[New Version] 2017 Free Latest Microsoft 70-695 Dumps PDF Practice Materials And Youtube Download

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Question: 1
Your virtual environment includes several Windows Server 2008 R2 Hyper-V servers. Some servers have 16 GB of RAM, and some servers have 32 GB of RAM. Each server has a dedicated management network adapter. Several virtual machines (VMs) are configured on local disk arrays. You plan to enable live migration between all Hyper-V host servers. Your plan must optimize the environment for live migration and enable the live migration of all VMs among all servers. You need to specify the components to add or upgrade. What should you do?
A. On each Hyper-V host server, provision additional disk resources on the local storage volumes. Add a second network adapter to each host server, and assign this network adapter to a local switch.
B. On each Hyper-V host server, provision additional disk resources on shared storage volumes. Add a second network adapter to each host server, and assign this network adapter to a local switch.
C. On each Hyper-V host server, provision additional disk resources on the local storage volumes. Install additional RAM as necessary so that all host servers have the same amount of RAM.
D. Install additional RAM as necessary so that all host servers have the same amount of RAM. Add a second network adapter to each host server, and assign this network adapter to a local switch.
Answer: B

Question: 2
All servers on your company’s network run Windows Server 2008 R2. All client computers run Windows Vista. The company is planning to virtualize an application that runs only on Windows 2000 Professional. 70-695 pdf You need to recommend a virtualization solution that enables users to run the virtualized application while their computers are disconnected from the corporate network. Which technology should you recommend?
A. Remote Desktop Services (RDS)
B. Microsoft Application Virtualization (App-V)
C. Microsoft Virtual Desktop Infrastructure (VDI)
D. Microsoft Enterprise Desktop Virtualization (MED-V)
Answer: D
70-695 dumps
Question: 3                   70-695 dumps
Your network includes Windows Server 2008 R2 Hyper-V servers. Each Hyper-V server runs multiple virtual machines (VMs). You need to detect performance issues and generate an alert when Hyper-V server load exceeds specific thresholds. Which tool should you use?
A. Microsoft System Center Capacity Planner 2007
B. Microsoft System Center Operations Manager 2007 R2
C. Microsoft System Center Configuration Manager 2007 R2
D. Microsoft System Center Virtual Machine Manager 2008 R2
Answer: B

Question: 4
Your company has 300 portable computers that run Microsoft Office Enterprise 2007. The company participates in the Microsoft Software Assurance program. You are designing a solution that enables remote employees to use Office and to access their Home folders. You plan to implement a Remote Desktop Services (RDS) infrastructure, and you plan to deploy Office Enterprise 2007 as a virtual application on the RDS servers. You need to choose the appropriate licenses. Which licensing solution should you choose?
A. 1 Office Enterprise 2007 license and 300 App-V for Terminal Services licenses
B. 300 Office Enterprise 2010 licenses and 300 App-V for Terminal Services licenses
C. 300 Office Enterprise 2007 licenses and 300 Microsoft Desktop Optimization Pack (MDOP) licenses
D. 300 Windows Server 2008 R2 RDS client access licenses (CALs)
Answer: D

Question: 5
All servers on your company’s network run Windows Server 2008 R2. All client computers run Windows 7. The company is planning to virtualize an application that runs only on Windows XP. 70-695 dumps You need to recommend a virtualization solution that enables users to access the virtualized application while their computers are disconnected from the corporate network. Which technology should you recommend?
A. Microsoft Enterprise Desktop Virtualization (MED-V)
B. Remote Desktop Services (RDS)
C. Microsoft Application Virtualization (App-V)
D. Microsoft Virtual Desktop Infrastructure (VDI)
Answer: A

Question: 6
Your company’s network includes 150 client computers that run Windows Vista Business. The company does not participate in the Microsoft Software Assurance program. You plan to implement a virtual desktop infrastructure (VDI) that includes 150 VDI sessions. You acquire three new servers that have four quad-core CPUs each. You need to choose the appropriate licenses. Which licensing solution should you choose?
A. 3 Windows Server 2008 R2 Datacenter licenses
B. 150 Windows Vista Business licenses
C. 150 Windows Virtual Enterprise Centralized Desktop (VECD) licenses
D. 150 Windows 7 Professional Upgrade licenses and Software Assurance
Answer: C

Question: 7
All servers on your company’s network run Windows Server 2008 R2. All client computers run Windows Vista. The company is planning to virtualize an application that is CPU intensive and that runs only on Windows Vista and Windows 7. You need to recommend a virtualization solution that minimizes the use of CPU resources on the server. Which technology should you recommend?
A. Remote Desktop Services (RDS)
B. Microsoft Application Virtualization (App-V)
C. Microsoft Virtual Desktop Infrastructure (VDI)
D. Microsoft Enterprise Desktop Virtualization (MED-V)
Answer: B

Question: 8
Your network includes servers that run a variety of Windows Server operating systems. You intend to virtualize as many physical servers as possible. 70-695 pdf You need to evaluate the current environment to identify the number of servers that can be virtualized. In the Microsoft Assessment and Planning (MAP) Toolkit version 5.5, what should you run first?
A. Inventory Assessment Wizard
B. Application Virtualization Assessment
C. Performance Metrics Wizard
D. Windows Server 2008 R2 Readiness Assessment
Answer: A

Question: 9
All servers on your company’s network run Windows Server 2008 R2. Client computers run a Windows, Mac, or Linux operating system. The company is planning to virtualize an enterprise application. You need to recommend a virtualization solution that allows the virtualized application to be accessed from all of the client computers. Which technology should you recommend?
A. Windows Virtual PC
B. Remote Desktop Services (RDS)
C. Microsoft Application Virtualization (App-V)
D. Microsoft Enterprise Desktop Virtualization (MED-V)
Answer: B

Question: 10
Your virtual environment includes Microsoft Virtual Server 2005 R2 and third-party hypervisors. The virtual machines (VMs) include messaging, application, and database servers. 70-695 dumps You intend to standardize on Windows Server 2008 R2 Hyper-V servers. You are developing a migration plan by using the Microsoft Assessment and Planning (MAP) Toolkit. You need to gather the necessary information to analyze the current virtual environment.
Which MAP assessment should you choose?
A. Application Virtualization Assessment
B. Virtual Machine Inventory
C. Windows Server 2008 R2 Readiness
D. Windows Server Role Discovery
Answer: B

Read more: https://www.leads4pass.com/70-695.html dumps exam practice files and study guides.

[Hottest Questions] The Best Youtube Latest Cisco 200-125 Dumps PDF Questions And Answers

The latest Cisco CCNA products 200-125 dumps exam is considered a very important qualification, and the professionals certified by them are highly valued in all organizations. http://www.leads4pass.com/200-125.html dumps pdf questions and answers. Cisco CCNA 200-125 dumps pdf training resources which are the best for clearing 200-125 exam test, download one of the many PDF readers that are available for free.

QUESTION 1
What are two benefits of private IPv4 IP addresses? (Choose two.)
A. They are routed the same as public IP addresses.
B. They are less costly than public IP addresses.
C. They can be assigned to devices without Internet connections.
D. They eliminate the necessity for NAT policies.
E. They eliminate duplicate IP conflicts.
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 2
Which command can you enter to display the operational status of the network ports on a router?
A. show interface switchport
B. show ip interface brief
C. show running-config interface fastethernet 0/1
D. show interface status
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 3
A network administrator is troubleshooting the OSPF configuration of routers R1 and R2. The routers cannot establish an adjacency relationship on their common Ethernet link. 200-125 pdf
200-125 dumps
The graphic shows the output of the show ip ospf interface e0 command for routers R1 and R2. Based on the information in the graphic, what is the cause of this problem? 200-125 dumps
A. The OSPF area is not configured properly.
B. The priority on R1 should be set higher.
C. The cost on R1 should be set higher.
D. The hello and dead timers are not configured properly.
E. A backup designated router needs to be added to the network.
F. The OSPF process ID numbers must match.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 4
Which function does IP SLA ICMP ECHO operation perform to assist with troubleshooting
A. packet-loss detection
B. congestion detection
C. hop-by-hop response time
D. one way jitter measurement
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 5
In which three ways is an IPv6 header simpler than an IPv4 header? (Choose three.)
A. Unlike IPv4 headers, IPv6 headers have a fixed length.
B. IPv6 uses an extension header instead of the IPv4 Fragmentation field.
C. IPv6 headers eliminate the IPv4 Checksum field.
D. IPv6 headers use the Fragment Offset field in place of the IPv4 Fragmentation field.
E. IPv6 headers use a smaller Option field size than IPv4 headers.
F. IPv6 headers use a 4-bit TTL field, and IPv4 headers use an 8-bit TTL field.
Correct Answer: ABC

QUESTION 6
How to see dhcp conflict?
A. show ip dhcp pool
B. show dhcp database
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 7
Which Cisco platform can verify ACLs? 200-125 pdf
A. Cisco Prime Infrastructure
B. Cisco Wireless LAN Controller
C. Cisco APIC-EM
D. Cisco IOS-XE
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 8
Which type of mac address is aged automatically by the switch?
A. Dynamic
B. Static
C. automatic
D. manual
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9
Which major component of the network virtualization architecture isolate users according to policy? 200-125 dumps
A. policy enforcement
B. network access control
C. network services virtualization
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 10
If a router has 3 hosts connected in one port and two other hosts connected in another port, how may broadcast domains are present on the router?
A. 5
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 11
Under normal operations, cisco recommends that you configure switch ports on which vlan?
A. on the default vlan
B. on the management vlan
C. on the native vlan
D. on any vlan except the default vlan
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 12
What are two requirements for an HSRP group? (Choose two.)
A. exactly one active router
B. one or more standby routers
C. one or more backup virtual routers
D. exactly one standby active router
E. exactly one backup virtual router
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 13
Which three statements about static routing are true? (Choose three.) 200-125 pdf
A. It uses consistent route determination.
B. It is best used for small-scale deployments.
C. Routing is disrupted when links fail.
D. It requires more resources than other routing methods.
E. It is best used for large-scale deployments.
F. Routers can use update messages to reroute when links fail.
Correct Answer: ABC

QUESTION 14
Three switches are connected to one another via trunk ports. Assuming the default switch configuration, which switch is elected as the root bridge for the spanning-tree instance of VLAN 1? 200-125 dumps
A. the switch with the highest MAC address
B. the switch with the lowest MAC address
C. the switch with the highest IP address
D. the switch with the lowest IP address
Correct Answer: B

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[25-Mar-2017] Recenty Updated ISC CISSP (ISC)2 Exam | CISSP Security Certification | CISSP Exam Vimeo Training

Lead4pass CISSP exam stands for Certified Information Systems Security Professional, a qualification that I obtained on this day in 1996. Back then, very few people had heard of CISSP or the organization that created it, the International Information Systems Security Certification Consortium.

Vendor: ISC
Exam Code: CISSP
Exam Name: Certified Information Systems Security Professional
Certification Provider: ISC
Total Questions: 1746 Q&A
Updated on: May 17, 2017

This non-profit professional body is known as (ISC)2 which is pronounced “I-S-C-squared” (because the name contains two each of those three letters, which is cute but a pain for typographers and search engines). These days CISSP is an acronym you’ll hear a lot if you spend time dealing with cybersecurity, and (ISC)2 is a name you’ll encounter at many events, such as the (ISC)2 Security Congress. In a moment I will talk about what it means to be a Kill4exam CISSP, but first, a few words of caution.

CISSP

Kill4exam Latest and Most Accurate ISC CISSP Dumps Exam Q&As

QUESTION 1
A potential problem related to the physical installation of the Iris Scanner in regards to the usage of the iris
pattern within a biometric system is:
A. Concern that the laser beam may cause eye damage.
B. The iris pattern changes as a person grows older.
C. There is a relatively high rate of false accepts.
D. The optical unit must be positioned so that the sun does not shine into the aperture.
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Because the optical unit utilizes a camera and infrared light to create the images, sun light can impact the
aperture so it must not be positioned in direct light of any type. Because the subject does not need to have
direct contact with the optical reader, direct light can impact the reader. An Iris recognition is a form of
biometrics that is based on the uniqueness of a subject’s iris. A camera like device records the patterns of
the iris creating what is known as Iriscode. It is the unique patterns of the iris that allow it to be one of the
most accurate forms of biometric identification of an individual. Unlike other types of biometics, the iris
rarely changes over time. Fingerprints can change over time due to scaring and manual labor, voice
patterns can change due to a variety of causes, hand geometry can also change as well. But barring
surgery or an accident it is not usual for an iris to change. The subject has a high-resoulution image taken
of their iris and this is then converted to Iriscode. The current standard for the Iriscode was developed by
John Daugman. When the subject attempts to be authenticated an infrared light is used to capture the iris
image and this image is then compared to the Iriscode. If there is a match the subject’s identity is
confirmed. The subject does not need to have direct contact with the optical reader so it is a less invasive
means of authentication then retinal scanning would be.
Reference(s) used for this question:
AIO, 3rd edition, Access Control, p 134
AIO, 4th edition, Access Control, p 182
The following answers are incorrect:
Concern that the laser beam may cause eye damage. The optical readers do not use laser so, concern
that the laser beam may cause eye damage is not an issue.
The iris pattern changes as a person grows older. The question asked about the physical installation of the
scanner, so this was not the best answer. If the question would have been about long term problems then
it could have been the best choice. Recent research has shown that Irises actually do change over time:
There is a relatively high rate of false accepts. Since the advent of the Iriscode there is a very low rate of
false accepts, in fact the algorithm used has never had a false match. This all depends on the quality of the
equipment used but because of the uniqueness of the iris even when comparing identical twins, iris
patterns are unique.

QUESTION 2
In Mandatory Access Control, sensitivity labels attached to object contain what information?
A. The item’s classification
B. The item’s classification and category set
C. The item’s category
D. The items’s need to know
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

The following is the correct answer: the item’s classification and category set.
A Sensitivity label must contain at least one classification and one category set.
Category set and Compartment set are synonyms, they mean the same thing. The sensitivity label must
contain at least one Classification and at least one Category. It is common in some environments for a
single item to belong to multiple categories. The list of all the categories to which an item belongs is called
a compartment set or category set.
The following answers are incorrect:
The item’s classification. Is incorrect because you need a category set as well. The item’s category. Is
incorrect because category set and classification would be both be required.
The item’s need to know. Is incorrect because there is no such thing. The need to know is indicated by the
catergories the object belongs to. This is NOT the best answer.
Reference(s) used for this question:
OIG CBK, Access Control (pages 186 – 188)
AIO, 3rd Edition, Access Control (pages 162 – 163)
AIO, 4th Edition, Access Control, pp 212-214

QUESTION 3
Which of the following is true about Kerberos?
A. It utilizes public key cryptography.
B. It encrypts data after a ticket is granted, but passwords are exchanged in plain text.
C. It depends upon symmetric ciphers.
D. It is a second party authentication system.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Kerberos depends on secret keys (symmetric ciphers). Kerberos is a third party authentication protocol. It
was designed and developed in the mid 1980’s by MIT. It is considered open source but is copyrighted and
owned by MIT. It relies on the user’s secret keys. The password is used to encrypt and decrypt the keys.
The following answers are incorrect:
It utilizes public key cryptography. Is incorrect because Kerberos depends on secret keys (symmetric
ciphers).
It encrypts data after a ticket is granted, but passwords are exchanged in plain text. Is incorrect because
the passwords are not exchanged but used for encryption and decryption of the keys.
It is a second party authentication system. Is incorrect because Kerberos is a third party authentication
system, you authenticate to the third party (Kerberos) and not the system you are accessing.
References:
AIOv3 Access Control (pages 151 – 155)


QUESTION 4
Which of the following is needed for System Accountability?
A. Audit mechanisms.
B. Documented design as laid out in the Common Criteria.
C. Authorization.
D. Formal verification of system design.

Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Is a means of being able to track user actions. Through the use of audit logs and other tools the user
actions are recorded and can be used at a later date to verify what actions were performed.
Accountability is the ability to identify users and to be able to track user actions.
The following answers are incorrect:
Documented design as laid out in the Common Criteria. Is incorrect because the Common Criteria is an
international standard to evaluate trust and would not be a factor in System Accountability.
Authorization. Is incorrect because Authorization is granting access to subjects, just because you have
authorization does not hold the subject accountable for their actions.
Formal verification of system design. Is incorrect because all you have done is to verify the system design
and have not taken any steps toward system accountability.
References:
OIG CBK Glossary (page 778)


QUESTION 5
What is Kerberos?
A. A three-headed dog from the egyptian mythology.
B. A trusted third-party authentication protocol.
C. A security model.
D. A remote authentication dial in user server.
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Is correct because that is exactly what Kerberos is.
The following answers are incorrect:
A three-headed dog from Egyptian mythology. Is incorrect because we are dealing with Information
Security and not the Egyptian mythology but the Greek Mythology.
A security model. Is incorrect because Kerberos is an authentication protocol and not just a security model.
A remote authentication dial in user server. Is incorrect because Kerberos is not a remote authentication
dial in user server that would be called RADIUS.

QUESTION 6
Kerberos depends upon what encryption method?
A. Public Key cryptography.
B. Secret Key cryptography.
C. El Gamal cryptography.
D. Blowfish cryptography.
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Kerberos depends on Secret Keys or Symmetric Key cryptography.
Kerberos a third party authentication protocol. It was designed and developed in the mid 1980’s by MIT. It

is considered open source but is copyrighted and owned by MIT. It relies on the user’s secret keys. The
password is used to encrypt and decrypt the keys.
This question asked specifically about encryption methods. Encryption methods can be SYMMETRIC (or
secret key) in which encryption and decryption keys are the same, or ASYMMETRIC (aka ‘Public Key’) in
which encryption and decryption keys differ.
‘Public Key’ methods must be asymmetric, to the extent that the decryption key CANNOT be easily derived
from the encryption key. Symmetric keys, however, usually encrypt more efficiently, so they lend
themselves to encrypting large amounts of data. Asymmetric encryption is often limited to ONLY
encrypting a symmetric key and other information that is needed in order to decrypt a data stream, and the
remainder of the encrypted data uses the symmetric key method for performance reasons. This does not in
any way diminish the security nor the ability to use a public key to encrypt the data, since the symmetric
key method is likely to be even MORE secure than the asymmetric method.
For symmetric key ciphers, there are basically two types: BLOCK CIPHERS, in which a fixed length block
is encrypted, and STREAM CIPHERS, in which the data is encrypted one ‘data unit’ (typically 1 byte) at a
time, in the same order it was received in.
The following answers are incorrect:
Public Key cryptography. Is incorrect because Kerberos depends on Secret Keys or Symmetric Key
cryptography and not Public Key or Asymmetric Key cryptography.
El Gamal cryptography. Is incorrect because El Gamal is an Asymmetric Key encryption algorithm.
Blowfish cryptography. Is incorrect because Blowfish is a Symmetric Key encryption algorithm.
References:
OIG CBK Access Control (pages 181 – 184)
AIOv3 Access Control (pages 151 – 155)

QUESTION 7
A confidential number used as an authentication factor to verify a user’s identity is called a:
A. PIN
B. User ID
C. Password
D. Challenge
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
PIN Stands for Personal Identification Number, as the name states it is a combination of numbers.
The following answers are incorrect:
User ID This is incorrect because a Userid is not required to be a number and a Userid is only used to
establish identity not verify it.
Password. This is incorrect because a password is not required to be a number, it could be any
combination of characters.
Challenge. This is incorrect because a challenge is not defined as a number, it could be anything.

QUESTION 8
Individual accountability does not include which of the following?
A. unique identifiers
B. policies & procedures
C. access rules

D. audit trails
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Accountability would not include policies & procedures because while important on an effective security
program they cannot be used in determing accountability.
The following answers are incorrect:
Unique identifiers. Is incorrect because Accountability would include unique identifiers so that you can
identify the individual.
Access rules. Is incorrect because Accountability would include access rules to define access violations.
Audit trails. Is incorrect because Accountability would include audit trails to be able to trace violations or
attempted violations.


QUESTION 9
Which of the following exemplifies proper separation of duties?
A. Operators are not permitted modify the system time.
B. Programmers are permitted to use the system console.
C. Console operators are permitted to mount tapes and disks.
D. Tape operators are permitted to use the system console.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
This is an example of Separation of Duties because operators are prevented from modifying the system
time which could lead to fraud. Tasks of this nature should be performed by they system administrators.
AIO defines Separation of Duties as a security principle that splits up a critical task among two or more
individuals to ensure that one person cannot complete a risky task by himself.
The following answers are incorrect:
Programmers are permitted to use the system console. Is incorrect because programmers should not be
permitted to use the system console, this task should be performed by operators. Allowing programmers
access to the system console could allow fraud to occur so this is not an example of Separation of Duties..
Console operators are permitted to mount tapes and disks. Is incorrect because operators should be able
to mount tapes and disks so this is not an example of Separation of Duties.
Tape operators are permitted to use the system console. Is incorrect because operators should be able to
use the system console so this is not an example of Separation of Duties.
References:
OIG CBK Access Control (page 98 – 101)
AIOv3 Access Control (page 182)

This course is the most comprehensive review of information security concepts and industry best practices, and covers the eight domains of the Kill4exam CISSP exam CBK (Common Body of Knowledge). You will gain knowledge in information security that will increase your ability to successfully implement and manage security programs in any organization or government entity.

Take a closer look our Lead4pass CISSP  exam training course designed to work around your schedule and provide you with all of the tools you need to accelerate your cybersecurity career. Unlike gray market training providers, CyberVista’s course is (ISC)² Approved and led by (ISC)² certified instructors.

I Have More Understanding on 2017 New Cisco CCENT v3 100-105 Dumps PDF Video Training

It says at the top that the v2.0 tests are being revised to v3.0. Currently you can take either one, but only until August 20th (200-120 & 100-101) or September 24th (200-101).

Also, the CCNA can be taken as either one combined test (called CCNA) or two separate tests called ICND1 and ICND2.

Exam Code: 100-105
Exam Name: Cisco Interconnecting Cisco Networking Devices Part 1 (ICND1 v3.0)
Updated: Apr 26, 2017
Q&As: 239
Exam Information: http://www.pass4itsure.com/100-105.html

100-105 dumps is the ICND1 v3.0 test. It’s the first half of the new version of the CCNA. 200-105 is ICND2 v3.0. It’s the second half of the new version.

Cisco 100-105 Dumps APPLICATIONS

  • Multiroom IP Audio System Receiver
  • Internet Radio Receiver
  • Instore Audio Player
  • SIP and IP Paging Zone Device
  • Digital Annunciator, Message Player, Message Repeater
  • Generic VoIP decoder for IP Paging and Announcement applications
  • Commercial Audio Streaming Applications

You’ll need both for the CCNA certification!

100-105 dumps
♥♥Pass4itsure Latest and Most Accurate Cisco 100-105 Dumps Exam Q&As♥♥

Exam A
QUESTION 1
Which two files are generated by the BlackBerry Desktop Manager during synchronization with advanced logging enabled? (Choose two.)
A. Dmtrace.log
B. Jvm.log
C. Tiff.log
D. Pttrace.log
E. Sync.log

Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 2
Since upgrading the BlackBerry Device Software, a BlackBerry device user is reporting that custom audio notifications are no longer configured. Which two of the following options may resolve the issue? (Choose two.)
A. Synchronize using BlackBerry Desktop Manager to import any pre-existing custom audio profiles
B. Create a new Audio Profile in BlackBerry Desktop Manager Media Manager and import it with the application loader tool
C. Manually recreate the lost notifications in the Profiles application of the BlackBerry device
D. If a backup file was created in BlackBerry Desktop Manager, restoring the Options database will restore custom profiles
E. Download new ring tone content from the service provider and install using the BlackBerry Browser

Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 3
A BlackBerry device user does not possess an organizer application like Microsoft Outlook. Which translator will work for them to obtain a copy of their contacts and calendar on the computer with BlackBerry Desktop Manager? (Choose one.)
A. Plain Text
B. ASCII text
C. CSV
D. Notepad
E. Wordpad

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4
A BlackBerry device user filtered message count in the BlackBerry Administration Service is increasing and no email messages are being forwarded to the BlackBerry device. Which of the following may be the cause of this? (Choose one.)
A. The user does not have sufficient wireless coverage
B. The BlackBerry device setting for f no filters apply, send email to handheld is set to No The BlackBerry device setting for if no filters apply, send email to handheld is set to No
C. The user has not been provisioned for Enterprise services
D. The user mail client rules/policies are interfering with message delivery The user mail client rules/ policies are interfering with message delivery
E. The service books on the BlackBerry device are corrupt

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 5
Which two of the following processes can determine the current build version of BlackBerry Desktop Manager that is installed? (Choose two.)
A. Right click the BlackBerry Desktop Manager icon on the desktop and review properties
B. Open BlackBerry Desktop Manager > Help > About Desktop Manager
C. Launch the BlackBerry Desktop Manager application and look at the title bar at the top of the application
D. Open Control panel > Add / remove programs > Select Desktop Manager and choose lick here for support info in Windows
E. Look on the BlackBerry Desktop Manager CD

Correct Answer: BD 100-105 dumps 

QUESTION 6
Which of the following components must be selected during a custom install of BlackBerry Desktop Software for S/MIME and Wi-Fi support? (Choose one.)
A. S/MIME Support Package
B. BlackBerry device software
C. BlackBerry Security support package
D. Certificate Synchronization
E. BlackBerry advanced networking support

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 7
Which two of the following media card settings on the BlackBerry device need to be turned on to copy files between Windows Explorer and the media card? (Choose two.)
A. Media Card Support
B. USB Flash Drive Bypass Mode
C. Mass Storage Mode Support
D. USB Dongle Support
E. Auto Enable Mass Storage Mode When Connected

Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 8
What is taking place at the Verifying Encryption stage of the wireless enterprise activation process? (Choose one.)
A. The BlackBerry device and BlackBerry Enterprise Server are negotiating a master encryption key
B. All personal information on the BlackBerry device is being compressed, encrypted and sent over the wireless network to the BlackBerry
C. All settings on the BlackBerry device are being verified by the BlackBerry Enterprise Server for security considerations
D. The BlackBerry Enterprise Server is sending service book information to the BlackBerry device
E. The BlackBerry device is scanning the BlackBerry Enterprise Server settings for security considerations
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 9

If the BlackBerry device is displaying a lower case edge connection status, which two of the following actions can a BlackBerry device user perform on the BlackBerry device? (Choose two.)
A. Browse the Internet
B. Send or receive email messages
C. Send or receive SMS messages
D. Send or receive PIN messages
E. Make or receive phone calls

Correct Answer: CE

QUESTION 10
Which of the following will resolve a VM 517 error (Choose one.)Which of the following will resolve a VM 517 error (Choose one.)
A. Removing and re-inserting the BlackBerry device battery
B. Performing a security wipe
C. Setting appropriate content store permissions
D. Reinstalling the BlackBerry Device Software using the application loader tool
E. Removing and re-seating the BlackBerry device SIM Card Removing and re-seating the BlackBerry device SIM Card

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 11
Which two of the following are types of searches that can be performed in the BTSC? (Choose two.)
A. Targeted
B. Software assisted
C. Boolean
D. Natural Language
E. Choice Focused

Correct Answer: CD

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Up To Date Free Oracle 1Z0-061 Dumps | Exam Questions and Answers + Oracle Database 12c SQL

1z0-061 dumps

Vendor: Oracle
Exam Code: 1Z0-061
Exam Name: Oracle Database 12c: SQL Fundamentals
Certification Provider: Oracle
Total Questions: 75 Q&A
Updated on: Apr 06, 2017

Study Guide for 1Z0-061 dumps Oracle Database 12c covers the entire syllabus of the exam and presents it in a clean and concise format. The first two sections tell readers about what to expect from the test and from this guide. This is followed by the chapter titled Retrieving Data using the SQL SELECT Statement. Methods to limit and sort rows are covered in Restricting and Sorting Data. Morris then explains how to use characters, dates and numbers in single – row functions to customise output.

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  • Data retrieval using the SQL SELECT statement
  • Restricting and sorting data
  • Single-row functions
  • Using conversion functions and conditional expressions
  • Reporting aggregated data with the group functions
  • Displaying data from multiple tables with joins
  • Using subqueries to solve problems
  • Using the set operators
  • Manipulating data with DML statements
  • Using DDL statements to create and manage tables

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Kill4exam Latest and Most Accurate Oracle 1Z0-061 Dumps Exam Q&As   

QUESTION 1
Evaluate the following SQL statement:

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Which statement is true regarding the outcome of the above query?
A. It executes successfully and displays rows in the descending order of PROMO_CATEGORY.
B. It produces an error because positional notation cannot be used in the order by clause with set
operators.
C. It executes successfully but ignores the order by clause because it is not located at the end of the
compound statement.
D. It produces an error because the order by clause should appear only at the end of a compound query
that is, with the last select statement.
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 2
View the Exhibit and examine the structure of the product, component, and PDT_COMP tables.
In product table, PDTNO is the primary key.
In component table, COMPNO is the primary key.
In PDT_COMP table, <PDTNO, COMPNO) is the primary key, PDTNO is the foreign key referencing
PDTNO in product table and COMPNO is the foreign key referencing the COMPNO in component table.
You want to generate a report listing the product names and their corresponding component names, if the
component names and product names exist.
Evaluate the following query:
SQL>SELECT pdtno, pdtname, compno, compname
FROM product _____________ pdt_comp
USING (pdtno) ____________ component USING (compno) WHERE compname IS NOT NULL;
Which combination of joins used in the blanks in the above query gives the correct output?

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A. JOIN; JOIN
B. FULL OUTER JOIN; FULL OUTER JOIN
C. RIGHT OUTER JOIN; LEFT OUTER JOIN
D. LEFT OUTER JOIN; RIGHT OUTER JOIN
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 3
View the Exhibit for the structure of the student and faculty tables.

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You need to display the faculty name followed by the number of students handled by the faculty at the
base location.
Examine the following two SQL statements:

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Which statement is true regarding the outcome?
A. Only statement 1 executes successfully and gives the required result.
B. Only statement 2 executes successfully and gives the required result.
C. Both statements 1 and 2 execute successfully and give different results.
D. Both statements 1 and 2 execute successfully and give the same required result.
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 4
View the Exhibits and examine products and sales tables.

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You issue the following query to display product name and the number of times the product has been sold:

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What happens when the above statement is executed?
A. The statement executes successfully and produces the required output.
B. The statement produces an error because item_cnt cannot be displayed in the outer query.
C. The statement produces an error because a subquery in the from clause and outer-joins cannot be
used together.
D. The statement produces an error because the group by clause cannot be used in a subquery in the
from clause.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 5
You want to create a table employees in which the values of columns EMPLOYEES_ID and LOGIN_ID
must be unique and not null. Which two SQL statements would create the required table?

1z0-061 dumps

A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
E. Option E

F. Option F
Correct Answer: DE
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 6
View the Exhibit and examine the structure of the products table.

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Using the products table, you issue the following query to generate the names, current list price, and
discounted list price for all those products whose list price falls below $10 after a discount of 25% is
applied on it

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The query generates an error. What is the reason for the error?
A. The parenthesis should be added to enclose the entire expression.
B. The double quotation marks should be removed from the column alias.
C. The column alias should be replaced with the expression in the where clause.
D. The column alias should be put in uppercase and enclosed within double quotation marks in the where
clause.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 7
Examine the structure proposed for the transactions table:

1z0-061 dumps

Which two statements are true regarding the creation and storage of data in the above table structure?
A. The CUST_STATUS column would give an error.
B. The TRANS_VALIDITY column would give an error.
C. The CUST_STATUS column would store exactly one character.
D. The CUST_CREDIT_LIMIT column would not be able to store decimal values.
E. The TRANS_VALIDITY column would have a maximum size of one character.
F. The TRANS_DATE column would be able to store day, month, century, year, hour, minutes, seconds,
and fractions of seconds
Correct Answer: BC
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
VARCHAR2(size)Variable-length character data (A maximum size must be specified: minimum size is 1;
maximum size is 4, 000.)
CHAR [(size)] Fixed-length character data of length size bytes (Default and minimum size is 1; maximum
size is 2, 000.)
NUMBER [(p, s)] Number having precision p and scale s (Precision is the total number of decimal digits
and scale is the number of digits to the right of the decimal point; precision can range from 1 to 38, and
scale can range from 84 to 127.) DATE Date and time values to the nearest second between January 1,
4712 B.C., and December 31, 9999 A.D.

QUESTION 8
You need to create a table for a banking application. One of the columns in the table has the following
requirements:
1) You want a column in the table to store the duration of the credit period.
2) The data in the column should be stored in a format such that it can be easily added and subtracted with
date data type without using conversion functions.
3) The maximum period of the credit provision in the application is 30 days.
4) The interest has to be calculated for the number of days an individual has taken a credit for.
Which data type would you use for such a column in the table?
A. DATE
B. NUMBER
C. TIMESTAMP
D. INTERVAL DAY TO SECOND
E. INTERVAL YEAR TO MONTH
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

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100-101-interconnecting-cisco-networking-devices-part-1-3-638

QUESTION 84
An administrator has connected devices to a switch and, for security reasons, wants the dynamically learned MAC addresses from the address table added to the running configuration. What must be done to accomplish this?
A. Enable port security and use the keyword sticky.
B. Set the switchport mode to trunk and save the running configuration.
C. Use the switchport protected command to have the MAC addresses added to the configuration.
D. Use the no switchport port-security command to allow MAC addresses to be added to the configuration.

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 85
A company has placed a networked PC in a lobby so guests can have access to the corporate directory. A security concern is that someone will disconnect the directory PC and re-connect their laptop computer and have access to the corporate network. For the port servicing the lobby, which three configuration steps should be performed on the switch to prevent this? (Choose three.)
A. Enable port security.
B. Create the port as a trunk port.
C. Create the port as an access port.
D. Create the port as a protected port.
E. Set the port security aging time to 0.
F. Statically assign the MAC address to the address table.
G. Configure the switch to discover new MAC addresses after a set time of inactivity.

Correct Answer: ACF
QUESTION 86
Why would a network administrator configure port security on a switch?
A. to prevent unauthorized Telnet access to a switch port
B. to prevent unauthorized hosts from accessing the LAN
C. to limit the number of Layer 2 broadcasts on a particular switch port
D. block unauthorized access to the switch management interfaces
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 87
How can you ensure that only the MAC address of a server is allowed by switch port Fa0/1?
A. Configure port Fa0/1 to accept connections only from the static IP address of the server.
B. Configure the server MAC address as a static entry of port security.
C. Use a proprietary connector type on Fa0/1 that is incomputable with other host connectors.
D. Bind the IP address of the server to its MAC address on the switch to prevent other hosts from spoofing the server IP address.
Correct Answer: B

100-101

QUESTION 88
Refer to the exhibit.

An administrator cannot connect from R1 to R2. To troubleshoot this problem, the administrator has entered the command shown in the exhibit. Based on the output shown, what could be the problem?
A. The serial interface is configured for half duplex.
B. The serial interface does not have a cable attached.
C. The serial interface has the wrong type of cable attached.
D. The serial interface is configured for the wrong frame size.
E. The serial interface has a full buffer.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 89
Refer to the exhibit.

A TFTP server has recently been installed in the Atlanta office. The network administrator is located in the NY office and has made a console connection to the NY router. After establishing the connection they are unable to backup the configuration file and IOS of the NY router to the TFTP server. What is the cause of this problem?
A. The NY router has an incorrect subnet mask.
B. The TFTP server has an incorrect IP address.
C. The TFTP server has an incorrect subnet mask.
D. The network administrator computer has an incorrect IP address.

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 90
If a host experiences intermittent issues that relate to congestion within a network while remaining connected, what could cause congestion on this LAN?
A. half-duplex operation
B. broadcast storms
C. network segmentation
D. multicasting

Correct Answer: B   200-105 pdf

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QUESTION 52
Examine the output of the following query:
SQL> SELECT c.name,a.addr,a.gets,a.misses,a.sleeps,
2 a.immediate_gets,a.immediate_misses,b.pid
3 FROM v$latch a, v$latchholder b, v$latchname c
4 WHERE a.addr = b.laddr(+) and a.latch# = c.latch#
5 AND c.name LIKE ‘&latch_name%’ ORDER BY a.latch#;
LATCH NAME ADDR GETS MISSES SLEEPS IMMEDIATE_GETS IMMEDIATE_MISSES ———— ——– ——– ——- —— ————– —————- shared pool
20016544 8520540 14112 3137 0 0
Which two conclusions can you draw from this? (Choose two.)

A. The latch was requested in no wait mode.
B. The latch was requested in willing-to-wait mode.
C. The shared pool operations to allocate and free memory in it caused the misses.
D. Automatic Memory Management is not enabled because the IMMEDIATE_GETS and IMMEDIATE_MISSES columns have zero in them.

Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 53
Examine the output of the query given below: SQL> SELECT mutex_type, location, sum(gets), sum(sleeps) FROM v$mutex_sleep_history GROUP BY mutex_type, location; MUTEX_TYPE LOCATION SUM(GETS) SUM(SLEEPS) ————– ————————————- ———- ———– Library Cache kglhdgn1 62 8669586 4538 Library Cache kglget2 2 2016618 24 Cursor Stat kkocsStoreBindAwareStats [KKSSTALOC8] 2975 1 Cursor Pin kkslce [KKSCHLPIN2] 666831 678 Library Cache kgllkdl1 85 3369224 110 Library Cache kglpnal1 90 224199 13 Library Cache kglic1 49 42068 10 Library Cache kglpin1 4 9620087 374 Library Cache kglpndl1 95 2065089 79 9 rows selected. Which statement is true?
A. Each row in the output represents a SQL statement that had to wait for mutexes.
B. The Cursor Stat and Cursor Pin SLEEPS indicate that the CURSOR_SHARING parameter is set to EXACT.
C. The GETS column shows the number of times a mutex/location was requested by the requesting session while being held by the blocking session.
D. The sum of numbers in the GETS and SLEEPS columns indicates the number of times a mutex/location was requested by the requesting session while being held by the blocking session.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 54
Examine the query output shown below:
SQL> SELECT sum(pins), sum(reloads), sum(reloads)/sum(pins) FROM v$librarycache;
SUM(PINS) SUM(RELOADS) SUM(RELOADS)/SUM(PINS)

16479 16000 0.9709327
Which statement describes the correct interpretation of the reloads-to-pin ratio and the action to be taken?

A. This ratio is reasonable. However, decrease the shared pool size for better performance.
B. This ratio is very high and the shared pool size should be increased immediately to reduce this ratio.
C. This ratio is reasonable. However, this needs monitoring. Increase the shared pool size only if the ratio crosses 1.
D. This ratio is reasonable. However, this needs monitoring. Increase the shared pool size only if the ratio falls below 0.1.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 55
You work as a DBA for a company and manage an online transaction processing (OLTP) system. You received complaints about the performance degradation of SQL statements executed by the application that uses this database.View the Exhibit and examine the output of the queries executed to investigate the performance issues.Which two actions can improve performance? (Choose two.)

A. increasing the size of the shared pool
B. setting the CURSOR_SHARING parameter to EXACT
C. decreasing the value set for the OPEN_CURSORS parameter
D. replacing literals with bind variables in SQL statements with the PLAN_HASH_VALUE 1337874392
E. replacing literals with bind variables in SQL statements with the PLAN_HASH_VALUE 1445457117

Correct Answer: AE
QUESTION 56
You work as a consultant DBA for various clients. A performance issue in one of the online transaction processing (OLTP) systems is reported to you and you received the Automatic Workload Repository (AWR) report generated in the database. The main sections of the AWR report are shown in the Exhibits. View the Exhibit named DBTIME and note % DB Time.

View the Exhibit named TIMEMODEL and note what has contributed to % DB Time. View the Exhibit named EFFICIENCY and examine the various percentages shown.
Identify the option that has the correct answers for the questions given below:
1) Which factor indicates the main problem?
2) What is the main problem?
3) What solution would you recommend?

A. 1) The Exhibit DBTIME shows that the DB CPU event consumed very high % DB Time. 2) The CPU is very slow. 3) Increase the number of processors.
B. 1) hard parse elapsed time has the majority time in parse time elapsed, which is shown in the TIMEMODEL Exhibit. 2) This is due to inadequate Database Buffer Cache. 3) Increase the size of database buffer cache.
C. 1) sql execute elapsed time and parse time elapsed are consuming very high % DB Time in the TIMEMODEL Exhibit. 2) There are too many soft parses. 3) Investigate the HOLD_CURSOR parameter setting in the application and set it appropriately.
D. 1) % Non-Parse CPU is low and Soft Parse % is also low in the EFFICIENCY Exhibit. This shows that very few statements are found in the cache. 2) There are too many hard parses. 3) Investigate the CURSOR_SHARING parameter setting and set it appropriately.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 57
You work as a consultant DBA for various clients. A performance issue in one of the online transaction processing (OLTP) systems is reported to you and you received the Automatic Workload Repository (AWR) report generated in the database. The main sections of the AWR report is shown in the Exhibits. View the Exhibit named DBTIME and note % DB Time.

View the Exhibit named TIMEMODEL and note what has contributed to % DB Time. View the Exhibit named EFFICIENCY and examine the various percentages shown.
Which option describes the correct understanding of the main problem?
A. The Exhibit DBTIME shows that the DB CPU event consumed very high % DB Time, which indicates that the CPU is very slow.
B. sql execute elapsed time and parse time elapsed are consuming very high % DB Time in the TIMEMODEL Exhibit. This indicates too many soft parses.
C. hard parse elapsed time has the majority time in parse time elapsed, which is shown in the TIMEMODEL Exhibit. This indicates inadequate database buffer cache.
D. % Non-Parse CPU: and Soft Parse %: are low in the EFFICIENCY Exhibit, which shows that very few statements are found in the cache. This indicates that there were too many hard parses.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 58
You work as a DBA for a company and you have the responsibility of managing one of its online transaction processing (OLTP) systems. The database
encountered performance-related problems and you generated an Automatic Workload Repository (AWR) report to investigate it further.
View the Exhibits and examine the AWR report.
Which is the appropriate solution to the problem in this database?
A. increasing the size of the shared pool
B. adding one more CPU to the system
C. setting the CURSOR_SHARING parameter to EXACT
D. configuring Java pool because it is not configured

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 59
You work on an online transaction processing (OLTP) database in which the SALES table has 10,000 rows but only four distinct products are sold. View the Exhibit named HIST to check the distribution of values in the table and the histograms on the table.

View the Exhibits named QUERY-1 and QUERY-2 that show details in the V$SQL view for the queries executed on the SALES table.

You check the plan table and notice that both the queries that executed on the SALES table used index range scan. The second query retrieved most of the rows in the table but used index range scan.

Why would the second query use the same plan?
A. because the plan was bind aware
B. because the bind peeking never happened
C. because the OPEN_CURSORS parameter is set to a very low value
D. because the optimizer did not consider selectivity due to the use of bind variables

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 60
You work on an online transaction processing (OLTP) database in which the SALES table has 10,000 rows but only four distinct products are sold. View the Exhibit named HIST to check data distribution in the table and the histograms on the table.

View the Exhibit named QUERY-1 that shows details in the V$SQL view for the query executed on the SALES table having product id 1.

Further, you query the SALES table thrice more in the following order:

query rows having product ID 4


query rows having product ID 2


query rows having product ID 4
View the Exhibit named QUERY-n to see the details about these queries.
What do you infer from this?
A. The second plan was created because the first plan was aged out.
B. The CURSOR_SHARING parameter value was changed to EXACT after the second query was executed.
C. The third plan was created because the first plan was aged out and the second plan had different selectivity.
D. The first two executions used the same plan because at parse time the optimizer did not consider selectivity as the cursor was not yet considered bind-aware.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 61
You are working for a company that uses huge applications to manage its customer details. During your regular performance checks, you executed the following query: SQL> show parameter shared_pool_reserved_size NAME TYPE VALUE —————————— ——————— —————– shared_pool_reserved_size big integer 6920601 SQL> SELECT free_space, used_space, request_misses, request_failures from V$SHARED_POOL_RESERVED; FREE_SPACE USED_SPACE REQUEST_MISSES REQUEST_FAILURES ———- ———- ————– —————- 6469776 555528 0 113 You observed that REQUEST_FAILURES is 113 but not increasing, and also that REQUEST_MISSES is not increasing. What would you interpret from this?
A. The reserved pool is very large. Consider reducing the size of the shared pool.
B. The reserved pool is large and has free space to satisfy requests. Consider reducing the size of the reserved pool.
C. The reserved pool is very small and is not finding enough memory to satisfy requests. Increase the size of the shared pool.
D. The reserved pool is very small and is not finding enough memory to satisfy requests. Increase the size of the reserved pool.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 62
You work for a company as a DBA. The company has an application to manage the details of its business and customer base. However, application users complain that updating the SALES record takes more time than it used to earlier. On investigation, you notice that the application performance degrades when a call is made to the UPDATE_INV procedure. Further, you execute the following query to investigate: SQL> SELECT name, type, sharable_mem, kept 2 FROM v$db_object_cache 3 WHERE sharable_mem > 4000 4 AND EXECUTIONS > 5 5 AND (type=’FUNCTION’ OR type=’PROCEDURE’) 6 / NAME TYPE SHARABLE_MEM KEPT ——————- ————– ————— ———– GETEMKEY FUNCTION 13695 YES UPDATE_INV PROCEDURE 14766 NO SETEMUSERCONTEXT PROCEDURE 13703 YES DECRYPT FUNCTION 17790 YES UPDATE_DEPT PROCEDURE 18765 NO What would you do to improve the performance?
A. Enable the result cache if not already enabled.
B. Flush the shared pool to make space for this procedure.
C. Keep the UPDATE_INV procedure by using the DBMS_SHARED_POOL.KEEP procedure.
D. Increase the size of the keep buffer pool to accommodate the UPDATE_INV procedure.
E. Ask the developers to modify and use literals instead of bind variables in the UPDATE_INV procedure.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 63
You work for a small manufacturing company as a DBA. The company has various applications to manage the details of its business and customer base. The company has only one sales outlet where the operator updates the SALES table in the sales application with the details when a product is sold. The company has many other applications for various other businesses that use the same database. The sales operator, while generating a report, noticed that there are some gaps generated in the serial number in the SLNO column during peak hours of business. On investigating, you find that the SLNO column in the SALES table uses the SLNSEQ sequence to generate the serial numbers when a record is inserted. During peak hours, you noticed the following: When the operator entered the sales details the last time, the sequence number was 1056300, but when you checked the sequence as follows, you found a gap of 100 numbers: SQL> SELECT sequence_name, last_number FROM user_sequences WHERE sequence_name=’SLNSEQ’; SEQUENCE_NAME LAST_NUMBER
SLNSEQ 1056400
You observed this behavior many times and only during peak hours.
What could be the problem and solution for this?

A. The reserved pool is not configured. Configure the reserved pool.
B. The keep buffer pool is not configured. Configure the keep buffer pool.
C. The sequence was created with a CACHE of 100 numbers. Re-create the sequence with a higher CACHE number.
D. The sequence is aging out of the shared pool. Keep the sequence in the shared pool using the DBMS_SHARED_POOL.KEEP procedure.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 64
You work as a DBA for a company and as a performance improvement measure, you implemented the result cache in your database. Many users in the company
say that performance has improved on the queries they use, but some users complain that they have not got any performance benefit on the queries they use.
You checked all the queries they use and the following is one of them:
SQL> SELECT /*+ RESULT_CACHE */ slnoq.currval as “SLNO”, prod_id, pdname, 2 cust_name FROM sales WHERE sl_date < sysdate;
View the Exhibit and examine the testing performed to check this.
Why is the result cache not used? (Choose all that apply.)
A. because the query uses SYSDATE
B. because the query uses an alias for a column
C. because the query uses the SLNOQ.CURRVAL sequence
D. because the table might have an index on the SL_DATE column

Correct Answer: AC QUESTION 65
You work as a DBA for a company and as a performance improvement measure, you implemented the result cache in your database. View the Exhibit named SETTING and note the result cache settings.

Many users in the company state that performance has improved on the queries they use but some users complain that they have not got any performance benefit
on the queries they use. You checked all the queries they use and the following is one of them:
SQL> SELECT slnoq.currval as “SLNO”, prod_id, pdname, 2 cust_name FROM sales WHERE sl_date < sysdate;
View the Exhibit named TEST and examine the testing performed to check this.
Why is the result cache not used? (Choose all that apply.)
A. because the query uses SYSDATE
B. because the query uses an alias for a column
C. because the query uses the SLNOQ.CURRVAL sequence
D. because the CLIENT_RESULT_CACHE_SIZE parameter is set to 0

Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 66
In which case is the database buffer cache NOT used?
A. when physical I/Os are performed to read from data files
B. when the database writer process writes to the SYSTEM tablespace
C. when the server process writes sort data to the temporary tablespace
D. when the database writer process writes undo data to the undo tablespace

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 67
Which two statements are true about the database buffer cache? (Choose two.)
A. A buffer can be written to by many processes at the same time.
B. A buffer containing a block that is identical to the block on disk is called free buffer.
C. A buffer containing a block that is being accessed by a process is called dirty buffer.
D. A buffer available to be overwritten with a different database block at any time is called a dirty buffer.
E. A buffer can contain a different version of a block that is available in a different buffer of the same cache.

Correct Answer: BE
QUESTION 68
You work as a DBA and you have the responsibility of managing a large online transaction processing (OLTP) system. You used the following query during the
performance tuning activity:
SQL> SELECT (1-((phy.value-phyd.value) / (cur.value + con.value))) * 100 2 “Cache Hit ratio”
3 FROM v$sysstat cur, v$sysstat con, v$sysstat phy, v$sysstat phyd 4 WHERE cur.name = ‘db block gets’
5 AND con.name = ‘consistent gets’
6 AND phy.name = ‘physical reads’
7 AND phyd.name = ‘physical reads direct’;
Cache Hit Ratio

Which understanding of this ratio is correct?
A. 98.43% of times the requests have found free buffers.
B. 98.43% of the total number of requests used the buffer cache.
C. 98.43% of times the requests were satisfied by performing physical I/Os.
D. 98.43% of times the requests have found the required data blocks in the buffer cache.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 69
You work as a DBA and have the responsibility of managing a large online transaction processing (OLTP) system. You used the following query during the
performance tuning activity:
SQL> SELECT (1-((phy.value-phyd.value) / (cur.value + con.value))) * 100 2 “Cache Hit ratio”
3 FROM v$sysstat cur, v$sysstat con, v$sysstat phy, v$sysstat phyd 4 WHERE cur.name = ‘db block gets’
5 AND con.name = ‘consistent gets’
6 AND phy.name = ‘physical reads’
7 AND phyd.name = ‘physical reads direct’;
Cache Hit Ratio

What can you conclude based on this ratio?
A. The database performance is very good because of reduced logical I/Os.
B. The database performance cannot be determined based only on this ratio.
C. Good database performance is guaranteed because very few physical I/Os are performed.
D. The database performance is very good because most of the requested data blocks are found in the buffer cache.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 70
You work as a DBA and have the responsibility of managing a large online transaction processing (OLTP) system. You used three queries to check the database performance as shown in the Exhibit.View the Exhibit and analyze the output.

What conclusion can you draw from this?
A. There are many physical I/Os happening.
B. There are many full table scans happening.
C. The data blocks are aging out of the buffer cache very fast.
D. There are many cursors trying to access the same data blocks.
E. The DBWn processes are not freeing sufficient buffers to meet the demand.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 71
Examine the following information from the AWR report: Top 5 Timed Events ~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~ % Total Event Waits Time (s) Call Time ————————————– ———— ———– ——— CPU time 559 88.80 log file parallel write 2,181 28 4.42 SQL*Net more data from client 516,611 27 4.24 db file parallel write 13,383 13 2.04 db file sequential read 563 2 .27 Which could cause waits on the db file sequential read event?
A. too many full table scans
B. too large a database buffer cache
C. too many waits occurring while reading multiple blocks synchronously
D. too many index range scans occurring which refers to blocks not in the database buffer cache

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 72

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QUESTION 77
You need to display the date 11-Oct-2007 in words as `Eleventh of October, Two Thousand Seven’. Which SQL statement would give the required result?
A. SELECT TO_CHAR(’11-oct-2007′, ‘fmDdspth “of” Month, Year’) FROM DUAL;
B. SELECT TO_CHAR(TO_DATE(’11-oct-2007′), ‘fmDdspth of month, year’) FROM DUAL;
C. SELECT TO_CHAR(TO_DATE(’11-oct-2007′), ‘fmDdthsp “of” Month, Year’) FROM DUAL;
D. SELECT TO_DATE(TO_CHAR(’11-oct-2007′,’fmDdspth ”of” Month, Year’)) FROM DUAL;

Correct Answer: C Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: Using the TO_CHAR Function with Dates TO_CHAR converts a datetime data type to a value of VARCHAR2 data type in the format specified by the format_model. A format model is a character literal that describes the format of datetime stored in a character string. For example, the datetime format model for the string ’11- Nov-1999′ is ‘DD-Mon-YYYY’. You can use the TO_CHAR function to convert a date from its default format to the one that you specify. Guidelines · The format model must be enclosed with single quotation marks and is case-sensitive. · The format model can include any valid date format element. But be sure to separate the date value from the format model with a comma. · The names of days and months in the output are automatically padded with blanks. · To remove padded blanks or to suppress leading zeros, use the fill mode fm element.
Elements of the Date Format Model ——————————————————————— DY Three-letter abbreviation of the day of the week DAY Full name of the day of the week DD Numeric day of the month
MM Two-digit value for the month MON Three-letter abbreviation of the month MONTH Full name of the month YYYY Full year in numbers YEAR Year spelled out (in English)
QUESTION 78
Which statement is true regarding the INTERSECT operator?
A. It ignores NULL values
B. The number of columns and data types must be identical for all SELECT statements in the query
C. The names of columns in all SELECT statements must be identical
D. Reversing the order of the intersected tables the result

Correct Answer: B Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
INTERSECT Returns only the rows that occur in both queries’ result sets, sorting them and removing
duplicates.
The columns in the queries that make up a compound query can have different names, but the output
result set will use the names of the columns in the first query.

QUESTION 79
You work as a database administrator at ABC.com. You study the exhibit carefully and examine the structure of CUSTOMRS AND SALES tables.

Evaluate the following SQL statement: Exhibit: Which statement is true regarding the execution of the above UPDATE statement?

A. It would execute and restrict modifications to only the column specified in the SELECT statement
B. It would not execute because two tables cannot be used in a single UPDATE statement
C. It would not execute because a sub query cannot be used in the WHERE clause of an UPDATE statement
D. It would not execute because the SELECT statement cannot be used in place of the table name

Correct Answer: A Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 80
The STUDENT_GRADES table has these columns:

STUDENT_ID NUMBER(12)
SEMESTER_END DATE
GPA NUMBER(4,3)

The registrar has asked for a report on the average grade point average (GPA), sorted from the highest
grade point average to each semester, starting from the earliest date.
Which statement accomplish this?

A. SELECT student_id, semester_end, gpa FROM student_grades ORDER BY semester_end DESC, gpa DESC;
B. SELECT student_id, semester_end, gpa FROM student_grades ORDER BY semester_end, gpa ASC
C. SELECT student_id, semester_end, gpa FROM student_grades ORDER BY gpa DESC, semester_end ASC;
D. SELECT student_id, semester_end, gpa FROM student_grades ORDER BY gpa DESC, semester_end DESC;
E. SELECT student_id, semester_end, gpa FROM student_grades ORDER BY gpa DESC, semester_end ASC;
F. SELECT student_id,semester_end,gpa FROM student_grades ORDER BY semester_end,gpa DESC
Correct Answer: F Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 81
You work as a database administrator at ABC.com. You study the exhibit carefully. Exhibit:

Evaluate the following query: Exhibit:

The above query produces an error on execution. What is the reason for the error?
A. An alias cannot be used in an expression
B. The alias MIDPOINT should be enclosed within double quotation marks for the CUST_CREDIT_LIMIT/2 expression
C. The MIDPOINT +100 expression gives an error because CUST_CREDIT_LIMIT contains NULL values
D. The alias NAME should not be enclosed within double quotation marks

Correct Answer: A Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 82
Which statement is true regarding synonyms?
A. Synonyms can be created only for a table
B. Synonyms are used to reference only those tables that are owned by another user
C. The DROP SYNONYM statement removes the synonym and the table on which the synonym has been created becomes invalid
D. A public synonym and a private synonym can exist with the same name for the same table

Correct Answer: D Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 83
You work as a database administrator at ABC.com. You study the exhibit carefully. Exhibit:

Examine the structure of PRODUCTS table.
Using the PRODUCTS table, you issue the following query to generate the names, current list price and discounted list price for all those products whose list price fails below $10 after a discount of 25% is applied on it.
Exhibit:

The query generates an error.
What is the reason of generating error?

A. The column alias should be put in uppercase and enclosed within double quotation marks in the WHERE clause
B. The parenthesis should be added to enclose the entire expression
C. The column alias should be replaced with the expression in the WHERE clause
D. The double quotation marks should be removed from the column alias

Correct Answer: C Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Note: You cannot use column alias in the WHERE clause.
QUESTION 84
Which one is a system privilege?
A. SELECT
B. DELETE
C. EXECUTE
D. ALTER TABLE
E. CREATE TABLE

Correct Answer: E Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 85
What is true about sequences?
A. The start value of the sequence is always 1.
B. A sequence always increments by 1.
C. The minimum value of an ascending sequence defaults to 1.
D. The maximum value of descending sequence defaults to 1.

Correct Answer: C Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 86
Examine the structure of the INVOICE table: Exhibit:

Which two SQL statements would execute successfully? (Choose two.)
A. SELECT inv_no,NVL2(inv_date,’Pending’,’Incomplete’) FROM invoice;
B. SELECT inv_no,NVL2(inv_amt,inv_date,’Not Available’) FROM invoice;
C. SELECT inv_no,NVL2(inv_date,sysdate-inv_date,sysdate) FROM invoice;
D. SELECT inv_no,NVL2(inv_amt,inv_amt*.25,’Not Available’) FROM invoice;

Correct Answer: AC Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: The NVL2 Function The NVL2 function provides an enhancement to NVL but serves a very similar purpose. It evaluates whether a column or expression of any data type is null or not. 5-6 The NVL function\ If the first term is not null, the second parameter is returned, else the third parameter is returned. Recall that the NVL function is different since it returns the original term if it is not null. The NVL2 function takes three mandatory parameters. Its syntax is NVL2(original, ifnotnull, ifnull), where original represents the term being tested. Ifnotnull is returned if original is not null, and ifnull is returned if original is null. The data types of the ifnotnull and ifnull parameters must be compatible, and they cannot be of type LONG. They must either be of the same type, or it must be possible to convert ifnull to the type of the ifnotnull parameter. The data type returned by the NVL2 function is the same as that of the ifnotnull parameter.
QUESTION 87
View the Exhibit and examine the description for the CUSTOMERS table.

You want to update the CUST_INCOME_LEVEL and CUST_CREDIT_LIMIT columns for the customer with the CUST_ID 2360. You want the value for the CUST_INCOME_LEVEL to have the same value as that of the customer with the CUST_ID 2560 and the CUST_CREDIT_LIMIT to have the same value as that of the customer with CUST_ID 2566.
Which UPDATE statement will accomplish the task?
A. UPDATE customers SET cust_income_level = (SELECT cust_income_level FROM customers WHERE cust_id = 2560), cust_credit_limit = (SELECT cust_credit_limit FROM customers WHERE cust_id = 2566) WHERE cust_id=2360;
B. UPDATE customers SET (cust_income_level,cust_credit_limit) = (SELECT cust_income_level, cust_credit_limit FROM customers WHERE cust_id=2560 OR cust_id=2566) WHERE cust_id=2360;
C. UPDATE customers SET (cust_income_level,cust_credit_limit) = (SELECT cust_income_level, cust_credit_limit FROM customers WHERE cust_id IN(2560, 2566) WHERE cust_id=2360;
D. UPDATE customers SET (cust_income_level,cust_credit_limit) = (SELECT cust_income_level, cust_credit_limit FROM customers WHERE cust_id=2560 AND cust_id=2566) WHERE cust_id=2360;

Correct Answer: A Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Updating Two Columns with a Subquery
You can update multiple columns in the SET clause of an UPDATE statement by writing multiple
subqueries. The syntax is as follows:
UPDATE table
SET column =
(SELECT column
FROM table
WHERE condition)
[ ,

column = (SELECT column FROM table WHERE condition)] [WHERE condition ] ;
QUESTION 88
A SELECT statement can be used to perform these three functions:
1.
Choose rows from a table.

2.
Choose columns from a table

3.
Bring together data that is stored in different tables by creating a link between them.
Which set of keywords describes these capabilities?
A. difference, projection, join
B. selection, projection, join
C. selection, intersection, join
D. intersection, projection, join
E. difference, projection, product

Correct Answer: B Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: choose rows from a table is SELECTION,
Choose column from a table is PROJECTION
Bring together data in different table by creating a link between them is JOIN.

Incorrect answer:
A answer should have SELECTION, PROJECTION and JOIN.
C answer should have SELECTION, PROJECTION and JOIN.
D answer should have SELECTION, PROJECTION and JOIN.
E answer should have SELECTION, PROJECTION and JOIN.

Refer: Introduction to Oracle9i: SQL, Oracle University Study Guide, 1-6

QUESTION 89
See the Exhibit and examine the structure and data in the INVOICE table:
Exhibit:

Which two SQL statements would execute successfully? (Choose two.)
A. SELECT MAX(inv_date),MIN(cust_id) FROM invoice;
B. SELECT AVG(inv_date-SYSDATE),AVG(inv_amt) FROM invoice;
C. SELECT MAX(AVG(SYSDATE-inv_date)) FROM invoice;
D. SELECT AVG(inv_date) FROM invoice;

Correct Answer: AB Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 90
You are currently located in Singapore and have connected to a remote database in Chicago. You issue the following command:
Exhibit:

PROMOTIONS is the public synonym for the public database link for the PROMOTIONS table. What is the outcome?
A. Number of days since the promo started based on the current Chicago data and time
B. Number of days since the promo started based on the current Singapore data and time.
C. An error because the WHERE condition specified is invalid
D. An error because the ROUND function specified is invalid Correct Answer: A

Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 91
Which is a valid CREATE TABLE statement?
A. CREATE TABLE EMP9$# AS (empid number(2));
B. CREATE TABLE EMP*123 AS (empid number(2));
C. CREATE TABLE PACKAGE AS (packid number(2));
D. CREATE TABLE 1EMP_TEST AS (empid number(2)); Correct Answer: A

Explanation Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: Table names and column names must begin with a letter and be 1-30 characters long.
Characters A-Z,a-z, 0-9, _, $ and # (legal characters but their use is discouraged).

Incorrect answer:
B Non alphanumeric character such as “*” is discourage in Oracle table name.
D Table name must begin with a letter.

Refer: Introduction to Oracle9i: SQL, Oracle University Study Guide, 9-4

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QUESTION 67
Which statements are true regarding system-partitioned tables? (Choose all that apply.)
A. Only a single partitioning key column can be specified.
B. All DML statements must use partition-extended syntax.
C. The same physical attributes must be specified for each partition.
D. Unique local indexes cannot be created on a system-partitioned table.
E. Traditional partition pruning and partitionwise joins are not supported on these tables.

Correct Answer: DE
QUESTION 68
The OPTIMIZER_USE_PLAN_BASELINES parameter is set to TRUE. The optimizer generates a plan for a SQL statement but does not find a matching plan in the SQL plan baseline. Which two operations are performed by the optimizer in this scenario? (Choose two.)
A. The optimizer adds the new plan to the plan history.
B. The optimizer selects the new plan for the execution of the SQL statement.
C. The optimizer adds the new plan to the SQL plan baseline as an accepted plan.
D. The optimizer adds the new plan to the SQL plan baseline but not in the ENABLED state.
E. The optimizer costs each of the accepted plans in the SQL plan baseline and picks the one with the lowest cost.

Correct Answer: AE
QUESTION 69
Which two statements about Oracle Direct Network File System (NFS) are true? (Choose two.)
A. It bypasses the OS file system cache
B. A separate NFS interface is required for use across Linux, UNIX, and Windows platforms.
C. It uses the operating system kernel NFS layer for user tasks and network communication modules.
D. File systems need not be mounted by the kernel NFS system when being served through Direct NFS.
E. Oracle Disk Manager can manage NFS on its own, without using the operating system kernel NFS driver.

Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 70
You are managing an Oracle Database 11 g instance with ASM storage. You lost an ASM disk group
DATA. You have RMAN backup of data as well as ASM metadata backup.
You want to re-create the missing disk group by using the ASMCMD md_restore command. Which of
these methods would you use to achieve this? (Choose all that apply.)

A. Restore metadata in an existing disk group by passing the existing disk group name as an input parameter.
B. Restore the disk group with changed disk group specification, failure group specification, disk group name, and other disk attributes.
C. Restore the disk group with the exact configuration as the backed-up disk group, using the same disk group name, same set of disks, and failure group configurations.
D. Restore the disk group with the exact configuration as the backed-up disk group, using the same disk group name, same set of disks, failure group configurations, and data on the disk group.

Correct Answer: ABC QUESTION 71
Evaluate the following command and Its output:
SQL>SELECT * FROM dba_temp_free_space;
TABLESPACE_NAME TABLESPACE_SIZE ALLOCATED_SPACE FREE_SPACE LMTEMP 250609664

101048576 149561088
Which two statements correctly interpret the output? (Choose two.)

A. FREE_SPACE indicates only the space that is currently unallocated.
B. ALLO CAT ED_S PACE indicates only the space currently allocated and in use.
C. FREE_SPACE indicates only the space that is currently allocated and available for reuse.
D. ALLO CAT ED_S PACE indicates both the space currently allocated and used, and the space that is available for reuse.
E. FREE_SPACE indicates both the space that is currently allocated and available for reuse, and the space that is currently unallocated.
Correct Answer: DE QUESTION 72
In your database, the RESULT_CACHE_MODE parameter has been set to MANUAL in the initialization parameter file.
You issued the following command:
SQL>SELECT /*+ RESULT_CACHE 7 sale_categoiy, sum(sale_amt) FROM sales
GROUP BY sale_categoiy;

Where would the result of this query be stored?

A. PGA
B. large pool
C. shared pool
D. database buffer cache

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 73
You are working on a CATDB database that contains an Oracle Database version 11.1 catalog schema owned by the userRC011. The INST1 database contains an Oracle Database version 10.1 catalog schema owned by the user RCAT10.
You want the RMAN to import metadata for database IDs 1423241 and 1423242, registered in RCAT10, into the recover catalog owned by RC011.
You executed the following RMAN commands:
RMAN> CONNECT CATALOG rco1 1/password@catdb RMAN> IMPORT CATALOG rcat1 0/oracle@inst1;
What happens when you execute the above commands? (Choose all that apply.)
A. They deregister all databases registered in the RCAT10 catalog.
B. They import metadata for all registered databases in the RCAT10 database.
C. They register all the RCATIO-catalog registered databases in the RC011 catalog.
D. They overwrite all stored scripts in the RC011 catalog with the same name as that in the RCAT10 catalog.

Correct Answer: ABC
QUESTION 74
Which three are the valid statements in relation to SQL plan baselines? (Choose three.)
A. The plans can be manually loaded to the SQL plan baseline.
B. The plans in the SQL plan baseline are verified and accepted plans.
C. The plans generated for every SQL statement are stored in the SQL plan baseline by default.
D. The plan baselines are stored temporarily in the memory as long as the database instance is running.
E. For the SQL plan baselines to be accessible to the optimizer, the SYSAUX tablespace must be online.

Correct Answer: ABE
QUESTION 75
You run the SQL Tuning Advisor (STA) to tune a SQL statement that is part of a fixed SQL plan baseline. The STA generates a SQL profile for the SQL statement, which recommends that you accept the profile. Which statement is true when you accept the suggested SQL profile?
A. The tuned plan is not added to the SQL plan baseline.
B. The tuned plan is added to the fixed SQL plan baseline as a fixed plan.
C. The tuned plan is added to the fixed SQL plan baseline as a nonfixed plan.
D. The tuned plan is added to a new nonfixed SQL plan baseline as a nonfixed plan.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 76
Which three statements correctly describe the features of the I/O calibration process? (Choose three.)
A. Only one I/O calibration process can run at a time
B. It automates the resource allocation for the Automated Maintenance Tasks.
C. It improves the performance of the performance-critical sessions while running.
D. It can be used to estimate the maximum number of l/Os and maximum latency time for the system.
E. The latency time is computed only when the TIMED_STATISTICS initialization parameter is set to TRUE.
Correct Answer: ADE
QUESTION 77
Which two statements about the SQL Management Base (SMB) are true? (Choose two.)
A. It contains only SQL profiles generated by SQL Tuning Advisor.
B. It stores plans generated by the optimizer using a stored outline.
C. It is part of the data dictionary and stored in the SYSAUXtablespace.
D. It is part of the data dictionary and stored in the SYSTEM tablespace.
E. It contains the statement log, the plan history, plan baselines, and SQL profiles.

Correct Answer: CE
QUESTION 78
Sales details are being stored on a daily basis in the SALES_2007 table. A large amount of data is added to the table daily. To save disk space, you issued the following command:
ALTER TABLE sales_2007 COMPRESS FOR ALL OPERATIONS; What would be the outcome of this command?
A. It produces an error because data already exists in the table.
B. It produces an error because compression can be enabled at table creation only.
C. It compresses all data added or modified henceforth but the existing data in the table is not compressed immediately.
D. It immediately compresses all existing data as well as new data, resulting from either fresh additions or modifications to existing data.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 79
Which client requests to the database can be captured as a part of the workload capture? (Choose all that apply.)
A. flashback query
B. distributed transactions
C. logging in and logging out of sessions
D. all DDL statements having bind variables
E. direct path load of data from external files

Correct Answer: CD
QUESTION 80
Which two statements are true regarding the SQL Repair Advisor? (Choose two.)
A. The SQL Repair Advisor can be invoked to tune the performance of the regressed SQL statements.
B. The SQL Repair Advisor can be invoked even when the incident is not active for a SQL statement crash.
C. The SQL Repair Advisor is invoked by the Health Monitor when it encounters the problematic SQL statement.
D. The DBA can invoke the SQL Repair Advisor when he or she receives an alert generated when a SQL statement crashes and an incident is created in the ADR.
Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 81
Which setting enables the baselines by default in Oracle Database 11g?
A. setting the STATISTICS_LEVEL parameter to TYPICAL
B. adding filters to the Automatic Database Diagnostic Monitor (ADDM)
C. enabling Automated Maintenance Task using Oracle Enterprise Manager
D. setting the OPTIMIZER_USE_PENDING_STATISTICS parameter to TRUE
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 82
Which two activities are NOT supported by the Data Recovery Advisor? (Choose two.)
A. Diagnose and repair a data file corruption offline.
B. Diagnose and repair a data file corruption online.
C. Diagnose and repair failures on a standby database.
D. Recover from failures in the Real Application Cluster (RAC) environment.
Correct Answer: CD
QUESTION 83
In which cases is reference partitioning effective in enhancing performance?
A. It is effective only in partition pruning.
B. It is effective only in partitionwise joins provided that the query predicates are different from the partitioning key.
C. It is effective in both partition pruning as well as partitionwise joins provided that the query predicates are identical to the partitioning key.
D. It is effective in both partition pruning as well as partitionwise joins irrespective of whether the query predicates are different from or identical to the partitioning key.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 84
Your database initialization parameter file has the following entry:
SEC_MAX_FAILED_LOGIN_ATTEMPTS=3
Which statement is true regarding this setting?
A. It is enforced only if the password profile is enabled for the user.
B. It locks the user account after the specified number of attempts.
C. It drops the connection after the specified number of login attempts fail for any user.
D. It drops the connection after the specified number of login attempts fail only for users who have the SYSDBA privilege.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 85
Which statement is true for enabling Enterprise Manager Support Workbench in Oracle Database 11g to upload the physical files generated by Incident Packaging Service (IPS) to MetaLink?
A. The database must be running in ARCHIVELOG mode.
B. No special setup is required, and the feature is enabled by default.
C. The path for the Automatic Diagnostic Repository (ADR) must be configured with the DIAGNOSTIC_DEST initialization parameter.
D. The Enterprise Manager Support Workbench can be enabled only if the background process manageability monitor (MMON) is configured.
E. Select the Enable option in the Oracle Configuration Manager Registration window during the installation of the Oracle Database 11 g software, provide valid MetaLink credentials and select license agreement.
Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 86
Which two statements are true regarding Health Monitor checks in Oracle Database 11g? (Choose two.)
A. Health Monitor checks are always initiated manually when there is some critical error.
B. Health Monitor checks can be used to scan the contents of the redo log and archive logs for accessibility and corruption
C. Health Monitor checks can be used to verify the contents of dictionary entries for each dictionary object and fix it automatically.
D. Health Monitor checks can be used to verify the integrity of database files and report failures if these files are inaccessible, corrupt or inconsistent.
Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 87
a

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