array Advanced Pack 2.0
C. HP Data Protector software
D. Microsoft Windows Storage Server 2012

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 26
What enables HP StoreEasy Storage to replicate only changed file blocks instead of the entire file?
A. File Screening Management
B. Cyclical Redundancy Check
C. File Classification Infrastructure
D. Remote Differential Compression

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 27
A global engineering company’s IT manager needs to give offshore contractors access to specific corporate data and applications. Permission is required to access the network anytime from anywhere on almost every device. Which management solution can authenticate network access and determine if the endpoints are compliant with the security policies of this company?
A. Wireless Services Manager
B. User Access Management
C. HP Peer Motion
D. Virtual network Manager

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 28
Which features are key benefits of the HP 3PARStoreServ architecture? (Select two)
A. Fully meshed cluster architecture
B. Network RAID High Availability
C. Secure retention of storage volumes
D. Built-in deduplication technology
E. Built on industry-standard HP ProLiant technology

Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 29
What needs to be considered when sizing a solution which will utilize HP 3PAR Snapshots?
A. Additional host ports will be required
B. Snapshots need to be written at 64k blocks
C. Backend IOs will increase
D. To ensure performance, additional system cache is used.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 30
Which attributes can be specified in an HP Virtual Connect Server Profile? (Select two)
A. iSCSl Initiator Name
B. Boot Parameters
C. Fibre Channel zoning
D. MAC and WWN addresses
E. Server Hostname
Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 31
Which HP tool provides contract and warranty management?
A. HP WEBES

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