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QUESTION NO: 21
Identity the true statement about Custom Menus.
A. Custom menus can provide links to data forms, Business Rules, URLs, and Planning preferences.
B. Custom menus require Java scripting knowledge to create.
C. You can assign security to custom menus so that only specific users or groups can see the custom menu.
D. Custom menus are assigned to data forms only.
E. Custom menus are limited to a single list of tasks; you cannot group them into sub categories.
Answer: A
Explanation: Custom menus can be used to launch the following:


Business Rules


Context sensitive data forms


URL


Context sensitive Process Management

QUESTION NO: 22
A planner is supposed to be able to submit data within a data form.
What are all the possible causes for an end user not being able to enter data on a data form? Select all that apply.
A. The planning unit is set to first pass.
B. Another user owns the planning unit.
C. The user has read access to the members on the data form.
D. The form contains summary-level members in a bottom up version.
E. The form is set to Read Only.
Answer: C,D,E Explanation: C, E: By assigning access to a data form, you control which users can change its design (for example, its layout and instructions) and input data. Users can select only members to which they have read or write access. Users can edit data forms only if they have access to at least one member of each secured dimension. For example, if users have read-only access to the Europe entity, the rows and columns on data forms that include the Europe entity are displayed as read-only. Users can change data only for members to which they have write access.
D: For bottom-up versions, rows and columns with level 0 members allow data entry. Rows or columns set to a parent member are read-only. The point of view must also be set to the level 0 member to allow data entry on a bottom-up version. Target versions allow data entry in parent and children members.
If you assign children to bottom-up versions, these versions display as read-only parents on data forms.

QUESTION NO: 23
The Hyperion Planning administrator needs to run several calculations in a specific order against two different databases within the application. Identify the two options that are not valid.
A. Esscmd
B. Calc Script
C. Business Rule Sequence
D. MaxL
E. Business Rule Macro
Answer: A,D Explanation:
ESSCMD is the original command line interface for administration commands.
MaxL, a “multi-dimensional database access language” which provides both a superset of
ESSCMD commands, but with a syntax more akin to SQL, as well as support for MDX queries.

QUESTION NO: 24
Assuming the following dimensions and members:
Scenario – Actual, Budget and Year – 2010, 2011, you need to create a data form with two columns. One column should list Actual for 2010 and the second column should list Budget 2011. You do not want to show data for Actual 2011 even though the first three months of the year have been loaded from the GL.
What is the best way to only show the 2 columns in the data form?
A. You cannot build a data form with these two columns, hour columns will display: Actual >2010, Actual >2011, Budget->2010 and Budget >2011
B. Use Segments on the data form to create the asymmetric columns.
C. Use User Variables on the data form to create the asymmetric columns.
D. Use a composite data form to meet this requirement.
E. Use data suppression on the data form.
Answer: B
Explanation: Asymmetric rows and columns are ones in which different sets of members are selected across the same dimension.

QUESTION NO: 25
Identify the three true statements about weekly distribution.
A. For Weekly Distribution options 445, 454, 544, the quarterly values are treated as if they are divided into 13 weeks and the weeks are distributed via a pattern you specify.
B. The only valid weekly distribution options are 445, 454, and 544.
C. If you select the 4-5-4 Weekly distribution option, Planning treats the first month in the quarter as if it has 4 weeks, the second month as If it has 5 weeks, and the third month as if it has 4 weeks.
D. If you choose weekly distribution for Custom-based time periods. Planning will not distribute the data values across base periods.
E. Weekly distribution determines how data entered into summary periods should spread to its base periods.
Answer: A,C,E Explanation: A: If you select a weekly distribution pattern other than Even, Planning treats quarterly values as if they were divided into 13 weeks and distributes weeks according to the selected pattern.
E: Weekly distribution sets the monthly distribution pattern, based on the number of fiscal weeks in a month. This determines how data in summary time periods spreads within the base time period. When users enter data into summary time periods, such as quarters, the value is distributed over base time periods in the summary time period.

QUESTION NO: 26
What are the three supported methods to create and update a member and its properties (assuming Classic or non-Classic Planning applications)?
A. Planning Web Client
B. EAS
C. EPMA
D. DRM
E. Outline Load Utility
Answer: A,B,C Explanation: A: Planning Web Client provides complete functionality for Web users. Use the Web interface to roll out applications to large, distributed organizations without installing software on client computers. All software resides on the server. Many administrative features that were formerly in the Planning Desktop are now available through Planning Web.
B: Oracle Hyperion Essbase Administration Services (Essbase Administration Services) software is a robust, cross-platform graphical user interface that makes Essbase administration tasks easy to perform. Administrators can simultaneously view and edit properties for multiple Hyperion Essbase databases, applications, users, scripts, and other objects from a single intuitive view. Essbase Administration Services also provides wizards, editors, dynamic menus, and other tools to help you implement, monitor, and maintain analytic and enterprise performance management applications.
C: Enterprise Performance Management Architect (EPMA) enables administrators to manage, create, and deploy Hyperion applications within one interface. EPMA can do adds, moves, modify properties, etc.

QUESTION NO: 27
Identify the one Planning component that is not accessible over the Web.
A. Dimension Editor for Planning
B. Shared Services
C. Exchange Rates Definition
D. Planning Utilities
E. Create and Manage Database Options
F. Create Data Sources
Answer: D
Explanation: Hyperion Planning Utilities can only be used locally.
QUESTION NO: 28
Identify two true statements about the DATAEXPORT calc script command.
A. Using DATAEXPORT within the FIX statement of a calc script allows you to export specific data sets from an Essbase database.
B. DATAEXPORT only exports level zero data.
C. DATAEXPORT only exports to flat files.
D. DATAEXPORT only exports entire data blocks.
E. DATAEXPORT is faster than Essbase Report.
Answer: A,E
Explanation: A: To develop a calculation script that exports a subset of data, you first specify the
SET
DATAEXPORTOPTIONS command to define options for export content, format, and process Use
FIX#ENDFIX or EXCLUDE#ENDEXCLUDE calculations to select a slice of the database and
use a DATAEXPORTCOND command to select data based on data values.

Note: The DATAEXPORT command enables calculation scripts to export data in binary or text, or
directly to a relational database. A set of data-export-related calculation commands qualify what
data to export and provide various output and formatting options.

Compared to using other methods to export data, using a calculation script has the following
advantages and disadvantages:
Advantages:
Enables exporting a subset of data.

*
Supports multiple targets: flat files, relational databases, and binary files (not B, C, D)

*
Provides many flexible options for type and format or data.

*
As part of a calculation script, can be easily deployed in a batch process.

*
Can be very fast when the dynamic calculation export option is not used because DATAEXPORT directly accesses Kernel storage blocks in memory. (E)

*
Provides, through binary export-import, a faster way to back up and restore data because the compressed format used by binary export requires less storage for the export files.

*
Can be used as a debug tool to trace batch calculation results by using the DATAEXPORT command before and after other calculation commands to track data changes.
Disadvantages
Contains limited data formatting options compared to Report Writer formatting.
QUESTION NO: 29
Identify the three true statements about attribute dimensions.
A. Planning supports hierarchies and aliases for attribute dimensions.
B. Planning supports all attribute types (for example. Boolean, Date, Text).
C. Planning supports varying attributes (where an attribute can vary over one or more other dimensions).

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QUESTION 1
You write a PeopleCode program that checks whether the user is selecting an existing search key value on the Search page or creating a new search key value. Which system variable do you use?
A. %Add
B. &Add
C. %Mode
D. &Mode
E. %Search
F. &Search

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 2
Which three statements are true regarding Query Profile? (Choose three.)
A. The Query Profiles page enables users to runexisting queries and create new ones.
B. The Query Profiles page enables you to specify the type of access that users have when they work with PeopleSoft Query.
C. By default, the query profile does not give users access to all PeopleSoft Query features,even if you gave them access to PeopleSoft Query.
D. If a user has more than one permission list, PeopleSoft Query uses the highest time-out value as defined in the Time-out Minutes section of the user’s permission lists.
E. The Query Profiles page enablesyou to restrict the types of queries that users can create, limit the number of rows returned, or set the time that a query can run before it times out.
F. By default, the Only Allowed to Run Queries option on the Query Profiles page is selected, and eachpermission list that is granted to a user or role has the possibility to have capabilities added.

Correct Answer: BDE QUESTION 3
Examine this PeopleCode snippet:
class OCP_ROWSET extends Rowset;
property integer FilledRowCount get;
method OCP_ROWSET(&strRecName As string, &strDataFld As string, &strGetOrCreate As string);

method InsertRow(&iRow As integer) Returns boolean; Select the correct statements. (Choose all that apply.)
A. OCP_ROWSET is the constructor method for the OCP_ROWSET class.
B. Executing the RO_ROWSET method instantiates an object of the OCP_ROWSET class.
C. The OCP_ROWSET method runs automatically whenever an object is instantiated using the OCP_ROWSET class.
D. The OCP_ROWSET method must initialize the ROWSET class.
E. The OCP_ROWSET method is added to the ROWSET class, and, by extension, to any instances of the ROWSET class.

Correct Answer: ACD QUESTION 4
View the Exhibit.
You are testing an application that you just completed. You access the content reference and select a search key. When you click the Search button, you see the error shown in the image.
Select the next course of action.

A. Remove the PS_TS_EMP_REVIEW field from the record definition.
B. Run the Alter process for the PS_TS_EMP_REVIEW record definition.
C. Run the Build process for the PS_TS_EMP_REVIEW record definition.
D. Examine the record definition properties and manually create a BUILD script.
E. Verify that you created and properly configured the PS_TS_EMP_REVIEW page.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 5
Are parameters passed to user-defined internal and external PeopleCode functions by reference or by value?
A. The first parameter is the input parameter, and the second parameter is output parameter.
B. User-defined internal and external PeopleCode functionparameters are always passed by value.
C. User-defined internal and external PeopleCode function parameters are always passed by reference.
D. User-defined internal and external PeopleCode function parameters can be passed as input or as output, dependingon the function.
E. User-defined internal and external PeopleCode function parameters can be passed by reference or by value, depending on the function.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 6
Select the two rules about PeopleSoft prompt table mechanics. (Choose two.)
A. The prompt matches fields based on name, data type, and length.
B. The prompt automatically filters the rows based on higher-level key values in the buffer.
C. The prompt selects the highest-level key on the prompt record definition unless the EFFDT field is present.
D. The prompt automatically selects for the lowest-level key on the prompt record definition ignoring the EFFDT and EFF_STATUS fields.

Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 7
Select the two characteristics of summary pages that set them apart from non-summary pages. (Choose two.)
A. They are display-only.
B. They contain only level zero.
C. They typically contain no related fields.
D. They reference one record definition.
Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 8
Here is a partial list of events in the Component Processor flow. 1.SQL select
2.
Search page

3.
Record defaults

4.
Add row to buffer

5.
Standard system field edits

6.
Wait for user interaction What is the correct order?
A. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6
B. 2, 1, 4, 3, 6, 5
C. 6, 2, 1, 4, 3, 5
D. 2, 1, 3, 4, 5, 6
E. 2, 4, 5, 1, 3, 6

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 9
Select the three primary advantages of using the Message Catalog. (Choose three.)
A. Messages are reusable.
B. You can enter messages through a browser.
C. Developers can secure messages through Definition Security.
D. Developers can search for and use messages in Application Designer.
E. Messages in the catalog are easier to translate in globalization situations.

Correct Answer: ABE QUESTION 10
View the Exhibits.
Examine the two pages and select the correct statement.
A. You can group these pages in the same component.
B. You cannot group these pages in the same component.

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 11
Select the four items that you can use as translate values for the COLOR field. (Choose four.)
A. BLK
B. W-02
C. BRWN
D. PURPL
E. BLACK
F. 1-BL
Correct Answer: ABCF QUESTION 12
View the Exhibit.
Which two PeopleCode snippets contain syntax errors? (Choose two.)
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
E. 5

Correct Answer: BE
QUESTION 13
View the Exhibit.
You begin to register a component using the registration wizard. Based on the values that appear in the dialog box, select the best course of action.

A. Continue registering the component as it is.
B. Stop the registration process to investigate why this component isalready registered.
C. Change the user-facing fields to mixed case and make them less technical and then continue registering the component.

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 14
Select the three tasks that you can perform using the Registration Wizard. (Choose three.)
A. Add pages to existing components.
B. Add components to existing menus.
C. Add components to a portal registry.
D. Add components to a permission list.
E. Create new menus and add components to the new menus.

Correct Answer: BCD QUESTION 15
View the Exhibit.
Based on this Build dialog box, select the two options that are true. (Choose two.)
A. When you click the Build button, the TS_EMP tables are created.
B. When you click the Build button, nothing happens to your database.
C. When you click the Build button, the TS_EMP tables may lose existing data.
D. When you click the Build button, the TS_INSTSCHD_VW view is created.
E. When you click the Build button, Application Designer generates a script file.

Correct Answer: BE QUESTION 16
What type of PeopleCode looping construct continues to loop as long as the logical_expression evaluates to TRUE?
A. For
B. While
C. Do While
D. Do Until
E. Repeat-Until

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 17
View the Exhibit.
As the Component Processor loads a component, it executes PeopleCode programs according to buffer allocation rules. Each row in the table represents a PeopleCode program and its associated definition, scroll level, and
event.
In what order will the programs execute?
A. A, B, C, D, E
B. A, D, E, B, C
C. B, C, A, D, E
D. A, C, D, B, E
E. E, D, C, B, A

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 18
The Run Status column on the Process List page indicates the current state of a process.
Assume that the Process Scheduler server is running, which three statements are true regarding the Run Status column on the Process List page? (Choose three.)
A. Initiated status indicates that a PeopleSoft Process Scheduler Server has acknowledged the new request. At this time, PeopleSoft Process Scheduler validates the parameters that are associated with this request and submits the command line to start the process.
B. Queued status indicates that this process has successfully initiated the program and the program is running.
C. Pending status indicates that this item is waiting for a previous item in the job before PeopleSoft Process Scheduler releases this item. When the previous item has completed successfully, PeopleSoft Process Scheduler changes the status of the item to Queued.
D. Processing status indicates that PeopleSoft ProcessScheduler has successfully initiated the program, and that the program is running.
E. No Success status is same as the Error status, which indicates that the program that is associated with the process request encountered an error while processing transactions within the program.

Correct Answer: ACD
QUESTION 19
For the Employee Expenses application, a PeopleCode program could be placed either on the EMPLOYEE record or on the EMP_EXPENSE component. You decide to place it on the component.
Which is a valid reason for choosing to place the program on the component instead of the record?
A. The program updates multiple database tables.
B. The program validates data across multiple records.
C. Component PeopleCode executes before record PeopleCode, so it is more efficient.
D. The record definition is used on several components, but this program should run only on this component.
E. The program initializes fields on the search page, and the search record is associated with the component.
F. The component contains several record definitions and you do not want to duplicate the code in each record.
G. Component PeopleCode is more reusable because component PeopleCode is available for execution on other components.
Correct Answer: D QUESTION 20
Select three steps that you perform when you create a subrecord. (Choose three.)
A. Insert fields.
B. Build the record.
C. Set field properties.
D. Set record field properties.
E. Select the SubRecord record type.

Correct Answer: ADE

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QUESTION 1
ABC Corp. has a requirement to share business documents from its Oracle E-Business Suite Release12 (EBS) instance with external business-to-business (B2B) exchange partners. Select the best method that you would recommend to meet this requirement.
A. Build a workflow process and integrate it with external B2B exchange.
B. Use notification mailer to share the documents with external B2B exchange.
C. Use Oracle Applications Framework to integrate with external B2B exchange.
D. Use the Advanced Workflow Mailer functionality in Oracle E-Business Suite Release 12.
E. Build a workflow process and use Business Event System to integrate it with an external B2B exchange partner.

Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 2
In Oracle E-Business Suite Release 12, Multiple Language Support (MLS) refers to the ability to support multiple languages in the same Oracle Application instance. Which three statements concerning MLS are true? (Choose three.)
A. Oracle E-Business Suite Release 12 is available in multiple languages.
B. Oracle E-Business Suite Release 12 translates all data entered by the user.
C. UTF8 is the recommended character set for installations that support multiple languages.
D. The character set you choose during installation determines which languages the instance can support.
E. The extended multilingual support present in the Oracle E-Business Suite Release 12 data model can increase database storag requirements.

Correct Answer: CDE
QUESTION 3
Identify three features of shared entities in Oracle E-Business Suite Release 12. (Choose three.)
A. enable one-time definition of objects
B. are referenced by several Oracle Application modules
C. are defined in each Oracle Application module separately
D. are owned by a single Oracle Application module for table purposes only
E. are owned by a single Oracle Application module to designate the primary user or decision maker

Correct Answer: ABD
QUESTION 4
You can enter and view dates in any valid format in Oracle E-Business Suite Release 12. You can also enter and view numbers with either the period (full stop) character or comma as the decimal separator. Regardless of the various formats that can be used to enter dates and numbers, the actual values are stored in the database in the _____.
A. UTF8 format
B. ASCII format
C. US7ASCII character set
D. Standard number format
E. Uniform canonical format

Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 5
Which Oracle resource would you use to log, manage, and resolve product-related issues that you encounter in Oracle E-Business Suite Release 12?
A. AppsNet
B. MetaLink
C. AppsWorld
D. Bug Database
E. Oracle Technology Network (OTN)

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 6
ABC Corp. wants to track and analyze call volumes in its enterprise call centers. Which Daily Business Intelligence product can help achieve this objective?
A. Sales Intelligence
B. Quoting Intelligence
C. Interaction Center Intelligence
D. Service Contracts Intelligence

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 7
Identify three features of Key Flexfields. (Choose three.)
A. Key Flexfields are used as identifiers for entities.
B. The Key Flexfield structure comprises Segments.
C. A Key Flexfield structure consists of multiple code combinations.
D. Key Flexfields appear as a single-space field enclosed in brackets.
E. Each segment of a Key Flexfield usually contains meaningful information.

Correct Answer: ABE
QUESTION 8
Select the three options available when creating the Security profile for Multi-Org Access Control. (Choose three.)
A. View all Organizations
B. Secure by Business Groups
C. Secure by Inventory Organizations
D. Secure by Operating Unit and Inventory Organization
E. Secure Organizations by Organization list and/or hierarchy

Correct Answer: ADE
QUESTION 9
Select four required attributes when defining a Ledger in Oracle E-Business Suite Release 12. (Choose four.)
A. Calendar
B. Currency
C. Legal Entity
D. Business Group
E. Chart of Accounts
F. Accounting Convention
Correct Answer: ABEF
QUESTION 10
A table has 15 Attribute columns to capture additional information. The attributes 1-12 are set up in the Descriptive Flexfield as Global Segments. How many attributes can be set up under any new context?
A. 1
B. 3
C. 15
D. 12
E. 11

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 11
Company X has three Operating Units: A, B, and C. Each Operating Unit has the MO:Security Access profile option called ABC Security assigned. Operating Unit A has both the MO: Operating Unit profile option and the MO: Default Operating Unit profile option assigned to it.
Which statement is true?
A. Paul can create transactions for the A, B, and C Operating Units.
B. All transactions created by Paul are automatically assigned to the Operating Unit A.
C. Paul can report on data across A, B, and C Operating Units, but enter transactions only against A.
D. The profile option did not include Operating Unit B and Operating Unit C due to an error by the system administrator.
E. The Payables responsibility is linked to the Operating Unit A by the MO: Operating Unit profile option and can create transactions for that Operating Unit alone.

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 12
A global company uses Oracle E-Business Suite Release 12 for its operations in the U.S. and Canada. The company is now adding Mexico to the Oracle E-Business Suite Release 12 Applications. As a system administrator, you need to set the MO: Operating Unit profile option for Mexico. Customer is not using Multi-Org Access Control. You set the MO: Operating Unit profile option at the _____ level.
A. Site
B. User
C. Application
D. Responsibility
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 13
Identify the minimum prerequisites that should be met for deleting an Oracle Alert.
A. Alert has no history and no enabled action sets.
B. Alert has no history and no outstanding responses.
C. Alert has no enabled action sets and no outstanding responses.
D. Alert has no history, no enabled action sets, and no outstanding responses.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 14
The APPL_TOP directory in Oracle E-Business Suite Release 12 contains _____.
A. redo log files
B. database files
C. data tablespaces
D. index tablespaces
E. the system tablespace
F. the product directories and files for Oracle Applications

Correct Answer: F
QUESTION 15
Which business flow is used for activities starting from product purchase to creating and closing service requests?
A. Click to Order
B. Campaign to Order
C. Contract to Renewal
D. Request to Resolution

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 16
ABC Corporation will be implementing Oracle E-Business Suite Release 12. Purchasing, Payables, Receivables, General Ledger, Assets, Projects, Order Management and Cash Management will be implemented. Select three business flows that would involve these products. (Choose three.)
A. Click to Order
B. Order to Cash
C. Procure to Pay
D. Project to Profit
E. Demand to Build
F. Campaign to Order

Correct Answer: BCD
QUESTION 17
Identify two Descriptive Flexfield components whose values are used to determine Contexts. (Choose two.)
A. the Context field
B. Global Segments
C. the Reference field
D. Context-sensitive Segments

Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 18
Daily Business Intelligence reporting is available across all major product areas. Identify the Daily Business Intelligence tool that would provide manufacturing costs for an item over time by various cost elements.
A. Product Intelligence
B. Financials Intelligence
C. Purchasing Intelligence
D. Commodity Intelligence
E. Manufacturing Intelligence
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 19
What is the base release for Oracle E-Business Suite Release 12?
A. 11.0.0
B. 12.0.0
C. 12.0.1
D. 11.0.1
E. 12.1.0

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 20
Identify the sequence of steps to determine the Descriptive Flexfield name on a form in Oracle E- Business
Suite Release 12 with Diagnostics enabled.

1) Select Help > Diagnostics > Examine.
2) The username of the DFF appears in the Value field.
3) Select the DFF name from the list of values in the “Field” field.
4) Select the “$DESCRIPTIVE_FLEXFIELD$” value for the Block name.

A. 1, 2, 3, 4
B. 1, 4, 3, 2
C. 1, 3, 4, 2
D. 4, 3, 1, 2

Correct Answer: B

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QUESTION 1
Which optional parameter of the DESCRIPTION clause of a TNS entry can you use to randomize the access to available listeners?
A. FAILOVER
B. LOAD_BALANCE
C. SOURCE_ROUTE
D. TYPE_OF_SERVICE
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 2
You are working as a DBA in a RAC environment that is available for testing. The RAC environment has all the database files stored in the OCFS file system. You plan to install ASM and move all the database files to ASM to achieve better performance. During the installation, you selected redundancy level as normal for the disk group being added. What is the reason for selecting this redundancy level?
A. You want to use hardware mirroring.
B. You do not want to have any mirroring in the disk group.
C. You have two failure groups defined, so you want to use two-way mirroring.
D. You have three failure groups defined, so you want to use three-way mirroring.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 3
You are running a two-instance database with six redo log groups defined and decide to add a third thread to support a third database instance on the third node of the cluster. Which three commands would you issue to achieve this using command line administration? (Choose three.)
A. ALTER SYSTEM ENABLE THREAD 3;
B. ALTER DATABASE ENABLE THREAD 3;
C. ALTER SYSTEM ADD LOGFILE THREAD 3 GROUP 8;
D. ALTER SYSTEM ADD LOGFILE THREAD 3 GROUP 7;
E. ALTER DATABASE ADD LOGFILE THREAD 3 GROUP 7;
F. ALTER DATABASE ADD LOGFILE THREAD 3 GROUP 8;
Correct Answer: BEF
QUESTION 4
Which initialization parameter would you use for each RAC instance to make sure that each listener on each RAC node is aware of the load of all the others?
A. LOCAL_LISTENER
B. REMOTE_LISTENER
C. REMOTE_DEPENDENCIES_MODE
D. PREFER_LEAST_LOADED_NODE_<listener-name>
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 5
You have a well-tuned, non-RAC single instance Oracle database with several services, all of which perform perfectly. You plan to migrate the database to RAC in the next two weeks and all file systems would be shared using Oracle Cluster File System. After the migration, you want to perform a test to monitor RAC-specific tuning issues that would not have occurred on a non-RAC database. Which six areas would you monitor to determine whether there are RAC-specific performance problems after migration? (Choose six.)
A. Interconnect latency
B. Instance recovery time
C. Services with applications that use external tables
D. Services with applications that truncate large tables
E. Services with applications using local context variables
F. Services with query-intensive applications relying on full table scans
G. Services with insert-intensive applications that use Oracle sequences for index keys
H. Services with applications that have occasional queries, using index access on modestly sized tables
I. Services with insert-intensive applications that generate their own keys without Oracle sequences

Correct Answer: ABDFGI
QUESTION 6
After a power failure, you noticed that one of your cluster database instances did not start automatically, whereas all other instances came up successfully. What would you do to determine the precise cause for the instance startup failure? (Choose three.)
A. Check the resource state by using the CRS_STAT command.
B. Check for OCR corruptions by using the OCRCHECK command.
C. Check the alert.log file that belongs to the instance that did not start.
D. Check the alert.log file that belongs to the Oracle Clusterware software.
E. Check if the Oracle Clusterware is functional by using the CRSCTL command.
F. Reboot the node where the failing instance resides to check if the problem is persistent.
G. Enable extra debugging in the Oracle Clusterware software by using the CRSCTL command.

Correct Answer: ACD
QUESTION 7
View the Exhibit, which displays the cluster database performance page after the same workload has been executed three times on your cluster without varying any non-Oracle workloads on the cluster.
What are the two ways by which you can tell that the corresponding application was better tuned during the second and third execution? (Choose two.)

A. There is less paging each time.
B. The run queue length is going down each time.
C. It takes less time to execute the workload each time.
D. The number of transactions per second is getting higher each time.
E. The database throughput graphic is below the red dashed line during the last execution.

Correct Answer: CD
QUESTION 8
Which three storage types are suitable as a flash recovery area for an Oracle 10g RAC database? (Choose three.)
A. Raw volume
B. ASM disk group
C. Local file system
D. Cluster file system
E. Shared NFS directory

Correct Answer: BDE
QUESTION 9
After the cluster database has been successfully created, several postinstallation tasks should be completed. Identify three of them. (Choose three.)
A. Create the ASM instance.
B. Back up the root.sh script.
C. Initialize the cluster backup procedure.
D. Set up additional required user accounts.
E. Verify the Enterprise Manager/Oracle Cluster Registry configuration by running srvctl config database -d db_name.

Correct Answer: BDE
QUESTION 10
Oracle Cluster Registry (OCR) can be recovered on a UNIX platform using which two commands? (Choose two.)
A. ocrconfig -import /u01/logical_ocr/yesterday.ocr where yesterday.ocr is an automatically generated OCR backup
B. ocrconfig -import /u01/logical_ocr/yesterday.ocr_exp where yesterday.ocr_exp is a logical backup created using the ocrconfig -export command
C. cp /app/oracle/product/10.1.0/crs_1/cdata/dbclust01/day.ocr /ocfs/OCR/crs.dbf where /ocfs/OCR/ crs.dbf is the cluster registry file
D. ocrconfig -restore /app/oracle/product/10.1.0/crs_1/cdata/dbclust01/day.ocr where day.ocr is an automatically generated OCR backup

Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 11
Which two initialization parameters must be set to start up an ASM instance in a RAC environment? (Choose two.)
A. INSTANCE_TYPE
B. DB_UNIQUE_NAME
C. ASM_DISKSTRING
D. ASM_DISKGROUPS
E. ASM_POWER_LIMIT
F. CLUSTER_DATABASE
Correct Answer: AF
QUESTION 12
Your company has a combination of high availability and scalability requirements that need to be addressed, and RAC has been discussed as a solution.
There are a mix of “off-the-shelf” software products and homegrown applications currently in use in your environment that run on single-instance Oracle databases.
You have been asked by the IT director to provide an impact analysis report to help assess the impact on applications when migrating to RAC.
Which three are among the areas that should be examined for performance impact and application functionality impact or for both? (Choose three.)
A. applications that use large parallel full table scans
B. applications that truncate tables in a data warehouse process
C. three-tier applications that use application global context variables
D. client/server type applications that use application local context variables
E. applications that access small tables using the same index occasionally
F. applications that use SQL profiles created by the ATO optimizer in the SQL Tuning Advisor

Correct Answer: ABC
QUESTION 13
You decide to implement a Data Guard configuration to support a disaster recovery plan for your RAC database. Your primary database has all shared files and the flash recovery area is stored on ASM disk groups. Which three options exist for storing the data guard broker configuration files at the primary location? (Choose three.)
A. can be in any shared ASM disk group
B. can be stored on shared Raw Devices
C. must be stored on Oracle Cluster File System if a cluster file system is used
D. may be stored on any supported cluster file system if a cluster file system is used
E. must be in the same shared ASM disk group as the database data files if the broker configuration files are stored in ASM disk groups
F. must be in the same shared ASM disk group as the Flash Recovery Area if the broker configuration files are stored in ASM disk groups.

Correct Answer: ABD
QUESTION 14
Your company has certain standard practices for technology and you are configuring ASM disk groups for your four-node RAC cluster. The company guidelines suggest that there is one disk group for the flash recovery area that is shared by all databases and a separate disk group for the database area of all databases. Which three exceptions exist that may require you to create additional disk groups? (Choose three.)
A. The retention policy for backups are different for different databases.
B. There are large nonpartitioned tables accessed frequently using indexes.
C. The disk farm has different disk models with different characteristics and ages.
D. Some databases operate in ARCHIVELOGMODE and others in NOARCHIVELOGMODE.
E. Some database instances are shut down every night while others are always running.
F. Applications using the databases have different Service-Level Agreements for response time and throughput.
G. There are partitioned tables where the older partitions are in read-only tablespaces and seldom accessed, but the more recent partitions are frequently accessed.

Correct Answer: CFG
QUESTION 15
You have attended a user group presentation on RAC and based on what you have learned you feel that your company would benefit from having the RAC option to meet its Oracle database requirements in several ways. Your manager does not know much about RAC and asks you to create a presentation to the team explaining RAC, and whether it should be implemented in your installation. Which three statements explain the benefits and implications of RAC? (Choose three.)
A. RAC alone would not help protect from human errors.
B. RAC would increase availability in the event of data failures.
C. RAC would increase availability in the event of a network failure.
D. RAC alone would increase availability when doing release upgrades.
E. RAC would increase scalability for all application workloads in all cases.
F. RAC would increase availability in the event of node and instance failures.
G. RAC used in conjunction with parallel execution may provide speedup of DSS queries.
H. RAC used in conjunction with parallel execution may provide for speedup of OLTP workload processes.

Correct Answer: AFG
QUESTION 16
In a RAC environment, you see a steep increase for enq:HW – contention and gc current grant wait events. What would you do to fix this issue?
A. Increase the cache size of sequences.
B. Reduce the time of transactions by committing more often.
C. Use larger uniform extent sizes for objects.
D. Reduce the number of updates causing locks on tables accessed by multiple instances.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 17
After migrating from a 10g R1 cluster to 10g R2, you decide to multiplex your voting disk. Which are the two ways in which you can accomplish this task? (Choose two.)
A. You should not use symbolic links.
B. You can add additional voting disks online.
C. You must add additional voting disks offline.
D. You may use the VIPCA utility to add new voting disks.
E. You may use the command:crsctl add css votedisk <new voting disk path>

Correct Answer: BE
QUESTION 18
You are about to build a new Oracle Clusterware-based cluster and you want to make the installation process as smooth as possible. You decide to use the Cluster Verification Utility (CLUVFY) to check whether or not your system administrator has set up the hardware and system software correctly. Which two statements about CLUVFY are true? (Choose two.)
A. You can run CLUVFY only from a privileged operating system account.
B. You can run CLUVFY directly from the Oracle Clusterware distribution media.
C. CLUVFY cannot be used until the Oracle Clusterware is installed successfully.
D. After the Oracle Clusterware installation, you can run CLUVFY from the Oracle Home that holds the CRS binaries.
E. You have to install CLUVFY on all cluster nodes in order to use CLUVFY on other nodes than the one from which you perform the installation.
F. To use CLUVFY during the Oracle Clusterware installation, you have to download CLUVFY from the Oracle Technology Network (OTN) Web site and install it before you can use it.

Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 19
Several steps must be followed to successfully add a new node to your cluster database. Assuming that a UNIX platform is used, which of the three steps below are correct? (Choose three.)
A. Add instances using OUI.
B. Reconfigure listeners for the new node with netca.
C. Configure the OS and hardware for the new node.
D. Add the node to the cluster using the addnode.sh script run from ORA_CRS_HOME.
E. Add the RAC software to the new node using addnode.sh from ORA_CRS_HOME.
Correct Answer: BCD
QUESTION 20
Which three statements regarding backup of the voting disk are true? (Choose three.)
A. On UNIX platforms, the voting disk can be backed up with the dd command.
B. A backup of the voting disk should be taken whenever an RMAN catalog reset is done.
C. A backup of the voting disk should be taken whenever a new node is added to the cluster.
D. A backup of the voting disk should be taken whenever an existing node is removed from the cluster.
E. Whenever a voting disk backup is made, the Clusterware software should be stopped on all nodes in the cluster.

Correct Answer: ACD

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QUESTION 1
Which three possible values can be set for the TIME_ZONE session parameter by using the ALTER SESSION command? (Choose three.)
A. ‘os’
B. local
C. -8:00′
D. dbtimezone Li
E. ‘Australia’

Correct Answer: BCD
QUESTION 2
EMPDET is an external table containing the columns EMPNO and ENAME. Which command would work in relation to the EMPDET table?
A. UPDATE empdet SET ename = ‘Amit’ WHERE empno = 1234;
B. DELETE FROM empdet WHERE ename LIKE ‘J%’;
C. CREATE VIEW empvu ASSELECT* FROM empdept;
D. CREATE INDEX empdet_dx ON empdet(empno);

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 3
Which three tasks can be performed using regular expression support in Oracle Database 10g? (Choose three.)
A. it can be used to concatenate two strings.
B. it can be used to find out the total length of the string.
C. it can be used for string manipulation and searching operations.
D. it can be used to format the output for a column or expression having string data.
E. it can be used to find and replace operations for a column or expression having string data.

Correct Answer: CDE
QUESTION 4
Which three statements are true regarding single-row functions? (Choose three.)
A. They can accept only one argument.
B. They can be nested up to only two levels.
C. They can return multiple values of more than one data type.
D. They can be used in SELECT, WHERE, and ORDER BY clauses.
E. They can modify the data type of the argument that is referenced.
F. They can accept a column name, expression, variable name, or a user-supplied constant as arguments.
Correct Answer: DEF
QUESTION 5
View the Exhibit and examine the structure of the ORDERS and ORDERJTEMS tables.
Evaluate the following SQL statement:
SELECT oi.order_id, product_jd, order_date FROM order_items oi JOIN orders o USING(order_id);
Which statement is true regarding the execution of this SQL statement?

A. The statement would not execute because table aliases are not allowed in the JOIN clause.
B. The statement would not execute because the table alias prefix is not used in the USING clause.
C. The statement would not execute because all the columns in the SELECT clause are not prefixed with table aliases.
D. The statement would not execute because the column part of the USING clause cannot have a qualifier in the SELECT list.

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 6
Which two statements are true regarding the execution of the correlated subqueries? (Choose two.)
A. The nested query executes after the outer query returns the row.
B. The nested query executes first and then the outer query executes.
C. The outer query executes only once for the result returned by the inner query.
D. Each row returned by the outer query is evaluated for the results returned by the inner query.

Correct Answer: AD QUESTION 7
Evaluate the CREATE TABLE statement:
CREATE TABLE products
(product_id NUMBER(6) CONSTRAINT prod_id_pk PRIMARY KEY, product_name VARCHAR2(15));
Which statement is true regarding the PROD_ID_PK constraint?

A. It would be created only if a unique index is manually created first.
B. It would be created and would use an automatically created unique index.
C. It would be created and would use an automatically created nonunique index.
D. It would be created and remains in a disabled state because no index is specified in the command.

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 8
View the Exhibit and examine the data in the PRODUCT INFORMATION table.

Which two tasks would require subqueries? (Choose two.)
A. displaying the minimum list price for each product status
B. displaying all supplier IDs whose average list price is more than 500
C. displaying the number of products whose list prices are more than the average list price
D. displaying all the products whose minimum list prices are more than the average list price of products having the product status orderable
E. displaying the total number of products supplied by supplier 102071 and having product status OBSOLETE

Correct Answer: CD
QUESTION 9
Which statement best describes the GROUPING function?
A. It is used to set the order for the groups to be used for calculating the grand totals and subtotals.
B. It is used to form various groups to calculate total and subtotals created using ROLLUP and CUBE operators.
C. It is used to identify if the NULL value in an expression is a stored NULL value or created by ROLLUP or CUBE.
D. It is used to specify the concatenated group expressions to be used for calculating the grand totals and subtotals.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 10
Evaluate the following statement: INSERT ALL WHEN order_total < 10000 THEN INTO small_orders WHEN order_total > 10000 AND order_total < 20000 THEN INTO medium_orders WHEN order_total > 2000000 THEN INTO large_orders SELECT order_id, order_total, customer_id FROM orders; Which statement is true regarding the evaluation of rows returned by the subquery in the INSERT statement?
A. They are evaluated by all the three WHEN clauses regardless of the results of the evaluation of any other WHEN clause.
B. They are evaluated by the first WHEN clause. If the condition is true, then the row would be evaluated by the subsequent WHEN clauses.
C. They are evaluated by the first WHEN clause. If the condition is false, then the row would be evaluated by the subsequent WHEN clauses.
D. The INSERT statement would give an error because the ELSE clause is not present for support in case none of the WHEN clauses are true.

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 11
View the Exhibit and examine the data in ORDERS_MASTER and MONTHLYjDRDERS tables.

Evaluate the following MERGE statement:
MERGE INTO orders_master o USING monthly_orders m ON (o.order_id = m.order_id) WHEN MATCHED THEN UPDATE SET o.order_total = m.order_total DELETE WHERE (m.order_total IS NULL) WHEN NOT MATCHED THEN INSERT VALUES (m.order_id, m.order_total);
What would be the outcome of the above statement?
A. The ORDERS_MASTER table would contain the ORDERJDs 1 and 2.
B. The ORDERS_MASTER table would contain the ORDERJDs 1,2 and 3.
C. The ORDERS_MASTER table would contain the ORDERJDs 1,2 and 4.
D. The ORDERS MASTER table would contain the ORDER IDs 1,2,3 and 4.

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 12
The user SCOTT who is the owner of ORDERS and ORDERJTEMS tables issues the following GRANT command:
GRANT ALL ON orders, order_items TO PUBLIC;
What correction needs to be done to the above statement?
A. PUBLIC should be replaced with specific usernames.
B. ALL should be replaced with a list of specific privileges.
C. WITH GRANT OPTION should be added to the statement.
D. Separate GRANT statements are required for ORDERS and ORDERJTEMS tables.

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 13
View the Exhibit and examine the structure of the EMP table.

You executed the following command to add a primary key to the EMP table:

ALTER TABLE emp
ADD CONSTRAINT emp_id_pk PRIMARY KEY (emp_id)
USING INDEX emp_id_idx;

Which statement is true regarding the effect of the command?

A. The PRIMARY KEY is created along with a new index.
B. The PRIMARY KEY is created and it would use an existing unique index.
C. The PRIMARY KEY would be created in a disabled state because it is using an existing index.
D. The statement produces an error because the USING clause is permitted only in the CREATE TABLE command.

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 14
Which two statements are true regarding roles? (Choose two.)
A. A role can be granted to itself.
B. A role can be granted to PUBLIC.
C. A user can be granted only one role at any point of time.
D. The REVOKE command can be used to remove privileges but not roles from other users.
E. Roles are named groups of related privileges that can be granted to users or other roles.

Correct Answer: BE QUESTION 15
Which statement is true regarding Flashback Version Query?
A. It returns versions of rows only within a transaction.
B. It can be used in subqueries contained only in a SELECT statement.
C. It will return an error if the undo retention time is less than the lower bound time or SCN specified.
D. It retrieves all versions including the deleted as well as subsequently reinserted versions of the rows.

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 16
Evaluate the following SQL statements that are issued in the given order:
CREATE TABLE emp
(emp_no NUMBER(2) CONSTRAINT emp_emp_no_pk PRIMARY KEY, enameVARCHAR2(15),
salary NUMBER(8,2),
mgr_no NUMBER(2) CONSTRAINT emp_mgr_fk REFERENCES emp);

ALTER TABLE emp
DISABLE CONSTRAINT emp_emp_no_pk CASCADE;

ALTER TABLE emp
ENABLE CONSTRAINT emp_emp_no_pk;

What would be the status of the foreign key EMP_MGR_FK?

A. It would be automatically enabled and deferred.
B. It would be automatically enabled and immediate.
C. It would remain disabled and has to be enabled manually using the ALTER TABLE command.
D. It would remain disabled and can be enabled only by dropping the foreign key constraint and re-creating it.

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 17
Which statements are correct regarding indexes? (Choose all that apply.)
A. When a table is dropped, the corresponding indexes are automatically dropped.
B. For each DML operation performed, the corresponding indexes are automatically updated.
C. Indexes should be created on columns that are frequently referenced as part of an expression.
D. A non-deferrable PRIMARY KEY or UNIQUE KEY constraint in a table automatically creates a unique index.

Correct Answer: ABD QUESTION 18
View the Exhibit and examine the structure of the ORDERS table. Which task would require subqueries?

A. displaying the total order value for sales representatives 161 and 163
B. displaying the order total for sales representative 161 in the year 1999
C. displaying the number of orders that have order mode online and order date in 1999
D. displaying the number of orders whose order total is more than the average order total for all online orders
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 19
View the Exhibit and examine the details of the EMPLOYEES table.

Evaluate the following SQL statement:

SELECT phone_number,
REGEXP_REPLACE(phone_number,'([[: digit: ]]{3})\.([[: digit: ]]{3})\.([[: digit: ]]{4})’, ,(\1)\2-\3′) “PHONE
NUMBER”
FROM employees;

The query was written to format the PHONE_NUMBER for the employees. Which option would be the
correct format in the output?

A. xxx-xxx-xxxx
B. (xxx) xxxxxxx
C. (xxx) xxx-xxxx
D. xxx-(xxx)-xxxx

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 20
The details of the order ID, order date, order total, and customer ID are obtained from the ORDERS table. If the order value is more than 30000, the details have to be added to the LARGEjDRDERS table. The order ID, order date, and order total should be added to the ORDERJHISTORY table, and order ID and customer ID should be added to the CUSTJHISTORY table. Which multitable INSERT statement would you use?
A. Pivoting INSERT
B. Unconditional INSERT
C. Conditional ALL INSERT
D. Conditional FIRST INSERT
Correct Answer: C

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QUESTION NO: 1

Identify the two statements about the Planning Import security utility.
A. Imports Planning application access for users and groups
B. Imports users and groups into Planning
C. Requires the source text file to be named PLANSECFILE.txt
D. Can be scheduled to run nightly using an encrypted password
E. Clears existing security definitions by default before the import takes place
Answer: A,D
Explanation: The Import Security utility performs a Oracle Hyperion Planning security import.

A: The ImportSecurity utility loads access permissions for users or groups from a text file into
Planning.
(To add users or groups, see the.Oracle Hyperion Enterprise Performance Management System
Security Administration Guide. . not B).
Importing access permissions overwrites existing access assignments only for imported members,
data forms, data form folders, task lists, Calculation Manager business rules, and Calculation
Manager business rule folders. All other existing access permissions remain intact. (not E).
The SL_CLEARALL parameter clears all existing access permissions; you can use it with other
parameters to replace existing access permissions. See also Exporting Access Permissions.

D: To import access permissions into Planning:
Locate the ImportSecurity utility by navigating to the bin directory.

From the Command Prompt, enter this case-sensitive command, one space, and the parameters, separating each with a comma. Enclose the parameters with double quotation marks:
ImportSecurity.cmd [-f:passwordFile] ※appname,username,[delimiter],[RUN_SILENT],[SL_CLEARALL]§
This command can be scheduled.

QUESTION NO: 2
Identify the two true statements about a sparse Entity dimension In Hyperion Planning.
A. You cannot build alternate rollups or assign custom attributes.
B. Base currencies are assigned to entity members.
C. Exchange rates are assigned to entity members.
D. Entity along with Scenario and Period make up a planning unit.
E. Entity along with Scenario and Version make up a planning unit.
Answer: B,E
Explanation: E: The Scenario and Version dimensions represent the broadest categories of data
in your application. Scenario describes the type of data that a plan includes, such as budget,
actual, or forecast, as well as the time span that the plan covers.

Version allows for flexibility and iterative planning cycles. For example, your application could have
two versions, Working and Final, for each scenario. You can also use versions to model possible
outcomes based on different assumptions about interest rates, growth rates, and so on. For
example, your application an have a Best Case and Worst Case version for each scenario.

Note:
Essbase maximizes performance by dividing the Essbase – Standard dimensions of an application
into two types:
dense dimensions
sparse dimensions.

Sparse and dense are a property of the values of an attribute.
Sparse
Data is normally stored in sparse form. If no value exists for a given combination of dimension
values, no row exists in the fact table. For example, if not every product is sold in every market. In
this case, Market and Product are sparse dimensions.
It’s why in the reporting tool Obiee for instance, by default, data are considered sparse.

Dense
Most multidimensional databases may also contain dense dimensions. A fact table is considered
to have dense data if it has (of a high probability to have) one row for every combination of its
associated dimension levels.
QUESTION NO: 3
In a non-multicurrency Planning application, what three things happen if all options are checked for Refresh Database?
A. Dimension and member changes are pushed to Essbase.
B. Cell text and supporting detail changes are pushed to Essbase.
C. Security filters for dimensions and members are pushed to Essbase.
D. Security filters for shared members are pushed to Essbase.
E. Data changes are pushed to Essbase.
Answer: A,C,D Explanation: During refresh:
*
Essbase security filters are updated (C, D)

*
Currency conversion calc scripts are updated

*
Accounts or associated properties are propagated from the relational database to the Essbase database

*
Custom attributes are added, modified, or deleted in the Essbase database

*
Exchange rate values are repopulated in the Essbase outline

*
Member formulas for certain accounts are generated or updated

*
Additions or changes to alias tables and their association to dimensions or members are updated
(A)
*
The Essbase database is restructured

*
UDAs are added to the Essbase database
Reference: Oracle Hyperion Planning, Fusion Edition, Creating and Refreshing Application Databases
QUESTION NO: 4
You are designing a monthly projection Planning application. A starting point projection file is received with the current month data. Data forms, Business Rules, and Essbase data load rules, and reports should always focus on the current projection month.
What is most efficient way to design the components to reduce maintenance each month?
A. Manually update the forms each month and use a “CurMth” substitution variable for Business Rules, Essbase data load rules, and reports.
B. Manually update the forms each month; Use “CurMo” Global variable for Business Rules and use a “CurMth” substitution variable for Essbase data load rules, and reports.
C. Use the Planning data form utility to update data forms and use a “CurMth” substitution variable for Business Rules, Essbase data load rules, and reports.
D. Use a “CurMth” substitution variable for data forms, Business Rules, Essbase data load rules, and reports.
E. Use the Planning data form utility to update data forms; Use “CurMo” Global variable for Business Rules and use a “CurMth” substitution variable for Essbase data load rules, and reports.
Answer: E
Explanation: In Business Rules use a global variable.
In Essbase, use a substitution variable.
QUESTION NO: 5
Identify three key benefits of the Planning solution.
A. Standardized data forms for plan data entry available both for the Web and in Excel
B. One tool to budget and forecast as well as provide reporting for very detailed Actuals Information
C. Central repository of business rules that can be run by end users to calculate plan data
D. Detailed security down to the cell level
E. Flexible solution customizable for almost any kind of budgeting and forecasting process
Answer: A,C,E Explanation: A: Hyperion Planning leverages Multidimensional functionalities and capabilities of Essbase to the fullest to provide varied planning options along with inherent Data Forms, MS Excel, Web based grid interface for the data entry and reporting needs. ata Forms in Hyperion planning provides a standard centralized grid-based interface for data entry and data-checks. Customizing or fixing a Data Form issues take lesser time and effort compared to the Excel based spreadsheets.
C: Use of a central repository makes administration and maintenance of business rules easy,
because the repository stores information for several applications in one database.
A user or group who has the role of basic user can do these tasks:

*
Launch business rules and sequences to which the user has access
*
View business rules and sequences to which the users has access
*
View all variables and macros
*
Edit business rules, sequences, macros, variables, and projects for which the user was
granted editing privileges

E: Oracle Hyperion Planning provides an in-depth look at business operations and its related
impact on financials, by tightly integrating financial and operational planning models. With Oracle
Hyperion Planning you can meet your immediate financial planning needs while enabling a
platform for future cross-functional expansion and automated process integration.

Reference: Hyperion Business Rules, Administrative Guide

QUESTION NO: 6

The budget office analyst needs to enter and plan data, use the Planning spreading feature that allow users to spread budget data based on last year’s actuals, and modify data forms. What two roles should be provisioned for this user?
A. Grid Spread
B. Planner
C. Interactive User
D. Mass Allocate
E. Offline User
Answer: B,C Explanation:
Planner: The majority of Hyperion Planning users are planners who are responsible for department or project budgets. They conveniently work over the Web or the Spreadsheet Add-in to: Enter, submit, and view data Use pre-defined policies, procedures, routines, reports, and worksheets to enter, analyze, and report on application data
Interactive User: Examples of an interactive user include a department head, sales director, or unit manager who submits budget information and data for approval. Interactive users can enter and view data. They can also create, maintain, and initiate: Data entry forms on the Web Spreadsheet Add-in worksheets Reports using Hyperion Reports Integrations using Hyperion Application Link Business rules using Hyperion Business Rules
QUESTION NO: 7
You are designing the storage properties for your Planning application. What two design principles should you follow related to the dynamic calc storage property?
A. Dynamically calculated members should roll up to stored members.
B. You cannot calculate and store dynamic calculated members in calc scripts and business rules.
C. Consider dynamic calc members on sparse parents with 100 t children.
D. Tagging upper-level members of sparse dimensions can reduce block size.
E. If you use a large number of dynamic calcs, you should consider increasing the Dynamic Calculator Cache.
F. Consider Dynamic Calc and Store over Dynamic Calc.
Answer: B,E Explanation:
B:
“If you specify a Dynamic Calc or Dynamic Calc and Store member explicitly in a calculation script,
the calculation script fails. You cannot do a calculation script calculation of a Dynamic Calc or
Dynamic Calc and Store member. To use a calculation script to calculate a member explicitly, do
not tag the member as Dynamic Calc.

E: The dynamic calculator cache is a buffer in memory that Essbase uses to store all of the blocks
needed for a calculation of a Dynamic Calc member in a dense dimension (for example, for a
query).
Incorrect answer:

F: Storing the information is no advantage in this scenario.

QUESTION NO: 8
Identify the two true statements with regard to Versions and Scenarios.
A. Versions control data entry based on time periods set by the administrator.
B. There is only one Version to one Scenario.
C. Versions allow several “what-if” Scenarios.
D. Users must have the same security settings in the Version dimension as they have in the Scenario dimension.
E. Versions can be top down or bottom up.
Answer: C,D Explanation: C: You use the Scenario and Version dimensions to create individual plans to be reviewed and approved. Each scenario/version combination contains its own set of data for the accounts and other dimensions of each entity. After users complete data entry for an entity for a specific scenario and version, they can submit or promote the data for the entity to another user for review and approval. The intersection of entity, scenario, and version is referred to as a planning unit. Planning tracks the status of each planning unit as it moves through the review process.
D: Seems likely.

QUESTION NO: 9
Identify two times when a security refresh needs to be performed.
A. Member access has been assigned to a group.
B. Member access has been assigned to a user.
C. New group is created.
D. A new Member “East” has OnDESCENDANTSCREAD.access assigned.
E. New business rule is created.
Answer: A,B Explanation: After you establish or update user and group security, the Planning application needs to be refreshed to complete the update to Analytic Services security filters.
Incorrect:
D: This options badly worded. We here assume that the security of the member has not changed. C, E: no security has changed.
Reference: HYPERION SYSTEM 9 PLANNING, RELEASE 9 . 2 . 0 . 3 About Security in Planning

QUESTION NO: 10
Identify two ways that Essbase data load rules cannot manipulate source data files.
A. Select or reject records based on certain criteria.
B. Flip the sign for records with a certain member tagged with a comment.
C. Split or join columns in a source.
D. Find and replace manipulations on source records.
E. Map data based on an external table.
Answer: C,E
Explanation: C: Columns cannot be split or joined at runtime in the source.

E: An external table cannot be used to map data.
Note: Data Load Rules file is the second type of rules files which is involved in the data load
process.
A data source for data load must contain :
not only the values that you want to load but also identification of the location to which Essbase
should load the values:
a data address that includes one member from every standard dimension in your outline.
QUESTION NO: 11
What four prebuilt actions are available In EAS Business Rules?
A. Aggregate
B. Copy Data
C. Clear Block
D. Clear Data
E. Create Block
F. Allocate
Answer: A,B,D,E
Explanation: You can choose from four possible actions to include in a graphical business rule:
Aggregate
Data, Copy Data, Clear Data, and Create Blocks.

Note:

*
Aggregate Data 〞Use to calculate your database by specifying which dimensions to calculate and what calculation options you want to use during the aggregation.

*
Copy Data〞Use to copy data from one part of your database to another. You select the source data to copy and then specify the target or destination value.

*
Clear Data〞Use to define a subset of data that will be cleared from the database before a new value is added. You can choose either to clear cells or to clear blocks of data.

*
Create Blocks〞Use to specify a data slice to ensure that blocks are created for all sparse member combinations in that slice.
Reference: Hyperion Business Rules, Administrative Guide, About Adding Actions to Graphical Business Rules

QUESTION NO: 12
Identify the two true statements assuming you are working with a single application with multiple plan types.
A. A user-defined custom dimension may exist in one plan type but not the other plan types.
B. A user-defined custom dimension may have members in one plan type but not the remaining plan types.
C. All members in the entity dimension must exist in all plan types.
D. All members in the accounts dimension must exist in all plan types.
E. All periods must exist in all plan types.
Answer: A,E Explanation:
A: Properties for User-Defined Custom Dimensions include property Valid for Plan Types which is used to select plan types for which the dimension is valid. Clearing this option makes all members of the dimension invalidfor the deselected plan type.
User-defined custom dimensions differ from the Entity and Account dimensions in that you assign valid plan types at the dimension level, not at the member level. All members of a user-defined custom dimension are valid for plan types assigned at the dimension level.
Note: Specify one to three plan types for the application. A separate Essbase database is created for each plan type. You cannot change the name or number of plan types after creating an application. As you create accounts, entities, and other elements of the application, you associate them with plan types, so the database for each plan type contains only information relevant to the plan type. This optimizes application design, size, and performance.
QUESTION NO: 13
What are the correct predefined types of base time periods that can be established when creating the calendar in a planning application?
A. Weekly, Monthly, Quarterly, Custom
B. Monthly, Quarterly, Custom
C. Monthly, Quarterly, Weekly
D. Weekly, Monthly, Quarterly, Yearly, Custom
E. Only Custom periods are possible.
Answer: B
Explanation: To set up the calendar:
1.In the Classic Application Wizard, click Calendar.
2 Select a Base Period option to set how calendars roll up:
*12 Months: Four quarters per year; months roll up into parent quarters and quarters into
years.
*Quarters: Quarters roll up into years.

* Custom: A custom time period, such as weeks or days. Etc.
Note: The calendar establishes the application*s base time periods, starting fiscal year and month, and total number of years. Select the base time period and monthly distribution pattern based on the number of fiscal weeks in a month. The base time period options are the bottom-level time periods in the application. You can create a custom base time period, such as weeks or days. Use monthly distribution patterns to determine how data entered into a summary time period is distributed or spread among the base time period you select. During data entry, users can enter data into summary time periods, such as years or quarters. Planning distributes these values over the base time periods that constitute the summary time period.
Reference: Oracle Hyperion Planning, Fusion Edition, Setting up the Calendar

QUESTION NO: 14
Identify the three characteristics of the Scenarios dimension.
A. Security can be assigned to members of the Scenario dimension.
B. It allows the administrator to assign valid periods for data entry
C. It allows bottoms up or target planning
D. Exchange rate tables are tied to the Scenario dimension.
E. One member in the scenario dimension may be valid for Plan Type.
Answer: A,B,D Explanation: A: Specify access rights to members of the Scenario dimension for groups or users. Access rights determine users or groups can view or modify data. A user or group can have only one of these access rights: Read, Write, or None. Access rights for a user can be combined based on groups to which the user belongs.
B: When creating a scenario For Start Yr., Start Period, End Yr., and End Period are used to select the time period to associate with the scenario.
D: The Scenario dimension has an Exchange Table property with value of the name of an
exchange rate table defined in the application. Reference: Oracle Hyperion Planning, Fusion Edition
QUESTION NO: 15
Which three components can be changed after the creation of the Planning application?
A. Number of years
B. Names of plan types
C. Number of plan types
D. Initialization of WFP or CapEx Planning modules
E. Weekly distribution spread
F. Year Dimension Name
G. Default Currency
Answer: A,D,F Explanation:
Note: WFP 每 Workforce planning. Oracle Hyperion Capital Expense Planning (CAPEX) software is a specialized planning module that automates the planning of capital assets and capital asset related expenses, such as depreciation, maintenance and insurance.
QUESTION NO: 16
You need to create a highly formatted, printable Income statement for each store in your company. Each report should be emailed to the store manager at the close of each week (each store has a different store manager). What is the best way to deliver this solution?
A. With Financial Reporting, create a book for each store that contains a P&L for each store and use the book to distribute the reports to store managers via email.
B. With Financial Reporting, create a store P&L and use batch bursting to distribute the report to store managers via email.
C. With Web Analysis, create an income statement that store managers can log in and access.
D. Within Smart View Report Designer, use the Cascade feature to generate and distribute each store income statement via email.
E. Create a Planning P&L Data form and use email notification to send to store managers.
Answer: D Explanation:
In addition to other capabilities, the Report Designer provides cascaded output of reports in Excel. This will enable end users to create a report in Excel and cascade it to separate sheets based on members of a dimension not included as part of the report.
QUESTION NO: 17
What four read or write security assignments allow end users to be able to view at least some data?
A. At least one member in the Scenario dimension
B. At least one member In the Version dimension
C. At least one member in the Period dimension
D. At least one member in the Account dimension
E. At least one member in the Entity- dimension
F. If security has been assigned for a Custom dimension, at least one member in the user-defined custom dimension
Answer: A,B,E,F Explanation: Scenario,Version & Entity make up a planning unit so security needs to be applied here and then also to the custom dimension if it has security.

QUESTION NO: 18
Identify the three true statements about attribute dimensions in Planning.
A. Aliases are supported for attribute members.
B. Consolidation properties are supported for attribute members.
C. Hierarchies are supported for attribute dimensions.
D. Only Text attributes are supported.
E. Text, Boolean, Numeric, and Date attributes are supported.
Answer: A,C,E Explanation:
A: Open the Dimension Library and select File >
New > Dimension. Enter a name and description, then select the Alias type.

C: From planning 9 3 1 you can also create attribute hierarchy in planning.

E: Attribute dimensions have a type setting〞text, numeric, Boolean, or date. Text is the default
setting.

QUESTION NO: 19
What four functions can Administrators use the Copy Data feature In Planning to do?
A. Copy data values from one dimensional intersection to another dimensional intersection.
B. Copy planning unit annotations.
C. Copy supporting detail.
D. Copy cell text.
E. Copy account annotations.
Answer: A,C,D,E Explanation: Administrators can use Copy Data to copy plans from one dimensional intersection to another (A), including relational data and supporting detail (C).
You can copy account annotations (E), supporting detail, and cell text (D). You cannot copy planning unit annotations.
Reference: Oracle Hyperion Planning, Fusion Edition, Copying Data

QUESTION NO: 20
You have a measure in your Accounts dimension for “Price”. Price Is Input by users (along with Units). Sales is calculated as Units * Price. Identify the correct property that should be assigned to Price to meet this requirement.
A. Stored
B. Dynamic Calc
C. Dynamic Calc and Store
Answer: A
Explanation: Stored should be used.
Note: The accounts dimension is a dimension type that makes accounting intelligence available. Only one dimension can be defined as Accounts.

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QUESTION NO: 1
Which statement is true?
A. An anonymous inner class may be declared as final.
B. An anonymous inner class can be declared as private.
C. An anonymous inner class can implement multiple interfaces.
D. An anonymous inner class can access final variables in any enclosing scope.
E. Construction of an instance of a static inner class requires an instance of the enclosing outer class.
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 2
Given:
1.
package foo;

2.

3.
public class Outer (

4.
public static class Inner (

5.
)

6.
)
Which statement is true?
A. An instance of the Inner class can be constructed with “new Outer.Inner ()”
B. An instance of the inner class cannot be constructed outside of package foo.
C. An instance of the inner class can only be constructed from within the outer class.
D. From within the package bar, an instance of the inner class can be constructed with “new inner()”
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 3
Exhibit:
1.
public class enclosingone (

2.
public class insideone{}

3.
)

4.
public class inertest(

5.
public static void main (string[]args)(

6.
enclosingone eo= new enclosingone ();

7.
//insert code here

8.
)

9.
)
Which statement at line 7 constructs an instance of the inner class?
A. InsideOnew ei= eo.new InsideOn();
B. Eo.InsideOne ei = eo.new InsideOne();
C. InsideOne ei = EnclosingOne.new InsideOne();
D. EnclosingOne.InsideOne ei = eo.new InsideOne();
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 4
Exhibit:
1.
interface foo {

2.
int k = 0;

3.
]

4.

5.
public class test implements Foo (

6.
public static void main(String args[]) (

7.
int i;

8.
Test test = new test ();

9.
i= test.k;
10.i= Test.k;
11.i= Foo.k;
12.)
13.)

14.

What is the result?
A. Compilation succeeds.
B. An error at line 2 causes compilation to fail.
C. An error at line 9 causes compilation to fail.
D. An error at line 10 causes compilation to fail.
E. An error at line 11 causes compilation to fail.
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 5
Given:
1.
//point X

2.
public class foo (

3.
public static void main (String[]args) throws Exception {

4.
printWriter out = new PrintWriter (new

5.
java.io.outputStreamWriter (System.out), true;

6.
out.printIn(“Hello”);

7.
}

8.
)
Which statement at PointX on line 1 allows this code to compile and run?
A. Import java.io.PrintWriter;
B. Include java.io.PrintWriter;
C. Import java.io.OutputStreamWriter;
D. Include java.io.OutputStreamWriter;
E. No statement is needed.
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 5
Which two statements are reserved words in Java? (Choose Two)
A. Run
B. Import
C. Default
D. Implement
Answer: B,C QUESTION NO: 6
Which three are valid declarations of a float? (Choose Three)
A. Float foo = -1;
B. Float foo = 1.0;
C. Float foo = 42e1;
D. Float foo = 2.02f;
E. Float foo = 3.03d;
F. Float foo = 0x0123;
Answer: A,D,F
QUESTION NO: 7
Given:
8.
int index = 1;

9.
boolean[] test = new Boolean[3];

10.
boolean foo= test [index];
What is the result?
A. Foo has the value of 0.
B. Foo has the value of null.
C. Foo has the value of true.
D. Foo has the value of false.
E. An exception is thrown.
F. The code will not compile.
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 8
Given:
1.
public class test(

2.
public static void main(string[]args){

3.
string foo = args [1];

4.
string foo = args [2];

5.
string foo = args [3];

6.
}

7.
}
And command line invocation:
Java Test red green blue
What is the result?
A. Baz has the value of “”
B. Baz has the value of null C. Baz has the value of “red” D. Baz has the value of “blue”
E. Bax has the value of “green”
F. The code does not compile.
G. The program throws an exception.
Answer: G
QUESTION NO: 9
Given:
8.
int index = 1;

9.
int [] foo = new int [3]; 10.int bar = foo [index]; 11.int baz = bar + index;
What is the result?
A. Baz has the value of 0
B. Baz has the value of 1
C. Baz has the value of 2
D. An exception is thrown.
E. The code will not compile.
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 10
Given:
1.
public class foo {

2.
public static void main (String[]args) {

3.
String s;

4.
system.out.printIn (“s=” + s);

5.
}

6.
}
What is the result?
A. The code compiles and “s=” is printed.
B. The code compiles and “s=null” is printed.
C. The code does not compile because string s is not initialized.
D. The code does not compile because string s cannot be referenced.
E. The code compiles, but a NullPointerException is thrown when toString is called.
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 11
Which will declare a method that forces a subclass to implement it?
A. Public double methoda();
B. Static void methoda (double d1) {}
C. Public native double methoda();
D. Abstract public void methoda();
E. Protected void methoda (double d1){}
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 12
You want subclasses in any package to have access to members of a superclass. Which is the most restrictive access modifier that will accomplish this objective?
A. Public
B. Private
C. Protected
D. Transient
E. No access modifier is qualified
Answer: C

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QUESTION 1
What Oracle Fusion Middleware features maximize the security of Fusion Applications?
A. Improved productivity, manageability, and responsibility
B. Improved extensibility, responsibility, and functionality
C. Improved productivity, adaptability, and manageability
D. Improved sustainability, adaptability, and extensibility
E. Improved adaptability, extensibility, and functionality

Correct Answer: B Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Extensibility: Be able to customize and extend Oracle Fusion CRM applications.
Responsibility through Roles.
Functionality: Function security.

Incorrect answers:
A, C: Productivity is not related to security.

Note: Oracle Fusion Applications is secure as delivered.

The security approach consists of tightly coordinating the following aspects of security.

*
Role-based access control (RBAC)

*
Function security

*
Data security

*
Privacy

*
Access provisioning and identity management

*
Segregation of duties policies

*
Enforcement across tools, technologies, data transformations, and access methods

*
Enforcement across the information life cycle Reference: Oracle Fusion Applications Security Guide

QUESTION 2
You want to display a new field of sensitive data to display salary information. Which security policy controls access to the field displayed by the component?
A. Function Security Policy
B. ADF Security expression language
C. Data Security Polity
D. Oracle Platform Security Policy

Correct Answer: C Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Functions and data are inaccessible to users unless they are provisioned with the roles necessary to gain access. Function security provides users with access to pages in application users interfaces and actions that can be performed there. Data security allows users to see data in those pages. Some data is not secured, in which case access to a user interface page gives unrestricted access to the data that is accessible from that page.
Reference: Oracle Fusion Applications Security Guide, Function and Data Security

QUESTION 3
Select the four products offered as part of the Oracle Fusion HCM product family under the business process category of Workforce Development.
A. Profile Management
B. Performance & Goal Management
C. Time and Labor
D. Talent Review
E. Network at Work
F. Learning Management

Correct Answer: ABDF Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Reference: Oracle Fusion Applications Workforce Deployment Implementation Guide
QUESTION 4
As a line manager you have 10 direct reports. You have certain work scheduled that needs to be completed in the coming week. You have identified three of your reports to complete the task and you would like to check for their availability in the coming week. Which report will give you a snapshot of their availability?
A. My Organization
B. Leave Availability
C. Worker Availability
D. Predicted Worker Performance and Attrition

Correct Answer: C Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Worker Availability: How It Is Determined The availability of a worker during a selected time period is automatically determined using: Absence entries during that period The work schedule that the worker presently follows Calendar events
QUESTION 5
Identify the four business subprocess offered under the workforce Deployment category of the Oracle Fusion HCM family.
A. Manage Absence
B. Manage Global Workforce
C. Manage Worker Performance
D. Manage Social Networking
E. Manage Workforce Profiles
F. Manage Workforce Life Cycle

Correct Answer: ADEF Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
A: The Manage Absences business process is performed by human resource (HR) specialists and employees, or their managers, to provide accurate records of absences for reporting and payroll calculations.
D: You can create and join networks of people in your enterprise to collaborate, share knowledge, and achieve goals. Use the examples in this topic to understand how you can benefit from a social network.
E: The Manage Workforce Records business process enables access to the worker directory and management of worker document records and checklists.
F: The Manage Workforce Lifecycle business process covers all stages of a worker’s association with the enterprise, from creation of the person record through termination of work relationships.
Reference; Oracle Fusion Applications Workforce Deployment, Human Resources Guide
QUESTION 6
You are working on Implementing Fusion Human Capital Management. Some of the work structures and need to be configured manually. Enterprise, Business Units, Legal Entities, Reference Sets, and Legislative data Group will be part of this manual setup.
Identify the correct sequence of steps to be followed for this setup.
A. Create Enterprise > Define Business Units > Define Legal Entities > Define Reference Sets > Define Legislative Data Group.
B. Create Enterprise > Define Legal Entities > Define Business Units > Define Reference Sets > Define Legislative Data Group.
C. Create Enterprise > Define Business Units > Define Legislative Data Group > Define Legal Entities > Define reference Sets.
D. Create Enterprise > Define Legal Entities > Define Reference Sets > Define Business Units > Define Legislative Data Group
Correct Answer: B Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
The following figure and chart describes the Business Process Model structures and activities.

Reference: Oracle Fusion Applications Product Information Management Implementation Guide 11g, Enterprise Structures Business Process Model: Explained
QUESTION 7
Identify the two applicable model profiles for workforce structures.
A. Jobs
B. Individual worker
C. Position
D. Department
E. Location
F. Business unit Correct Answer: AC

Explanation Explanation/Reference:
Model profiles identify the competencies, qualifications, and experience required for a workforce structure, such as a job or position.
Reference; Oracle Fusion Applications Workforce Development Guide 11g, Model Profiles: Explained
QUESTION 8
What are the three benefits of Oracle Fusion Applications using a Lightweight Directory Access Protocol (LDAP) system?
A. enforces the principle of least privilege
B. segregates duties to be more rigorously enforced
C. allows principles of assured revocation to be more rigorously enforced
D. extends the database concept of a grant to applications
E. uniquely identifies a single person

Correct Answer: ABC Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Oracle Fusion Applications applies the following standard security principles:
*
Least privilege (A)
Oracle Fusion Applications roles carry only required privileges. Application roles define duties that entitle
access to only the functions and data necessary for performing the defined tasks of that duty.
*
Segregation of duties (B)
Oracle Fusion Applications checks duty roles for segregation of duties policy violations measured against
content and the risks defined in the Oracle Application Access Controls Governor (AACG) and against
content according to best available security guidelines. User and role provisioning respects the
segregation of duties policies.
*
Containment and no write down
*
Transparency
*
Assured revocation (C)
Revoking one security policy revokes all implementations of that policy across all tools in production.
*
Defense in depth

E: The process Retrieve Latest LDAP Changes sends to Oracle Fusion HCM among other items:

Reference: Oracle Fusion Applications Security Guide 11g
QUESTION 9
There are two distinct lists of grades that should be available in two separate business units of your organization. During testing, you notice that the lists of grades between the two business units are not per the requirement.
Indicate what has gone wrong in the setup.
A. The grade sets of the two business units have been interchanged
B. The grade rate of the two business units have been interchanged.
C. Incorrect grade ladder is attached to the two business units.
D. All grades are available at enterprise level only.
Correct Answer: A Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Grades and Sets
Sets enable you to share grades that are common across business units in your enterprise. You can assign grades to either a specific set or to the common set to each grade. If you assign the grade to the common set, then the grade is available for use in all business units.
Note:
* grade rate
Used to define pay values for grades in a legislative data group.

Incorrect answers:
C: Create grade ladders to group grades and grades with steps in the sequence in which your workers typically progress. Grade ladders describe the grades and steps to which a worker is eligible to progress and compensation value associated with that grade and step. You can set up separate grade ladders for different types of jobs or positions in your enterprise. For example, you may create three grade ladders for your enterprise: one for technical grades, another for management grades, and a third for administrative grades.
Reference: Oracle Fusion Applications Compensation Management Implementation Guide, Define Workforce Structures: Define Grades
QUESTION 10
Your company wants to track the previous employment information for workers, including employer name, dates of employment, and job description. What should you do?
A. Create a new content type and content item.
B. Use seeded content type and new content item.
C. Create a new content type but seeded content item.
D. Create free-form content type and new content item.
E. Create free form content type without content item.

Correct Answer: E Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Free-form content types enable you to capture information in a profile that you do not need to store in the content library. For example, you can set up a free-form content type to store information about the previous employment information for your workers.
A free-form content type contains only a code, name, and a description, and does not have any properties defined for it until you add it to a profile type. Free-form content types do not include any content items.
Reference: Fusion Applications Help, Define Workforce Profiles FAQs
QUESTION 11
You have to compare two jobs. What are the three data sets on which the comparison can be based?
A. Competencies
B. Salary
C. Assignment
D. Development plans
E. Potential
F. Contracts

Correct Answer: ABC Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
A: Using the comparison feature, you can compare profiles to determine next career moves or training needs for workers, and identify suitable candidates for jobs. For example, if John is looking for his next career move, he can compare his profile to that of a job to determine whether his competency ratings match the targeted competency ratings in a job profile.
QUESTION 12
As an HR Administrator, you search for a worker’s record and want to update certain values on the assignment level. Your legal employer has not allowed for an override at the assignment level. However, as an HR Administrator, you are aware that certain values are editable.
Identity two options that contain these editable values on the assignment.
A. Assignment Name, Assignment Number
B. Job, Location
C. Assignment Category, Person Type
D. Assignment Status, Assignment Projected End Date
E. Assignment Number, Job

Correct Answer: AC Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
You can edit the following values on the assignment regardless of whether override at the assignment level is allowed:
*
Assignment name

*
Assignment number

*
Assignment status

*
Assignment projected end date
Reference; Oracle Fusion Applications Workforce Deployment, Human Resources Guide, Editing Inherited Values on Assignments
QUESTION 13
Your customer is making regular updates to HR data and wants to keep a history of the changes made. While updating employee records, which two fields are date effective?
A. Person number
B. First Name
C. Phone number
D. Date of Birth
E. National identification Number
F. Assignment details

Correct Answer: CF Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Phone number and assignment details might change over time.

The following objects related to person records are date-effective: contact relationships, disabilities,
gender, marital status, person name, person addresses, visas, and work permits.
Note 1: Many Human Capital Management (HCM) objects are date-effective. The list of HCM date-
effective objects includes but is not limited to: assignments, benefits plans and plan types, element
definitions, eligibility profiles, employment terms, grades, grade rates, grade ladders, jobs, job families,
locations, organizations, payrolls, personal payment methods, and positions.

Note 2: Date Effectivity: Explained
The attributes of most business objects are likely to change over time. For example, grade rates may
increase or a location’s address may change. For some types of objects, such as payrolls, assignments,
and organizations, a history of changes is maintained. Professional users can retrieve and edit the version
of an object that was current on a specified date. Such objects are referred to as dateeffective objects.

Reference: Reference; Oracle Fusion Applications Workforce Deployment, Human Resources Guide, Date
Effectivity: Explained

QUESTION 14
Identity the correct description of the free-form content type
A. Free form content types do not contain relationships and do not contain properties until you add them to a profile type.
B. Free-form content types contain relationships and contain properties as part of profile type.
C. Free-form content types do not contain relationships but contain properties as part of profile type.
D. Free-form content types contain relationship and do not contain until you add them to a profile type.

Correct Answer: A Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Free-form content types enable you to capture information in a profile that you do not need to store in the content library. For example, you can set up a free-form content type to store information about the previous employment information for your workers.
A free-form content type contains only a code, name, and a description, and does not have any properties defined for it until you add it to a profile type. Free-form content types do not include any content items.
Reference: Fusion Applications Help, Define Workforce Profiles FAQs
QUESTION 15
Oracle Authorization Policy Manager User Interface uses the general operational principle of allowing the administrator to identify a security object first and after the object has been selected, allow him or her to choose one of the operations available on it.
Choose the three typical security tasks performed using Oracle Authorization Policy Manager.
A. Viewing Full Roles Hierarchies and managing Duty Role Hierarchies.
B. securing a common object such as an attachment category or a profile Option
C. managing job and Abstract (enterprise) Roles
D. creating Implementation users that are mapped to the HR people
E. viewing Data, Job, and Role Security Policies and Permission Grants

Correct Answer: ACE Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
A: Frequently Used Operations include
*
Viewing the External Role Hierarchy

*
Managing the Application Role Hierarchy
Note: A role category is a collection of application roles. Role categories allow administrators organizing application roles in arbitrary flat collections. Role categories are not used in policy evaluations at runtime. Role categories are independent of (and should not be confused with) the role hierarchy, which applies to both application and external roles.
Note: Authorization Policy Manager greatly simplifies the creation, configuration, and administration of application policies
Incorrect answers:
D: In regards to enterprise users and external roles, Authorization Policy Manager provides viewing and searching functionality only. To manage users and external roles, use Oracle Identity Manager or some other identity management tool.
Reference; Administrator’s Guide for Authorization Policy Manager 11g,
QUESTION 16
As a consultant in your company, you are required to set up names and details of schools, colleges, universities, and so on, so that users can select from this list when entering their qualifications such as degrees.
Identify the correct setup task in FSM > Define Workplace Profiles.
A. Define Telnet > manage Profile Types
B. Define Telnet Profile Content > Manage Content Subscribers
C. Define Telnet Profile Content > Manage Profile Content Items D. Define Telnet Profile Content > Manage Educational Establishments

Correct Answer: D Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Manage Educational Establishments: Create and update a list of educational establishments that your workers have attended, including high schools, colleges, universities, and professional schools.
Reference: Oracle Fusion Applications Product Information Management Implementation Guide 11g, Define Enterprise: Manage Enterprise HCM Information
QUESTION 17
You are implementing Oracle Fusion HCM and feel users may find it useful to be reminded of the effective date whenever they open a window where they can enter or change date-tracked information. You plan to implement the user profile option called “DateTrack: Reminder” that determines when the decision window appear to ask users if they want to change the effective date.
Identify the three possible values for this profile.
A. Once
B. Never
C. Not now
D. Not Today
E. Always

Correct Answer: ABE Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 18
There are two legal employers identified for your current application implementation. The legal employers have inherited the number generation method set at the enterprise. However, there is a need to override the number generation method at the legal employer level.
Identify two options where an override can be done.
A. No condition. The worker generation method Can be changed to automatic at any time.
B. The employment model selected should be a two-tier one.
C. No employee or contingent worker work relationships should exist for that legal employer.
D. The employment model selected should be a three-tier one.
E. Manual worker-number generation for a legal employer can be selected any time.

Correct Answer: CD Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
All legal employers automatically inherit the enterprise number-generation method. You can override the number-generation method at the legal employer level, as follows:
*
(C) You can select automatic worker-number generation for a legal employer, provided that no employee or contingent worker work relationships exist for that legal employer.

*
(E) You can select manual worker-number generation for a legal employer at any time.
Reference: Oracle Fusion Applications Workforce Deployment Implementation Guide 11g, Setting the Number-Generation Method for a Legal Employer
QUESTION 19
You hired a female employee on January 1, 2011. This employee got married on June 12, 2011. You received a request from the employee on July 11, 2012 to change her last name from the date of her marriage. You changed the last name of the employee as requested on the same day.
What is the effective start date of personal details displayed by the system as of August 15, 2011?
A. June 12, 2011
B. July 11, 2011
C. January 1, 2011
D. August 15, 2011

Correct Answer: A Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
To maintain employee data effectively Oracle HCM is using a mechanism called date tracking.The main
motive behind the date track mode is to maintain past,present and future data effectively.
The various update date track modes are:

CORRECTION : Over writes the data. No history will maintain. UPDATE : Keeps the history and new
change will effect as of effective date UPDATE_CHANGE_INSERT : Inserts the record and preserves the
future UPDATE_OVERRIDE : Inserts the record and overrides the future Example:
QUESTION 20
While Implementing Oracle Fusion HCM you would like to use all the seeded Action types available.
Identify four valid Seeded Action Types that can be used for this Implementation.
A. Hire an employee
B. Hire Contractor
C. Leave of Absence
D. Promotion
E. Global Transfer
F. Termination

Correct Answer: ACDF Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Note: Action Type
*
Action type identifies the type of business process associated with the action and determines what happens when you select an action. An action type is associated with one or more predefined actions. You can create your own actions and associate them with the predefined action types. For example, the Hire an Employee action type is associated with the Hire action. You could create an action Hire Part-Time and associate it with the Hire an Employee action type. Your action appears in the Action list of values on the Hire an Employee page. To hire a part-time employee, you could select the Hire Part-Time action instead of the predefined Hire action.

*
Action types are predefined and can contain one or more actions. You may associate your actions with the predefined action types but not create your own action types.
Note 2: Seeded items are items that are provided out of the box.

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Question: 1
A data load rules file provides which options to load data?
A. Add to existing values, subtract from existing values, overwrite existing values
B. Add to existing values, average with existing values, overwrite existing values
C. Add to existing values, average with existing values, subtract from existing values
Answer: A
Question: 2
In Smart View for Office – before you refresh a worksheet you activate the display option to suppress #Missing values. When you refresh your worksheet, Analytic Services returns:
A. Rows with data only and all columns
B. Rows and columns with data only
C. Rows with null values only

Answer: A
Question: 3
If a dimension is missing in your data source, what does Analytic Services do when you load the data?
A. Analytic Services automatically loads data to the top level in the missing dimension.
B. Analytic Services does not load any data.
C. Analytic Services loads data only if your rules files specifies the missing dimension.

Answer: C
Question: 4
A calculation script
A. Contains a series of calculation commands, equations, and/or formulas.
B. Contains a series of calculation and/or database automation commands.
C. Is a Windows batch file that contains calculation commands.
Answer: A
Question: 5
Which member property ensures a member is always calculated on retrieval?
A. Dynamic Calc
B. Dynamic Calc and Store
C. Two-pass calculation
Answer: A Question: 6

Exam Name: Hyperion Essbase Analytics9.3 Developer
Exam Type: Oracle
Exam Code: 1Z0-264 Total Questions: 51

Which outline hierarchy produces the following calculation: Parent = (Member1 – (Member2 / Member3)) * Member4

A. B

Answer: A
Question: 7
View the Exhibit.
Which of the following script examples are valid?

Exam Name: Hyperion Essbase Analytics9.3 Developer
Exam Type: Oracle
Exam Code: 1Z0-264 Total Questions: 51
A. Example A only
B. Example C only
C. Examples A, B, and C
D. Examples A and C

Answer: A

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QUESTION 1
Evaluate this PeopleCode snippet.
Local Array of Number &MyArray; Local Any &Len, &Result;
&MyArray = CreateArray(3); &MyArray[1] = 100; &MyArray[2] = 200; &MyArray[3] = 300;
&Result = &MyArray.POP(); &Len = &MyArray.LEN; &End = &MyArray[&Len];
What are the correct values for &Result and &End?
A. &Result is 300&End is 200
B. &Result is 300&End is Null
C. &Result is 300&End is 300
D. &Result is Null&End is 300
E. &Result is 100&End is 300
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2
View the Exhibit.
An object-oriented PeopleCode program traverses the data buffer to get the value for Session Number (SESSION_NBR) in the Session Details record (PSU_CRS_SESSN) on the Course Sessions page. The program uses a built-in function to instantiate the Level 0 object, then uses object methods to instantiate the remaining data buffer objects.
Select the option that represents the order in which the program instantiates the data buffer objects.

A. &Row_Level0, &Row _Level1, &Record, &Field
B. &Rowset_Level0, &Row_Level1, &Record, &Field
C. &Rowset_Level0, &Rowset_Level1, &Row_Level1, &Record, &Field
D. &Rowset_Level0, &Row _Level0, &Rowset_Level1, &Row _Level1, &Record, &Field

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 3
Here is a snippet of PeopleCode that uses the Fetch method of the SQL class.
&SQL = CreateSQL(“Select EFFORT_AMT from PS_PSU_TASK_EFFORT where TASK= :1”,
PSU_TASK_TBL.TASK);
&Var1 = &SQL.Fetch(&Var2);

Select the two correct statements. (Choose two.)

A. &Var2 specifies which row to fetch.
B. &Var2 specifies which field to fetch.
C. &Var1 is populated with TRUE if a row is fetched.
D. &Var1 is populated with the number of rows returned.
E. &Var2 is populated with EFFORT_AMT from the row fetched.
F. &Var1 is populated with EFFORT_AMT from the row fetched.
G. &Var1 is populated with EFFORT_AMT from the first row returned.

Correct Answer: CE
QUESTION 4
The Customer Orders page uses data from the ITEM table to perform price calculations. You decide to write a PeopleCode program to create a stand-alone rowset that will load data from the ITEM table into the data buffer. Select three PeopleCode statements that can be used with stand-alone rowsets. (Choose three.)
A. &RS_Item = GetRowSet(SCROLL.ITEM);
B. &RS_Item = CreateRowSet(RECORD.ITEM);
C. &Price = &RS_Item(&i).ITEM.PRICE.Value;
D. &RS_Item.Select(“Where ITEM = :1”, CUST_ORDER.ITEM);
E. &RS_Item.Fill(“Where CUST_TYPE = :1”, CUST_ORDER.TYPE);
F. &RS_Item = ScrollSelect(1,Scroll.ITEM, Record.ITEM, (“Where CUST_TYPE = :1”, CUST_ORDER. CUST_TYPE);

Correct Answer: BCE QUESTION 5
View the Exhibit.
On the Employee Review page, you have a business rule with these requirements:

1.
If Review Type is Supervisor, then the prompt for Reviewer ID returns only supervisors.

2.
If Review Type is Peer or Performance, then the prompt for Reviewer ID returns all employees. Select the three steps required to implement this business rule. (Choose three.)

A. Associate the REVIEWER_ID field with REVIEWER_VW.
B. Create REVIEWER_VW as a dynamic view of the EMPLOYEE table.
C. Add the DERIVED.EDITTABLE field to the page and make it invisible.
D. Set the prompt table edit for the REVIEWER_ID field to REVIEWER_VW.
E. Set the prompt table edit for the REVIEWER_ID field to DERIVED.%EDITTABLE.
F. Use a SQL Select statement in PeopleCode to populate the REVIEWER_VW view.
G. Use a conditional statement in PeopleCode to populate the DERIVED.EDITTABLE field.

Correct Answer: CEG
QUESTION 6
You want to examine the component buffer for the Customer Orders (PSU_CUST_ORDER ) component. Which four steps are necessary? (Choose four.)
A. Start the PeopleCode Debugger and set a breakpoint.
B. Access the Structure view on the PSU_CUST_ORDER component.
C. In Application Designer, select Component Buffers.
D. Access the Customer Orders component in the browser and trigger the breakpoint. Return to PeopleSoft Application Designer when the breakpoint triggers.
E. Open, or create, a PeopleCode program that will execute while Customer Orders is running in the browser.
F. Drill down through the component hierarchy in the Structure view on the PSU_CUST_ORDER component.
G. In Application Designer, select Debug, View Component Buffers.

Correct Answer: ADEG QUESTION 7
View the Exhibit.
Your client is upgrading its purchasing application to use object-oriented PeopleCode to incorporate the
benefits of application classes.

The PeopleCode for the Purchase Order application is now encapsulated in an Application Package called
PSU_PO. The assign_order_nbr function is now ORDER_NBR, a method of the ORDER class.

You are tasked with modifying this program to call the new ORDER_NBR method.

Which four PeopleCode statements will you use in the new program? (Choose four.)
A. Class PSU_PO:ORDER;
B. &New.ORDER_NBR(PSU_PO_HDR.ORDER_NBR);
C. Import PSU_PO:ORDER;
D. Declare method PSU_PO:ORDER:ORDER_NBR;
E. &New = Create Order();
F. Local ORDER &New;
G. Method ORDER_NBR (&ORDER_NBR As Field out);

Correct Answer: BCEF
QUESTION 8
You want to see exactly when a PeopleCode program fires in the context of the Component Processor flow. Which two methods will work? (Choose two.)
A. Insert a Print() statement in the program.
B. Insert a WinMessage() statement in the program.
C. Insert a MessageCatalog() statement in the program.
D. Run the PeopleCode Debugger and insert a breakpoint on the program.
E. Run the PeopleCode Debugger and select Debug, View Component Buffers.

Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 9
View the Exhibit.
A PeopleCode program at level 0 checks the values for Percent Available (PCT_AVAILABLE) at level 1.
Analyze this code snippet.
Local Rowset &RS_Level0, &RS_Level1;
Local Row &Row_Level0, &Row_Level1;
Local Record &Rec_TaskRsrc;
Local Field & Fld_PctAvail ;

&RS_Level0 = GetLevel0();
&Row_Level0 = &RS_Level0.GetRow(1);
&RS_Level1 = &Row_Level0.GetRowset(Scroll.PSU_TASK_RSRC); &Row_Level1 =
&RS_Level1.GetRow(1);
&Rec_TaskRsrc = &Row_Level1.GetRecord(Record.PSU_Task_RSRC); &Fld_PctAvail =
&Rec_TaskRsrc.GetField(Field.PCT_AVAILABLE); &Pct = &Fld_PctAvail.Value;

Select the correct option.
A. The program will produce the expected results.
B. The program is missing a loop to process each row in the level 1 rowset.
C. The program is missing a loop to process each rowset in the level 1 row.
D. The program can be simplified to:&Pct = &RS_Level0.PSU_Task_RSRC.PCT_AVAILABLE.Value;
E. This line of code is not needed:&RS_Level1 = &Row_Level0.GetRowset(Scroll.PSU_TASK_RSRC);
F. The &RS_Level0 = GetLevel0(); function is missing the Level 0 scroll name.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 10
The Get Student Enrollments page uses a PeopleCode program to select and display rows based on user input. When the user clicks Refresh, FieldChange PeopleCode populates a stand-alone rowset using a Select method. When you test the program, the new rows are appended to the previous rows instead of replacing them. How do you fix this problem?
A. Use a work scroll instead of a stand-alone rowset.
B. Add &Rowset.Flush(); after the Select method.
C. Use an Update method instead of a Select method.
D. Add &Rowset.Flush(); before the Select method.
E. Add &Rowset.Refresh (); after the Select method.
F. Add &Rowset.Refresh(); before the Select method.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 11
Examine the join in this Select statement: SELECT A.TASK , B.EFFORT_AMT FROM PS_PROJECT A , PS_EFFORT B WHERE A.TASK = B.TASK AND A.RESOURCE = B.RESOURCE
Select the equivalent Select statement.
A. SELECT A.TASK , B.EFFORT_AMTFROM PS_PROJECT A , PS_EFFORT BWHERE %Join(A.TASK, B.RESOURCE)
B. SELECT A.TASK , B.EFFORT_AMTFROM PS_PROJECT A , PS_EFFORT BWHERE %Common (PROJECT A, EFFORT B)
C. SELECT A.TASK , B.EFFORT_AMTFROM %Common(KEYS, PROJECT A, EFFORT B)
D. SELECT A.TASK , B.EFFORT_AMTFROM PS_PROJECT A , PS_EFFORT BWHERE %Join (COMMON_KEYS, TASK A, EFFORT_AMTB)
E. SELECT A.TASK , B.EFFORT_AMTFROM %Join(COMMON_KEYS, PROJECT A, EFFORT B)

Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 12
A Process Scheduler process is configured to run an Application Engine program. You need to modify the process to use parameters entered by the user at run time. Which four additional steps do you need to take? (Choose four.)
A. Create a process type for the new process.
B. Add bind variables to the command-line parameters.
C. Write a PeopleCode program to pass the parameters.
D. Create a state record with fields to pass input parameters.
E. Create a run control page with fields to enter the input parameters.
F. Create a run control record with fields to store the input parameters.
G. Modify the Application Engine program to retrieve the input parameters.
Correct Answer: DEFG
QUESTION 13
View the Exhibit.
This run control page executes an Application Engine program that updates the Course table using the parameters entered by a user.
In addition to the run control page, which three elements must be in place? (Choose three.)

A. A state record with fields to hold input parameters
B. Component variables to pass the input parameters
C. A data buffer object to retrieve the input parameters
D. Application Engine SQL to retrieve the input parameters
E. A PeopleCode record object to update the Course table
F. A Process Instance table to store run control parameters
G. A run control record with fields to store the input parameters

Correct Answer: ADG
QUESTION 14
Select three Application Engine action types that can be used to control program flow. (Choose three.)
A. Log Message
B. Call Section
C. XSLT
D. PeopleCode
E. Do While
F. Evaluate

Correct Answer: BDE
QUESTION 15
You modify an Application Engine program to use parallel processing with temporary tables.
The Application Engine program includes this code snippet, which is part of a SQL statement that inserts rows into a temporary table.
INSERT INTO PS_CRS_FULL_TMP
What changes do you need to make to the code so that the Application Engine program will implement parallel processing properly?
A. No changes to the code are needed as long as the temporary table has been properly configured for parallel processing.
B. Replace INSERT INTO PS_CRS_FULL_TMP with %INSERT INTO PS_CRS_FULL_TMP so that the meta-SQL resolves to the correct state record at run time.
C. Replace INSERT INTO PS_CRS_FULL_TMP with %INSERT INTO %Table(CRS_FULL_TMP) so that the system variables resolve to the correct syntax at run time.
D. Replace INSERT INTO PS_CRS_FULL_TMP with INSERT INTO %Table(CRS_FULL_TMP) so that the meta-SQL resolves to the correct temporary table instance at run time.
E. Replace INSERT INTO PS_CRS_FULL_TMP with %INSERT INTO %Temp(CRS_FULL_TMP) so that the meta-SQL resolves to the correct syntax and temporary table instance at run time.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 16
An Application Engine program uses a Do Select action. What occurs when the Select statement is executed?
A. Each row returned by the Select statement is stored in the state record. The Select statement continues until no more rows are returned. Then, the control passes to the calling section.
B. All rows returned by the Select statement are stored in a cursor. Then, the control is passed to the calling section.
C. All rows returned by the Select statement are stored in the state record. Then, the control is passed to the next section in the program.
D. All rows returned by the Select statement are stored in a cursor. The first row is stored in the state record. Then, the remaining actions in the step are processed sequentially. Thereafter, the control returns to the Do Select to fetch another row, until no more rows are returned.
E. When a row is returned, the remaining steps in the section execute and control returns to the calling step.
F. When a row is returned, it is stored in the state record. Then, the control is passed to the calling section.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 17
An Application Engine program inserts rows into PS_VENDOR.
The program encounters an error and abends (ends abnormally).
You correct the error, but now PS_VENDOR is in an unknown state.
Select the correct statement.
A. If Log File was enabled in Configuration Manager, a script file was created that you use to return the database to its original state. After you correct the error, you can run the program again.
B. If Recover was enabled for the program, the changes to PS_VENDOR are rolled back. After you correct the error, you can run the program again.
C. If Restart was enabled for the program, a checkpoint was saved with the last commit. After you correct the error, you can restart the program and processing will resume from the point of the last commit.
D. If Resume was enabled in PeopleSoft Process Scheduler, the program automatically resumes processing after the condition that caused the error is corrected.
E. If a state record was defined for the program, PS_VENDOR is restored based on parameters that were written to the state record. Then you can restart the program using the same run control parameters.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 18
How do you configure Process Scheduler to initiate an Application Engine trace for SQL and Step?
A. Add %%TRACE%% %%SQL%% %%STEP%% to the parameter list for the Process Type.
B. On the Run Control page, select the SQL Trace and Step Trace check boxes.
C. On the Process Monitor page, select the SQL Trace and Step Trace check boxes.
D. On the Process Definition Override Options page, for Parameter List, select Append and enter -TRACE
3.
E. On the Process Definition Override Options page, for Parameter List, select Append and enter -TRACE SQL STEP.
F. On the Process Definition Override Options page, for Parameter List, select Append and enter % % TRACE%% %%SQL%% %%STEP%%.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 19
You add a dynamic call to an Application Engine program following these steps:
1.
Add the fields AE_APPLID and AE_SECTION to the state record if they are not already present.

2.
Build the state record.

3.
Verify that the state record is the default state record for the Application Engine program.

4.
In a PeopleCode action, use a conditional test to populate the fields AE_APPLID and AE_SECTION with an Application Engine program name and section name, respectively.

5.
Following the PeopleCode action, add a Call Section action.
Select the correct statement.
A. The Application Engine program will execute as expected.
B. Step 2 is not needed for dynamic call.
C. Step 3 is not needed.
D. Add a step after step 5 to insert a SQL action that will use the values in the state record to populate the Program and Section fields of the Application Engine Call Section action.
E. Add a step after step 5 to select the Dynamic Call check box in the Call Section action.
F. Step 4 is wrong. The PeopleCode program should use the AESection class to issue the dynamic call.

Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 20
An Application Engine program requires a loop that will exit after 1000 rows have been processed. The COUNTER field in the state record is incremented in each iteration of the loop. Which option contains code that could be used in a Do While action to test for COUNTER?
A. Do While %Bind(Counter) < 1000
B. %SELECT (COUNTER)FROM PS_INSTALLATIONWhere COUNTER < 1000
C. If %Bind(Counter) >= 1000 thenExit;
D. %Select(COUNTER)FROM PS_STATE_AETWhere COUNTER < 1000
E. %Select(COUNTER)SELECT ‘X’FROM PS_INSTALLATIONWHERE %Bind(COUNTER) < 1000;

Correct Answer: E

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