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A company is migrating three applications currently running on three separate HP-UX Integrity servers. The plan is to migrate them into a Superdome 2 Serv. three applications are business critical, and the main focus is the uptime, as any interruptions cause financial losses.
Which HP-UX virtualization technology provides the best solution?
A. Create a single nPar.
B. Create three nPars.
C. Create three vPars
D. Create three Integrity Virtual Machines
Correct Answer: C

Which functionalities does AutoFS provide? (Select three.)
A. may be configured to modify NFS filesystem permissions when needed
B. may be configured to provide load balancing across multiple NFS servers
C. automatically exports filesystems on the NFS server when needed
D. automatically unmounts NFS filesystems that are no longer being accessed
E. automatically updates /etc/fstab on NFS clients when needed
F. automatically mounts NFS filesystems when needed
Correct Answer: ACE

Which methods allow you to install an Integrity server using an Ignite-UX server on a different subnet? (Select two)
A. Use the dbprofileEFI command
B. Use the ifconfigEFI command.
C. Use the loadfile command
D. Use a boot helper system
E. Use the lanboot command
Correct Answer: BE

A customer has a version 6 2 Integrity VM, and they convert this guest to a vPar using the following command:

The hpvmmodify command completes successfully. When they attempt to boot the guest in vPar mode, they get the following output

What ate the possible reasons the vPar failed to boot? (Select two)
A. TheVM guest was running a version of HP-UX 1li v3 prior 10 the September 2011 update release, which is not a supported vPar OS
B. The VM guest did not have the required vPar guest kit installed and therefore cannot run in vPar mode
C. The VM guest was running HP-UX 11i v2 which is not a supported vPar OS
D. The VM guest was not configured with sufficient memory to run as a vPar guest
E. The VM guest was running a version of HP-UX 11i v3 prior to the September 2012 update release, which is not a supported vPar OS
Correct Answer: BD

Which tool can be used to modify nPar configurations?
A. HP System Insight Manager (HP SIM)
B. HP System Management Homepage (HP SMH)
C. iLO Monarch Management Processor
D. Domain Management Processor
Correct Answer: B
Which statement about auditing Standard Mode Security Extensions (SMSE) is correct?
A. SMSE uses an external daemon to maintain the audit logs.
B. SMSE Audit log files can be read by the users of the SMSE-Administrator Group “smeadm”.
C. SMSE auditing is available on HP-UX 11i v1, HP-UX 11i v2, and HP-UX lit v3.
D. SMSE auditing is compatible with NIS and LDAP.
Correct Answer: C
How do you boot a firmware-based vPar over the network on the HP Integrity Superdorne 2 server?
A. Use the vparboot command from the Virtualization Services Platform (VSP), and run the vparconsole command. Use the CO command to getfor console. Then use the lanbootEFI command.
B. Use the vparconsole command to connect to the vPaiiLO, and use the PC command to power on the vPar Use the Co command to get to the console use the lanbootEFI command.
C. Login to the Superdome 2QA, and use the vparboot command. Use the COcommand to connect to the console. Then use the lanbootEFI console
D. Login to another vPar on the same nPar. Use the vparboot-I <ignite server IP> command to lanboot the vPar.
Correct Answer: D

Which tools can be used to manage nPars on a Superdome 2 server? (Select two)
A. Insight Control Environment
B. Onboard Administrator GUI
C. Virtual Server Management
D. Onboard Administrator CLI
Correct Answer: BD

A customer needs a partitioning solution that provides dedicated resources and electrical isolation. Which HP solution should the customer use?
A. vPars
B. Integrity VM
C. HP Containers
D. nPars
Correct Answer: D
Refer to the exhibit

Which configuration produces the output?

A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 11
The HP-UX 11i v3 mass storage stack has different load balancing policies available. Which policy is the default?
A. preferred_path
B. closest _ path
C. least_cmd_load
D. round robin

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 12
What are the customer benefits of the HP-UX Operating Environments (e.g. VSE-OE, HA-OE. DC-OE), as compared lo ordering the same software separately? (Select three)
A. Reduced purchasing cost for customer
B. Reduced amount of codewords required to manage software
C. Performance of HP applications tuned with the HP-UX OS
D. Reduced amount of disk space used for OS and HP applications
E. Reduced new-system sales quote and configuration complexity
F. reduced number of service contracts

Correct Answer: ACF QUESTION 13
Which HP-UX tool can be used to get detailed low level metrics of code running on Itanium processors?
A. prospect
B. caliper
C. sar
D. Isof

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 14
A customer is moving to an Integrity platform but has legacy PA-RISC applications that cannot be recompiled on Integrity. Which type of container can provide binary emulation environment for the customer’s applications?
A. PA RISC Container
B. System Container
C. HP 9000 Container
D. Workload Container

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 15
Which command can you use to display all network interfaces including interface link state interface type, and driver type?
A. nwmgr
B. ioscankfnClan
C. netstat -an
D. lanscan

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 16
Which tools can be used to create a user account? (Select two.)
A. System Management Homepage (HP SMH)
B. addusr command
C. useradca command
D. setuid command
E. mxuser command

Correct Answer: AD QUESTION 17
Which command will register the directory /tools as a software depot?
A. swagentd -d /tools
B. swinstall — 1 bundle /tools
C. make_ depots -d /tools
D. swreg –1 depot /tools

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 18
What is the full POS1X shell path?
A. /usr/bin/bash
B. /usr/local/bin/sh
C. /usr/bin/sh
D. /usr/bin/csh

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 19
A customer is using PRM in Fair Share Scheduler mode to allocate CPU resources among several and applications. Users are complaining about poor application performance, and you think PRM is capping the CPU utilization for their application. You use Glance to examine the WAIT TVFNTS for the applicationprocess.
What do you look for in Glance to confirm that PRM is capping the CPU utilization for the application?
A. The primary wait event is “System”.
B. The primary wait event is “IPC”
C. The primary wait event is “Priority”.
D. The primary wait event is “Scheduler”

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 20
What is the unique partitioning feature of nPars?
A. I/O sharing in cell-based servers
B. Electrical isolation from other partitions
C. VM isolation in blade-based servers
D. Storage sharing in blade-based servers
Correct Answer: B

Which command starts the auditing capabilities of HP Standard Mode Security Extensions (SMSE)?
A. /sbin/init .d/securemode start
B. /sbin/init .d/trustsys start
C. /sbin/init .d/auditing start
D. /sbin/init.d/hpsmse start
Correct Answer: C

Which components form part of the HP-UX OS kernel? (Select three.)
B. Power Module
C. EFl
D. Scheduler
E. Process Table
Correct Answer: ACF

A system administrator needs to add a LAN interface to the running Integrity VM v6.2 guest “vml”. The administrator runs the command:

Which action is necessary for the new interface to be usable?
A. Log into vm1 and run the command ioscan.
B. Restart the virtual switch local net
C. Restart vm1
D. No action is needed

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 24
Given the output below, what is indicated by the line starting with “memory”?

A. Memory pages already used for paging needs
B. Amount of memory reserved by the kernel for its own internal use
C. Amount of memory calculated for pseudo-swap
D. Memory allocated by the kernel for possible future paging needs
Correct Answer: D

A customer wants a partitioning solution that has the ability to move running workloads to eliminate downtime and increase flexibility, especially for proactive maintenance and workload balancing. Which solutions provide this capability? (Select two)
A. nPars
B. vPars v5
C. Integrity VM v6
D. Integrity VM v4
E. vPars v6
Correct Answer: BE

A customer wants to run some jobs periodically on a database inside ot HK-UA integrity virtual machines.
At which level does the administrator need to assign rights to allow the user account to create and execute cron jobs?
A. at the HP-UX OS level on the HP-UX Integrity VM only
B. at the database level and at the HP-UX Integrity VM HP-UX OS level
C. at the database level and at the HP-UX Integrity Host OS level
D. at the HP-UX OS level on the HP-UX Integrity Host only
Correct Answer: A

A server is running in nPars mode. Which command should be used to change the system to vPars mode (vPars v5)?
A. parmodify
B. vparreset
C. vparenv
D. vparboot
Correct Answer: D

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Which action is required at the guest operating system level to enable it to run on a virtual machine?
A. A key code must be loaded into the registry and validated by VMware.
B. The VMware driver must be loaded for full network support.
C. No action is required because VMware is transparent to the operating system.
D. A VMware license must be loaded on each guest.
Correct Answer: C
What can be used by a QoS policy to classify traffic? (Select two.)
A. packet size
B. egress port
C. TCP port number
D. TCP window size
Correct Answer: CE
Which advantages do ACLs offer? (Select two.)
A. fewer necessary support staff
B. increased network security
C. smaller broadcast domain
D. reduced network complexity
E. improved network performance
Correct Answer: BE QUESTION 24
How many World Wide Names (WWNs) does Virtual Connect Manager make available?
A. 64 total available WWNs
B. 64 ranges for a total of 128 WWNs
C. 64 ranges for a total of 1024 WWNs
D. 128 ranges of 64 WWNS Correct Answer: C QUESTION 25
Click the Exhibit button.

Identify the port type shown in the blue outlined area.
A. fiber
C. RJ-45
D. dedicated

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 26
A device with a non-compliant 802.1Q network adapter (NIC) is plugged into which type of switch port?
A. workstation
B. untagged
C. trunk
D. tagged Correct Answer: B QUESTION 27
What best describes the functionality of the Virtual Connect Ethernet module?
A. Layer 2 switch
B. Layer 3 switch
C. pass-thru module
D. Ethernet port aggregator

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 28
Click the Exhibit button.

What does the illustration reveal about the hardware configuration of the HP Integrity BL860c server blade? (Select two.)
A. The LOM is not a Flex-10 module.
B. The Flex-10 interface is in mezzanine Slot 2.
C. Ports 5 and 6 are preferred for connectivity.
D. Ports 7 through 12 are defective.
E. VLANs A and B are incorrectly configured.
What is the advantage of using Virtual Connect Flex-10 technology in a VMware environment?
A. It becomes tightly linked with VMware for better management through vCenter.
B. It eliminates the limit on NIC connections imposed by default on each VMware server.
C. It enables full VLAN support in VMware including multiple tagging functionality.
D. It allows bandwidth to be allocated as necessary to each VMware service or application.

Correct Answer: D
What are valid reasons for creating trunk links between switches? (Select three.)
A. Standby link capabilities are available with dynamic trunks.
B. A greater number of VLANs can be supported.
C. Capacity is maximized by increasing the number of links available for data flow.
D. Guaranteed load balancing prevents unbalanced traffic load across links.
E. There is improved availability because of the lower risk of link failure.
F. The overall error count on the switch is decreased.

Correct Answer: ACE
Click the Exhibit button.

What is the status of the Windows Server 2008 NICs under View Network Connections with the server profile configuration shown in the exhibit?
A. Only the NICs represented by Ports 1 and 2 will be shown.
B. All the NICs will display as connected.
C. All the NICs will display as disconnected.
D. Two NICs will display as connected and six will display as disconnected.

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 32
What is the default global parameter setting for how Virtual Connect handles VLANs?
A. Native VLANs Tag mode
B. Tunnel VLANs Tag mode
C. Enable VLANs Tag mode
D. Map VLANs Tag mode Correct Answer: D QUESTION 33
What does a priority value of 101110 denote?
A. VLAN scheduling
B. Stacked QoS
C. Layer 2 QoS
D. Layer 3 QoS

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 34
When a Flex-10 server adapter is deployed in a Virtual Connect Flex-10 environment, how are the FlexNICs recognized by the operating system?
A. as individual 10GbE NICs, until the correct driver is loaded by the operating system at boot time
B. as individual NICs, after the correct license key has been loaded and verified by the Onboard Administrator
C. as individual 1GbE NICs, until the correct driver is loaded by the operating system at boot time
D. transparently, because the server ROM recognizes each FlexNIC as an individual NIC with its own driver Correct Answer: D QUESTION 35
How many BladeSystem c7000 enclosures are supported in a single Virtual Connect domain?
B. 4
C. 8
D. 16

Correct Answer: B
Which management interface provides the administrator with the most control over switch parameters and monitoring functions?
B. Web browser
C. Menu

Correct Answer: D
You are creating a connection between multiple server blades and an external switch on a single VLAN. All traffic from the servers is tagged. What must you create within Virtual Connect if it is globally set for VLAN Tunnel mode?
A. simple vNET with Tunnel mode option enabled
B. Shared Uplink Set
C. simple vNET with Tunnel mode option disabled
D. untagged uplink trunk

Correct Answer: A
Where are broadcasts flooded in Layer 2 switches?
A. to only those nodes in the same subnet as the originating node
B. through all ports except the port the broadcast came in on
C. through all ports in the same VLAN except the port it came in on
D. through all ports and all VLANs on the switch

Correct Answer: C
Which tasks are only used for defining a Shared Uplink Set for Virtual Connect Ethernet? (Select three.)
A. Optionally set native VLAN.
B. Define server profile.
C. Assign one or multiple networks per server NIC.
D. Assign only one network per server NIC.
E. Select unassigned uplinks.
F. Specify VLAN names/IDs.

Correct Answer: ACF
What is required for a Layer 3 switch to route between directly connected VLANs? (Select two.)
A. IP routing must be globally enabled on the switch.
B. Dynamic Layer 3 routing protocol must be enabled and configured.
C. There must be multi-netted IP addresses on all VLAN interfaces on the switch.
D. An IP address must be configured for each VLAN that will be forwarded.
E. A DHCP helper address must be defined on each participating VLAN.
Correct Answer: AD
In an IP subnet without VLANs, each subnet terminates at the interface. How are IP subnets with VLANs different?
A. VLAN IP subnets terminate at each port.
B. VLAN IP interfaces are more easily multi-netted with VLANs.
C. VLAN IP subnets allow for greater control with ACLs.
D. VLAN IP subnets are logically separated from the router.
Correct Answer: D
What is the function of the active member of a dynamic LACP trunk?
A. determines the trunk link used for each given Layer 2 node-to-node conversation
B. requests dynamic port utilization from the receiving node to the sending node to form the LACP trunk
C. listens for BPDUs and forms a dynamic trunk when a MAC address of the same partner is heard on multiple ports
D. sends BPDUs and forms a dynamic trunk if a partner hears its MAC address on multiple ports
Correct Answer: D
What is a limitation of the VMware vNetwork standard switch?
A. Tagged VLANs are not supported in a virtual switch.
B. MAC forwarding tables are not implemented in a virtual switch.
C. Virtual machines cannot communicate through the virtual switch.
D. Spanning tree is not supported in a virtual switch.

Correct Answer: D
Which Virtual Connect tagging mode is limited to 320 VLANs per Virtual Connect Ethernet module?
A. Tunnel VLAN Tags
B. Tagged VLAN
C. Map VLAN Tags
D. Transparent VLAN Tags

Correct Answer: C
On which criterion do standard ACLs provide security?
A. range of destination IP addresses
B. range of source IP addresses
C. IP precedence
D. ICMP and IGMP message types

Correct Answer: B
Which parameters are part of a Bridge Protocol Data Unit (BPDU) transmission? (Select two.)
A. Switch Port ID
B. Port Duplex ID
C. Switch MAC address
D. Port POE parameters
E. Management IP address

Correct Answer: AC
Click the Exhibit button.

You have connected the cables as shown in the exhibit: What is the result of this configuration?
A. Switch 1, Ports 1, 3, 5, and 8 can communicate with all ports in Switch 2, except Port 8.
B. Connections between Switches 1 and 2 will cause a Layer 2 loop.
C. No VLAN 10 ports can communicate without a router or Layer 3 switch.
D. In Switch 1, only Ports 2, 7, and 8 can communicate together. Correct Answer: B QUESTION 48
Which advantage does Flex-10 technology provide?
A. increased Layer 2 switch port count
B. increased CPU performance
C. decreased number of interconnect modules
D. increased dynamic management functionality

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 49
Which status describes a virtual router interface?
A. It is only considered up if the state of the physical port is up.
B. It is always up and not directly associated with a physical port.
C. It is considered up if at least one VLAN’s port’s members is up.
D. It is only considered up if the status of the interface protocol is also up.

Correct Answer: C
Which topologies are in a typical enterprise network? (Select three.)
A. access
B. user
C. web
D. distribution
E. core
F. server

Correct Answer: ADE
What is the purpose of a RADIUS server for switch management?
A. log file storage and consolidation
B. storage of configuration files and software images
C. central user database
D. SNMP management application server

Correct Answer: C
Which OSI model layer uses frames? (Select two.)
A. Layer 2
B. Network
C. Layer 4
D. Session
E. Data Link

Correct Answer: AE
What are advantages of using Layer 3 to connect from the access layer to the core? (Select three.)
A. flatter network with fewer hops
B. equal cost balancing on all links with OSPF
C. extended broadcast domains
D. loop control using spanning tree
E. VRRP configuration not required
F. no link blocking involved
Correct Answer: BEF
Click the Exhibit button.

What will be the status of Trunk 1 and Trunk 2 in the exhibit?
A. One trunk will be in an active state and the other will be in a standby state.
B. Both trunks will be in an active state.
C. Both trunks will be in a standby state because the VLANs are duplicated in the switches.
D. Both trunks will be in a standby state because the VLANs are duplicated in Virtual Connect.
How can MSTP be configured to ensure that VLANs are not orphaned?
A. Ensure that the switches with the lowest MAC addresses are directly connected.
B. Allow the assignment of VLAN priorities on each individual interface to influence traffic flow.
C. Define the appropriate MSTP region version number in each switch’s configuration file
D. Allow the VLANs to be divided across multiple instances, each with unique root bridges and paths.

Correct Answer: D
At which OSI model layer does a router work?
A. Session
B. Transport
C. Application
D. Network

Correct Answer: D
Which protocols are industry-standard switch protocols? (Select two.)

Correct Answer: AD
What must you define when configuring Virtual Connect Ethernet for a server blade that can support tagged Ethernet frames in VLANs 20, 30, 50, and 60?
A. a vNet in Map VLAN tags mode
B. a vNet in Tunnel VLAN tags mode
C. a Shared Uplink Set in Map VLAN tags mode
D. a Shared Uplink Set in Tunnel VLAN tags mode

Correct Answer: C
How does a simple vNet handle VLAN tags in Map mode?
A. accepts only untagged frames from the servers or the switch
B. accepts only tagged frames from the servers and only untagged frames from the switch
C. accepts tagged or untagged frames from the switch and only untagged frames from the servers
D. accepts tagged or untagged frames from the servers or the switch
Correct Answer: A
Which features differentiate Virtual Connect Ethernet interconnect modules from switches? (Select three.)
A. All changes affect the network.
B. They are managed with the servers.
C. They are part of the server system.
D. They are part of the infrastructure network.
E. Any changes are transparent to the network.
F. They are part of the LAN network.
Correct Answer: BCE
Which command do you use to view information about the status and configuration of HP Integrity virtual machines?
A. hpvmconfig
B. hpvmstatus
C. hpvm -status
D. vmstatus
Correct Answer: B

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What is the default login directory when accessing the Global Shell?
A. /home
B. /home/user-name
C. /
D. /export/home/user-name

Correct Answer: B
Which utility enables you to log on to managed servers and run native commands from within a Global Shell session?
A. rlogin
D. telnet
Correct Answer: B
Which ROSH syntax is used to copy a script to a managed server and run it?
A. rosh -n server-name -l user-name command-name
B. rosh -n server-name -l user-name -s file-name
C. rosh -n server-name -l user-name -c file-name
D. rosh -n server-name -l user-name –run file-name
Correct Answer: B
What is one of the ways HP Server Automation secures communications between components?
A. TCP Wrappers
C. IPsec
D. X.503 certificates
Correct Answer: B QUESTION 25
How long are Server Automation security certificates valid, by default?
A. 6 months
B. 1 year
C. 5 years
D. 10 years

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 26
Server Authentication enforces a very granular system of role-based access controls. Which parameter can security administrators use to set up authorization?
A. users
B. customer administrators
C. facility
D. Security policy

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 27
In HP Server Automation, how long is the audit trail stored by default?
A. 1 month
B. 6 months
C. 1 year
D. 2 years

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 28
Which external authentication source does HP Server Automation support?
A. SmartCard
B. Kerberos

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 29
Which set of rules (which may contain individual hecks? expresses the desired state of a managed server configuration objects (for example,Which set of rules (which may contain individual ?hecks? expresses the desired state of a managed server? configuration objects (for example, a server file system directory structure or files, a server Windows Registry, or application configuration)?a server? file system directory structure or files, a server? Windows Registry, or application configuration)?
A. Snapshot
B. Audit
C. Compliance policy
D. Compliance scan

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 30
A snapshot specification can capture the state of the configuration on a server known to have a good configuration (a golden server). This can be used to compare against other target servers. How is this

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Which actions can you take using the My Changes/Checkouts window? (Select two.)
A. check in changes
B. create snapshots
C. abandon changes
D. check out changes
E. revert changes
Answer: A,C
A version number is listed as 7.5 in the Flow History window. What does this indicate?
A. The flow was created in version 7.5 of Operations Orchestration.
B. The flow has been saved 7 times and restored 5 times.
C. The flow has been checked into Central 7 times by 5 different flow authors.
D. The flow was checked into Central 7 times and saved 5 times in Studio since the last check in.
Answer: D

Where is the default directory for the shared public repository for a Windows installation?
A. C:\Program Files\Hewlett-Packard\Operations Orchestration\Central\rcrepo
B. C:\Program Files\Hewlett-Packard\Operations Orchestration\Central\pubrepo
C. C:\Program Files\Hewlett-Packard\Operations Orchestration\Studio\pubrepo
D. C:\Program Files\Hewlett-Packard\Operations Orchestration\Studio\sharerepo
Answer: A

Where is documentation stored that is generated from folders in the Studio Library?
A. Central Documentation tab.
B. a directory that you specify on your file system
C. in the Central/docs directory
D. It is deployed to the Remote Action Server.
Answer: B

How do you invoke the object history window?
A. Click the Repositorypull down menu and click Show History.
B. Double-click a flow and then click the Show History tab.
C. Right-click an object, point to Repository and click Show History.
D. Click the Tools pull down menu bar and click Show History.
Answer: C QUESTION NO: 26

What is used to add a new repository?
A. Repository tab in Central
B. Tools menu item in Studio
C. Administration tab in Central
D. Repository menu item in Studio
Answer: D

How do you access the Flow Variable panel?
A. View menu in Studio
B. Current Runs tab in Central
C. Flow Library tab in Central
D. Authoring pane in Studio
Answer: D

What do the Step Into, Step Over, and Step Out icons impact in the debugger? (Select two.)
A. operations
B. response overrides
C. steps
D. closing the debugging session
E. sub-flows
Answer: C,E

By default, where does the Web Services Wizard create a WSDL operation?
A. Library-> Wizards
B. Library-> WSDL
C. Library-> My Ops Flows
D. Library-> Operations

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Which feature allows SAN switches to accept multiple WWPN registrations on a single port?
B. ISL Tracking

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 22
Which BYOD services are provided by HP Intelligent Management Center? (Select two)
A. End user compression
B. Storage federation
C. Routing optimization
D. Device compliance
E. User authentication

Correct Answer: DE QUESTION 23
When designing a solution, what defines the maximum tolerable amount of data loss from an IT service due to a major incident?

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 24
Which HP 3PAR StoreServ tool can be used to collect detailed server configuration information such as the OS type and version, WWN of HBAs, the iSCSI name and host multipathing information over a secure communication channel?
A. Recovery Manager
B. Web Services API
C. System Reporter
D. Host Explorer

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 25
Which improvement to the standard features of HP StoreEasy Storage enables deduplication of data?
A. HP StoreOnce software
B. HP Smart Array Advanced Pack 2.0
C. HP Data Protector software
D. Microsoft Windows Storage Server 2012

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 26
What enables HP StoreEasy Storage to replicate only changed file blocks instead of the entire file?
A. File Screening Management
B. Cyclical Redundancy Check
C. File Classification Infrastructure
D. Remote Differential Compression

Correct Answer: D
A global engineering company’s IT manager needs to give offshore contractors access to specific corporate data and applications. Permission is required to access the network anytime from anywhere on almost every device. Which management solution can authenticate network access and determine if the endpoints are compliant with the security policies of this company?
A. Wireless Services Manager
B. User Access Management
C. HP Peer Motion
D. Virtual network Manager

Correct Answer: B
Which features are key benefits of the HP 3PARStoreServ architecture? (Select two)
A. Fully meshed cluster architecture
B. Network RAID High Availability
C. Secure retention of storage volumes
D. Built-in deduplication technology
E. Built on industry-standard HP ProLiant technology

Correct Answer: AC
What needs to be considered when sizing a solution which will utilize HP 3PAR Snapshots?
A. Additional host ports will be required
B. Snapshots need to be written at 64k blocks
C. Backend IOs will increase
D. To ensure performance, additional system cache is used.
Correct Answer: D
Which attributes can be specified in an HP Virtual Connect Server Profile? (Select two)
A. iSCSl Initiator Name
B. Boot Parameters
C. Fibre Channel zoning
D. MAC and WWN addresses
E. Server Hostname
Correct Answer: BD
Which HP tool provides contract and warranty management?

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