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QUESTION 16
Which payload is required in all configuration profiles?
A. Passcode
B. Certificate
C. General
D. Restrictions

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 17
Previously, you used a keyboard shortcut to get your computer to boot from a default image on a NetInstall server. Recently, the administrator selected a different image as the default NetInstall image. What key(s) should you press during startup to force your computer to boot from the new default image?
A. N
B. Control-N
C. Command-N
D. Option-N
E. Command-Shift-N

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 18
While creating a customized network disk image, which Automator action should you add to set the computer name for computers that are restored using the image?
A. Add Configuration Profiles
B. Apply System Configuration Settings
C. Bless NetBoot Image Folder
D. Define Image Source
E. Define Multi-Volume NetRestore
F. Define NetRestore Source
G. Filter Clients by MAC Address
H. Filter Computer Models

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 19
Your Mac was stolen. Fortunately, it’s managed by the Profile Manager service on the server at manage.pretendco.com. In a browser, what URL to access Profile Manager to wipe your Mac?
A. https://wipe.manage.pretendco.com/
B. https://manage.pretendco.com/wipe/
C. https://manage.pretendco.com/mydevices/
D. https://mydevices.manage.pretendco.com/

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 20
What is the file extension for the complete network boot image created by System Image Utility?
A. .image
B. .netboot
C. .nbi
D. .dmg

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 21
While creating a customized network disk image, which Automator action should you add to the workflow to restrict which computer types start up using the image?
A. Add Configuration Profiles
B. Apply System Configuration Settings
C. Bless NetBoot Image Folder
D. Customize Package Selection
E. Define Multi-Volume NetRestore
F. Define NetRestore Source
G. Filter Clients by MAC Address
H. Filter Computer Models

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 22
What’s the format of a configuration profile?
A. Tab-delimited text
B. Comma-delimited text
C. RTF
D. XML
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 23
Which THREE reports can Apple Remote Desktop run by default? (Choose THREE)
A. CPU Usage
B. Software Serial Number
C. Software Version
D. Application Usage
E. Software Difference
F. Network Usage
Correct Answer: CDF
QUESTION 24
Which tool do you use to turn on and configure the Profile Manager service?
A. Profile Monitor
B. Server Admin
C. Workgroup Manager
D. Server app

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 25
What’s the earliest version of OS X that can be installed on a client computer so that it can use the Caching service on a computer running OS X Server?
A. MacOSXv10.6.8
B. OSXV10.7
C. OS Xv10.7.4
D. OSXv10.8
E. OSXv10.8.2
F. OSXv10.9

Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 26
Which feature is available in the Software Update service in OS X Server?
A. The ability to restrict client computers to download Apple software updates from your software update server only
B. The ability to create and distribute custom software update packages to client computers, along with Apple software updates
C. The ability to automatically download all Apple software updates but serve only selected updates to client computers
D. The ability to restrict client computers’ access to Apple software updates based on client computer Ethernet addresses

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 27
Which application do you use to configure and monitor the Software Update service on a computer running OS X Server?
A. Server app
B. A web browser
C. Workgroup Manager
D. Profile Manager

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 28
Which URL should you send to users so they can enroll their devices with your Profile Manager server at manage.pretendco.com?
A. https://profilemanager.manage.pretendco.com
B. https://mydevices.manage.pretendco.com
C. https://manage.pretendco.com/profilemanager
D. https://manage.pretendco.com/mydevices

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 29
You have configured a computer with OS X Server to act as a Caching server. Which networking requirement must be in place so that client computers can use the Caching server?

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Question: 15
What are the two attributes of an Event in an OSGi Event Admin Service?
A. Title and options.
B. Topic and Properties.
C. Publisher and Subscriber.
D. Listener and Filters.

Answer: D
Question: 16
When does a RESTful request with a suffix get cached?
A. They never get cached.
B. Only if contains additional query parameters.
C. Only if it doesn’t contain query parameters.
D. They always get cached.

Answer: C
You are working with two components: Component A and Component B. Component B has a slightly different behavior than component A. What is the best way to reuse the default script of component A in component B?
A. Set a property in component B called sling:resourceSuperType with the path to component A and omit the default script in component B
B. Set a property in component B called sling:resourceSuperType with the path to component A and create an empty default script in component B
C. Set a property in component B called sling:resourceSuperType with the path to component A and include the default script of component A in the default script in component B
D. Copy the default script from component A into component B

Answer: A
Question: 18
What does an Item represent in a JCR repository hierarchical content model diagram?
A. The value to be stored
B. A Node or a Property
C. The UUID of Node
D. The path to a Node

Answer: B
Question: 19
Which access control policies does the JCR Session define to manage nodes?
A. Privileges to access the JCR workspace.
B. Permissions to access the JCR repository.
C. Capabilities to traverse the JCR repository.
D. A list of node locks in the JCR workspace.

Answer: A

How do you delete a property inside a Node object?
A. node.removeProperty(“propertyName”);
B. String propertyA = “”; node.setProperty(“propertyName”, propertyA);
C. String propertyA = null; node.setProperty(“propertyName”, propertyA);
D. node.delete(“propertyName”);
Answer: C

Question: 21
You are creating a repository-based OSGi configuration. Which name should the factory configuration node have?
A. Append “-factory” to the configuration node name.
B. Start the node name with “config-” and end it with “-<numeric_value>”.
C. Append “-<identifier>” to the name, where identifier can be any unique name.
D. Start the node name with “factory-“.
Answer: C

Question: 22
How are the resources called that are passed through a workflow?
A. WorkItem.
B. Transaction.
C. Lifecycle.
D. Payload.
Answer: D

Question: 23
You want to prompt a workflow user for information during the processing of a workflow step. Where is the content that the workflow user entered stored?
A. As part of the page.
B. As part of the workflow model.
C. As part of the workflow instance.
D. As part of the design.

Answer: A

What is the main purpose of the CQ HTML client library property that is called categories?
A. To easily find client libraries when the user searches categories in the author environment.
B. To uniquely name a group of client libraries to be included in templates or components and to reference dependencies to other client libraries.
C. To link the categories name with the component name, so that the client library can be included automatically into the component.
D. To define the type of files that the client library contains, e.g. JavaScript and/or CSS.

Answer: B
Question: 25
What is the purpose of the Impersonators tab within the User settings?
A. Add one or more users that are allowed to take over all permissions from the current user.
B. Add one or more users that are inheriting the permissions from the current user.
C. Add one or more users that can act on the behalf of the current user.
D. Add one or more users that the current user can act on their behalf.

Answer: C
Question: 26
Which OSGi configuration settings take over precedence on start-up?
A. Any .config files from <cq-installation-dir>/crx-quickstart/launchpad/config/* on the local file system.
B. Repository nodes with type sling:OsgiConfig under /libs/*/install.
C. Repository nodes with type sling:OsgiConfig under /apps/*/config.
D. Repository nodes with type sling:OsgiConfig under /libs/*/config.

Answer: C
Question: 27
Which tab in the Apache Felix Web Console displays the list of all the users that are logged in to the repository?
A. Authenticator tab.
B. CRX Login Tokens tab.
C. Recent Request tab.
D. System Information tab.
Answer: B

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QUESTION 20
Which two choices will allow you to apply a skin to a component at compile time? (Choose two.)
A. Use the setStyle method in a Script block
B. Use the skin attribute in the MXML used to instantiate the component
C. Use the skinClass attribute in the MXML used to instantiate the component
D. Use the skin property in the CSS attached to the application
E. Use the skinClass style in the CSS attached to the application

Correct Answer: CE QUESTION 21
Which two classes can be extended to create a skin? (Choose two.)
A. ComponentSkin
B. Skin
C. SkinSpark
D. SkinClass
E. SparkSkin

Correct Answer: BE QUESTION 22
Which MXML attribute specifies the visual implementation that a Spark component will display?
A. skin
B. skinClass
C. layout
D. displayClass

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 23
You have created a SparkSkin class for a Button component called ButtonSkin in the skins package. Which MXML statement correctly applies this skin class to a Spark Button?
A. <s:Button skinClass=”ButtonSkin” />
B. <s:Button styleName=”ButtonSkin” />
C. <s:Button skinClass=”skins.ButtonSkin”/>
D. <s:Button class=”skins.ButtonSkin” />

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 24
You want to animate the x, y, and alpha properties of an object in your application. Which Spark Effect class can handle animating multiple properties?
A. Animate
B. AnimateProperty
C. AnimateFilter
D. AddAction

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 25
Which declaration properly sets the x property in a state named detail?
A. detail.x=”0″
B. detail:x=”0″
C. x:detail=”0″
D. x.detail=”0″

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 26
Which two approaches could be used to show a component only within a specified Spark view state? (Choose two)
A. Set the includeIn attribute on that component’s MXML declaration and specify the name of the state
B. Set the excludeFrom attribute on that component’s MXML declaration and specify the names of all other states
C. Use the AddChild class within the State’s MXML declaration, and specify the component declaration within AddChild
D. Set the state attribute on that component’s MXML declaration and specify the value of the state
E. Set the includeIn attribute within the root element of the component

Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 27
You want to invoke a Spark effect with the id “myEffect” when a button is clicked. Which syntax is correct?
A. <s:Button click=”myEffect.play();”/>
B. <s:Button clickEffect=”{myEffect}”/>
C. <s:Button mouseDownEffect=”{myEffect}”/>
D. <s:Button click=”myEffect.end();myEffect.start();”/>

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 28
You want to position a group such that it is positioned in the middle of its parent both vertically and horizontally. Which syntax is correct?
A. <s:Group position=”center” />
B. <s:Group center=”true” />
C. <s:Group horizontalCenter=”0″ verticalCenter=”0″ />
D. <s:Group horizontalCenter=”true” verticalCenter=”true” />

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 29
You want to use constraints to control layout of UI components within Spark containers. Which is required?
A. The Spark container must be a subclass of SkinnableContainer
B. The Spark container must use BasicLayout
C. The Spark container must have the layout attribute set to “absolute”
D. The UI components must be Spark components, not MX components

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 30
You have a ViewStack with multiple children. You want all children to be created before the application is available for use. You are using the Spark NavigatorContent container to define all of the children of the ViewStack. Which setting will you need to specify?
A. Set creationPolicy to all on the ViewStack
B. Set creationPolicy to all on the ViewStack and each of the NavigatorContent children
C. Set creationPolicy to auto on the ViewStack
D. None. This is the default behavior
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 31
You want to use a Spark item renderer. What must you do?
A. Define a component, either externally or inline, derived from any Spark container
B. Define a component, either externally or inline, derived from the ItemRenderer class
C. Define an external component derived from a Spark control
D. Define an inline component derived from a Spark control

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 32
Which three are valid ItemRenderer implementation approaches in Flex? (Choose three.)
A. superclass
B. inline
C. component
D. drop-in
E. interface

Correct Answer: BCD QUESTION 33
You have a List control that is populated with product XML data. The product data includes the name and price of the product. You want the name and the price values to appear concatenated in the label field of the List. You do NOT want to affect the underlying data. The name and price values are separate nodes in the XML.
Which two approaches could be used to achieve the desired result (Choose two)?
A. Create a custom ItemRenderer to display the data
B. Use the labelFunction property of the List control
C. Bind the dataProvider property of the List to an E4X statement with the XML
D. Specify “{name} {price}” in the labelField property of the List control
E. Create a custom style for the List control to display the data

Correct Answer: AB QUESTION 34
You have created the class MyComponent in the components package. Given the following code:
<?xml version=”1.0″ encoding=”utf-8″?>
<s:Group xmlns:fx=”http://ns.adobe.com/mxml/2009″
xmlns:s=”library://ns.adobe.com/flex/spark”
xmlns:mx=”library://ns.adobe.com/flex/mx”
xmlns:comp=”components.*”>
<!– Put Component Here –>
</s:Group>

Which is a correct way to instantiate the MyComponent class using MXML?

A. <s:MyComponent />
B. <comp:MyComponent />
C. <components:MyComponent />
D. <s:Component class=”components.MyComponent” />

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 35
For which uses cases should MXML be used rather than ActionScript (Choose two.)
A. Creating a direct subclass of UIComponent
B. Adding a control to an existing container type

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QUESTION 21
You have been asked by the HR Manager to define Oracle Alert to show all employees terminated in the
past six months.
Identify three pieces of information that is required to define this Alert. (Choose three.)

A. actions that you want Alert to perform
B. frequency with which you want to run this Alert
C. a SQL statement that retrieves terminated employees
D. name of the concurrent program to be run after Alert runs
E. database table name, which stores employee Information to specify In the Event Details section

Correct Answer: ABC
QUESTION 22
When a quotation is due to expire within the number of days you specified, then you receive the following message in the Notifications Summary window: Quotations active or approaching expiration: [number]. Where is this [number] set up in the system?
A. in the Quote Header – Warning Delay field
B. in the Systems Profile Options – PO: Quote Warning Delay
C. in Purchasing Options on the ‘Default’ Tab – Quote Warning Delay field
D. Lookup Code, which is an (LOV) list of Values, in the Quote Header – Warning Delay field

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 23
Select three true statements regarding the Workflow Document Creation prerequisite (PO Create Documents workflow). (Choose three.)
A. Catalog quote must not be expired, but may be inactive.
B. Supplier and supplier site are required on the requisition related to a contract purchase order.
C. If a system Item is not associated with the requisition line, a supplier item number is required.
D. Sourcing rules are required If the requisition originates in Oracle Purchasing or {Procurement.
E. No source document is required for the PO Create Documents workflow to create a release or purchase order.
F. The only time an approved supplier list is required is if your source document is a blanket purchase agreement and you are using a system item.

Correct Answer: BCF
QUESTION 24
Consider the following setups:
1) Purchasing System Option enforce Full Lot Quantity * Mandatory
2) Rounding Factor at the item level = 75%
3) Unit of Issue at the item level = Dozen
Select two statements that are true. (Choose two.)

A. If the user enters 6 each on an internal requisition, the quantity will be rounded to 0,
B. If the user enters 6 each on a purchase requisition, the quantity will be rounded to 0,
C. If the user enters 11 each on an internal requisition, the quantity will be rounded to 12 each,
D. If the user enters 11 each on a purchase requisition, the quantity will be rounded to 12 each,
E. An advisory message suggesting rounding and a suggested rounding quantity are displayed, but you can override this.

Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 25
Requisition Import groups all requisitions with the same group code under the same requisition header. If
no group code is specified, Requisition Import groups requisitions according to five types of groups that
can be optionally passed to the Requisition Import process. Identify them.
(Choose five.)

A. Group by Item.
B. Group by price.
C. Group by buyer.
D. Group by UOM.
E. Group by location.
F. Group by supplier.
G. Group by description.
H. Group all requisition lines under one requisition header

Correct Answer: ACEFH
QUESTION 26
While defining Approval Groups, which three objects can you define authorization rules for? (Choose three.)
A. Buyer
B. Location
C. Commodity
D. Item Category
E. Account Range
F. Document Amount
Correct Answer: BDE
QUESTION 27
Which two statements are true regarding approval workflows In Purchasing? (Choose two.)
A. You can limit approval levels in an Approval Group by Item Category.
B. Approval routing can cut across legal entities within a business group.
C. A Purchase Requisition and a Standard Purchase Order cannot have different approval levels.
D. The Hierarchy Forward Method routes the document to the first approver in the hierarchy who has the required approval limits for that document.
E. During Position Hierarchy setup, a constraint that must be considered is that the Subordinate must not be the manager of the Position Holder in their regular job roles.
Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 28
Which three are true about the Evaluated Receipt Settlement (ERS) proems? (Choose three)
A. Invoice is always created for the supplier site.
B. Invoice is always created In unapproved status,
C. Invoice currency is always defaulted from the purchase order currency.
D. Payment currency is always defaulted from the purchase order currency, E. Payment terms are always defaulted from the purchase order payment terms.
F. Amount is always determined by multiplying the Quantity received by the purchase order item unit price.

Correct Answer: BCF
QUESTION 29
There are four tabbed regions In the Supplier Item Catalog window (Negotiated Sources, Prior Purchases, Sourcing Rules, and Requisition Templates), but function security can be used to determine whether a user will be able to see all of them. In release R12, where is the requisition setup option that determines which of the tabbed regions is the default?
A. in the Profile Options setup
B. in the Lookup Codes setup
C. in the Document Types setup
D. in the Purchasing Options setup
E. in the Expense Account Rules setup
F. in the Requisition Preferences setup

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 30
Price Tolerance (%) on the Purchasing Options Control section refers to the percentage by which ___________.
A. the purchase order line price cannot exceed a price quote
B. the invoice price cannot exceed the purchase order line price
C. the purchase order line price cannot exceed the blanket amount
D. the supplier catalog price cannot exceed purchase order line price
E. the purchase order line price cannot exceed the requisition line price

Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 31
Select three statements that are true regarding the clearing account. (Choose three.)
A. An asset clearing account can also be used as a project clearing account.
B. You can have a maximum of one asset clearing account per asset category.
C. For each payables document you create, you can have a separate cash clearing account.
D. You can use Cash in Transit report in cash management only if cash clearing account and cash account are separate.
E. You use a separate cash clearing account and cash account to have visibility of the Cash in Transit on the balance sheet.

Correct Answer: BCE
QUESTION 32
Your client has the following requirements for electronic delivery of purchasing documents to indirect spend vendors:
1.
No third-party software should be needed; the built-in Oracle functionality should be used.

2.
No special supplier set up should be required; the supplier should need minimal resources to participate.

3.
No requirement for audit trail or confirmation. The best method within standard functionality is _____.
A. EDI
B. XML
C. Email
D. Facsimile
E. Direct interface

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 33
A Blanket Purchase Agreement Is created with the following cumulative price break:
Quantity > 0: Unit Price = $5 Quantity > 20: Unit Price = $4
Single line, single distribution releases are created as follows:
Release# 1 with quantity 15 Release# 2 with quantity 10
What are the unit price values on the releases?
A. Release1 $5, Release2 $5
B. Release1 $4, Release2 $4
C. Release1 $5, Release2 $4
D. It depends on the price tolerance for the line.
E. Release1 $5, Release2 $4 for a quantity of 5 and $5 for a quantity of 5

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 34
You match an unordered receipt to_____.
A. a purchase order shipment from any organization
B. a Return Material Authorization (RMA. from any organization
C. a purchase order shipment from the same organization for any supplier
D. a purchase release shipment from the same organization for the same supplier
E. a finally closed purchase order shipment from the same organization for the same supplier

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 35
Which four sources of information default records Into the Supplier Header? (Choose four.)
A. Invoice Options
B. System Options
C. Financial Options
D. Payables Options
E. Receiving Options
F. Purchasing Options
G. Approved supplier list

Correct Answer: CDEF
QUESTION 36
While implementing Oracle Payables, Oracle Purchasing, and Oracle General Ledger at GLO Ltd., you are informed by the accountant that the AP Clearing Account balance Is Increasing daily. To solve this issue, what would you check in the accounting process?
A. whether journals are posted regularly
B. whether suppliers are sequentially numbered
C. whether the month-end accrual process is run
D. whether invoices are matched to purchase orders and receipts
E. whether Oracle Payables transactions are reconciled with Oracle General Ledger

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 37
Consider the following scenario for inventory item A: 1) Standard Cost $10 Purchase Order Line Price: $12, Purchase Order Line Quantity: 10 2) Receipt Routing: Direct Delivery You created a receipt of 8 units for item A. Which option correctly describes the effect on different accounts?
A. Debit Material Account $80; Credit Inventory AP Accrual Account $96; Debit Invoice Price Variance Account $16; No effect on Purchase Price Variance Account
B. Debit Material Account $80; Credit Inventory AP Accrual Account $96; No effect on Invoice Price Variance Account; Debit Purchase Price Variance Account $16
C. Debit Material Account $80; Credit Inventory AP Accrual Account $80; No effect on Invoice Price Variance Account; Debit Purchase Price Variance Account $16
D. Credit Material Account $80; Debit Inventory AP Accrual Account $96; No effect on Invoice Price Variance Account; Credit Purchase Price Variance Account $16
E. Debit Material Account $96; Credit Inventory AP Accrual Account $96; No effect on Invoice Price Variance Account; Credit Purchase Price Variance Account $16

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 38
Which three are valid setup options for purchasing document types? (Choose three.)
A. Archive On
B. Forward Method
C. Default Hierarchy
D. Security Access Level
E. Can Change Hierarchy
F. Owner Cannot Approve
Correct Answer: ABC
QUESTION 39
Consider the following scenario for Inventory Item B.
1) Standard Cost: $10 2) Purchase Order Line Quantity: 100; Purchase Order Line Price: $12 3) Match Approval Level: Three-Way Matching; Receipt Routing: Direct Delivery 4) Received Quantity: 40 5) Invoice Price: $14; Invoiced Quantity: 20
Which option describes the effect on different accounts correctly?
A. Debit Material Account $480; Credit Inventory AP Accrual Account $240; Debit Invoice Price Variance Account $40; Debit Purchase Price Variance Account $0; Credit AP Liability Account $280
B. Debit Material Account $400; Credit Inventory AP Accrual Account $240; Debit Invoice Price Variance Account $40; Debit Purchase Price Variance Account $80; Credit AP Liability Account $280
C. Debit Material Account $400 ; Credit Inventory AP Accrual Account $240; Debit Invoice Price Variance Account $80; Debit Purchase price Variance Account $40; Credit AP Liability Account $280
D. Credit Material Account $400; Debit Inventory AP Accrual Account $240; Credit Invoice Price Variance Account $40; Credit Purchase Price Variance Account $80; Debit AP Liability Account $280
Correct Answer: B QUESTION 40
Identify four ways in which sourcing rules significantly improve efficiency of procurement processes. (Choose four.)
A. Allowing you to transfer from one supplier site to the other, if It is a global supplier.
B. Assigning sourcing rules at the item or item-organization level using an assignment set.
C. Giving you the ability to identify the priority to be given to the local sites of a global supplier.
D. Sourcing the highest percentage of an item from only those suppliers who ranked the highest.
E. Allowing you to identify the most efficient shipping method to be used for a specific sourcing rule,
F. Automatically allocating planned orders across different suppliers based on predetermined criteria such as rank and percentage.
G. Allowing the implementer to define a single sourcing rule for an item at the Item Master level, to cater to all inventory organizations.

Correct Answer: BCEF
QUESTION 41
Select three true statements about the default of sourcing Information for requisitions and purchase orders. (Choose three.)
A. The item price on a requisition can be defaulted from the Item attribute setup.
B. Buyer name cannot be defaulted onto a requisition, but you can assign notes to a buyer.
C. You can modify the last name of the requester defaulting from the Human Resources employee record.
D. You must use the Transfer From assignment on a sourcing rule for Item Information to default onto an Internal requisition.
E. When you assign a commodity to an approved supplier list, you do not need to assign the individual items in the commodity.
F. You can have the same item on a quotation and a blanket agreement but the supplier or supplier site must be different, so that It can default onto a requisition line.

Correct Answer: ADE
QUESTION 42
You receive a request to create a new menu. Instead of creating a new menu, you modify an existing menu and save It to a different User Menu Name. What happens after saving the menu with a different User Menu Name?
A. There will be two menus.
B. The original menu is disabled.
C. The new menu will not contain any functions.
D. The new menu will overwrite the original menu.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 43
A Global Single Instance (GS1) provides the global enterprise with a single, complete data model, Identify three features In Oracle Business Suite Release 12 that support a 6SL (Choose three.)
A. maintenance of third-party applications
B. automation of standardized documents and audit processes
C. decentralization of operations by regions, divisions, or processes
D. consolidation of data centers and lowering administrative overhead
E. capture of statutory and customary local requirements In the same database
Correct Answer: BDE
QUESTION 44
Identify two types of regions in Daily Business Intelligence. (Choose two.)
A. menu
B. table
C. folder
D. report
E. graph

Correct Answer: BE
QUESTION 45
A global company uses Oracle E-Business Suite Release 12 for Its operations In the U.S. and Canada. The company Is now adding Mexico to the Oracle E-Business Suite Release 12 Applications. As a system administrator, you need to set the MO: Operating Unit profile option for Mexico. Customer is not using Multi-Org Access Control.
You set the MO: Operating Unit profile option at the ____level.
A. Site
B. User
C. Application
D. Responsibility

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 46
Identify the sequence of steps to determine the Descriptive Flexfield name on a form in Oracle E- Business
Suite Release 12 with Diagnostics enabled.
1) Select Help > Diagnostics > Examine.
2) The username of the DFF appears in the Value field.
3) Select the DFF name from the list of values in the “Field” field.
4) Select the “$DESCRIPTIVE_FUEXFIELD$B value for the Block name.

A. 1, 2, 3, 4
B. 1 4, 3, 2
C. 1, 3, 4, 2
D. 4, 3, 1, 2
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 47
Which two parameters facilitate cross organization reports in a Multi-Org environment? (Choose two.)
A. Ledger
B. Legal Entity
C. Operating Unit
D. Reporting Level
E. Reporting Context

Correct Answer: DE
QUESTION 48
XYZ Corp. has operations In the U.S. and Canada. Within Canada, It has two separate Divisions due to Statutory requirements: one In Quebec and another In Ontario. How would you define the organization structure for XYZ Corp. from the Information given above?
A. two Ledgers, two Legal Entitles, and two Operating Units
B. two Ledgers, two Legal Entities, and three Operating Units
C. two Ledgers, three Legal Entities, and two Operating Units
D. two Ledgers, three Legal Entities, and three Operating Units
E. three Ledgers, three Legal Entities, and three Operating Units

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 49
Identify the four resources that Oracle Technology Network (OTM) provides. (Choose four.)
A. sample codes
B. Bug Database
C. technical articles
D. product downloads
E. product documentation
F. Applications Electronic Technical Reference Manuals (eTRM)

Correct Answer: ACDE
QUESTION 50
ABC Corp, has the following Organization Structure
1) Legal Entity: A 2) Operating Units: B end C 3) Balancing Entitles: 10. 20. and 30
Identify three correct statements regarding the Balancing Entity. (Choose three.)
A. Each Balancing Entity mutt balance within itself.
B. There can be multiple Balancing Entitles within an Operating Unit
C. Balancing Entity is the lowest postable unit in the Chart of Accounts.
D. Balancing Entitles can be automatically secured at the Legal Entity level.
E. Balancing Entities can be secured at the Operating Unit level through Security Rules

Correct Answer: ABE
QUESTION 51
Identify the two benefits of using Multi-Org Access Control. (Choose two.)
A. View asset information across multiple asset books
B. Restrict access to users based on their Organization assignment!
C. Submit and view data across different ledgers using a single responsibility.
D. Enter Payables Invoices for different Operating Units using a single responsibility.
E. View Consolidated requisitions across Operating Units using a single responsibility
Correct Answer: DE
QUESTION 52
Which two options would you use to restrict the functionality provided by a responsibility? (Choose two.)
A. creating an appropriate role
B. creating an appropriate group
C. constructing a new menu hierarchy
D. defining rules to exclude specific functions
Correct Answer: CD
QUESTION 53
A Ledger is a financial reporting entity. What is new in Oracle E-Business Suite Release 12 that facilitates generation of accounting entries?
A. Ledger
B. Chart of Accounts
C. Multi-Org Structure
D. Accounting Convention
E. Financial Accounting Calendar

Correct Answer: D

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30 DRAG DROP
Click the Task button. Place the commands next to the functions they perform.

Answer: Question No : 31

Which statement is true about the difference between a process and a thread?
A. A process and a thread are the same, there is no major difference.
B. A thread is another name for the child of a system-related process.
C. A thread must have two processes to be able to run on multiple CPU cores.
D. A multi-threaded process can run on multiple CPU cores.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Question No : 32
While troubleshooting a network printing problem, you notice that the printer service is not listening for requests. Which file should you check to make sure the printer service is not missing or commented out?
A. /etc/default/printer.conf
B. /etc/inetd.conf
C. /etc/hosts
D. /etc/networks
Answer: B
Explanation:
Question No : 33 DRAG DROP
Click the Task button. Place each network configuration file next to its description.

Answer: Question No : 34

As the system administrator you need to add a default route to the routing table. Which command should you use?
A. route add network 192.168.0.0 1
B. route add net 192.168.0.1 192.168.1.1 1
C. route add host 192.168.0.1 192.168.1.1 1
D. route add default 192.168.0.1 1
Answer: D
Explanation:
Question No : 35
NTP should be configured and activated on all servers running HP-UX 11i v3 to enable which function?
A. network transport protocol
B. network tuning to maximize performance
C. synchronized time between servers
D. network transactions processing
Answer: C
Explanation:
Question No : 36
Which HP-UX command can be used to verify a network interface card (NIC) is enabled?
A. ping
B. nwmgr
C. arp
D. nslookup
Answer: B
Explanation:
Question No : 37
Which tool is used to verify CIFS operation?
A. cifsadmin
B. smbclient
C. testparm
D. cifsdadm
Answer: B
Explanation:
Question No : 38
What do you use to list clients that have mounted exported file systems? (Select two.)
A. showmount -a
B. more /etc/mounts
C. mount -v
D. more /etc/rmtab
E. more /etc/nfstab
Answer: A,D
Explanation:
Question No : 39
Which file contains configuration parameters that can be used to enable or disable AutoFS on an HP-UX 11i v3 system?
A. /etc/nfsconf
B. /etc/automount.conf
C. /etc/netconf
D. /etc/rc.config.d/nfsconf
Answer: D
Explanation:
Question No : 40
How is IP multiplexing implemented on an HP-UX host?
A. by binding the same IP address to multiple network interfaces
B. by binding more than one IP address to a single network interface
C. by binding more than one MAC address to a single network interface
D. by increasing throughput on the network interface
Answer: B
Explanation: Question No : 41
When troubleshooting a disk problem, which HP-UX 11i v3 command correlates a LUN’s device special file (DSF) with its hardware path?
A. scsiutil
B. iofind
C. scsimgr
D. ioinit
Answer: C
Explanation:
Question No : 42
What does the command ch_rc do?
A. changes the chroot to the current directory
B. lists, adds or modifies parameters of /etc/rc.config.d
C. alters the permissions of root directory
D. sets the default values to the content of /etc/rc.config.d
Answer: B
Explanation:
Question No : 43
If your organization’s security policy prohibits web service on production servers, you can disable the HP System Management Homepage (SMH) web interface entirely with which commands or actions? (Select two.)
A. smhstartconfig -a off -b off
B. /sbin/init.d/hpsmh stop and vi /etc/rc.config.d/hpsmh
C. /sbin/init.d/smhconfig stop
D. smhconfig -a off -b off
Answer: A,B Explanation:
Question No : 44
Which command is used to list device file details?
A. lsdev
B. insf -e
C. lssf <special file>
D. lsf -a
Answer: C
Explanation:
Question No : 45
Which statement is true about dynamically disabling swap devices in an HP-UX 11i v3 system?
A. You use swapoff /dev/vg01/swapvol.
B. You are able to do this in VxFS v4 or later.
C. You cannot disable them dynamically.
D. You use swapon -d /dev/vg01/swapvol.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Question No : 46
Which directory keeps a backup of the kernel configuration that was created during the last OS install?
A. /stand/nextboot/
B. /stand/last_install/
C. /stand/newconfig/
D. /stand/backup/
Answer: B
Explanation:
Question No : 47
Which steps are necessary to use /etc/shadow on a server running HP-UX 11i v3?
A. Install the ShadowPassword product; run /usr/sbin/pwck; run /usr/sbin/pwconv.
B. Run /usr/sbin/pwck; run /usr/sbin/pwconv; restart pwgrd.
C. Run /usr/sbin/pwck; run /usr/sbin/pwconv.
D. Run /usr/sbin/pwck; run /usr/sbin/pwconv; convert to trusted system using SAM.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Question No : 48 DRAG DROP
Click the Task button. Match each backup/archive tool with its operation.

Answer: Question No : 49

The following message is displayed while attempting to unmount the /data file system: # umount /data umount: cannot unmount /data : Device busy Which command is used to determine which user is causing the file system to be busy?
A. bdf /data
B. fuser -cu /data
C. showmount /data
D. who /data
Answer: B
Explanation:
Question No : 50
What is the path of the EFI operating system loader for HP-UX boot disks?
A. \EFI\HPUX\HPUX.EFI
B. \EFI\HPUX.EFI
C. \EFI\OS\HPUX.EFI
D. \EFI\HPUX\AUTO
Answer: A
Explanation: Question No : 51
Which command is used to determine which versions of LVM are supported on your system?
A. lvmadm -t
B. lvcreate -L
C. lvmadm -v
D. lvcreate -l
Answer: A
Explanation:
Question No : 52
What happens when HP SIM is used to launch a tool?
A. Authorizations are configured in HP SIM.
Users are authenticated using PAM on the HP SIM server.

B. Authorizations are configured in HP SIM.
Users are authenticated using the internal user database of HP SIM.

C. Authorizations are configured in Select Access.
Users are authenticated using the internal user database of HP SIM.

D. Authorizations are derived from operating system login account permissions.
Users are authenticated using PAM on the HP SIM server.

Answer: A
Explanation:
Question No : 53
What can an administrator do to optimize the performance of an existing JFS file system?
A. change mount options
B. change syslog.log size
C. increase SWAP size
D. increase the number of logical volumes
Answer: A
Explanation:
Question No : 54
What are parts of the Agile View FC LUN hardware path address? (Select three.)
A. root node
B. WWID
C. bus address
D. port name

E. LUN ID
F. LUN address
Answer: A,C,E
Explanation:
Question No : 55
If the HP-UX System Management Homepage (SMH) daemon is not running, which command will start it?
A. smh startup
B. hpsmh autostart
C. hpsmh start
D. smh start
Answer: B
Explanation: Question No : 56
Which commands can be used to interrupt a running process?
A. <ctrl-z>, <ctrl-c>, bg, and kill
B. <ctrl-z>, <ctrl-c>, fg, and kill
C. <ctrl-z>, <ctrl-c>, <ctrl-\>, fg, bg, nohup and kill
D. <ctrl-z>, <ctrl-c>, <ctrl-\>, and kill
Answer: D
Explanation:

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QUESTION NO: 21
Identity the true statement about Custom Menus.
A. Custom menus can provide links to data forms, Business Rules, URLs, and Planning preferences.
B. Custom menus require Java scripting knowledge to create.
C. You can assign security to custom menus so that only specific users or groups can see the custom menu.
D. Custom menus are assigned to data forms only.
E. Custom menus are limited to a single list of tasks; you cannot group them into sub categories.
Answer: A
Explanation: Custom menus can be used to launch the following:


Business Rules


Context sensitive data forms


URL


Context sensitive Process Management

QUESTION NO: 22
A planner is supposed to be able to submit data within a data form.
What are all the possible causes for an end user not being able to enter data on a data form? Select all that apply.
A. The planning unit is set to first pass.
B. Another user owns the planning unit.
C. The user has read access to the members on the data form.
D. The form contains summary-level members in a bottom up version.
E. The form is set to Read Only.
Answer: C,D,E Explanation: C, E: By assigning access to a data form, you control which users can change its design (for example, its layout and instructions) and input data. Users can select only members to which they have read or write access. Users can edit data forms only if they have access to at least one member of each secured dimension. For example, if users have read-only access to the Europe entity, the rows and columns on data forms that include the Europe entity are displayed as read-only. Users can change data only for members to which they have write access.
D: For bottom-up versions, rows and columns with level 0 members allow data entry. Rows or columns set to a parent member are read-only. The point of view must also be set to the level 0 member to allow data entry on a bottom-up version. Target versions allow data entry in parent and children members.
If you assign children to bottom-up versions, these versions display as read-only parents on data forms.

QUESTION NO: 23
The Hyperion Planning administrator needs to run several calculations in a specific order against two different databases within the application. Identify the two options that are not valid.
A. Esscmd
B. Calc Script
C. Business Rule Sequence
D. MaxL
E. Business Rule Macro
Answer: A,D Explanation:
ESSCMD is the original command line interface for administration commands.
MaxL, a “multi-dimensional database access language” which provides both a superset of
ESSCMD commands, but with a syntax more akin to SQL, as well as support for MDX queries.

QUESTION NO: 24
Assuming the following dimensions and members:
Scenario – Actual, Budget and Year – 2010, 2011, you need to create a data form with two columns. One column should list Actual for 2010 and the second column should list Budget 2011. You do not want to show data for Actual 2011 even though the first three months of the year have been loaded from the GL.
What is the best way to only show the 2 columns in the data form?
A. You cannot build a data form with these two columns, hour columns will display: Actual >2010, Actual >2011, Budget->2010 and Budget >2011
B. Use Segments on the data form to create the asymmetric columns.
C. Use User Variables on the data form to create the asymmetric columns.
D. Use a composite data form to meet this requirement.
E. Use data suppression on the data form.
Answer: B
Explanation: Asymmetric rows and columns are ones in which different sets of members are selected across the same dimension.

QUESTION NO: 25
Identify the three true statements about weekly distribution.
A. For Weekly Distribution options 445, 454, 544, the quarterly values are treated as if they are divided into 13 weeks and the weeks are distributed via a pattern you specify.
B. The only valid weekly distribution options are 445, 454, and 544.
C. If you select the 4-5-4 Weekly distribution option, Planning treats the first month in the quarter as if it has 4 weeks, the second month as If it has 5 weeks, and the third month as if it has 4 weeks.
D. If you choose weekly distribution for Custom-based time periods. Planning will not distribute the data values across base periods.
E. Weekly distribution determines how data entered into summary periods should spread to its base periods.
Answer: A,C,E Explanation: A: If you select a weekly distribution pattern other than Even, Planning treats quarterly values as if they were divided into 13 weeks and distributes weeks according to the selected pattern.
E: Weekly distribution sets the monthly distribution pattern, based on the number of fiscal weeks in a month. This determines how data in summary time periods spreads within the base time period. When users enter data into summary time periods, such as quarters, the value is distributed over base time periods in the summary time period.

QUESTION NO: 26
What are the three supported methods to create and update a member and its properties (assuming Classic or non-Classic Planning applications)?
A. Planning Web Client
B. EAS
C. EPMA
D. DRM
E. Outline Load Utility
Answer: A,B,C Explanation: A: Planning Web Client provides complete functionality for Web users. Use the Web interface to roll out applications to large, distributed organizations without installing software on client computers. All software resides on the server. Many administrative features that were formerly in the Planning Desktop are now available through Planning Web.
B: Oracle Hyperion Essbase Administration Services (Essbase Administration Services) software is a robust, cross-platform graphical user interface that makes Essbase administration tasks easy to perform. Administrators can simultaneously view and edit properties for multiple Hyperion Essbase databases, applications, users, scripts, and other objects from a single intuitive view. Essbase Administration Services also provides wizards, editors, dynamic menus, and other tools to help you implement, monitor, and maintain analytic and enterprise performance management applications.
C: Enterprise Performance Management Architect (EPMA) enables administrators to manage, create, and deploy Hyperion applications within one interface. EPMA can do adds, moves, modify properties, etc.

QUESTION NO: 27
Identify the one Planning component that is not accessible over the Web.
A. Dimension Editor for Planning
B. Shared Services
C. Exchange Rates Definition
D. Planning Utilities
E. Create and Manage Database Options
F. Create Data Sources
Answer: D
Explanation: Hyperion Planning Utilities can only be used locally.
QUESTION NO: 28
Identify two true statements about the DATAEXPORT calc script command.
A. Using DATAEXPORT within the FIX statement of a calc script allows you to export specific data sets from an Essbase database.
B. DATAEXPORT only exports level zero data.
C. DATAEXPORT only exports to flat files.
D. DATAEXPORT only exports entire data blocks.
E. DATAEXPORT is faster than Essbase Report.
Answer: A,E
Explanation: A: To develop a calculation script that exports a subset of data, you first specify the
SET
DATAEXPORTOPTIONS command to define options for export content, format, and process Use
FIX#ENDFIX or EXCLUDE#ENDEXCLUDE calculations to select a slice of the database and
use a DATAEXPORTCOND command to select data based on data values.

Note: The DATAEXPORT command enables calculation scripts to export data in binary or text, or
directly to a relational database. A set of data-export-related calculation commands qualify what
data to export and provide various output and formatting options.

Compared to using other methods to export data, using a calculation script has the following
advantages and disadvantages:
Advantages:
Enables exporting a subset of data.

*
Supports multiple targets: flat files, relational databases, and binary files (not B, C, D)

*
Provides many flexible options for type and format or data.

*
As part of a calculation script, can be easily deployed in a batch process.

*
Can be very fast when the dynamic calculation export option is not used because DATAEXPORT directly accesses Kernel storage blocks in memory. (E)

*
Provides, through binary export-import, a faster way to back up and restore data because the compressed format used by binary export requires less storage for the export files.

*
Can be used as a debug tool to trace batch calculation results by using the DATAEXPORT command before and after other calculation commands to track data changes.
Disadvantages
Contains limited data formatting options compared to Report Writer formatting.
QUESTION NO: 29
Identify the three true statements about attribute dimensions.
A. Planning supports hierarchies and aliases for attribute dimensions.
B. Planning supports all attribute types (for example. Boolean, Date, Text).
C. Planning supports varying attributes (where an attribute can vary over one or more other dimensions).

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QUESTION 17
View Exhibit1 to examine the description of the CUSTOMERS table.

You observed that optimizer selectivity is not accurate when the CUST_STATE_PROVINCE and COUNTRY_ID columns are used together in the WHERE clause of a query. View Exhibit2 to examine the query execution plan and the commands executed to gather the statistics.

The optimizer predicts that 20 rows will be processed rather than the 3,341 rows, which is the actual number of rows returned from the table. What can you do to make the optimizer detect the actual number of rows?
A. Set the STATISTICS_LEVEL parameter to ALL.
B. Set the OPTIMIZER_USE_PENDING_STATISTICS parameter to FALSE.
C. Create extended statistics for the CUST_STATE_PROVINCE and COUNTRY_ID columns.
D. Increase the STALE_PERCENT value for the CUSTOMERS table by using the DBMS_STATS.SET_TABLE_PREFS procedure. Correct Answer: C QUESTION 18
View Exhibit1 to examine the description of the CUSTOMERS table.

The CUSTOMERS table has been updated heavily today. In a frequently used SQL statement, you notice that estimated rows and the actual number of rows
fetched differ greatly. The COUNTRY_ID column has an index.
View Exhibit2 and examine the query execution plan.
What would you recommend to improve the optimizer’s estimation?
A. setting the STATISTICS_LEVEL parameter to ALL
B. setting the OPTIMIZER_USE_PENDING_STATISTICS parameter to FALSE
C. creating extended statistics for the CUST_LAST_NAME, CUST_ID, and CUST_TOTAL columns
D. updating the statistics for the CUSTOMERS table by using the DBMS_STATS.GATHER_TABLE_STATS procedure Correct Answer: D QUESTION 19
You are working on a decision support system (DSS). The index is available on the COUNTRY_ID column of the CUSTOMERS table.View the Exhibit and examine the parameter settings and the query execution plan.

Why is the query using a full table scan instead of an index scan?
A. because the histogram statistics for the COUNTRY_ID column are not updated
B. because the index statistics for the index on the COUNTRY_ID column are not current
C. because the DB_FILE_MULTIBLOCK_READ_COUNT initialization parameter is set to a higher value
D. because the optimizer predicts that most of the blocks in the table are accessed. Therefore, it uses a full table scan, even though indexes are available.

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 20
View Exhibit1 and examine the indexes on the CUSTOMERS table.

The statistics for the CUSTOMERS table have been updated recently by using the following command:
SQL> EXEC
DBMS_STATS.GATHER_TABLE_STATS(‘SH’,’CUSTOMERS’,method_opt=>’FOR ALL INDEXED COLUMNS SIZE AUTO’);
View Exhibit2 to examine a query plan. Even though the index is present on the COUNTRY_ID and CUST_GENDER columns, the query uses a full table scan.
What could be the reason?
A. because the histogram statistics for the COUNTRY_ID column are not updated
B. because the DB_FILE_MULTIBLOCK_READ_COUNT initialization parameter is set to a high value
C. because the optimizer calculates the cost of accessing blocks by using a full table scan to be less as compared to index scans, even though indexes are available
D. because indexes on CUST_GENDER and COUNTRY_ID columns are of different types, the index on the CUST_GENDER column is bitmap index, and on COUNTRY_ID columns is btree index.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 21
You are working on an online transaction processing (OLTP) system. The CUST table in the SH schema was populated by direct load and after that it has gone through a lot of updates and deletions. The statistics for the CUST and SALES tables were updated recently.View the Exhibit and examine the query plan.The query is performing a lot of I/O for a query that fetches only 168 rows. To investigate further, you queried the ALL_TABLES view to find out PCTUSED, PCTFREE, and the number of rows in the CUST table, as given below: SQL> SELECT table_name ,blocks, pct_used, pct_free, num_rows 2 FROM all_tables 3* WHERE table_name = ‘CUST’; TABLE_NAME BLOCKS PCT_USED PCT_FREE NUM_ROWS ———- ———- ———- ———- ———- CUST 13768 80 111060 What would you recommend to reduce the I/O?

A. reorganizing the table to use fewer blocks
B. rebuilding the index on the CUST_FIRST_NAME column
C. increasing the value for the PCTFREE attribute for the CUST table
D. increasing the value for the PGA_AGGREGATE_TARGET initialization parameter

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 22
Your system has been upgraded from Oracle Database 10g to Oracle Database 11g. You imported SQL Tuning Sets (STS) from the previous version that contains important SQL statements. You are not sure about the elapsed time that the SQL statements will have in the new system due to the version change of the optimizer. Which tool provides a comparative report with respect to the elapsed time in both versions of the optimizer?
A. SQL Access Advisor
B. SQL Tuning Advisor (STA)
C. SQL Performance Analyzer (SPA)
D. Automatic Workload Repository (AWR) compare period report

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 23
Which three statements are true about performance analysis by SQL Performance Analyzer? (Choose three.)
A. It detects changes in SQL execution plans.
B. It shows only the overall impact on workload.
C. It produces results that can be used to create the SQL plan baseline.
D. It generates recommendations to run SQL Tuning Advisor to tune regressed SQL statements.
E. The importance of SQL statements to be analyzed is based on the size of the objects accessed.

Correct Answer: ACD
QUESTION 24
The database application developers are planning to make some major schema changes such as creating new indexes and materialized views. They want to check the net impact of these changes on the workload performance. This activity has to be performed in the production database, so they want only the query part of the data manipulation language (DML) statements to be executed so that the side effects to the database or user data can be prevented. What should they use to achieve this?
A. Database Replay
B. SQL Tuning Advisor
C. SQL Access Advisor
D. SQL Performance Analyzer

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 25
You upgraded database from the Oracle Database 10g to Oracle Database 11g. To test the performance SQL on the upgraded database. You want to build the before-change performance data by using SQL Performance Analyzer .Which method would allow the task to execute quickly?
A. the EXPLAIN PLAN method
B. the TEST EXECUTE method
C. the COMPARE PERFORMANCE method
D. the OPTIMIZER_USE_SQL_PLAN_BASELINE parameter set to TRUE

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 26
Examine the following block that executes a SQL Performance Analyzer task:

begin dbms_sqlpa.execute_analysis_task(task_name => ‘SPA_SKD4’, execution_type => ‘TEST EXECUTE’,
execution_name => ‘before’);
end;

Which two statements are true about the execution? (Choose two.)

A. It generates execution plans and execution statistics.
B. It executes only the query part of the DML statements.
C. The test plans are generated and added to plan baseline.
D. The test plans are executed, but not generated if they are available in the plan baseline.

Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 27
You plan to collect statistics for an important table in your database to help improved query performance. You are uncertain about the optimizer behavior after the statistics have been collected because currently there are no statistics for indexes or partitions on the table. You wish to test the performance effect of the newly collected statistics. How would you prevent the optimizer from using the newly collected statistics for other sessions immediately after statistics collection?
A. Set the PUBLISH preference to FALSE for the table.
B. Set the NO_VALIDATE preference to TRUE for the table.
C. Set the OPTIMIZER_DYNAMIC_SAMPLING parameter to 0.
D. Set the OPTIMIZER_USE_SQL_PLAN_BASELINES parameter to FALSE for the session.
E. Set the OPTIMIZER_USE_PENDING_STATISTICS parameter to FALSE for the session.

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 28
You have the automatic optimizer statistics gathering enabled for a 24×7 database as part of the automatic maintenance task. You observed that a few tables are being updated regularly, but not being queried often. However statistics are being gathered for these tables automatically and regularly, thereby affecting the database performance. What would you do to increase the interval of statistics collection for these tables so that the statistics collection jobs spend less time during the automatic maintenance task?
A. Set the OPTIMIZER_USE_PENDING parameter statistics to TRUE.
B. Increase the value of the STALE_PERCENT preference for these tables.
C. Mark those associated indexes that are less frequently used as invisible.
D. Increase the value of the ESTIMATE_PERCENT preference for these tables

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 29
You have the automatic optimizer statistics gathering enabled for a 24×7 database as part of the automatic maintenance task. Because the automatic optimizer statistics collection runs during maintenance window(in the night), the statistics on tables that are significantly modified throughout the day becomes stale. This leads to poor query performance on these tables and you want to minimize the overhead in statistics collection. Identify a solution to this problem.
A. Change the STALE_PERCENT preference to zero for the tables.
B. Set the OPTIMIZER_USE_PENDING parameter statistics to TRUE.
C. Set the OPTIMIZER_DYNAMIC_SAMPLING parameter to zero during day time.
D. Gather statistics on the table when the tables have a representative number of rows, and then lock the statistics.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 30
You observe that suboptimal execution plans for the queries are being generated on a table that previously used less resources. You have collected statistics on these tables two days ago. The optimizer statistics retention period is set to 31 days. You are able to find the timestamp information about statistics update from the DBA_TAB_STATS_HISTORY view. Because it is a frequently queried table, you would like the optimizer to generate better plans. Which action would enable you to use the previous set of statistics on the objects that may lead to better execution plans?
A. restoring statistics from statistics history up to the desired time
B. deleting all AWR snapshots collected after the time of desired statistics collection
C. applying the flashback table technique until the time of desired statistics collection
D. setting the OPTIMIZER_PENDING_STATISTICS parameter to TRUE to use the previous version of statistics

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 31
The SALES table in your database undergoes frequent changes. While observing the statistics for the table in the middle of the day, you find a change since the last observation. But the information about the statistics collection is not recorded in the DBA_TAB_STATS_HISTORY. Identify the reason for this.
A. The AWR retention time was set to zero.
B. The STATISTICS_LEVEL parameter was set to BASIC.
C. Some of the statistics were collected using the ANALYZE command.
D. There were user-defined statistics that were set by using the DBMS_STATS.SET_TABLE_STATS procedure.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 32
You have a range-partitioned table in your database. Each partition in the table contains the sales data for a quarter. The partition related to the current quarter is modified frequently, whereas other partitions undergo fewer data manipulations. The preferences for the table are set to their default values. You collect statistics for the table using the following command at regular intervals: SQL> EXECUTE DBMS_STATS.GATHER_TABLE_STATS(‘SH’,’SALES’,GRANULARITY=>’AUTO’);You need statistics to be collected more quickly. How do you achieve this?
A. Set the PUBLISH preference to TRUE for the partition table.
B. Set the NO_VALIDATE preference to TRUE for the partition table.
C. Set the INCREMENTAL preference to TRUE for the partition table.
D. Increase the value of the STALE_PERCENT preference for the partition table.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 33
Which is the correct description of SQL profiling while using SQL Tuning Advisor?
A. It is a set of recommendations by the optimizer to create new indexes.
B. It is auxiliary information collected by the optimizer for a SQL statement to eliminate estimation error.
C. It is a set of recommendations by the optimizer to refresh stale statistics to avoid bad execution plan.
D. It is a set of recommendations by the optimizer to restructure a SQL statement to avoid bad execution plan.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 34
You used SQL Tuning Advisor for a long-running SQL statement that suggested a SQL profile which can be used by the query subsequently for a better execution
plan. After implementing the profile, you altered the profile to include it in a category as follows:
SQL> EXEC DBMS_SQLTUNE.ALTER_SQL_PROFILE ( name=>
‘SYS_SQLPROF_0146ced728214000, attribute_name => ‘CATEGORY’, value => ‘DEV2’). But the performance has not improved for the user session. The profile
is enabled and on investigating the query plan, you find that the query from the user session does not use the SQL profile. View the Exhibit and examine the
parameters for the user session. What could be the reason for this?
A. The CONTROL_MANAGEMENT_PACK_ACCESS parameter is not set to DEV2.
B. The OPTIMIZER_MODE parameter is set to ALL_ROWS for the user session.
C. The SQLTUNE_CATEGORY parameter is set to DEFAULT for the user session.
D. The OPTIMIZER_USE_PLAN_BASELINES parameter is set to TRUE for the user session.

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 35
You used SQL Tuning Advisor for a long-running SQL statement that suggested a SQL profile which can be used by the query subsequently for better execution plan. View the Exhibit. But you want certain user sessions not to use this SQL profile for their queries. How would you implement this?

A. Alter the SQL profile to change the category of the SQL profile.
B. Set the OPTIMIZER_USE_PENDING_STATISTICS to TRUE the desired sessions.
C. Use database resource manager to prevent the use of the SQL profile by these user sessions.
D. Use database resource manager to preUse the resource management feature in profiles of these users to prevent the use of the SQL profile.

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 36
View the Exhibit and examine the result of Automatic SQL Tuning for a period. None of the recommended SQL profiles are implemented. What would you do to allow the Automatic SQL Tuning implement the SQL profiles automatically?

A. Set the OPTIMIZER_MODE parameter to ALL_ROWS for the database instance.
B. Set the SQLTUNE_CATEGORY parameter to DEFAULT for the database instance.
C. Set the OPTIMIZER_CAPTURE_SQL_PLAN_BASELINES parameter to TRUE for the database instance.
D. Use the DBMS_SQLTUNE.SET_TUNING_TASK_PARAMETERS procedure to set ACCEPT_SQL_PROFILES to TRUE.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 37
You receive a recommendation for a SQL statement through the automatic SQL tuning process that suggests implementing a SQL profile. You implement the SQL profile. The tables associated with the SQL statement grow, and indexes are created and dropped on these tables. What would happen to the SQL profile that is created for the SQL statement?
A. It becomes outdated immediately after the tables change.
B. It is maintained automatically along with the changes in the tables.
C. The profile will be used for the changed plans of the SQL statement.
D. The plan for the SQL statement is frozen until it is regenerated by the SQL Tuning Advisor.

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 38
Identify the type of recommendation that can automatically be implemented by the Automatic Tuning Advisor as part of automatic SQL tuning task?
A. recommendation for SQL profiles
B. recommendation about effective indexing
C. recommendation about stale or no statistics
D. recommendation about the structure of SQL statements

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 39
A user session executes a query and the plan for the query is shown in the Exhibit as Plan-1. After verifying with the SQL Access advisor, an index is created on the table in the JOB_ID column and the query is executed again. A new plan is generated against the second query shown in the Exhibit as Plan-2. When explaining the plan for the second query, you observe that the optimizer uses the first plan instead of the second. The following parameters are set for the user session: OPTIMIZER_CAPTURE_SQL_PLAN_BASELINES=TRUE OPTIMIZER_USE_SQL_PLAN_BASELINES=TRUE SQLTUNE_CATEGORY=DEFAULT Why does the optimizer not use the second plan?

A. because the second plan is not verified
B. because the second plan is not part of the SQL plan baseline
C. because the SQLTUNE_CATEGORY parameter is set to DEFAULT
D. because the explain plan option in the user session does not allow the new plan because SQLTUNE_CATEGORY parameter is set to DEFAULT

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 40
View the Exhibit and examine the plans in the SQL plan baseline.You observe that the last two SELECT statements (outlined in red and blue) are identical, but have two different plans. Also, the second plan (in blue) is not being used by the optimizer.Which two steps do you perform to ensure that the optimizer uses the second plan (in blue) if the plan is more efficient? (Choose two.)

A. Mark the second plan (in blue) as fixed.
B. Use SQL Tuning Advisor to tune the plan.
C. Use SQL Access Advisor to tune the plan.
D. Use the DBMS_SPM.EVOLVE_SQL_PLAN_BASELINE function to evolve the plan.

Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 41
Identify the two direct sources from where SQL plans can be loaded into the SQL plan baselines. (Choose two.)
A. Cursor cache
B. Stored outline
C. SQL Tuning Set
D. Automatic Workload Repository (AWR) snapshots

Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 42
Your system is upgraded from Oracle Database 10g to Oracle Database 11g. You imported SQL Tuning Sets (STS) from the previous version. After running the SQL Performance Analyzer for optimizer version change, you observe performance regression for a few SQL statements. What would you suggest to avoid performance regression for these SQL statements?
A. Include the old plans in the SQL plan baseline.
B. Use DBMS_SPM.EVOLVE_SQL_PLAN_BASELINE to evolve plans.
C. Set the OPTIMIZER_USE_PENDING_STATISTICS parameter to TRUE.
D. Increase the value for the OPTIMIZER_DYNAMIC_SAMPLING parameter.

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 43
The OPTIMIZER_CAPTURE_SQL_PLAN_BASELINES parameter is set to TRUE for a 24×7 database instance. The space consumption has significantly
increased by the automatically captured plan baselines. You are suggested to run the following block:
BEGIN
dbms_spm.configure(‘SPACE_BUDGET_PERCENT’, 30);
END;
After a few weeks of work, you observe warnings on exceeding space usage by SQL Management Base (SMB) in alert log file. Which two actions can be solutions
for this? (Choose two.)

A. increasing the AWR retention period
B. purging the older SQL management objects
C. increasing the size of the SYSTEM tablespace
D. increasing the size of the SYSAUX tablespace

Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 44
Your company wants to migrate a single instance Oracle 11g Release 1 database to a RAC environment. The database supports middle-tier applications using
connection pooling for connecting to database.
Being a part of the performance management team, you want to test the performance of the SQL statements and the peak workload of the applications in the new
environment before upgrading the production system.
Given below are some of the steps in random order to accomplish the task:
1) Capture the real workload on the existing system.
2) Create a SQL Tuning Set (STS) for the statements executed by the application.
3) Transport STS on the test environment and use SQL Tuning Advisor to compare the before and after performance.
4) Replay the workload on the test environment.
5) Analyze the divergence after replay.
6) Use Automatic Workload Repository (AWR) to capture the information for top SQL on the existing system.
7) Transport STS on the test environment and use SQL Performance Analyzer to compare the before and after performance.
Identify the correct steps required to perform the test.

A. 2 and 3 only
B. 6 and 7 only
C. 1, 4, and 5 only
D. 2, 3, and 5 only
E. 2, 3, 4, and 5 only

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 45
You are working on an online transaction processing (OLTP) system. The middle-tier applications use connection pooling to connect to the database. Presently, you have a single-node database. The company plans to migrate the database to a RAC environment. Before you move to a RAC environment, you want to test the performance of the SQL statements and the peak workload on the new environment. To accomplish the Database Capture for replay, you identified the peak workload period on the existing system and started the Database Capture. Which client requests to the database can be captured as part of the workload capture? (Choose all that apply.)
A. flashback query
B. distributed transactions
C. logging in and logging out of sessions
D. all DDL statements having bind variables
E. direct path load of data from external files

Correct Answer: CD
QUESTION 46
You are a DBA in ABC Corp. You are working on a DSS system.. The applications directly connect to the database to perform transactions. The application users also perform direct loads. The company wants to upgrade from Oracle Database 10g version 10.2.0.1 to Oracle Database 11g. You want to test the performance of the SQL statements in the new environment before upgrading the production database. To accomplish this, you set up the test database with Oracle Database 11g, with the same data and schemas as in production. What would you recommend to accomplish the task?
A. gathering all the SQL statements and using SQL Tuning Advisor on the test database for performance analysis
B. capturing the workload on the production database, replaying it on the test machine, and comparing the performance
C. creating a SQL Tuning Set by capturing the SQL workload on the production database and using SQL Performance Analyzer for performance analysis
D. configuring AWR to capture the maximum number of SQL statements, transporting it to the test system, and using SQL Access Advisor for performance analysis

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 47
You are a DBA in ABC Corp. You are working on an online transaction processing (OLTP) system.The applications running on the database use connection
pooling to connect to the database to perform transactions.
The company wants to upgrade the CPU and the memory for the machine on which the database is running. To test the realistic workload on the new machine
with increased CPU and memory, you identified the peak workload time for the database and captured the workload on the production system.
You set up the test machine with the upgraded CPU and memory and installed the database with the same version as production.
Which three actions would you perform to accomplish the realistic replay of the peak workload on the test machine? (Choose three.)

A. Preprocess the captured workload for the specified target database version.
B. Set up as many replay clients as there are actual clients to the production system.
C. Set up all the replay clients on the same machine on which the test database is running.
D. Resolve all external references such as database links, external tables, and directory objects.
E. Restore the replay database to match the capture database at the start of the workload capture.

Correct Answer: ADE
QUESTION 48
You are a DBA in ABC Corp. You are working on an online transaction processing (OLTP) system.The applications running on the database use connection
pooling to connect to the database to perform transactions.
The company wants to upgrade the CPU and the memory for the machine on which the production database is running. To test the realistic workload on the new
machine with increased CPU and memory, you identified the peak workload time for the database and captured the workload on the production system. You set
up the test machine with the upgraded CPU and memory, and performed the following operations for replay:
1) You preprocessed the captured workload.
2) You restored the replay database to match the capture database at the start of the workload capture.
3) You resolved all external references.
4) You set up replay clients.
You have the following replay considerations:
1) load testing to be performed
2) all the sessions to connect immediately
3) user waits between issuing calls to be kept to a minimum What replay options would you choose to accomplish the replay?

A. SYNCHRONIZATION = FALSE, THINK_TIME_SCALE = 0, CONNECT_TIME_SCALE = 0 and THINK_TIME_AUTO_CORRECT = FALSE
B. SYNCHRONIZATION = TRUE, THINK_TIME_SCALE = 100, CONNECT_TIME_SCALE = 0 and THINK_TIME_AUTO_CORRECT = FALSE
C. SYNCHRONIZATION = FALSE, THINK_TIME_SCALE = 100, CONNECT_TIME_SCALE = 100 and THINK_TIME_AUTO_CORRECT = TRUE
D. SYNCHRONIZATION = TRUE, THINK_TIME_SCALE = 100, CONNECT_TIME_SCALE = 100 and THINK_TIME_AUTO_CORRECT = FALSE

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 49
You are a DBA in ABC Corp. You are working on an online transaction processing (OLTP) system.The applications running on the database use connection
pooling to connect to the database to perform transactions.
The company wants to upgrade the CPU and the memory for machine on which the production database is running. To test the realistic workload on the new
machine with increased CPU and memory, you identified the peak workload time for the database and captured the workload on the production system.
You set up the test machine with the upgraded CPU and memory, and performed the following operations for replay:
1) You preprocessed the captured workload.
2) You restored the replay database to match the capture database at the start of the workload capture.
3) You resolved all external references.
4) You set up replay clients.
You have the following replay considerations:
1) minimal data divergence to be ensured
2) all sessions to connect immediately.
3) user waits between issuing calls to be kept to a minimum What replay options would you choose to accomplish the replay?

A. SYNCHRONIZATION = TRUE, THINK_TIME_SCALE = 0, CONNECT_TIME_SCALE = 0 and THINK_TIME_AUTO_CORRECT = TRUE
B. SYNCHRONIZATION = TRUE, THINK_TIME_SCALE = 0, CONNECT_TIME_SCALE = 100 and THINK_TIME_AUTO_CORRECT = TRUE
C. SYNCHRONIZATION = TRUE, THINK_TIME_SCALE = 100, CONNECT_TIME_SCALE = 0 and THINK_TIME_AUTO_CORRECT = FALSE
D. SYNCHRONIZATION = TRUE, THINK_TIME_SCALE = 100, CONNECT_TIME_SCALE = 100 and THINK_TIME_AUTO_CORRECT = TRUE

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 50
View the Exhibit and examine the output for the WRC command-line utility that you executed to estimate the number of replay clients.Identify three prerequisites
for completing the replay.
(Choose three.)
A. The replay database should be in the RESTRICTED mode.
B. You need to start at least 21 replay clients on six CPUs to start the replay.
C. The replay directory must have all the replay files that have been preprocessed.
D. The user should be able to use the workload replay package and should have the DBA role.
E. The replay options for think_time_scale and connect_time_scale must be set to 100 each.

Correct Answer: BCD
QUESTION 51
Examine the output of the following query:
SQL> SELECT c.name,a.addr,a.gets,a.misses,a.sleeps,
2 a.immediate_gets,a.immediate_misses,b.pid
3 FROM v$latch a, v$latchholder b, v$latchname c
4 WHERE a.addr = b.laddr(+) and a.latch# = c.latch#
5 AND c.name LIKE ‘&latch_name%’ ORDER BY a.latch#;
LATCH NAME ADDR GETS MISSES SLEEPS IMMEDIATE_GETS IMMEDIATE_MISSES ———— ——– ——– ——- —— ————– —————- shared pool
20016544 8520540 14112 3137 0 0
You calculated the Gets-to-Misses ratio, which is .99834, and this ratio is dropping over a period of time.
Which two actions can improve this? (Choose two.)

A. reducing hard parses
B. increasing the size of the shared pool
C. using only dedicated server connections
D. setting the CURSOR_SHARING parameter to EXACT
E. encouraging the use of more literal SQL statements

Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 52
Examine the output of the following query:
SQL> SELECT c.name,a.addr,a.gets,a.misses,a.sleeps,
2 a.immediate_gets,a.immediate_misses,b.pid
3 FROM v$latch a, v$latchholder b, v$latchname c
4 WHERE a.addr = b.laddr(+) and a.latch# = c.latch#
5 AND c.name LIKE ‘&latch_name%’ ORDER BY a.latch#;
LATCH NAME ADDR GETS MISSES SLEEPS IMMEDIATE_GETS IMMEDIATE_MISSES ———— ——– ——– ——- —— ————– —————- shared pool
20016544 8520540 14112 3137 0 0
Which two conclusions can you draw from this? (Choose two.)

A. The latch was requested in no wait mode.
B. The latch was requested in willing-to-wait mode.
C. The shared pool operations to allocate and free memory in it caused the misses.
D. Automatic Memory Management is not enabled because the IMMEDIATE_GETS and IMMEDIATE_MISSES columns have zero in them.

Correct Answer: BC

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QUESTION 30
View the Exhibit and examine the description for the CUSTOMERS table.

You want to update the CUST_CREDIT_LIMIT column to NULL for all the customers, where CUST_INCOME_LEVEL has NULL in the CUSTOMERS table. Which SQL statement will accomplish the task?
A. UPDATE customers SET cust_credit_limit = NULL WHERE CUST_INCOME_LEVEL = NULL;
B. UPDATE customers SET cust_credit_limit = NULL WHERE cust_income_level IS NULL;
C. UPDATE customers SET cust_credit_limit = TO_NUMBER(NULL) WHERE cust_income_level = TO_NUMBER(NULL);
D. UPDATE customers SET cust_credit_limit = TO_NUMBER(‘ ‘,9999) WHERE cust_income_level IS NULL;

Correct Answer: B Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 31
Which two statements about sub queries are true? (Choose two.)
A. A sub query should retrieve only one row.
B. A sub query can retrieve zero or more rows.
C. A sub query can be used only in SQL query statements.
D. Sub queries CANNOT be nested by more than two levels.
E. A sub query CANNOT be used in an SQL query statement that uses group functions.
F. When a sub query is used with an inequality comparison operator in the outer SQL statement, the column list in the SELECT clause of the sub query should contain only one column.

Correct Answer: BF Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: sub query can retrieve zero or more rows, sub query is used with an inequality comparison operator in the outer SQL statement, and the column list in the SELECT clause of the sub query should contain only one column.
Incorrect answer: A sub query can retrieve zero or more rows C sub query is not SQL query statement D sub query can be nested E group function can be use with sub query
QUESTION 32
View the Exhibit and examine the structure of the PROMOTIONS table.

You have to generate a report that displays the promo name and start date for all promos that started after the last promo in the ‘INTERNET’ category.
Which query would give you the required output?
A. SELECT promo_name, promo_begin_date FROM promotions WHERE promo_begin_date > ALL (SELECT MAX(promo_begin_date) FROM promotions ) AND promo_category = ‘INTERNET’;
B. SELECT promo_name, promo_begin_date FROM promotions WHERE promo_begin_date IN (SELECT promo_begin_date FROM promotions WHERE promo_category=’INTERNET’);
C. SELECT promo_name, promo_begin_date FROM promotions WHERE promo_begin_date > ALL (SELECT promo_begin_date FROM promotions WHERE promo_category = ‘INTERNET’);
D. SELECT promo_name, promo_begin_date FROM promotions WHERE promo_begin_date > ANY (SELECT promo_begin_date FROM promotions WHERE promo_category = ‘INTERNET’);

Correct Answer: C Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 33
Which are /SQL*Plus commands? (Choose all that apply.)
A. INSERT
B. UPDATE
C. SELECT
D. DESCRIBE
E. DELETE
F. RENAME

Correct Answer: D Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Describe is a valid iSQL*Plus/ SQL*Plus command.
INSERT, UPDATE & DELETE are SQL DML Statements. A SELECT is an ANSI Standard SQL Statement

not an iSQL*Plus Statement. RENAME is a DDL Statement.
QUESTION 34
Which two statements are true regarding the COUNT function? (Choose two.)
A. COUNT(*) returns the number of rows including duplicate rows and rows containing NULL value in any of the columns
B. COUNT(cust_id) returns the number of rows including rows with duplicate customer IDs and NULL value in the CUST_ID column
C. COUNT(DISTINCT inv_amt) returns the number of rows excluding rows containing duplicates and NULL values in the INV_AMT column
D. A SELECT statement using COUNT function with a DISTINCT keyword cannot have a WHERE clause
E. The COUNT function can be used only for CHAR, VARCHAR2 and NUMBER data types

Correct Answer: AC Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Using the COUNT Function
The COUNT function has three formats:
COUNT(*)
COUNT(expr)
COUNT(DISTINCT expr)
COUNT(*) returns the number of rows in a table that satisfy the criteria of the SELECT statement, including
duplicate rows and rows containing null values in any of the columns. If a WHERE clause is included in the
SELECT statement, COUNT(*) returns the number of rows that satisfy the condition in the WHERE clause.
In contrast,
COUNT(expr) returns the number of non-null values that are in the column identified by expr. COUNT
(DISTINCT expr) returns the number of unique, non-null values that are in the column identified by expr.

QUESTION 35
Examine the description of the EMP_DETAILS table given below: Exhibit:

Which two statements are true regarding SQL statements that can be executed on the EMP_DETAIL table? (Choose two.)
A. An EMP_IMAGE column can be included in the GROUP BY clause
B. You cannot add a new column to the table with LONG as the data type
C. An EMP_IMAGE column cannot be included in the ORDER BY clause
D. You can alter the table to include the NOT NULL constraint on the EMP_IMAGE column

Correct Answer: BC Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: LONG Character data in the database character set, up to 2GB. All the functionality of LONG (and more) is provided by CLOB; LONGs should not be used in a modern database, and if your database has any columns of this type they should be converted to CLOB. There can only be one LONG column in a table. Guidelines A LONG column is not copied when a table is created using a subquery. A LONG column cannot be
included in a GROUP BY or an ORDER BY clause.
Only one LONG column can be used per table.
No constraints can be defined on a LONG column.
You might want to use a CLOB column rather than a LONG column.

QUESTION 36
Which CREATE TABLE statement is valid?
A. CREATE TABLE ord_details (ord_no NUMBER(2) PRIMARY KEY, item_no NUMBER(3) PRIMARY KEY, ord_date DATE NOT NULL);
B. CREATE TABLE ord_details (ord_no NUMBER(2) UNIQUE, NOT NULL, item_no NUMBER(3), ord_date DATE DEFAULT SYSDATE NOT NULL);
C. CREATE TABLE ord_details (ord_no NUMBER(2) , item_no NUMBER(3), ord_date DATE DEFAULT NOT NULL, CONSTRAINT ord_uq UNIQUE (ord_no), CONSTRAINT ord_pk PRIMARY KEY (ord_no));
D. CREATE TABLE ord_details (ord_no NUMBER(2), item_no NUMBER(3), ord_date DATE DEFAULT SYSDATE NOT NULL, CONSTRAINT ord_pk PRIMARY KEY (ord_no, item_no));

Correct Answer: D Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: PRIMARY KEY Constraint A PRIMARY KEY constraint creates a primary key for the table. Only one primary key can be created for each table. The PRIMARY KEY constraint is a column or a set of columns that uniquely identifies each row in a table. This constraint enforces the uniqueness of the column or column combination and ensures that no column that is part of the primary key can contain a null value. Note: Because uniqueness is part of the primary key constraint definition, the Oracle server enforces the uniqueness by implicitly creating a unique index on the primary key column or columns.
QUESTION 37
See the exhibit and examine the structure of the CUSTOMERS and GRADES tables: You need to display names and grades of customers who have the highest credit limit. Which two SQL statements would accomplish the task? (Choose two.)

A. SELECT custname, grade FROM customers, grades WHERE (SELECT MAX(cust_credit_limit) FROM customers) BETWEEN startval and endval;
B. SELECT custname, grade FROM customers, grades WHERE (SELECT MAX(cust_credit_limit) FROM customers) BETWEEN startval and endval AND cust_credit_limit BETWEEN startval AND endval;
C. SELECT custname, grade FROM customers, grades WHERE cust_credit_limit = (SELECT MAX(cust_credit_limit) FROM customers) AND cust_credit_limit BETWEEN startval AND endval;
D. SELECT custname, grade FROM customers , grades WHERE cust_credit_limit IN (SELECT MAX(cust_credit_limit) FROM customers) AND MAX(cust_credit_limit) BETWEEN startval AND endval;

Correct Answer: BC Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 38
See the Exhibit and Examine the structure of the CUSTOMERS table:

Using the CUSTOMERS table, you need to generate a report that shows an increase in the credit limit by 15% for all customers. Customers whose credit limit has not been entered should have the message “Not Available” displayed.
Which SQL statement would produce the required result?
A. SELECT NVL(cust_credit_limit,’Not Available’)*.15 “NEW CREDIT” FROM customers;
B. SELECT NVL(cust_credit_limit*.15,’Not Available’) “NEW CREDIT” FROM customers;
C. SELECT TO_CHAR(NVL(cust_credit_limit*.15,’Not Available’)) “NEW CREDIT” FROM customers;
D. SELECT NVL(TO_CHAR(cust_credit_limit*.15),’Not Available’) “NEW CREDIT” FROM customers;

Correct Answer: D Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
NVL Function
Converts a null value to an actual value:
Data types that can be used are date, character, and number.
Data types must match:

NVL(commission_pct,0)
NVL(hire_date,’01-JAN-97′)
NVL(job_id,’No Job Yet’)

QUESTION 39
You need to calculate the number of days from 1st Jan 2007 till date:
Dates are stored in the default format of dd-mm-rr.
Which two SQL statements would give the required output? (Choose two.)

A. SELECT SYSDATE – TO_DATE(’01/JANUARY/2007′) FROM DUAL;
B. SELECT TO_DATE(SYSDATE,’DD/MONTH/YYYY’)-’01/JANUARY/2007′ FROM DUAL;
C. SELECT SYSDATE – TO_DATE(’01-JANUARY-2007′) FROM DUAL
D. SELECT SYSDATE – ’01-JAN-2007′ FROM DUAL
E. SELECT TO_CHAR(SYSDATE,’DD-MON-YYYY’)-’01-JAN-2007′ FROM DUAL;

Correct Answer: AC Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 40
Which two are true about aggregate functions? (Choose two.)
A. You can use aggregate functions in any clause of a SELECT statement.
B. You can use aggregate functions only in the column list of the select clause and in the WHERE clause of a SELECT statement.
C. You can mix single row columns with aggregate functions in the column list of a SELECT statement by grouping on the single row columns.
D. You can pass column names, expressions, constants, or functions as parameter to an aggregate function.
E. You can use aggregate functions on a table, only by grouping the whole table as one single group.
F. You cannot group the rows of a table by more than one column while using aggregate functions.
Correct Answer: AD Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 41
See the structure of the PROGRAMS table:

Which two SQL statements would execute successfully? (Choose two.)
A. SELECT NVL(ADD_MONTHS(END_DATE,1),SYSDATE) FROM programs;
B. SELECT TO_DATE(NVL(SYSDATE-END_DATE,SYSDATE)) FROM programs;
C. SELECT NVL(MONTHS_BETWEEN(start_date,end_date),’Ongoing’) FROM programs;
D. SELECT NVL(TO_CHAR(MONTHS_BETWEEN(start_date,end_date)),’Ongoing’) FROM programs;

Correct Answer: AD Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
NVL Function
Converts a null value to an actual value:
Data types that can be used are date, character, and number.
Data types must match:

NVL(commission_pct,0)

NVL(hire_date,’01-JAN-97′)

NVL(job_id,’No Job Yet’)

MONTHS_BETWEEN(date1, date2): Finds the number of months between date1 and date2 . The result
can be positive or negative. If date1 is later than date2, the result is positive; if date1 is earlier than date2,
the result is negative. The noninteger part of the result represents a portion of the month.
MONTHS_BETWEEN returns a numeric value. – answer C NVL has different datatypes – numeric and
strings, which is not possible!

The data types of the original and if null parameters must always be compatible. They must either be of the
same type, or it must be possible to implicitly convert if null to the type of the original parameter. The NVL
function returns a value with the same data type as the original parameter.

QUESTION 42
You issue the following command to drop the PRODUCTS table: SQL>DROP TABLE products;
What is the implication of this command? (Choose all that apply.)
A. All data in the table are deleted but the table structure will remain
B. All data along with the table structure is deleted
C. All views and synonyms will remain but they are invalidated
D. The pending transaction in the session is committed
E. All indexes on the table will remain but they are invalidated
Correct Answer: BCD Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 43
Exhibit contains the structure of PRODUCTS table: Evaluate the following query:
What would be the outcome of executing the above SQL statement?
A. It produces an error
B. It shows the names of products whose list price is the second highest in the table.
C. It shown the names of all products whose list price is less than the maximum list price
D. It shows the names of all products in the table Correct Answer: B

Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 44
See the Exhibits and examine the structures of PRODUCTS, SALES and CUSTOMERS table: You issue the following query:
Which statement is true regarding the outcome of this query?
A. It produces an error because the NATURAL join can be used only with two tables
B. It produces an error because a column used in the NATURAL join cannot have a qualifier
C. It produces an error because all columns used in the NATURAL join should have a qualifier
D. It executes successfully

Correct Answer: B Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: Creating Joins with the USING Clause Natural joins use all columns with matching names and data types to join the tables. The USING clause can be used to specify only those columns that should be used for an equijoin. The Natural JOIN USING Clause The format of the syntax for the natural JOIN USING clause is as follows: SELECT table1.column, table2.column FROM table1 JOIN table2 USING (join_column1, join_column2…); While the pure natural join contains the NATURAL keyword in its syntax, the JOIN…USING syntax does not. An error is raised if the keywords NATURAL and USING occur in the same join clause. The JOIN…USING clause allows one or more equijoin columns to be explicitly specified in brackets after the USING keyword. This avoids the shortcomings associated with the pure natural join. Many situations demand that tables be joined only on certain columns, and this format caters to this requirement.
QUESTION 45
You work as a database administrator at ABC.com. You study the exhibit carefully.
Exhibit:

You want to create a SALE_PROD view by executing the following SQL statements:

Which statement is true regarding the execution of the above statement?
A. The view will be created and you can perform DLM operations on the view
B. The view will not be created because the join statements are not allowed for creating a view
C. The view will not be created because the GROUP BY clause is not allowed for creating a view
D. The view will be created but no DML operations will be allowed on the view
Correct Answer: D Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: Rules for Performing DML Operations on a View You cannot add data through a view if the view includes: Group functions A GROUP BY clause The DISTINCT keyword The pseudocolumn ROWNUM keyword Columns defined by expressions NOT NULL columns in the base tables that are not selected by the view
QUESTION 46
Which three statements are true regarding the data types in Oracle Database 10g/11g? (Choose three.)
A. The BLOB data type column is used to store binary data in an operating system file
B. The minimum column width that can be specified for a VARCHAR2 data type column is one
C. A TIMESTAMP data type column stores only time values with fractional seconds
D. The value for a CHAR data type column is blank-padded to the maximum defined column width
E. Only One LONG column can be used per table

Correct Answer: BDE Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
LONG Character data in the database character set, up to 2GB. All the functionality of LONG (and more) is
provided by CLOB; LONGs should not be used in a modern database, and if your database has any
columns of this type they should be converted to CLOB. There can only be one LONG column in a table.
DVARCHAR2 Variable-length character data, from 1 byte to 4KB. The data is stored in the database
character set. The VARCHAR2 data type must be qualified with a number indicating the maximum length
of the column.
If a value is inserted into the column that is less than this, it is not a problem: the value will only take up as
much space as it needs. If the value is longer than this maximum, the INSERT will fail with an error.
VARCHAR2(size)
Variable-length character data (A maximum size must be specified: minimum size is 1; maximum size is
4,000.)
BLOB Like CLOB, but binary data that will not undergo character set conversion by Oracle Net. BFILE A
locator pointing to a file stored on the operating system of the database server. The size of the files is
limited to 4GB.
TIMESTAMP This is length zero if the column is empty, or up to 11 bytes, depending on the precision
specified.
Similar to DATE, but with precision of up to 9 decimal places for the seconds, 6 places by default.

QUESTION 47
Which three are true? (Choose three.)
A. A MERGE statement is used to merge the data of one table with data from another.
B. A MERGE statement replaces the data of one table with that of another.
C. A MERGE statement can be used to insert new rows into a table.
D. A MERGE statement can be used to update existing rows in a table.

Correct Answer: ACD Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: The MERGE Statement allows you to conditionally insert or update data in a table. If the rows are present in the target table which match the join condition, they are updated if the rows are not present they are inserted into the target table
QUESTION 48
Which two statements are true regarding views? (Choose two.)
A. A sub query that defines a view cannot include the GROUP BY clause
B. A view is created with the sub query having the DISTINCT keyword can be updated
C. A Data Manipulation Language (DML) operation can be performed on a view that is created with the sub query having all the NOT NULL columns of a table
D. A view that is created with the sub query having the pseudo column ROWNUM keyword cannot be updated

Correct Answer: CD Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: Rules for Performing DML Operations on a View You cannot add data through a view if the view includes: Group functions A GROUP BY clause The DISTINCT keyword The pseudocolumn ROWNUM keyword Columns defined by expressions NOT NULL columns in the base tables that are not selected by the view
QUESTION 49
Examine the structure of the EMPLOYEES and NEW_EMPLOYEES tables:

Which DELETE statement is valid?
A. DELETE FROM employees WHERE employee_id = (SELECT employee_id FROM employees);
B. DELETE * FROM employees WHERE employee_id=(SELECT employee_id FROM new_employees);
C. DELETE FROM employees WHERE employee_id IN (SELECT employee_id FROM new_employees WHERE name = `Carrey’);
D. DELETE * FROM employees WHERE employee_id IN (SELECT employee_id FROM new_employees WHERE name = `Carrey’);

Correct Answer: C Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 50
View the Exhibits and examine the structures of the PROMOTIONS and SALES tables.

Evaluate the following SQL statements:

Which statement is true regarding the output of the above query?
A. It gives details of product IDs that have been sold irrespective of whether they had a promo or not
B. It gives the details of promos for which there have been no sales
C. It gives the details of promos for which there have been sales
D. It gives details of all promos irrespective of whether they have resulted in a sale or not Correct Answer: D

Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 51
Examine the structure of the EMPLOYEES table:

Which UPDATE statement is valid?
A. UPDATE employees SET first_name = `John’
SET last_name = `Smith’
WHERE employee_id = 180;

B. UPDATE employees SET first_name = `John’, SET last_name = `Smoth’ WHERE employee_id = 180;
C. UPDATE employee SET first_name = `John’ AND last_name = `Smith’ WHERE employee_id = 180;
D. UPDATE employee SET first_name = `John’, last_name = `Smith’ WHERE employee_id = 180;

Correct Answer: D Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 52
View the Exhibit and evaluate structures of the SALES, PRODUCTS, and COSTS tables.

Evaluate the following SQL statements: Which statement is true regarding the above compound query?

A. It shows products that have a cost recorded irrespective of sales
B. It shows products that were sold and have a cost recorded
C. It shows products that were sold but have no cost recorded
D. It reduces an error Correct Answer: C

Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 53
The PRODUCTS table has the following structure:

Evaluate the following two SQL statements:

Which statement is true regarding the outcome?
A. Both the statements execute and give the same result
B. Both the statements execute and give different results
C. Only the second SQL statement executes successfully
D. Only the first SQL statement executes successfully

Correct Answer: B Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: Using the NVL2 Function The NVL2 function examines the first expression. If the first expression is not null, the NVL2 function returns the second expression. If the first expression is null, the third expression is returned. Syntax NVL2(expr1, expr2, expr3) In the syntax: expr1 is the source value or expression that may contain a null expr2 is the value that is returned if expr1 is not null expr3 is the value that is returned if expr1 is null
QUESTION 54
Which statements are correct regarding indexes? (Choose all that apply.)
A. For each data manipulation language (DML) operation performed, the corresponding indexes are automatically updated.
B. A nondeferrable PRIMARY KEY or UNIQUE KEY constraint in a table automatically creates a unique index.
C. A FOREIGN KEY constraint on a column in a table automatically creates a non unique key D. When a table is dropped, the corresponding indexes are automatically dropped

Correct Answer: ABD Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 55
You work as a database administrator at ABC.com. You study the exhibit carefully. Exhibit:

Which two SQL statements would execute successfully? (Choose two.)
A. UPDATE promotions SET promo_cost = promo_cost+ 100 WHERE TO_CHAR(promo_end_date, ‘yyyy’) > ‘2000’;
B. SELECT promo_begin_date FROM promotions WHERE TO_CHAR(promo_begin_date,’mon dd yy’)=’jul 01 98′;
C. UPDATE promotions SET promo_cost = promo_cost+ 100 WHERE promo_end_date > TO_DATE(SUBSTR(’01-JAN-2000′,8));
D. SELECT TO_CHAR(promo_begin_date,’dd/month’) FROM promotions WHERE promo_begin_date IN (TO_DATE(‘JUN 01 98’), TO_DATE(‘JUL 01 98’));

Correct Answer: AB Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 56
Examine these statements:

CREATE ROLE registrar;
GRANT UPDATE ON student_grades TO registrar;
GRANT registrar to user1, user2, user3;

What does this set of SQL statements do?

A. The set of statements contains an error and does not work.
B. It creates a role called REGISTRAR, adds the MODIFY privilege on the STUDENT_GRADES object to the role, and gives the REGISTRAR role to three users.
C. It creates a role called REGISTRAR, adds the UPDATE privilege on the STUDENT_GRADES object to the role, and gives the REGISTRAR role to three users.
D. It creates a role called REGISTRAR, adds the UPDATE privilege on the STUDENT_GRADES object to the role, and creates three users with the role.
E. It creates a role called REGISTRAR, adds the UPDATE privilege on three users, and gives the REGISTRAR role to the STUDENT_GRADES object.
F. It creates a role called STUDENT_GRADES, adds the UPDATE privilege on three users, and gives the UPDATE role to the registrar.

Correct Answer: C Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: the statement will create a role call REGISTRAR, grant UPDATE on student_grades to registrar, grant the role to user1,user2 and user3.
Incorrect answer: A the statement does not contain error B there is no MODIFY privilege D statement does not create 3 users with the role E privilege is grant to role then grant to user F privilege is grant to role then grant to user
QUESTION 57
Examine the structure of the MARKS table:
Exhibit:

Which two statements would execute successfully? (Choose two.)
A. SELECT student_name,subject1 FROM marks WHERE subject1 > AVG(subject1);
B. SELECT student_name,SUM(subject1) FROM marks WHERE student_name LIKE ‘R%’;
C. SELECT SUM(subject1+subject2+subject3) FROM marks WHERE student_name IS NULL;
D. SELECT SUM(DISTINCT NVL(subject1,0)), MAX(subject1) FROM marks WHERE subject1 > subject2;

Correct Answer: CD Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 58
You are currently located in Singapore and have connected to a remote database in Chicago. You issue the following command:
Exhibit: PROMOTIONS is the public synonym for the public database link for the PROMOTIONS table. What is the outcome?

A. Number of days since the promo started based on the current Singapore data and time.
B. An error because the ROUND function specified is invalid
C. An error because the WHERE condition specified is invalid
D. Number of days since the promo started based on the current Chicago data and time Correct Answer: D

Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 59
Evaluate the following two queries: Exhibit:

Exhibit:

Which statement is true regarding the above two queries?
A. Performance would improve in query 2 only if there are null values in the CUST_CREDIT_LIMIT column
B. Performance would degrade in query 2
C. There would be no change in performance
D. Performance would improve in query 2

Correct Answer: C Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Note: The IN operator is internally evaluated by the Oracle server as a set of OR conditions, such as
a=value1 or a=value2 or a=value3. Therefore, using the IN operator has no performance benefits and is
used only for logical simplicity.

QUESTION 60
View the Exhibit and examine the structure of the CUSTOMERS and CUST_HISTORY tables.

The CUSTOMERS table contains the current location of all currently active customers. The CUST_HISTORY table stores historical details relating to any changes in the location of all current as well as previous customers who are no longer active with the company.
You need to find those customers who have never changed their address. Which SET operator would you use to get the required output?
A. INTERSECT
B. UNION ALL
C. MINUS

D. UNION Correct Answer: C
Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 61
You created an ORDERS table with the following description: Exhibit:

You inserted some rows in the table. After some time, you want to alter the table by creating the PRIMARY KEY constraint on the ORD_ID column.
Which statement is true in this scenario?
A. You cannot add a primary key constraint if data exists in the column
B. You can add the primary key constraint even if data exists, provided that there are no duplicate values
C. The primary key constraint can be created only a the time of table creation
D. You cannot have two constraints on one column

Correct Answer: B Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 62
Which object privileges can be granted on a view?
A. none
B. DELETE, INSERT,SELECT
C. ALTER, DELETE, INSERT, SELECT
D. DELETE, INSERT, SELECT, UPDATE

Correct Answer: D Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: Object privilege on VIEW is DELETE, INSERT, REFERENCES, SELECT and UPDATE. Incorrect answer: A Object privilege on VIEW is DELETE, INSERT, REFERENCES, SELECT and UPDATE B Object privilege on VIEW is DELETE, INSERT, REFERENCES, SELECT and UPDATE C Object privilege on VIEW is DELETE, INSERT, REFERENCES, SELECT and UPDATE
Refer: Introduction to Oracle9i: SQL, Oracle University Study Guide, 13-12
QUESTION 63
When does a transaction complete? (Choose all that apply.)
A. When a PL/SQL anonymous block is executed
B. When a DELETE statement is executed
C. When a data definition language statement is executed
D. When a TRUNCATE statement is executed after the pending transaction
E. When a ROLLBACK command is executed
Correct Answer: CDE Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 64
View the Exhibit and examine the structure of the CUSTOMERS table. Exhibit:

you issue the following SQL statement on the CUSTOMERS table to display the customers who are in the
same country as customers with the last name ‘king’ and whose credit limit is less than the maximum credit limit in countries that have customers with the last name ‘king’.

Which statement is true regarding the outcome of the above query?
A. It produces an error and the < operator should be replaced by < ANY to get the required output
B. It produces an error and the IN operator should be replaced by = in the WHERE clause of the main query to get the required output
C. It executes and shows the required result
D. It produces an error and the < operator should be replaced by < ALL to get the required output

Correct Answer: C Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 65
You need to create a table for a banking application. One of the columns in the table has the following requirements:
You want a column in the table to store the duration of the credit period The data in the column should be stored in a format such that it can be easily added and subtracted with DATE data type without using conversion The maximum period of the credit provision in the application is 30 days the interest has to be calculated for the number of days an individual has taken a credit for
Which data type would you use for such a column in the table?
A. INTERVAL YEAR TO MONTH
B. NUMBER
C. TIMESTAMP
D. DATE
E. INTERVAL DAY TO SECOND
Correct Answer: E Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 66
The STUDENT_GRADES table has these columns: Which statement finds students who have a grade point average (GPA) greater than 3.0 for the calendar year 2001?

A. SELECT student_id, gpa FROM student_grades WHERE semester_end BETWEEN ’01-JAN-2001′ AND ’31-DEC-2001′ OR gpa > 3.;
B. SELECT student_id, gpa FROM student_grades WHERE semester_end BETWEEN ’01-JAN-2001′ AND ’31-DEC-2001′ AND gpa gt 3.0;
C. SELECT student_id, gpa FROM student_grades WHERE semester_end BETWEEN ’01-JAN-2001′ AND ’31-DEC-2001′ AND gpa > 3.0;
D. SELECT student_id, gpa FROM student_grades WHERE semester_end BETWEEN ’01-JAN-2001′ AND ’31-DEC-2001′ OR gpa > 3.0;
E. SELECT student_id, gpa FROM student_grades WHERE semester_end > ’01-JAN-2001′ OR semester_end < ’31-DEC-2001′ AND gpa >= 3.0;

Correct Answer: C Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 67
View the Exhibit and examine the data in the PROMOTIONS table.

You need to display all promo categories that do not have ‘discount’ in their subcategory. Which two SQL statements give the required result? (Choose two.)
A. SELECT promo_category FROM promotions MINUS SELECT promo_category FROM promotions
WHERE promo_subcategory = ‘discount’;
B. SELECT promo_category FROM promotions INTERSECT SELECT promo_category FROM promotions WHERE promo_subcategory = ‘discount’;
C. SELECT promo_category FROM promotions MINUS SELECT promo_category FROM promotions WHERE promo_subcategory <> ‘discount’;
D. SELECT promo_category FROM promotions INTERSECT SELECT promo_category FROM promotions WHERE promo_subcategory <> ‘discount’;
Correct Answer: AD Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 68
You work as a database administrator at ABC.com. You study the exhibit carefully.
Exhibit:

and examine the structure of CUSTOMRS AND SALES tables:
Evaluate the following SQL statement:
Exhibit:
Which statement is true regarding the execution of the above UPDATE statement?
A. It would not execute because the SELECT statement cannot be used in place of the table name
B. It would execute and restrict modifications to only the column specified in the SELECT statement
C. It would not execute because a sub query cannot be used in the WHERE clause of an UPDATE statement
D. It would not execute because two tables cannot be used in a single UPDATE statement Correct Answer: B

Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 69
See the Exhibit and examine the structure of the PROMOTIONS table: Exhibit:

Using the PROMOTIONS table, you need to find out the average cost for all promos in the range $0-2000
and $2000-5000 in category A.
You issue the following SQL statements:
Exhibit:
What would be the outcome?
A. It generates an error because multiple conditions cannot be specified for the WHEN clause
B. It executes successfully and gives the required result
C. It generates an error because CASE cannot be used with group functions
D. It generates an error because NULL cannot be specified as a return value Correct Answer: B

Explanation Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: CASE Expression Facilitates conditional inquiries by doing the work of an IF-THEN-ELSE statement: CASE expr WHEN comparison_expr1 THEN return_expr1 [WHEN comparison_expr2 THEN return_expr2 WHEN comparison_exprn THEN return_exprn ELSE else_expr] END
QUESTION 70
Which two statements are true regarding the USING and ON clauses in table joins? (Choose two.)
A. The ON clause can be used to join tables on columns that have different names but compatible data types
B. A maximum of one pair of columns can be joined between two tables using the ON clause
C. Both USING and ON clause can be used for equijoins and nonequijoins
D. The WHERE clause can be used to apply additional conditions in SELECT statement containing the ON or the USING clause

Correct Answer: AD Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: Creating Joins with the USING Clause If several columns have the same names but the data types do not match, use the USING clause to specify the columns for the equijoin. Use the USING clause to match only one column when more than one column matches. The NATURAL JOIN and USING clauses are mutually exclusive Using Table Aliases with the USING clause When joining with the USING clause, you cannot qualify a column that is used in the USING clause itself. Furthermore, if that column is used anywhere in the SQL statement, you cannot alias it. For example, in the query mentioned in the slide, you should not alias the location_id column in the WHERE clause because the column is used in the USING clause. The columns that are referenced in the USING clause should not have a qualifier (table name oralias) anywhere in the SQL statement. Creating Joins with the ON Clause The join condition for the natural join is basically an equijoin of all columns with the same name. Use the ON clause to specify arbitrary conditions or specify columns to join. ANSWER C The join condition is separated from other search conditions. ANSWER D The ON clause makes code easy to understand.
QUESTION 71
Examine the structure of the EMPLOYEES table:

Which INSERT statement is valid?
A. INSERT INTO employees (employee_id, first_name, last_name, hire_date) VALUES ( 1000, `John’, `Smith’, `01/01/01′);
B. INSERT INTO employees(employee_id, first_name, last_name, hire_date) VALUES ( 1000, `John’, `Smith’, ’01 January 01′);
C. INSERT INTO employees(employee_id, first_name, last_name, Hire_date) VALUES ( 1000, `John’, `Smith’, To_date(`01/01/01′));
D. INSERT INTO employees(employee_id, first_name, last_name, hire_date) VALUES ( 1000, `John’, `Smith’, 01-Jan-01);

Correct Answer: D Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: It is the only statement that has a valid date; all other will result in an error. Answer A is incorrect, syntax error, invalid date format
QUESTION 72
The user Alice wants to grant all users query privileges on her DEPT table. Which SQL statement accomplishes this?
A. GRANT select ON dept TO ALL_USERS;
B. GRANT select ON dept TO ALL;
C. GRANT QUERY ON dept TO ALL_USERS
D. GRANT select ON dept TO PUBLIC;

Correct Answer: D Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: view the columns associated with the constraint names in the USER_CONS_COLUMNS view.
Incorrect answer: A table to view all constraints definition and names B show all object name belong to user C does not display column associated E no such view
Refer: Introduction to Oracle9i: SQL, Oracle University Study Guide, 10-25
QUESTION 73
Which is an iSQL*Plus command?
A. INSERT
B. UPDATE
C. SELECT
D. DESCRIBE
E. DELETE
F. RENAME

Correct Answer: D Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The only SQL*Plus command in this list: DESCRIBE. It cannot be used as SQL command. This command
returns a description of tablename, including all columns in that table, the datatype for each column and an
indication of whether the column permits storage of NULL values.

Incorrect answer:
A INSERT is not a SQL*PLUS command
B UPDATE is not a SQL*PLUS command
C SELECT is not a SQL*PLUS command
E DELETE is not a SQL*PLUS command
F RENAME is not a SQL*PLUS command

Refer: Introduction to Oracle9i: SQL, Oracle University Study Guide, 7
QUESTION 74
You work as a database administrator at ABC.com. You study the exhibit carefully. Exhibit

Using the PROMOTIONS table, you need to display the names of all promos done after January 1, 2001
starting with the latest promo.
Which query would give the required result? (Choose all that apply.)

A. SELECT promo_name,promo_begin_date FROM promotions WHERE promo_begin_date > ’01-JAN-01′ ORDER BY 1 DESC;
B. SELECT promo_name,promo_begin_date “START DATE” FROM promotions WHERE promo_begin_date > ’01-JAN-01′ ORDER BY “START DATE” DESC;
C. SELECT promo_name,promo_begin_date FROM promotions WHERE promo_begin_date > ’01-JAN-01′ ORDER BY 2 DESC;
D. SELECT promo_name,promo_begin_date FROM promotions WHERE promo_begin_date > ’01-JAN-01′ ORDER BY promo_name DESC;

Correct Answer: BC Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 75
See the Exhibit and examine the structure of the SALES, CUSTOMERS, PRODUCTS and ITEMS tables: The PROD_ID column is the foreign key in the SALES table, which references the PRODUCTS table. Similarly, the CUST_ID and TIME_ID columns are also foreign keys in the SALES table referencing the CUSTOMERS and TIMES tables, respectively.

Evaluate the following the CREATE TABLE command:
Exhibit: Which statement is true regarding the above command?

A. The NEW_SALES table would not get created because the column names in the CREATE TABLE command and the SELECT clause do not match
B. The NEW_SALES table would get created and all the NOT NULL constraints defined on the specified columns would be passed to the new table
C. The NEW_SALES table would not get created because the DEFAULT value cannot be specified in the column definition
D. The NEW_SALES table would get created and all the FOREIGN KEY constraints defined on the specified columns would be passed to the new table

Correct Answer: B Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Creating a Table Using a Subquery
Create a table and insert rows by combining the CREATE
TABLE statement and the AS subquery option.
CREATE TABLE table
[(column, column…)]
AS subquery;
Match the number of specified columns to the number of subquery columns.
Define columns with column names and default values.
Guidelines
The table is created with the specified column names, and the rows retrieved by the SELECT statement
are inserted into the table.
The column definition can contain only the column name and default value. If column specifications are
given, the number of columns must equal the number of columns in the subquery SELECT list.
If no column specifications are given, the column names of the table are the same as the column names in
the subquery.
The column data type definitions and the NOT NULL constraint are passed to the new table. Note that only
the explicit NOT NULL constraint will be inherited. The PRIMARY KEY column will not pass the NOT NULL
feature to the new column. Any other constraint rules are not passed to the new table. However, you can
add constraints in the column definition. 1Z0-051

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QUESTION 25
In which two aspects does hot patching differ from conventional patching? (Choose two.)
A. It consumes more memory compared with conventional patching.
B. It can be installed and uninstalled via OPatch unlike conventional patching.
C. It takes more time to install or uninstall compared with conventional patching.
D. It does not require down time to apply or remove unlike conventional patching.
E. It is not persistent across instance startup and shutdown unlike conventional patching.
Correct Answer: AD QUESTION 26
Which statement about the enabling of table compression in Oracle Database 11g is true?
A. Compression can be enabled at the table, tablespace, or partition level for direct loads only.
B. Compression can be enabled only at the table level for both direct loads and conventional DML.
C. Compression can be enabled at the table, tablespace, or partition level for conventional DML only.
D. Compression can be enabled at the table, tablespace, or partition level for both direct loads and conventional DML.

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 27
Which are the prerequisites for performing flashback transactions on your database? (Choose all that apply.)
A. Supplemental log must be enabled.
B. Supplemental log must be enabled for the primary key
C. Undo retention guarantee for the database must be configured.
D. Execute permission on the DBMS_FLASHBACK package must be granted to the user.

Correct Answer: ABD QUESTION 28
You are managing an Oracle Database 11 g database. You want to take the of size 100 TB on tape drive, but you have tape drives of only 10 GB each, quickly and efficiently?
A. intrafile parallel backup
B. parallel image copy backup
C. backup with MAXPIECESIZE configured for the channel
D. parallel backup with MAXPIECESIZE configured for the channel

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 29
Which statements are true regarding the Query Result Cache? (Choose all that apply.)
A. It can be set at the system, session, or table level.
B. It is used only across statements in the same session.
C. It can store the results from normal as well as flashback queries.
D. It can store the results of queries based on normal, temporary, and dictionary tables.

Correct Answer: AC QUESTION 30
You want to analyze a SQL Tuning Set (STS) using SQL Performance Analyzer in a test database. Which two statements are true regarding the activities performed during the test execution of SQLs in a SQL Tuning Set? (Choose two.)
A. Every SQL statement in the STS is considered only once for execution.
B. The SQL statements in the STS are executed concurrently to produce the execution plan and execution statistics.
C. The execution plan and execution statistics are computed for each SQL statement in the STS.
D. The effects of DDL and DML are considered to produce the execution plan and execution statistics.

Correct Answer: AC QUESTION 31
Which two changes and their effect on the system can be tested by using the Database Replay feature?
(Choose two.)
A. multiplexing of the control file
B. database and operating system upgrades
C. adding the redo log member to the database
D. changing the database storage to ASM-managed storage

Correct Answer: BD QUESTION 32
You executed the following commands:
SQL> ALTER SESSION SET OPTIMIZER_USE_PENDING_STATISTICS = false; SQL> EXECUTE
DBMS_STATS.SET_TABLE_PREFS(‘SHI, ‘CUSTOMERS’, ‘PUBLISH’.’false’);
SQL> EXECUTE DBMS_STATS.GATHER_TABLE_STATS(‘SH’, ‘CUSTOMERS’);

Which statement is correct regarding the above statistics collection on the SH.CUSTOMERS table in the above session?
A. The statistics are stored in the pending statistics table in the data dictionary.
B. The statistics are treated as the current statistics by the optimizer for all sessions.
C. The statistics are treated as the current statistics by the optimizer for the current sessions only.
D. The statistics are temporary and used by the optimizer for all sessions until this session terminates.

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 33
The Database Resource Manager is automatically enabled in the maintenance window that runs the Automated Maintenance Task. What is the reason for this?
A. to prevent the creation of an excessive number of scheduler job classes
B. to allow the Automated Maintenance Tasks to use system resources without any restriction
C. to allow resource sharing only among the Automated Maintenance Tasks in the maintenance window
D. to prevent the Automated Maintenance Tasks from consuming excessive amounts of system resources

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 34
Which is the source used by Automatic SQL Tuning that runs as part of the AUTOTASK framework?
A. SQL statements that are part of the AWR baseline only
B. SQL statements based on the AWR top SQL identification
C. SQL statements that are part of the available SQL Tuning Set (STS) only
D. SQL statements that are available in the cursor cache and executed by a user other than SYS

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 35
View the Exhibit and examine the output.

You executed the following command to enable Flashback Data Archive on the EXCHANGE_RATE table:
ALTER TABLE exchange_rate FLASHBACK ARCHIVE;
What is the outcome of this command?

A. The table uses the default Flashback Archive.
B. The Flashback Archive is created on the SYSAUXtablespace.
C. The Flashback Archive is created on the same tablespace where the tables are stored.
D. The command generates an error because no Flashback Archive name is specified and there is no default Flashback Archive-

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 36
View the Exhibit to examine the error during the database startup.

You open an RMAN session for the database instance. To repair the failure, you executed the following as
the first command in the RMAN session:
RMAN> REPAIR FAILURE;
Which statement describes the consequence of the command?

A. The command performs the recovery and closes the failures.
B. The command only displays the advice and the RMAN script required for repair.
C. The command produces an error because the ADVISE FAILURE command has not been executed before the REPAIR FAILURE command
D. The command executes the RMAN script to repair the failure and removes the entry from the Automatic Diagnostic Repository (ADR).

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 37
You issued the following command on the temporary tablespace LMTEMP in your database:
SQL>ALTER TABLESPACE Imtemp SHRINK SPACE KEEP 20M;
Which requirement must be fulfilled for this command to succeed?

A. The tablespace must be locally managed.
B. The tablespace must have only one temp file.
C. The tablespace must be made nondefault and offline.
D. The tablespace can remain as the default but must have no active sort operations. Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 38
You are working as a DBA on the decision support system. There is a business requirement to track and store all transactions for at least three years for a few tables in the database. Automatic undo management is enabled in the database. Which configuration should you use to accomplish this task?
A. Enable Flashback Data Archive for the tables.
B. Enable supplemental logging for the database.
C. Specify undo retention guarantee for the database.
D. Create Flashback Data Archive on the tablespace on which the tables are stored.
E. Query V$UNDOSTAT to determine the amount of undo that will be generated and create an undo tablespace for that size.

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 39
Your organization decided to upgrade the existing Oracle 10g database to Oracle 11 g database in a multiprocessor environment. At the end of the upgrade, you observe that the DBA executes the following script:
SQL>@utlrp.sql
What is the significance of executing this script?
A. It performs parallel recompilation of only the stored PL/SQL code.
B. It performs sequential recompilation of only the stored PL/SQL code.
C. It performs parallel recompilation of any stored PL/SQL as well as Java code.
D. It performs sequential recompilation of any stored PL/SQL as well as Java code.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 40
Which two are the uses of the ASM metadata backup and restore (AMBR) feature? (Choose two.)
A. It can be used to backup all data on ASM disks.
B. It can be used to re-create the ASM disk group with its attributes.
C. It can be used to recover the damaged ASM disk group along with the data.
D. It can be used to gather information about a preexisting ASM disk group with disk paths, disk name, failure groups, attributes, templates, and alias directory structure.
Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 41
You executed the following PL/SQL block successfully:

VARIABLE tname VARCHAR2(20)

BEGIN
dbms_addm.insert_finding_directive (NULL, DIR_NAME=>’Detail CPU Usage1, FINDING_NAME=>’CPU
Usage1,
MIN_ACTIVE_SESSIONS=>0,MIN_PERC_IMPACT=>90);
:tname := ‘database ADDM task4’;
dbms_addm.analyze_db(:tname, 150,162);
END;
/
Then you executed the following command:

SQL> SELECT dbms_addm.get_report(:tname) FROM DUAL; The above command produces Automatic
Database Diagnostic Monitor (ADDM) analysis____.

A. with the CPU Usage finding if it is less than 90
B. without the CPU Usage finding if it is less than 90
C. with the CPU Usage finding for snapshots below 90
D. with the CPU Usage finding for snapshots not between 150 and 162

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 42
Which statements describe the capabilities of the DBMS_NETWORK_ACL_ADMIN package? (Choose all that apply.)
A. It can be used to allow the access privilege settings for users but not roles.
B. It can be used to allow the access privilege settings for users as well as roles.
C. It can be used to control the time interval for which the access privilege is available to a user.
D. It can be used to selectively restrict the access for each user in a database to different host computers.
E. It can be used to selectively restrict a user’s access to different applications in a specific host computer.

Correct Answer: BCD
QUESTION 43
To generate recommendations to improve the performance of a set of SQL queries in an application, you
execute the following blocks of code:

BEGIN
dbms_advisor.create_task(dbms_advisor.sqlaccess_advisor,lTASK1l); END;
/
BEGIN
dbms_advisor.set_task_parameter(lTASK1l,lANALYSIS_SCOPElllALLl);
dbms_advisor.set_task_parameter(lTASK1,,,MODE,llCOMPREHENSIVEl); END;
/
BEGIN
dbms_advisor.execute_task(‘TASK1’);
dbms_output.put_line(dbms_advisor.get_task_script(‘TASK11)); END;
/
The blocks of code execute successfully; however, you do not get the required outcome.
What could be the reason?

A. A template needs to be associated with the task.
B. A workload needs to be associated with the task.
C. The partial or complete workload scope needs to be associated with the task.
D. The type of structures (indexes, materialized views, or partitions) to be recommended need to be specified for the task.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 44
You are managing an Oracle Database 11 g instance with ASM storage. The ASM instance is down. To know the details of the disks in the DATA disk group ,, you issued the following ASMCMD command:
ASMCMD> lsdsk-l -d DATA
Which statement is true regarding the outcome of this command?
A. The command succeeds but it retrieves only the disk names.
B. The command produces an error because the ASM instance is down.
C. The command succeeds but it shows only the status of the ASM instance.
D. The command succeeds and retrieves information by scanning the disk headers based on an ASMJDISKSTRING value.
Correct Answer: D QUESTION 45
You plan to set up the Automatic Workload Repository (AWR) baseline metric thresholds for a moving window baseline. Which action would you take before performing this task?
A. Compute the baseline statistics.
B. Take an immediate AWR snapshot.
C. Decrease the window size for the baseline.
D. Decrease the expiration time for the baseline.

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 46
You need to create a partitioned table to store historical data and you Issued the following command:

CREATE TABLE purchas_interval
PARTITION BY RANGE (time_id)
INTERVAL (NUMTOYMINTERVAL(1 ,’month1)) STORE IN (tbs1 ,tbs2,tbs3)

PARTITION p1 VALUES LESS THAN(TO_DATE(‘1-1-2005I, ‘dd-mm-yyyy’)), PARTITION p2 VALUES
LESS THAN(TO_DATE(‘1-1-2007’, ‘dd-mm-yyyy’))) AS
SELECT *
FROM purchases
WHERE time_id < TO_DATE(‘1-1-2007’l’dd-mm-yyyy’);

What is the outcome of the above command?

A. It returns an error because the range partitions P1 and P2 should be of the same range.
B. It creates two range partitions (P1, P2). Within each range partition, it creates monthwise subpartitions.
C. It creates two range partitions of varying range. For data beyond ‘1-1-2007,’ it creates partitions with a width of |_| one month each
D. It returns an error because the number of tablespaces (TBS1 ,TBS2,TBS3)specified does not match the number of range partitions (P1 ,P2) specified.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 47
View the Exhibit to examine the Automatic Database Diagnostic Monitor (ADDM) tasks.

You executed the following commands:

SQL> VAR tname VARCHAR2(60);
SQL> BEGIN
:tname := lmy_instance_analysis_mode_task,;
DBMS_ADDM .INSERT_SEGMENT_DIRECTIVE(:tname ,lSg_directivel ,’SCOTT1); END;

Which statement describes the consequence?

A. The ADDM task is filtered to suppress the Segment Advisor suggestions for the SCOTT schema.
B. The ADDM task is filtered to produce the Segment Advisor suggestions for the SCOTT schema only.
C. The PL/SQL block produces an error because the my_instance_analysis_mode_task task has not been reset to its initial state.
D. All subsequent ADDM tasks including my_instance_analysis_mode_task are filtered to suppress the Segment Advisor suggestions for the SCOTT schema.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 48
Examine the following PL/SQL block:

DECLARE
my_plans plsjnteger;
BEGIN
My_plans := DBMS_SPM.LOAD_PLANS_FROM_CURSOR_CACHE (sql_Id => ? 9twu5t2dn5xd?;
END;

Which statement is true about the plan being loaded into the SQL plan baseline by the above command?
A. It is loaded with the FIXED status.
B. It is loaded with the ACCEPTED status.
C. It is not loaded with the ENABLED status.
D. It is not loaded with the ACCEPTED status.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 49
View the Exhibit exhibit1 to observe the maintenance window property.

View the Exhibit exhibits to examine the output of the query. Which two statements describe the conclusions? (Choose two.)
A. The window duration should be increased.
B. RESOURCE_PERCENTAGE should be increased.
C. RESOURCE_PERCENTAGE should be decreased.
D. The repeat time for the window should be decreased.

Correct Answer: AB QUESTION 50
Evaluate the following statements: CREATE TABLE purchase_orders
(pojd NUMBER(4),
po_date TIMESTAMP,
supplie_id NUMBER(6),
po_total NUMBER(8,2),
CONSTRAINT order_pk PRIMARY KEY(po_id))
PARTITION BY RANGE(po_date)
(PARTITION Q1 VALUES LESS THAN (TO_DATE(?1-apr-2007?d-mon-yyyy?),

PARTITION Q2 VALUES LESS THAN (TO_DATE(?1-jul-2007?d-mon-yyyy?),

PARTITION Q3 VALUES LESS THAN (TO_DATE(?1-oct-2007?d-mon-yyyy?),

PARTITION Q4 VALUES LESS THAN (TO_DATE(?1-jan-2008?d-mon-yyyy?));

CREATE TABLE purchase_order_items
(po_id NUMBER(4) NOT NULL, product_id NUMBER(6) NOT NULL, unit_price NUMBER(8,2),
quantity NUMBER(8),

CONSTRAINT po_items_fk
FOREIGN KEY (po_id) REFERENCES purchase_orders(po_id)) PARTITION BY REFERENCE
(po_items_fk);

What are the two consequences of the above statements? (Choose two.)

A. Partitions of PURCHASE_ORDER_ITEMS have system-generated names.
B. Both PURCHASEjDRDERS and PURCHASEJDRDERJTEMS tables are created with four partitions each.
C. Partitions of the PURCHASEJDRDERJTEMS table exist in the same tablespaces as the partitions of the PURCHASEJDRDERS table.
D. The PURCHASEJDRDERJTEMS table inherits the partitioning key from the parent table by automatically duplicating the key columns.
E. Partition maintenance operations performed on the PURCHASEJDRDERJTEMS table are automatically reflected in the PURCHASEjDRDERS table.
Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 51
Which statements are true regarding SecureFile LOBs? (Choose all that apply.)
A. The amount of undo retained is user controlled.
B. SecureFile LOBs can be used only for nonpartitioned tables.
C. Fragmentation is minimized by using variable-sized chunks dynamically.
D. SecureFile encryption allows for random reads and writes of the encrypted data.
E. It automatically detects duplicate LOB data and conserves space by storing only one copy.
Correct Answer: CD
QUESTION 52
View the Exhibit for some of the current parameter settings.

A user logs in to the HR schema and issues the following commands:
SQL> CREATE TABLE emp (empno NUMBER(3), enameVARCHAR2(20), sal NUMBER(8,2));
SQL> INSERT INTO emp(empno,ename) VALUES(1 /JAMES’); At this moment, a second user also logs in to the HR schema and issues the following command:
SQL> ALTER TABLE emp MODIFY sal NUMBER(10,2);
What happens in the above scenario?
A. A deadlock is created.
B. The second user’s command executes successfully.
C. The second user’s session immediately produces the resource busy error.
D. The second user’s session waits for a time period before producing the resource busy error.

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 53
You upgraded Oracle Database 10g to Oracle Database 11 g. How would this affect the existing users’ passwords?
A. All passwords automatically become case-sensitive.
B. All passwords remain non-case-sensitive till they are changed.
C. All passwords remain non-case-sensitive and cannot be changed.
D. All passwords remain non-case-sensitive until their password attribute in the profile is altered.

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 54
What recommendations does the SQL Access Advisor provide for optimizing SQL queries? (Choose all that apply.)
A. selection of SQL plan baselines
B. partitioning of tables and indexes
C. creation of index-organized tables
D. creation of bitmap, function-based, and B-tree indexes
E. optimization of materialized views for maximum query usage and fast refresh

Correct Answer: BDE QUESTION 55
Your system has been upgraded from Oracle Database 10g to Oracle Database 11g. You imported SQL Tuning Sets (STS) from the previous version. After changing the OPTIMIZER_FEATURE_ENABLE parameter to 10.2.0.4 and running the SQL Performance Analyzer, you observed performance regression for a few SQL statements.
What would you do with these SQL statements?
A. Set OPTIMIZER_USE_PLAN_BASELINES to FALSE to prevent the use of regressed plans.
B. Capture the plans from the previous version using STS and then load them into the stored outline.
C. Capture the plans from the previous version using STS and then load them into SQL Management Base (SMB).
D. Set OPTIMIZER_CAPTURE_SQL_PLAN_BASELINES to FALSE to prevent the plans from being loaded to the SQL plan baseline.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 56
You are managing Oracle Database 11 g with an ASM storage with high redundancy. The following
command was issued to drop the disks from the dga disk group after five hours:
ALTER DISKGROUP dga OFFLINE DISKS IN FAILGROUP f2 DROP AFTER 5H; Which statement is true
in this scenario?

A. It starts the ASM fast mirror resync.
B. It drops all disk paths from the dga disk group.
C. All the disks in the dga disk group would be OFFLINE and the DISK_REPAIR_TIME disk attribute would be set to 5 hours.
D. All the disks in the dga disk group in failure group f2 would be OFFLINE and the DISK_REPAIR_TIME disk attribute would be set to 5 hours.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 57
View the Exhibit to observe the error.

You receive this error regularly and have to shut down the database instance to overcome the error. What can the solution be to reduce the chance of this error in future, when implemented?
A. locking the SGA in memory
B. automatic memory management
C. increasing the value of SGA_MAX_SIZE
D. setting the PRE_PAGE_SGA parameter to TRUE

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 58
Which three statements are true regarding the functioning of the Autotask Background Process (ABP)? (Choose three.)
A. It translates tasks into jobs for execution by the scheduler
B. It creates jobs without considering the priorities associated with them.
C. It determines the list of jobs that must be created for each maintenance window.
D. It is spawned by the MMON background process at the start of the maintenance window.
E. It maintains a repository in the SYSTEM tablespace to store the history of the execution of all tasks.

Correct Answer: ACD QUESTION 59
You executed the following commands in an RMAN session for your database instance that has failures:
RMAN> LIST FAILURE;
After some time, you executed the following command in the same session:

RMAN> ADVISE FAILURE;

But there are new failures recorded in the Automatic Diagnostic Repository (ADR) after the execution of
the last LIST FAILURE command. Which statement is true for the above ADVISE FAILURE command in
this scenario?

A. It produces a warning for new failures before advising for CRITICAL and HIGH failures.
B. It ignores new failures and considers the failures listed in the last LIST FAILURE command only.
C. It produces an error with recommendation to run the LIST FAILURE command before the ADVISE FAILURE command.
D. It produces advice only for new failures and the failures listed in the last LIST FAILURE command are ignored.

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 60
View the Exhibit to examine the output for the V$DIAG_INFO view.

Which statements are true regarding the location of diagnostic traces? (Choose all that apply.)
A. The path to the location of the background as well as the foreground process trace files is /u01/oracle/diag/rdbms/orclbi/orclbi/trace.
B. The location of the text alert log file is /u01/oracle/diag/rdbms/orclbi/orclbi/alert.
C. The location of the trace file for the current session is/u01/oracle/diag/rdbms/orclbi/orclbi/trace.
D. The location of the XML-formatted version of the alert log is /u01/oracle/diag/rdbms/orclbi/orclbi/alert.

Correct Answer: ACD QUESTION 61
Evaluate the following command:
SQL>ALTER SYSTEM SET db_securefile = ‘IGNORE1;

What is the impact of this setting on the usage of Secure Files?
A. It forces Basic Files to be created even if the SECUREFILE option is specified to create the LOB.
B. It forces Secure Files to be created even if the BASICFILE option is specified to create the LOB.
C. It does not allow the creation of Secure Files and generates an error if the SECUREFILE option is specified to create the LOB.
D. It ignores the SECUREFILE option only if a Manual Segment Space Management tablespace is used and creates a Basic File.

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 62
You are managing an Oracle Database 11g ASM instance with a disk group dg01 having three disks. One of the disks in the disk group becomes unavailable because of power failure. You issued the following command to change the DISK_REPAIR_TIME attribute from 3.6 hours to 5 hours:
ALTER DISKGROUP dg01 SET ATTRIBUTE ‘disk_repair_time’ = ‘5h’;
To which disks in the disk group will the new value be applicable?
A. all disks in the disk group
B. all disks that are currently in OFFLINE mode
C. all disks that are not currently in OFFLINE mode
D. all disks in the disk group only if all of them are ONLINE

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 63
You issued the following RMAN command to back up the database: RMAN> RUN{ ALLOCATE CHANNEL c1 DEVICE TYPE Sbt BACKUP DATABASE TAG quarterly KEEP FOREVER RESTORE POINT FY06Q4;}
Which two statements are true regarding the backup performed? (Choose two.)
A. Archived redo log files are backed up along with data files
B. Only data files are backed up and a restore point named FY06Q4 is created.
C. Archived log files are backed up along with data files, and the archived log files are deleted.
D. The command creates a restore point named FY06Q4 to match the SCN at which this backup is consistent.
Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 64
View the Exhibit to examine a portion of the output from the VALIDATE DATABASE command.
Which statement is true about the block corruption detected by the command?
A. No action is taken except the output in the Exhibit.
B. The corruption is repaired by the command implicitly.
C. The failure is logged into the Automatic Diagnostic Repository (ADR).
D. The ADVISE FAILURE command is automatically called to display the repair script.

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 65
Which two kinds of failures make the Data Recovery Advisor (DRA) generate a manual checklist? (Choose two.)
A. failures because a data file is renamed by error
B. failures when no standby database is configured
C. failures that require no archive logs to be applied for recovery
D. failures due to loss of connectivity-for example, an unplugged disk cable

Correct Answer: AD QUESTION 66
Which two statements are true regarding the starting of the database instance using the following command? (Choose two.)
SQL>STARTUP UPGRADE A. It enables all system triggers.
B. It allows only SYSDBA connections.
C. It ensures that all job queues remain active during the upgrade process.
D. It sets system initialization parameters to specific values that are required to enable database upgrade scripts to be run.

Correct Answer: BD

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QUESTION 22
Which statement is true about configuring users for OMi? (Select three.)
A. They can assume either an administrator’s or an operator’s role, but not both.
B. There needs to be a corresponding user on the OS level.
C. They are separate from other HP BSM modules’ users.
D. Capabilities on the group level are merged with the individual ones.
E. Single-sign-on configurations in the HP BSM platform will be honored.
F. You can export/import them to exchange with other OMi servers.

Correct Answer: DEF
QUESTION 23
How can an OMi user access graphical details of historical load characteristics related to an event?
A. Select Admin > Operations Management > Service Perspective, and then select the event of interest. In the Actions panel, select the Show Performance Graph item in the list.
B. Select Applications > Operations Management > Event Perspective, and then select the event of interest. In the Actions panel, select the Show Performance Graph item in the list.
C. Select Applications > Operations Management > Service Perspective, and then select the event of interest. In the Actions panel, select the Show Performance Graph item in the list.
D. Select Applications > Operations Management > Performance Perspective, and then select the event of interest. In the Actions panel, select the Show Performance Graph item in the list.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 24
When defining a tool, what is a type of run-time parameter that can be inserted into a command?
A. CI Attributes
B. Event Settings
C. HP BSM Host
D. Management Server Attributes
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 25
What is the primary reason for associating a tool with a category?
A. to aid in report creation
B. to assign tools to CI types
C. to control access to tools
D. to sort the list of tools in the operator interface
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 26
What is a key benefit of OMi?
A. frees up operator time by passing incidents across to subject matter experts
B. pinpoints who fixed incidents
C. frees up subject matter experts by de-skilling diagnosis of incidents
D. shows how quickly incidents were fixed

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 27
What is a key benefit of TBEC?
A. to identify the affected CIs
B. to identify the servers from which the message came
C. to give the status of affected CIs
D. to enable the identification of root cause events

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 28
How does OMi, in ITIL terminology, provide the highest value?
A. as an incident correlator
B. as an incident consolidator
C. as an integration between the CMDB and incidents
D. as an Operations Bridge

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 29
For most executives, what is the primary financial driver for investing in OMi?
A. to enable first line IT operations staff to resolve a larger percentage of technical issues
B. to enable first line IT operations staff to quickly and seamlessly escalate to the more experienced subject matter experts
C. to enable experienced subject matter experts to access event information and tools
D. to enable IT managers to easily determine the effectiveness of each IT operations team member

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 30
What does OMi in the HP BSM Platform provide?
A. bottom up analysis from agentry
B. bottom up analysis from Operations Manager
C. the link between bottom up and top down analyses
D. top down analysis of service information

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 31
In a comprehensive HP BSM deployment, OMi is required to provide which functionality to the BSM solution set?
A. consolidated view of events received from a wide variety of sources in the IT environment
B. Top View graphical display of business services and underlying CIs, color-coded based on KPI status
C. the capability to alert business service owners of performance and threshold breaches
D. Impact Analysis, based on interdependencies between CIs and preconfigured impact rules
Correct Answer: A QUESTION 32
Which statement is true about the Health Indicator?
A. It provides detailed information about the health of the HP BSM server.
B. It provides the connection between events and KPIs.
C. It is reset upon closure of an event.
D. It is synchronized with the domain manager.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 33
An HP BSM installation already has an Event Management license deployed. Which additional license is required in order to include a system managed by a third-party (non-HP) management solution, where events are consolidated in OMi?
A. Target Connector license
B. Topology-Based Event Correlation license
C. No additional license is required
D. Operations Manager license

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 34
Which panels used by operators to search, select, analyze, and resolve events does the OMi user interface provide by default? (Select three.)
A. Health Perspective
B. Event Perspective
C. System Availability Management
D. Key Indicator Perspective
E. Performance Perspective
F. Service Level Management Perspective

Correct Answer: ABE
QUESTION 35
Why is a Global ID used?
A. to allow CIs to be mapped to models in the CMDB
B. to identify the system uniquely
C. to identify the CI uniquely across the BTO portfolio
D. to identify the source of Operations Manager messages
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 36
Which statement is true about Event Type Indicator (ETI) values used in TBEC rules?
A. ETIs are not used in TBEC rules.
B. The name and value of the ETI must match those specified in the TBEC rule.
C. The name of the ETI must match the one specified in the TBEC rule.
D. The value of the ETI must match one of the values specified in the TBEC rule.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 37
An event that has been identified as a “cause” event is closed by an operator, and all of the associated

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