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QUESTION 67
Which statements are true regarding system-partitioned tables? (Choose all that apply.)
A. Only a single partitioning key column can be specified.
B. All DML statements must use partition-extended syntax.
C. The same physical attributes must be specified for each partition.
D. Unique local indexes cannot be created on a system-partitioned table.
E. Traditional partition pruning and partitionwise joins are not supported on these tables.

Correct Answer: DE
QUESTION 68
The OPTIMIZER_USE_PLAN_BASELINES parameter is set to TRUE. The optimizer generates a plan for a SQL statement but does not find a matching plan in the SQL plan baseline. Which two operations are performed by the optimizer in this scenario? (Choose two.)
A. The optimizer adds the new plan to the plan history.
B. The optimizer selects the new plan for the execution of the SQL statement.
C. The optimizer adds the new plan to the SQL plan baseline as an accepted plan.
D. The optimizer adds the new plan to the SQL plan baseline but not in the ENABLED state.
E. The optimizer costs each of the accepted plans in the SQL plan baseline and picks the one with the lowest cost.

Correct Answer: AE
QUESTION 69
Which two statements about Oracle Direct Network File System (NFS) are true? (Choose two.)
A. It bypasses the OS file system cache
B. A separate NFS interface is required for use across Linux, UNIX, and Windows platforms.
C. It uses the operating system kernel NFS layer for user tasks and network communication modules.
D. File systems need not be mounted by the kernel NFS system when being served through Direct NFS.
E. Oracle Disk Manager can manage NFS on its own, without using the operating system kernel NFS driver.

Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 70
You are managing an Oracle Database 11 g instance with ASM storage. You lost an ASM disk group
DATA. You have RMAN backup of data as well as ASM metadata backup.
You want to re-create the missing disk group by using the ASMCMD md_restore command. Which of
these methods would you use to achieve this? (Choose all that apply.)

A. Restore metadata in an existing disk group by passing the existing disk group name as an input parameter.
B. Restore the disk group with changed disk group specification, failure group specification, disk group name, and other disk attributes.
C. Restore the disk group with the exact configuration as the backed-up disk group, using the same disk group name, same set of disks, and failure group configurations.
D. Restore the disk group with the exact configuration as the backed-up disk group, using the same disk group name, same set of disks, failure group configurations, and data on the disk group.

Correct Answer: ABC QUESTION 71
Evaluate the following command and Its output:
SQL>SELECT * FROM dba_temp_free_space;
TABLESPACE_NAME TABLESPACE_SIZE ALLOCATED_SPACE FREE_SPACE LMTEMP 250609664

101048576 149561088
Which two statements correctly interpret the output? (Choose two.)

A. FREE_SPACE indicates only the space that is currently unallocated.
B. ALLO CAT ED_S PACE indicates only the space currently allocated and in use.
C. FREE_SPACE indicates only the space that is currently allocated and available for reuse.
D. ALLO CAT ED_S PACE indicates both the space currently allocated and used, and the space that is available for reuse.
E. FREE_SPACE indicates both the space that is currently allocated and available for reuse, and the space that is currently unallocated.
Correct Answer: DE QUESTION 72
In your database, the RESULT_CACHE_MODE parameter has been set to MANUAL in the initialization parameter file.
You issued the following command:
SQL>SELECT /*+ RESULT_CACHE 7 sale_categoiy, sum(sale_amt) FROM sales
GROUP BY sale_categoiy;

Where would the result of this query be stored?

A. PGA
B. large pool
C. shared pool
D. database buffer cache

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 73
You are working on a CATDB database that contains an Oracle Database version 11.1 catalog schema owned by the userRC011. The INST1 database contains an Oracle Database version 10.1 catalog schema owned by the user RCAT10.
You want the RMAN to import metadata for database IDs 1423241 and 1423242, registered in RCAT10, into the recover catalog owned by RC011.
You executed the following RMAN commands:
RMAN> CONNECT CATALOG rco1 1/[email protected] RMAN> IMPORT CATALOG rcat1 0/[email protected];
What happens when you execute the above commands? (Choose all that apply.)
A. They deregister all databases registered in the RCAT10 catalog.
B. They import metadata for all registered databases in the RCAT10 database.
C. They register all the RCATIO-catalog registered databases in the RC011 catalog.
D. They overwrite all stored scripts in the RC011 catalog with the same name as that in the RCAT10 catalog.

Correct Answer: ABC
QUESTION 74
Which three are the valid statements in relation to SQL plan baselines? (Choose three.)
A. The plans can be manually loaded to the SQL plan baseline.
B. The plans in the SQL plan baseline are verified and accepted plans.
C. The plans generated for every SQL statement are stored in the SQL plan baseline by default.
D. The plan baselines are stored temporarily in the memory as long as the database instance is running.
E. For the SQL plan baselines to be accessible to the optimizer, the SYSAUX tablespace must be online.

Correct Answer: ABE
QUESTION 75
You run the SQL Tuning Advisor (STA) to tune a SQL statement that is part of a fixed SQL plan baseline. The STA generates a SQL profile for the SQL statement, which recommends that you accept the profile. Which statement is true when you accept the suggested SQL profile?
A. The tuned plan is not added to the SQL plan baseline.
B. The tuned plan is added to the fixed SQL plan baseline as a fixed plan.
C. The tuned plan is added to the fixed SQL plan baseline as a nonfixed plan.
D. The tuned plan is added to a new nonfixed SQL plan baseline as a nonfixed plan.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 76
Which three statements correctly describe the features of the I/O calibration process? (Choose three.)
A. Only one I/O calibration process can run at a time
B. It automates the resource allocation for the Automated Maintenance Tasks.
C. It improves the performance of the performance-critical sessions while running.
D. It can be used to estimate the maximum number of l/Os and maximum latency time for the system.
E. The latency time is computed only when the TIMED_STATISTICS initialization parameter is set to TRUE.
Correct Answer: ADE
QUESTION 77
Which two statements about the SQL Management Base (SMB) are true? (Choose two.)
A. It contains only SQL profiles generated by SQL Tuning Advisor.
B. It stores plans generated by the optimizer using a stored outline.
C. It is part of the data dictionary and stored in the SYSAUXtablespace.
D. It is part of the data dictionary and stored in the SYSTEM tablespace.
E. It contains the statement log, the plan history, plan baselines, and SQL profiles.

Correct Answer: CE
QUESTION 78
Sales details are being stored on a daily basis in the SALES_2007 table. A large amount of data is added to the table daily. To save disk space, you issued the following command:
ALTER TABLE sales_2007 COMPRESS FOR ALL OPERATIONS; What would be the outcome of this command?
A. It produces an error because data already exists in the table.
B. It produces an error because compression can be enabled at table creation only.
C. It compresses all data added or modified henceforth but the existing data in the table is not compressed immediately.
D. It immediately compresses all existing data as well as new data, resulting from either fresh additions or modifications to existing data.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 79
Which client requests to the database can be captured as a part of the workload capture? (Choose all that apply.)
A. flashback query
B. distributed transactions
C. logging in and logging out of sessions
D. all DDL statements having bind variables
E. direct path load of data from external files

Correct Answer: CD
QUESTION 80
Which two statements are true regarding the SQL Repair Advisor? (Choose two.)
A. The SQL Repair Advisor can be invoked to tune the performance of the regressed SQL statements.
B. The SQL Repair Advisor can be invoked even when the incident is not active for a SQL statement crash.
C. The SQL Repair Advisor is invoked by the Health Monitor when it encounters the problematic SQL statement.
D. The DBA can invoke the SQL Repair Advisor when he or she receives an alert generated when a SQL statement crashes and an incident is created in the ADR.
Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 81
Which setting enables the baselines by default in Oracle Database 11g?
A. setting the STATISTICS_LEVEL parameter to TYPICAL
B. adding filters to the Automatic Database Diagnostic Monitor (ADDM)
C. enabling Automated Maintenance Task using Oracle Enterprise Manager
D. setting the OPTIMIZER_USE_PENDING_STATISTICS parameter to TRUE
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 82
Which two activities are NOT supported by the Data Recovery Advisor? (Choose two.)
A. Diagnose and repair a data file corruption offline.
B. Diagnose and repair a data file corruption online.
C. Diagnose and repair failures on a standby database.
D. Recover from failures in the Real Application Cluster (RAC) environment.
Correct Answer: CD
QUESTION 83
In which cases is reference partitioning effective in enhancing performance?
A. It is effective only in partition pruning.
B. It is effective only in partitionwise joins provided that the query predicates are different from the partitioning key.
C. It is effective in both partition pruning as well as partitionwise joins provided that the query predicates are identical to the partitioning key.
D. It is effective in both partition pruning as well as partitionwise joins irrespective of whether the query predicates are different from or identical to the partitioning key.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 84
Your database initialization parameter file has the following entry:
SEC_MAX_FAILED_LOGIN_ATTEMPTS=3
Which statement is true regarding this setting?
A. It is enforced only if the password profile is enabled for the user.
B. It locks the user account after the specified number of attempts.
C. It drops the connection after the specified number of login attempts fail for any user.
D. It drops the connection after the specified number of login attempts fail only for users who have the SYSDBA privilege.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 85
Which statement is true for enabling Enterprise Manager Support Workbench in Oracle Database 11g to upload the physical files generated by Incident Packaging Service (IPS) to MetaLink?
A. The database must be running in ARCHIVELOG mode.
B. No special setup is required, and the feature is enabled by default.
C. The path for the Automatic Diagnostic Repository (ADR) must be configured with the DIAGNOSTIC_DEST initialization parameter.
D. The Enterprise Manager Support Workbench can be enabled only if the background process manageability monitor (MMON) is configured.
E. Select the Enable option in the Oracle Configuration Manager Registration window during the installation of the Oracle Database 11 g software, provide valid MetaLink credentials and select license agreement.
Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 86
Which two statements are true regarding Health Monitor checks in Oracle Database 11g? (Choose two.)
A. Health Monitor checks are always initiated manually when there is some critical error.
B. Health Monitor checks can be used to scan the contents of the redo log and archive logs for accessibility and corruption
C. Health Monitor checks can be used to verify the contents of dictionary entries for each dictionary object and fix it automatically.
D. Health Monitor checks can be used to verify the integrity of database files and report failures if these files are inaccessible, corrupt or inconsistent.
Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 87
a

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QUESTION 30
View the Exhibit and examine the description for the CUSTOMERS table.

You want to update the CUST_CREDIT_LIMIT column to NULL for all the customers, where CUST_INCOME_LEVEL has NULL in the CUSTOMERS table. Which SQL statement will accomplish the task?
A. UPDATE customers SET cust_credit_limit = NULL WHERE CUST_INCOME_LEVEL = NULL;
B. UPDATE customers SET cust_credit_limit = NULL WHERE cust_income_level IS NULL;
C. UPDATE customers SET cust_credit_limit = TO_NUMBER(NULL) WHERE cust_income_level = TO_NUMBER(NULL);
D. UPDATE customers SET cust_credit_limit = TO_NUMBER(‘ ‘,9999) WHERE cust_income_level IS NULL;

Correct Answer: B Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 31
Which two statements about sub queries are true? (Choose two.)
A. A sub query should retrieve only one row.
B. A sub query can retrieve zero or more rows.
C. A sub query can be used only in SQL query statements.
D. Sub queries CANNOT be nested by more than two levels.
E. A sub query CANNOT be used in an SQL query statement that uses group functions.
F. When a sub query is used with an inequality comparison operator in the outer SQL statement, the column list in the SELECT clause of the sub query should contain only one column.

Correct Answer: BF Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: sub query can retrieve zero or more rows, sub query is used with an inequality comparison operator in the outer SQL statement, and the column list in the SELECT clause of the sub query should contain only one column.
Incorrect answer: A sub query can retrieve zero or more rows C sub query is not SQL query statement D sub query can be nested E group function can be use with sub query
QUESTION 32
View the Exhibit and examine the structure of the PROMOTIONS table.

You have to generate a report that displays the promo name and start date for all promos that started after the last promo in the ‘INTERNET’ category.
Which query would give you the required output?
A. SELECT promo_name, promo_begin_date FROM promotions WHERE promo_begin_date > ALL (SELECT MAX(promo_begin_date) FROM promotions ) AND promo_category = ‘INTERNET’;
B. SELECT promo_name, promo_begin_date FROM promotions WHERE promo_begin_date IN (SELECT promo_begin_date FROM promotions WHERE promo_category=’INTERNET’);
C. SELECT promo_name, promo_begin_date FROM promotions WHERE promo_begin_date > ALL (SELECT promo_begin_date FROM promotions WHERE promo_category = ‘INTERNET’);
D. SELECT promo_name, promo_begin_date FROM promotions WHERE promo_begin_date > ANY (SELECT promo_begin_date FROM promotions WHERE promo_category = ‘INTERNET’);

Correct Answer: C Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 33
Which are /SQL*Plus commands? (Choose all that apply.)
A. INSERT
B. UPDATE
C. SELECT
D. DESCRIBE
E. DELETE
F. RENAME

Correct Answer: D Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Describe is a valid iSQL*Plus/ SQL*Plus command.
INSERT, UPDATE & DELETE are SQL DML Statements. A SELECT is an ANSI Standard SQL Statement

not an iSQL*Plus Statement. RENAME is a DDL Statement.
QUESTION 34
Which two statements are true regarding the COUNT function? (Choose two.)
A. COUNT(*) returns the number of rows including duplicate rows and rows containing NULL value in any of the columns
B. COUNT(cust_id) returns the number of rows including rows with duplicate customer IDs and NULL value in the CUST_ID column
C. COUNT(DISTINCT inv_amt) returns the number of rows excluding rows containing duplicates and NULL values in the INV_AMT column
D. A SELECT statement using COUNT function with a DISTINCT keyword cannot have a WHERE clause
E. The COUNT function can be used only for CHAR, VARCHAR2 and NUMBER data types

Correct Answer: AC Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Using the COUNT Function
The COUNT function has three formats:
COUNT(*)
COUNT(expr)
COUNT(DISTINCT expr)
COUNT(*) returns the number of rows in a table that satisfy the criteria of the SELECT statement, including
duplicate rows and rows containing null values in any of the columns. If a WHERE clause is included in the
SELECT statement, COUNT(*) returns the number of rows that satisfy the condition in the WHERE clause.
In contrast,
COUNT(expr) returns the number of non-null values that are in the column identified by expr. COUNT
(DISTINCT expr) returns the number of unique, non-null values that are in the column identified by expr.

QUESTION 35
Examine the description of the EMP_DETAILS table given below: Exhibit:

Which two statements are true regarding SQL statements that can be executed on the EMP_DETAIL table? (Choose two.)
A. An EMP_IMAGE column can be included in the GROUP BY clause
B. You cannot add a new column to the table with LONG as the data type
C. An EMP_IMAGE column cannot be included in the ORDER BY clause
D. You can alter the table to include the NOT NULL constraint on the EMP_IMAGE column

Correct Answer: BC Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: LONG Character data in the database character set, up to 2GB. All the functionality of LONG (and more) is provided by CLOB; LONGs should not be used in a modern database, and if your database has any columns of this type they should be converted to CLOB. There can only be one LONG column in a table. Guidelines A LONG column is not copied when a table is created using a subquery. A LONG column cannot be
included in a GROUP BY or an ORDER BY clause.
Only one LONG column can be used per table.
No constraints can be defined on a LONG column.
You might want to use a CLOB column rather than a LONG column.

QUESTION 36
Which CREATE TABLE statement is valid?
A. CREATE TABLE ord_details (ord_no NUMBER(2) PRIMARY KEY, item_no NUMBER(3) PRIMARY KEY, ord_date DATE NOT NULL);
B. CREATE TABLE ord_details (ord_no NUMBER(2) UNIQUE, NOT NULL, item_no NUMBER(3), ord_date DATE DEFAULT SYSDATE NOT NULL);
C. CREATE TABLE ord_details (ord_no NUMBER(2) , item_no NUMBER(3), ord_date DATE DEFAULT NOT NULL, CONSTRAINT ord_uq UNIQUE (ord_no), CONSTRAINT ord_pk PRIMARY KEY (ord_no));
D. CREATE TABLE ord_details (ord_no NUMBER(2), item_no NUMBER(3), ord_date DATE DEFAULT SYSDATE NOT NULL, CONSTRAINT ord_pk PRIMARY KEY (ord_no, item_no));

Correct Answer: D Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: PRIMARY KEY Constraint A PRIMARY KEY constraint creates a primary key for the table. Only one primary key can be created for each table. The PRIMARY KEY constraint is a column or a set of columns that uniquely identifies each row in a table. This constraint enforces the uniqueness of the column or column combination and ensures that no column that is part of the primary key can contain a null value. Note: Because uniqueness is part of the primary key constraint definition, the Oracle server enforces the uniqueness by implicitly creating a unique index on the primary key column or columns.
QUESTION 37
See the exhibit and examine the structure of the CUSTOMERS and GRADES tables: You need to display names and grades of customers who have the highest credit limit. Which two SQL statements would accomplish the task? (Choose two.)

A. SELECT custname, grade FROM customers, grades WHERE (SELECT MAX(cust_credit_limit) FROM customers) BETWEEN startval and endval;
B. SELECT custname, grade FROM customers, grades WHERE (SELECT MAX(cust_credit_limit) FROM customers) BETWEEN startval and endval AND cust_credit_limit BETWEEN startval AND endval;
C. SELECT custname, grade FROM customers, grades WHERE cust_credit_limit = (SELECT MAX(cust_credit_limit) FROM customers) AND cust_credit_limit BETWEEN startval AND endval;
D. SELECT custname, grade FROM customers , grades WHERE cust_credit_limit IN (SELECT MAX(cust_credit_limit) FROM customers) AND MAX(cust_credit_limit) BETWEEN startval AND endval;

Correct Answer: BC Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 38
See the Exhibit and Examine the structure of the CUSTOMERS table:

Using the CUSTOMERS table, you need to generate a report that shows an increase in the credit limit by 15% for all customers. Customers whose credit limit has not been entered should have the message “Not Available” displayed.
Which SQL statement would produce the required result?
A. SELECT NVL(cust_credit_limit,’Not Available’)*.15 “NEW CREDIT” FROM customers;
B. SELECT NVL(cust_credit_limit*.15,’Not Available’) “NEW CREDIT” FROM customers;
C. SELECT TO_CHAR(NVL(cust_credit_limit*.15,’Not Available’)) “NEW CREDIT” FROM customers;
D. SELECT NVL(TO_CHAR(cust_credit_limit*.15),’Not Available’) “NEW CREDIT” FROM customers;

Correct Answer: D Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
NVL Function
Converts a null value to an actual value:
Data types that can be used are date, character, and number.
Data types must match:

NVL(commission_pct,0)
NVL(hire_date,’01-JAN-97′)
NVL(job_id,’No Job Yet’)

QUESTION 39
You need to calculate the number of days from 1st Jan 2007 till date:
Dates are stored in the default format of dd-mm-rr.
Which two SQL statements would give the required output? (Choose two.)

A. SELECT SYSDATE – TO_DATE(’01/JANUARY/2007′) FROM DUAL;
B. SELECT TO_DATE(SYSDATE,’DD/MONTH/YYYY’)-’01/JANUARY/2007′ FROM DUAL;
C. SELECT SYSDATE – TO_DATE(’01-JANUARY-2007′) FROM DUAL
D. SELECT SYSDATE – ’01-JAN-2007′ FROM DUAL
E. SELECT TO_CHAR(SYSDATE,’DD-MON-YYYY’)-’01-JAN-2007′ FROM DUAL;

Correct Answer: AC Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 40
Which two are true about aggregate functions? (Choose two.)
A. You can use aggregate functions in any clause of a SELECT statement.
B. You can use aggregate functions only in the column list of the select clause and in the WHERE clause of a SELECT statement.
C. You can mix single row columns with aggregate functions in the column list of a SELECT statement by grouping on the single row columns.
D. You can pass column names, expressions, constants, or functions as parameter to an aggregate function.
E. You can use aggregate functions on a table, only by grouping the whole table as one single group.
F. You cannot group the rows of a table by more than one column while using aggregate functions.
Correct Answer: AD Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 41
See the structure of the PROGRAMS table:

Which two SQL statements would execute successfully? (Choose two.)
A. SELECT NVL(ADD_MONTHS(END_DATE,1),SYSDATE) FROM programs;
B. SELECT TO_DATE(NVL(SYSDATE-END_DATE,SYSDATE)) FROM programs;
C. SELECT NVL(MONTHS_BETWEEN(start_date,end_date),’Ongoing’) FROM programs;
D. SELECT NVL(TO_CHAR(MONTHS_BETWEEN(start_date,end_date)),’Ongoing’) FROM programs;

Correct Answer: AD Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
NVL Function
Converts a null value to an actual value:
Data types that can be used are date, character, and number.
Data types must match:

NVL(commission_pct,0)

NVL(hire_date,’01-JAN-97′)

NVL(job_id,’No Job Yet’)

MONTHS_BETWEEN(date1, date2): Finds the number of months between date1 and date2 . The result
can be positive or negative. If date1 is later than date2, the result is positive; if date1 is earlier than date2,
the result is negative. The noninteger part of the result represents a portion of the month.
MONTHS_BETWEEN returns a numeric value. – answer C NVL has different datatypes – numeric and
strings, which is not possible!

The data types of the original and if null parameters must always be compatible. They must either be of the
same type, or it must be possible to implicitly convert if null to the type of the original parameter. The NVL
function returns a value with the same data type as the original parameter.

QUESTION 42
You issue the following command to drop the PRODUCTS table: SQL>DROP TABLE products;
What is the implication of this command? (Choose all that apply.)
A. All data in the table are deleted but the table structure will remain
B. All data along with the table structure is deleted
C. All views and synonyms will remain but they are invalidated
D. The pending transaction in the session is committed
E. All indexes on the table will remain but they are invalidated
Correct Answer: BCD Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 43
Exhibit contains the structure of PRODUCTS table: Evaluate the following query:
What would be the outcome of executing the above SQL statement?
A. It produces an error
B. It shows the names of products whose list price is the second highest in the table.
C. It shown the names of all products whose list price is less than the maximum list price
D. It shows the names of all products in the table Correct Answer: B

Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 44
See the Exhibits and examine the structures of PRODUCTS, SALES and CUSTOMERS table: You issue the following query:
Which statement is true regarding the outcome of this query?
A. It produces an error because the NATURAL join can be used only with two tables
B. It produces an error because a column used in the NATURAL join cannot have a qualifier
C. It produces an error because all columns used in the NATURAL join should have a qualifier
D. It executes successfully

Correct Answer: B Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: Creating Joins with the USING Clause Natural joins use all columns with matching names and data types to join the tables. The USING clause can be used to specify only those columns that should be used for an equijoin. The Natural JOIN USING Clause The format of the syntax for the natural JOIN USING clause is as follows: SELECT table1.column, table2.column FROM table1 JOIN table2 USING (join_column1, join_column2…); While the pure natural join contains the NATURAL keyword in its syntax, the JOIN…USING syntax does not. An error is raised if the keywords NATURAL and USING occur in the same join clause. The JOIN…USING clause allows one or more equijoin columns to be explicitly specified in brackets after the USING keyword. This avoids the shortcomings associated with the pure natural join. Many situations demand that tables be joined only on certain columns, and this format caters to this requirement.
QUESTION 45
You work as a database administrator at ABC.com. You study the exhibit carefully.
Exhibit:

You want to create a SALE_PROD view by executing the following SQL statements:

Which statement is true regarding the execution of the above statement?
A. The view will be created and you can perform DLM operations on the view
B. The view will not be created because the join statements are not allowed for creating a view
C. The view will not be created because the GROUP BY clause is not allowed for creating a view
D. The view will be created but no DML operations will be allowed on the view
Correct Answer: D Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: Rules for Performing DML Operations on a View You cannot add data through a view if the view includes: Group functions A GROUP BY clause The DISTINCT keyword The pseudocolumn ROWNUM keyword Columns defined by expressions NOT NULL columns in the base tables that are not selected by the view
QUESTION 46
Which three statements are true regarding the data types in Oracle Database 10g/11g? (Choose three.)
A. The BLOB data type column is used to store binary data in an operating system file
B. The minimum column width that can be specified for a VARCHAR2 data type column is one
C. A TIMESTAMP data type column stores only time values with fractional seconds
D. The value for a CHAR data type column is blank-padded to the maximum defined column width
E. Only One LONG column can be used per table

Correct Answer: BDE Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
LONG Character data in the database character set, up to 2GB. All the functionality of LONG (and more) is
provided by CLOB; LONGs should not be used in a modern database, and if your database has any
columns of this type they should be converted to CLOB. There can only be one LONG column in a table.
DVARCHAR2 Variable-length character data, from 1 byte to 4KB. The data is stored in the database
character set. The VARCHAR2 data type must be qualified with a number indicating the maximum length
of the column.
If a value is inserted into the column that is less than this, it is not a problem: the value will only take up as
much space as it needs. If the value is longer than this maximum, the INSERT will fail with an error.
VARCHAR2(size)
Variable-length character data (A maximum size must be specified: minimum size is 1; maximum size is
4,000.)
BLOB Like CLOB, but binary data that will not undergo character set conversion by Oracle Net. BFILE A
locator pointing to a file stored on the operating system of the database server. The size of the files is
limited to 4GB.
TIMESTAMP This is length zero if the column is empty, or up to 11 bytes, depending on the precision
specified.
Similar to DATE, but with precision of up to 9 decimal places for the seconds, 6 places by default.

QUESTION 47
Which three are true? (Choose three.)
A. A MERGE statement is used to merge the data of one table with data from another.
B. A MERGE statement replaces the data of one table with that of another.
C. A MERGE statement can be used to insert new rows into a table.
D. A MERGE statement can be used to update existing rows in a table.

Correct Answer: ACD Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: The MERGE Statement allows you to conditionally insert or update data in a table. If the rows are present in the target table which match the join condition, they are updated if the rows are not present they are inserted into the target table
QUESTION 48
Which two statements are true regarding views? (Choose two.)
A. A sub query that defines a view cannot include the GROUP BY clause
B. A view is created with the sub query having the DISTINCT keyword can be updated
C. A Data Manipulation Language (DML) operation can be performed on a view that is created with the sub query having all the NOT NULL columns of a table
D. A view that is created with the sub query having the pseudo column ROWNUM keyword cannot be updated

Correct Answer: CD Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: Rules for Performing DML Operations on a View You cannot add data through a view if the view includes: Group functions A GROUP BY clause The DISTINCT keyword The pseudocolumn ROWNUM keyword Columns defined by expressions NOT NULL columns in the base tables that are not selected by the view
QUESTION 49
Examine the structure of the EMPLOYEES and NEW_EMPLOYEES tables:

Which DELETE statement is valid?
A. DELETE FROM employees WHERE employee_id = (SELECT employee_id FROM employees);
B. DELETE * FROM employees WHERE employee_id=(SELECT employee_id FROM new_employees);
C. DELETE FROM employees WHERE employee_id IN (SELECT employee_id FROM new_employees WHERE name = `Carrey’);
D. DELETE * FROM employees WHERE employee_id IN (SELECT employee_id FROM new_employees WHERE name = `Carrey’);

Correct Answer: C Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 50
View the Exhibits and examine the structures of the PROMOTIONS and SALES tables.

Evaluate the following SQL statements:

Which statement is true regarding the output of the above query?
A. It gives details of product IDs that have been sold irrespective of whether they had a promo or not
B. It gives the details of promos for which there have been no sales
C. It gives the details of promos for which there have been sales
D. It gives details of all promos irrespective of whether they have resulted in a sale or not Correct Answer: D

Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 51
Examine the structure of the EMPLOYEES table:

Which UPDATE statement is valid?
A. UPDATE employees SET first_name = `John’
SET last_name = `Smith’
WHERE employee_id = 180;

B. UPDATE employees SET first_name = `John’, SET last_name = `Smoth’ WHERE employee_id = 180;
C. UPDATE employee SET first_name = `John’ AND last_name = `Smith’ WHERE employee_id = 180;
D. UPDATE employee SET first_name = `John’, last_name = `Smith’ WHERE employee_id = 180;

Correct Answer: D Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 52
View the Exhibit and evaluate structures of the SALES, PRODUCTS, and COSTS tables.

Evaluate the following SQL statements: Which statement is true regarding the above compound query?

A. It shows products that have a cost recorded irrespective of sales
B. It shows products that were sold and have a cost recorded
C. It shows products that were sold but have no cost recorded
D. It reduces an error Correct Answer: C

Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 53
The PRODUCTS table has the following structure:

Evaluate the following two SQL statements:

Which statement is true regarding the outcome?
A. Both the statements execute and give the same result
B. Both the statements execute and give different results
C. Only the second SQL statement executes successfully
D. Only the first SQL statement executes successfully

Correct Answer: B Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: Using the NVL2 Function The NVL2 function examines the first expression. If the first expression is not null, the NVL2 function returns the second expression. If the first expression is null, the third expression is returned. Syntax NVL2(expr1, expr2, expr3) In the syntax: expr1 is the source value or expression that may contain a null expr2 is the value that is returned if expr1 is not null expr3 is the value that is returned if expr1 is null
QUESTION 54
Which statements are correct regarding indexes? (Choose all that apply.)
A. For each data manipulation language (DML) operation performed, the corresponding indexes are automatically updated.
B. A nondeferrable PRIMARY KEY or UNIQUE KEY constraint in a table automatically creates a unique index.
C. A FOREIGN KEY constraint on a column in a table automatically creates a non unique key D. When a table is dropped, the corresponding indexes are automatically dropped

Correct Answer: ABD Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 55
You work as a database administrator at ABC.com. You study the exhibit carefully. Exhibit:

Which two SQL statements would execute successfully? (Choose two.)
A. UPDATE promotions SET promo_cost = promo_cost+ 100 WHERE TO_CHAR(promo_end_date, ‘yyyy’) > ‘2000’;
B. SELECT promo_begin_date FROM promotions WHERE TO_CHAR(promo_begin_date,’mon dd yy’)=’jul 01 98′;
C. UPDATE promotions SET promo_cost = promo_cost+ 100 WHERE promo_end_date > TO_DATE(SUBSTR(’01-JAN-2000′,8));
D. SELECT TO_CHAR(promo_begin_date,’dd/month’) FROM promotions WHERE promo_begin_date IN (TO_DATE(‘JUN 01 98’), TO_DATE(‘JUL 01 98’));

Correct Answer: AB Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 56
Examine these statements:

CREATE ROLE registrar;
GRANT UPDATE ON student_grades TO registrar;
GRANT registrar to user1, user2, user3;

What does this set of SQL statements do?

A. The set of statements contains an error and does not work.
B. It creates a role called REGISTRAR, adds the MODIFY privilege on the STUDENT_GRADES object to the role, and gives the REGISTRAR role to three users.
C. It creates a role called REGISTRAR, adds the UPDATE privilege on the STUDENT_GRADES object to the role, and gives the REGISTRAR role to three users.
D. It creates a role called REGISTRAR, adds the UPDATE privilege on the STUDENT_GRADES object to the role, and creates three users with the role.
E. It creates a role called REGISTRAR, adds the UPDATE privilege on three users, and gives the REGISTRAR role to the STUDENT_GRADES object.
F. It creates a role called STUDENT_GRADES, adds the UPDATE privilege on three users, and gives the UPDATE role to the registrar.

Correct Answer: C Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: the statement will create a role call REGISTRAR, grant UPDATE on student_grades to registrar, grant the role to user1,user2 and user3.
Incorrect answer: A the statement does not contain error B there is no MODIFY privilege D statement does not create 3 users with the role E privilege is grant to role then grant to user F privilege is grant to role then grant to user
QUESTION 57
Examine the structure of the MARKS table:
Exhibit:

Which two statements would execute successfully? (Choose two.)
A. SELECT student_name,subject1 FROM marks WHERE subject1 > AVG(subject1);
B. SELECT student_name,SUM(subject1) FROM marks WHERE student_name LIKE ‘R%’;
C. SELECT SUM(subject1+subject2+subject3) FROM marks WHERE student_name IS NULL;
D. SELECT SUM(DISTINCT NVL(subject1,0)), MAX(subject1) FROM marks WHERE subject1 > subject2;

Correct Answer: CD Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 58
You are currently located in Singapore and have connected to a remote database in Chicago. You issue the following command:
Exhibit: PROMOTIONS is the public synonym for the public database link for the PROMOTIONS table. What is the outcome?

A. Number of days since the promo started based on the current Singapore data and time.
B. An error because the ROUND function specified is invalid
C. An error because the WHERE condition specified is invalid
D. Number of days since the promo started based on the current Chicago data and time Correct Answer: D

Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 59
Evaluate the following two queries: Exhibit:

Exhibit:

Which statement is true regarding the above two queries?
A. Performance would improve in query 2 only if there are null values in the CUST_CREDIT_LIMIT column
B. Performance would degrade in query 2
C. There would be no change in performance
D. Performance would improve in query 2

Correct Answer: C Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Note: The IN operator is internally evaluated by the Oracle server as a set of OR conditions, such as
a=value1 or a=value2 or a=value3. Therefore, using the IN operator has no performance benefits and is
used only for logical simplicity.

QUESTION 60
View the Exhibit and examine the structure of the CUSTOMERS and CUST_HISTORY tables.

The CUSTOMERS table contains the current location of all currently active customers. The CUST_HISTORY table stores historical details relating to any changes in the location of all current as well as previous customers who are no longer active with the company.
You need to find those customers who have never changed their address. Which SET operator would you use to get the required output?
A. INTERSECT
B. UNION ALL
C. MINUS

D. UNION Correct Answer: C
Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 61
You created an ORDERS table with the following description: Exhibit:

You inserted some rows in the table. After some time, you want to alter the table by creating the PRIMARY KEY constraint on the ORD_ID column.
Which statement is true in this scenario?
A. You cannot add a primary key constraint if data exists in the column
B. You can add the primary key constraint even if data exists, provided that there are no duplicate values
C. The primary key constraint can be created only a the time of table creation
D. You cannot have two constraints on one column

Correct Answer: B Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 62
Which object privileges can be granted on a view?
A. none
B. DELETE, INSERT,SELECT
C. ALTER, DELETE, INSERT, SELECT
D. DELETE, INSERT, SELECT, UPDATE

Correct Answer: D Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: Object privilege on VIEW is DELETE, INSERT, REFERENCES, SELECT and UPDATE. Incorrect answer: A Object privilege on VIEW is DELETE, INSERT, REFERENCES, SELECT and UPDATE B Object privilege on VIEW is DELETE, INSERT, REFERENCES, SELECT and UPDATE C Object privilege on VIEW is DELETE, INSERT, REFERENCES, SELECT and UPDATE
Refer: Introduction to Oracle9i: SQL, Oracle University Study Guide, 13-12
QUESTION 63
When does a transaction complete? (Choose all that apply.)
A. When a PL/SQL anonymous block is executed
B. When a DELETE statement is executed
C. When a data definition language statement is executed
D. When a TRUNCATE statement is executed after the pending transaction
E. When a ROLLBACK command is executed
Correct Answer: CDE Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 64
View the Exhibit and examine the structure of the CUSTOMERS table. Exhibit:

you issue the following SQL statement on the CUSTOMERS table to display the customers who are in the
same country as customers with the last name ‘king’ and whose credit limit is less than the maximum credit limit in countries that have customers with the last name ‘king’.

Which statement is true regarding the outcome of the above query?
A. It produces an error and the < operator should be replaced by < ANY to get the required output
B. It produces an error and the IN operator should be replaced by = in the WHERE clause of the main query to get the required output
C. It executes and shows the required result
D. It produces an error and the < operator should be replaced by < ALL to get the required output

Correct Answer: C Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 65
You need to create a table for a banking application. One of the columns in the table has the following requirements:
You want a column in the table to store the duration of the credit period The data in the column should be stored in a format such that it can be easily added and subtracted with DATE data type without using conversion The maximum period of the credit provision in the application is 30 days the interest has to be calculated for the number of days an individual has taken a credit for
Which data type would you use for such a column in the table?
A. INTERVAL YEAR TO MONTH
B. NUMBER
C. TIMESTAMP
D. DATE
E. INTERVAL DAY TO SECOND
Correct Answer: E Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 66
The STUDENT_GRADES table has these columns: Which statement finds students who have a grade point average (GPA) greater than 3.0 for the calendar year 2001?

A. SELECT student_id, gpa FROM student_grades WHERE semester_end BETWEEN ’01-JAN-2001′ AND ’31-DEC-2001′ OR gpa > 3.;
B. SELECT student_id, gpa FROM student_grades WHERE semester_end BETWEEN ’01-JAN-2001′ AND ’31-DEC-2001′ AND gpa gt 3.0;
C. SELECT student_id, gpa FROM student_grades WHERE semester_end BETWEEN ’01-JAN-2001′ AND ’31-DEC-2001′ AND gpa > 3.0;
D. SELECT student_id, gpa FROM student_grades WHERE semester_end BETWEEN ’01-JAN-2001′ AND ’31-DEC-2001′ OR gpa > 3.0;
E. SELECT student_id, gpa FROM student_grades WHERE semester_end > ’01-JAN-2001′ OR semester_end < ’31-DEC-2001′ AND gpa >= 3.0;

Correct Answer: C Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 67
View the Exhibit and examine the data in the PROMOTIONS table.

You need to display all promo categories that do not have ‘discount’ in their subcategory. Which two SQL statements give the required result? (Choose two.)
A. SELECT promo_category FROM promotions MINUS SELECT promo_category FROM promotions
WHERE promo_subcategory = ‘discount’;
B. SELECT promo_category FROM promotions INTERSECT SELECT promo_category FROM promotions WHERE promo_subcategory = ‘discount’;
C. SELECT promo_category FROM promotions MINUS SELECT promo_category FROM promotions WHERE promo_subcategory <> ‘discount’;
D. SELECT promo_category FROM promotions INTERSECT SELECT promo_category FROM promotions WHERE promo_subcategory <> ‘discount’;
Correct Answer: AD Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 68
You work as a database administrator at ABC.com. You study the exhibit carefully.
Exhibit:

and examine the structure of CUSTOMRS AND SALES tables:
Evaluate the following SQL statement:
Exhibit:
Which statement is true regarding the execution of the above UPDATE statement?
A. It would not execute because the SELECT statement cannot be used in place of the table name
B. It would execute and restrict modifications to only the column specified in the SELECT statement
C. It would not execute because a sub query cannot be used in the WHERE clause of an UPDATE statement
D. It would not execute because two tables cannot be used in a single UPDATE statement Correct Answer: B

Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 69
See the Exhibit and examine the structure of the PROMOTIONS table: Exhibit:

Using the PROMOTIONS table, you need to find out the average cost for all promos in the range $0-2000
and $2000-5000 in category A.
You issue the following SQL statements:
Exhibit:
What would be the outcome?
A. It generates an error because multiple conditions cannot be specified for the WHEN clause
B. It executes successfully and gives the required result
C. It generates an error because CASE cannot be used with group functions
D. It generates an error because NULL cannot be specified as a return value Correct Answer: B

Explanation Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: CASE Expression Facilitates conditional inquiries by doing the work of an IF-THEN-ELSE statement: CASE expr WHEN comparison_expr1 THEN return_expr1 [WHEN comparison_expr2 THEN return_expr2 WHEN comparison_exprn THEN return_exprn ELSE else_expr] END
QUESTION 70
Which two statements are true regarding the USING and ON clauses in table joins? (Choose two.)
A. The ON clause can be used to join tables on columns that have different names but compatible data types
B. A maximum of one pair of columns can be joined between two tables using the ON clause
C. Both USING and ON clause can be used for equijoins and nonequijoins
D. The WHERE clause can be used to apply additional conditions in SELECT statement containing the ON or the USING clause

Correct Answer: AD Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: Creating Joins with the USING Clause If several columns have the same names but the data types do not match, use the USING clause to specify the columns for the equijoin. Use the USING clause to match only one column when more than one column matches. The NATURAL JOIN and USING clauses are mutually exclusive Using Table Aliases with the USING clause When joining with the USING clause, you cannot qualify a column that is used in the USING clause itself. Furthermore, if that column is used anywhere in the SQL statement, you cannot alias it. For example, in the query mentioned in the slide, you should not alias the location_id column in the WHERE clause because the column is used in the USING clause. The columns that are referenced in the USING clause should not have a qualifier (table name oralias) anywhere in the SQL statement. Creating Joins with the ON Clause The join condition for the natural join is basically an equijoin of all columns with the same name. Use the ON clause to specify arbitrary conditions or specify columns to join. ANSWER C The join condition is separated from other search conditions. ANSWER D The ON clause makes code easy to understand.
QUESTION 71
Examine the structure of the EMPLOYEES table:

Which INSERT statement is valid?
A. INSERT INTO employees (employee_id, first_name, last_name, hire_date) VALUES ( 1000, `John’, `Smith’, `01/01/01′);
B. INSERT INTO employees(employee_id, first_name, last_name, hire_date) VALUES ( 1000, `John’, `Smith’, ’01 January 01′);
C. INSERT INTO employees(employee_id, first_name, last_name, Hire_date) VALUES ( 1000, `John’, `Smith’, To_date(`01/01/01′));
D. INSERT INTO employees(employee_id, first_name, last_name, hire_date) VALUES ( 1000, `John’, `Smith’, 01-Jan-01);

Correct Answer: D Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: It is the only statement that has a valid date; all other will result in an error. Answer A is incorrect, syntax error, invalid date format
QUESTION 72
The user Alice wants to grant all users query privileges on her DEPT table. Which SQL statement accomplishes this?
A. GRANT select ON dept TO ALL_USERS;
B. GRANT select ON dept TO ALL;
C. GRANT QUERY ON dept TO ALL_USERS
D. GRANT select ON dept TO PUBLIC;

Correct Answer: D Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: view the columns associated with the constraint names in the USER_CONS_COLUMNS view.
Incorrect answer: A table to view all constraints definition and names B show all object name belong to user C does not display column associated E no such view
Refer: Introduction to Oracle9i: SQL, Oracle University Study Guide, 10-25
QUESTION 73
Which is an iSQL*Plus command?
A. INSERT
B. UPDATE
C. SELECT
D. DESCRIBE
E. DELETE
F. RENAME

Correct Answer: D Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The only SQL*Plus command in this list: DESCRIBE. It cannot be used as SQL command. This command
returns a description of tablename, including all columns in that table, the datatype for each column and an
indication of whether the column permits storage of NULL values.

Incorrect answer:
A INSERT is not a SQL*PLUS command
B UPDATE is not a SQL*PLUS command
C SELECT is not a SQL*PLUS command
E DELETE is not a SQL*PLUS command
F RENAME is not a SQL*PLUS command

Refer: Introduction to Oracle9i: SQL, Oracle University Study Guide, 7
QUESTION 74
You work as a database administrator at ABC.com. You study the exhibit carefully. Exhibit

Using the PROMOTIONS table, you need to display the names of all promos done after January 1, 2001
starting with the latest promo.
Which query would give the required result? (Choose all that apply.)

A. SELECT promo_name,promo_begin_date FROM promotions WHERE promo_begin_date > ’01-JAN-01′ ORDER BY 1 DESC;
B. SELECT promo_name,promo_begin_date “START DATE” FROM promotions WHERE promo_begin_date > ’01-JAN-01′ ORDER BY “START DATE” DESC;
C. SELECT promo_name,promo_begin_date FROM promotions WHERE promo_begin_date > ’01-JAN-01′ ORDER BY 2 DESC;
D. SELECT promo_name,promo_begin_date FROM promotions WHERE promo_begin_date > ’01-JAN-01′ ORDER BY promo_name DESC;

Correct Answer: BC Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 75
See the Exhibit and examine the structure of the SALES, CUSTOMERS, PRODUCTS and ITEMS tables: The PROD_ID column is the foreign key in the SALES table, which references the PRODUCTS table. Similarly, the CUST_ID and TIME_ID columns are also foreign keys in the SALES table referencing the CUSTOMERS and TIMES tables, respectively.

Evaluate the following the CREATE TABLE command:
Exhibit: Which statement is true regarding the above command?

A. The NEW_SALES table would not get created because the column names in the CREATE TABLE command and the SELECT clause do not match
B. The NEW_SALES table would get created and all the NOT NULL constraints defined on the specified columns would be passed to the new table
C. The NEW_SALES table would not get created because the DEFAULT value cannot be specified in the column definition
D. The NEW_SALES table would get created and all the FOREIGN KEY constraints defined on the specified columns would be passed to the new table

Correct Answer: B Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Creating a Table Using a Subquery
Create a table and insert rows by combining the CREATE
TABLE statement and the AS subquery option.
CREATE TABLE table
[(column, column…)]
AS subquery;
Match the number of specified columns to the number of subquery columns.
Define columns with column names and default values.
Guidelines
The table is created with the specified column names, and the rows retrieved by the SELECT statement
are inserted into the table.
The column definition can contain only the column name and default value. If column specifications are
given, the number of columns must equal the number of columns in the subquery SELECT list.
If no column specifications are given, the column names of the table are the same as the column names in
the subquery.
The column data type definitions and the NOT NULL constraint are passed to the new table. Note that only
the explicit NOT NULL constraint will be inherited. The PRIMARY KEY column will not pass the NOT NULL
feature to the new column. Any other constraint rules are not passed to the new table. However, you can
add constraints in the column definition. 1Z0-051

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QUESTION 25
In which two aspects does hot patching differ from conventional patching? (Choose two.)
A. It consumes more memory compared with conventional patching.
B. It can be installed and uninstalled via OPatch unlike conventional patching.
C. It takes more time to install or uninstall compared with conventional patching.
D. It does not require down time to apply or remove unlike conventional patching.
E. It is not persistent across instance startup and shutdown unlike conventional patching.
Correct Answer: AD QUESTION 26
Which statement about the enabling of table compression in Oracle Database 11g is true?
A. Compression can be enabled at the table, tablespace, or partition level for direct loads only.
B. Compression can be enabled only at the table level for both direct loads and conventional DML.
C. Compression can be enabled at the table, tablespace, or partition level for conventional DML only.
D. Compression can be enabled at the table, tablespace, or partition level for both direct loads and conventional DML.

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 27
Which are the prerequisites for performing flashback transactions on your database? (Choose all that apply.)
A. Supplemental log must be enabled.
B. Supplemental log must be enabled for the primary key
C. Undo retention guarantee for the database must be configured.
D. Execute permission on the DBMS_FLASHBACK package must be granted to the user.

Correct Answer: ABD QUESTION 28
You are managing an Oracle Database 11 g database. You want to take the of size 100 TB on tape drive, but you have tape drives of only 10 GB each, quickly and efficiently?
A. intrafile parallel backup
B. parallel image copy backup
C. backup with MAXPIECESIZE configured for the channel
D. parallel backup with MAXPIECESIZE configured for the channel

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 29
Which statements are true regarding the Query Result Cache? (Choose all that apply.)
A. It can be set at the system, session, or table level.
B. It is used only across statements in the same session.
C. It can store the results from normal as well as flashback queries.
D. It can store the results of queries based on normal, temporary, and dictionary tables.

Correct Answer: AC QUESTION 30
You want to analyze a SQL Tuning Set (STS) using SQL Performance Analyzer in a test database. Which two statements are true regarding the activities performed during the test execution of SQLs in a SQL Tuning Set? (Choose two.)
A. Every SQL statement in the STS is considered only once for execution.
B. The SQL statements in the STS are executed concurrently to produce the execution plan and execution statistics.
C. The execution plan and execution statistics are computed for each SQL statement in the STS.
D. The effects of DDL and DML are considered to produce the execution plan and execution statistics.

Correct Answer: AC QUESTION 31
Which two changes and their effect on the system can be tested by using the Database Replay feature?
(Choose two.)
A. multiplexing of the control file
B. database and operating system upgrades
C. adding the redo log member to the database
D. changing the database storage to ASM-managed storage

Correct Answer: BD QUESTION 32
You executed the following commands:
SQL> ALTER SESSION SET OPTIMIZER_USE_PENDING_STATISTICS = false; SQL> EXECUTE
DBMS_STATS.SET_TABLE_PREFS(‘SHI, ‘CUSTOMERS’, ‘PUBLISH’.’false’);
SQL> EXECUTE DBMS_STATS.GATHER_TABLE_STATS(‘SH’, ‘CUSTOMERS’);

Which statement is correct regarding the above statistics collection on the SH.CUSTOMERS table in the above session?
A. The statistics are stored in the pending statistics table in the data dictionary.
B. The statistics are treated as the current statistics by the optimizer for all sessions.
C. The statistics are treated as the current statistics by the optimizer for the current sessions only.
D. The statistics are temporary and used by the optimizer for all sessions until this session terminates.

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 33
The Database Resource Manager is automatically enabled in the maintenance window that runs the Automated Maintenance Task. What is the reason for this?
A. to prevent the creation of an excessive number of scheduler job classes
B. to allow the Automated Maintenance Tasks to use system resources without any restriction
C. to allow resource sharing only among the Automated Maintenance Tasks in the maintenance window
D. to prevent the Automated Maintenance Tasks from consuming excessive amounts of system resources

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 34
Which is the source used by Automatic SQL Tuning that runs as part of the AUTOTASK framework?
A. SQL statements that are part of the AWR baseline only
B. SQL statements based on the AWR top SQL identification
C. SQL statements that are part of the available SQL Tuning Set (STS) only
D. SQL statements that are available in the cursor cache and executed by a user other than SYS

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 35
View the Exhibit and examine the output.

You executed the following command to enable Flashback Data Archive on the EXCHANGE_RATE table:
ALTER TABLE exchange_rate FLASHBACK ARCHIVE;
What is the outcome of this command?

A. The table uses the default Flashback Archive.
B. The Flashback Archive is created on the SYSAUXtablespace.
C. The Flashback Archive is created on the same tablespace where the tables are stored.
D. The command generates an error because no Flashback Archive name is specified and there is no default Flashback Archive-

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 36
View the Exhibit to examine the error during the database startup.

You open an RMAN session for the database instance. To repair the failure, you executed the following as
the first command in the RMAN session:
RMAN> REPAIR FAILURE;
Which statement describes the consequence of the command?

A. The command performs the recovery and closes the failures.
B. The command only displays the advice and the RMAN script required for repair.
C. The command produces an error because the ADVISE FAILURE command has not been executed before the REPAIR FAILURE command
D. The command executes the RMAN script to repair the failure and removes the entry from the Automatic Diagnostic Repository (ADR).

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 37
You issued the following command on the temporary tablespace LMTEMP in your database:
SQL>ALTER TABLESPACE Imtemp SHRINK SPACE KEEP 20M;
Which requirement must be fulfilled for this command to succeed?

A. The tablespace must be locally managed.
B. The tablespace must have only one temp file.
C. The tablespace must be made nondefault and offline.
D. The tablespace can remain as the default but must have no active sort operations. Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 38
You are working as a DBA on the decision support system. There is a business requirement to track and store all transactions for at least three years for a few tables in the database. Automatic undo management is enabled in the database. Which configuration should you use to accomplish this task?
A. Enable Flashback Data Archive for the tables.
B. Enable supplemental logging for the database.
C. Specify undo retention guarantee for the database.
D. Create Flashback Data Archive on the tablespace on which the tables are stored.
E. Query V$UNDOSTAT to determine the amount of undo that will be generated and create an undo tablespace for that size.

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 39
Your organization decided to upgrade the existing Oracle 10g database to Oracle 11 g database in a multiprocessor environment. At the end of the upgrade, you observe that the DBA executes the following script:
SQL>@utlrp.sql
What is the significance of executing this script?
A. It performs parallel recompilation of only the stored PL/SQL code.
B. It performs sequential recompilation of only the stored PL/SQL code.
C. It performs parallel recompilation of any stored PL/SQL as well as Java code.
D. It performs sequential recompilation of any stored PL/SQL as well as Java code.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 40
Which two are the uses of the ASM metadata backup and restore (AMBR) feature? (Choose two.)
A. It can be used to backup all data on ASM disks.
B. It can be used to re-create the ASM disk group with its attributes.
C. It can be used to recover the damaged ASM disk group along with the data.
D. It can be used to gather information about a preexisting ASM disk group with disk paths, disk name, failure groups, attributes, templates, and alias directory structure.
Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 41
You executed the following PL/SQL block successfully:

VARIABLE tname VARCHAR2(20)

BEGIN
dbms_addm.insert_finding_directive (NULL, DIR_NAME=>’Detail CPU Usage1, FINDING_NAME=>’CPU
Usage1,
MIN_ACTIVE_SESSIONS=>0,MIN_PERC_IMPACT=>90);
:tname := ‘database ADDM task4’;
dbms_addm.analyze_db(:tname, 150,162);
END;
/
Then you executed the following command:

SQL> SELECT dbms_addm.get_report(:tname) FROM DUAL; The above command produces Automatic
Database Diagnostic Monitor (ADDM) analysis____.

A. with the CPU Usage finding if it is less than 90
B. without the CPU Usage finding if it is less than 90
C. with the CPU Usage finding for snapshots below 90
D. with the CPU Usage finding for snapshots not between 150 and 162

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 42
Which statements describe the capabilities of the DBMS_NETWORK_ACL_ADMIN package? (Choose all that apply.)
A. It can be used to allow the access privilege settings for users but not roles.
B. It can be used to allow the access privilege settings for users as well as roles.
C. It can be used to control the time interval for which the access privilege is available to a user.
D. It can be used to selectively restrict the access for each user in a database to different host computers.
E. It can be used to selectively restrict a user’s access to different applications in a specific host computer.

Correct Answer: BCD
QUESTION 43
To generate recommendations to improve the performance of a set of SQL queries in an application, you
execute the following blocks of code:

BEGIN
dbms_advisor.create_task(dbms_advisor.sqlaccess_advisor,lTASK1l); END;
/
BEGIN
dbms_advisor.set_task_parameter(lTASK1l,lANALYSIS_SCOPElllALLl);
dbms_advisor.set_task_parameter(lTASK1,,,MODE,llCOMPREHENSIVEl); END;
/
BEGIN
dbms_advisor.execute_task(‘TASK1’);
dbms_output.put_line(dbms_advisor.get_task_script(‘TASK11)); END;
/
The blocks of code execute successfully; however, you do not get the required outcome.
What could be the reason?

A. A template needs to be associated with the task.
B. A workload needs to be associated with the task.
C. The partial or complete workload scope needs to be associated with the task.
D. The type of structures (indexes, materialized views, or partitions) to be recommended need to be specified for the task.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 44
You are managing an Oracle Database 11 g instance with ASM storage. The ASM instance is down. To know the details of the disks in the DATA disk group ,, you issued the following ASMCMD command:
ASMCMD> lsdsk-l -d DATA
Which statement is true regarding the outcome of this command?
A. The command succeeds but it retrieves only the disk names.
B. The command produces an error because the ASM instance is down.
C. The command succeeds but it shows only the status of the ASM instance.
D. The command succeeds and retrieves information by scanning the disk headers based on an ASMJDISKSTRING value.
Correct Answer: D QUESTION 45
You plan to set up the Automatic Workload Repository (AWR) baseline metric thresholds for a moving window baseline. Which action would you take before performing this task?
A. Compute the baseline statistics.
B. Take an immediate AWR snapshot.
C. Decrease the window size for the baseline.
D. Decrease the expiration time for the baseline.

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 46
You need to create a partitioned table to store historical data and you Issued the following command:

CREATE TABLE purchas_interval
PARTITION BY RANGE (time_id)
INTERVAL (NUMTOYMINTERVAL(1 ,’month1)) STORE IN (tbs1 ,tbs2,tbs3)

PARTITION p1 VALUES LESS THAN(TO_DATE(‘1-1-2005I, ‘dd-mm-yyyy’)), PARTITION p2 VALUES
LESS THAN(TO_DATE(‘1-1-2007’, ‘dd-mm-yyyy’))) AS
SELECT *
FROM purchases
WHERE time_id < TO_DATE(‘1-1-2007’l’dd-mm-yyyy’);

What is the outcome of the above command?

A. It returns an error because the range partitions P1 and P2 should be of the same range.
B. It creates two range partitions (P1, P2). Within each range partition, it creates monthwise subpartitions.
C. It creates two range partitions of varying range. For data beyond ‘1-1-2007,’ it creates partitions with a width of |_| one month each
D. It returns an error because the number of tablespaces (TBS1 ,TBS2,TBS3)specified does not match the number of range partitions (P1 ,P2) specified.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 47
View the Exhibit to examine the Automatic Database Diagnostic Monitor (ADDM) tasks.

You executed the following commands:

SQL> VAR tname VARCHAR2(60);
SQL> BEGIN
:tname := lmy_instance_analysis_mode_task,;
DBMS_ADDM .INSERT_SEGMENT_DIRECTIVE(:tname ,lSg_directivel ,’SCOTT1); END;

Which statement describes the consequence?

A. The ADDM task is filtered to suppress the Segment Advisor suggestions for the SCOTT schema.
B. The ADDM task is filtered to produce the Segment Advisor suggestions for the SCOTT schema only.
C. The PL/SQL block produces an error because the my_instance_analysis_mode_task task has not been reset to its initial state.
D. All subsequent ADDM tasks including my_instance_analysis_mode_task are filtered to suppress the Segment Advisor suggestions for the SCOTT schema.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 48
Examine the following PL/SQL block:

DECLARE
my_plans plsjnteger;
BEGIN
My_plans := DBMS_SPM.LOAD_PLANS_FROM_CURSOR_CACHE (sql_Id => ? 9twu5t2dn5xd?;
END;

Which statement is true about the plan being loaded into the SQL plan baseline by the above command?
A. It is loaded with the FIXED status.
B. It is loaded with the ACCEPTED status.
C. It is not loaded with the ENABLED status.
D. It is not loaded with the ACCEPTED status.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 49
View the Exhibit exhibit1 to observe the maintenance window property.

View the Exhibit exhibits to examine the output of the query. Which two statements describe the conclusions? (Choose two.)
A. The window duration should be increased.
B. RESOURCE_PERCENTAGE should be increased.
C. RESOURCE_PERCENTAGE should be decreased.
D. The repeat time for the window should be decreased.

Correct Answer: AB QUESTION 50
Evaluate the following statements: CREATE TABLE purchase_orders
(pojd NUMBER(4),
po_date TIMESTAMP,
supplie_id NUMBER(6),
po_total NUMBER(8,2),
CONSTRAINT order_pk PRIMARY KEY(po_id))
PARTITION BY RANGE(po_date)
(PARTITION Q1 VALUES LESS THAN (TO_DATE(?1-apr-2007?d-mon-yyyy?),

PARTITION Q2 VALUES LESS THAN (TO_DATE(?1-jul-2007?d-mon-yyyy?),

PARTITION Q3 VALUES LESS THAN (TO_DATE(?1-oct-2007?d-mon-yyyy?),

PARTITION Q4 VALUES LESS THAN (TO_DATE(?1-jan-2008?d-mon-yyyy?));

CREATE TABLE purchase_order_items
(po_id NUMBER(4) NOT NULL, product_id NUMBER(6) NOT NULL, unit_price NUMBER(8,2),
quantity NUMBER(8),

CONSTRAINT po_items_fk
FOREIGN KEY (po_id) REFERENCES purchase_orders(po_id)) PARTITION BY REFERENCE
(po_items_fk);

What are the two consequences of the above statements? (Choose two.)

A. Partitions of PURCHASE_ORDER_ITEMS have system-generated names.
B. Both PURCHASEjDRDERS and PURCHASEJDRDERJTEMS tables are created with four partitions each.
C. Partitions of the PURCHASEJDRDERJTEMS table exist in the same tablespaces as the partitions of the PURCHASEJDRDERS table.
D. The PURCHASEJDRDERJTEMS table inherits the partitioning key from the parent table by automatically duplicating the key columns.
E. Partition maintenance operations performed on the PURCHASEJDRDERJTEMS table are automatically reflected in the PURCHASEjDRDERS table.
Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 51
Which statements are true regarding SecureFile LOBs? (Choose all that apply.)
A. The amount of undo retained is user controlled.
B. SecureFile LOBs can be used only for nonpartitioned tables.
C. Fragmentation is minimized by using variable-sized chunks dynamically.
D. SecureFile encryption allows for random reads and writes of the encrypted data.
E. It automatically detects duplicate LOB data and conserves space by storing only one copy.
Correct Answer: CD
QUESTION 52
View the Exhibit for some of the current parameter settings.

A user logs in to the HR schema and issues the following commands:
SQL> CREATE TABLE emp (empno NUMBER(3), enameVARCHAR2(20), sal NUMBER(8,2));
SQL> INSERT INTO emp(empno,ename) VALUES(1 /JAMES’); At this moment, a second user also logs in to the HR schema and issues the following command:
SQL> ALTER TABLE emp MODIFY sal NUMBER(10,2);
What happens in the above scenario?
A. A deadlock is created.
B. The second user’s command executes successfully.
C. The second user’s session immediately produces the resource busy error.
D. The second user’s session waits for a time period before producing the resource busy error.

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 53
You upgraded Oracle Database 10g to Oracle Database 11 g. How would this affect the existing users’ passwords?
A. All passwords automatically become case-sensitive.
B. All passwords remain non-case-sensitive till they are changed.
C. All passwords remain non-case-sensitive and cannot be changed.
D. All passwords remain non-case-sensitive until their password attribute in the profile is altered.

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 54
What recommendations does the SQL Access Advisor provide for optimizing SQL queries? (Choose all that apply.)
A. selection of SQL plan baselines
B. partitioning of tables and indexes
C. creation of index-organized tables
D. creation of bitmap, function-based, and B-tree indexes
E. optimization of materialized views for maximum query usage and fast refresh

Correct Answer: BDE QUESTION 55
Your system has been upgraded from Oracle Database 10g to Oracle Database 11g. You imported SQL Tuning Sets (STS) from the previous version. After changing the OPTIMIZER_FEATURE_ENABLE parameter to 10.2.0.4 and running the SQL Performance Analyzer, you observed performance regression for a few SQL statements.
What would you do with these SQL statements?
A. Set OPTIMIZER_USE_PLAN_BASELINES to FALSE to prevent the use of regressed plans.
B. Capture the plans from the previous version using STS and then load them into the stored outline.
C. Capture the plans from the previous version using STS and then load them into SQL Management Base (SMB).
D. Set OPTIMIZER_CAPTURE_SQL_PLAN_BASELINES to FALSE to prevent the plans from being loaded to the SQL plan baseline.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 56
You are managing Oracle Database 11 g with an ASM storage with high redundancy. The following
command was issued to drop the disks from the dga disk group after five hours:
ALTER DISKGROUP dga OFFLINE DISKS IN FAILGROUP f2 DROP AFTER 5H; Which statement is true
in this scenario?

A. It starts the ASM fast mirror resync.
B. It drops all disk paths from the dga disk group.
C. All the disks in the dga disk group would be OFFLINE and the DISK_REPAIR_TIME disk attribute would be set to 5 hours.
D. All the disks in the dga disk group in failure group f2 would be OFFLINE and the DISK_REPAIR_TIME disk attribute would be set to 5 hours.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 57
View the Exhibit to observe the error.

You receive this error regularly and have to shut down the database instance to overcome the error. What can the solution be to reduce the chance of this error in future, when implemented?
A. locking the SGA in memory
B. automatic memory management
C. increasing the value of SGA_MAX_SIZE
D. setting the PRE_PAGE_SGA parameter to TRUE

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 58
Which three statements are true regarding the functioning of the Autotask Background Process (ABP)? (Choose three.)
A. It translates tasks into jobs for execution by the scheduler
B. It creates jobs without considering the priorities associated with them.
C. It determines the list of jobs that must be created for each maintenance window.
D. It is spawned by the MMON background process at the start of the maintenance window.
E. It maintains a repository in the SYSTEM tablespace to store the history of the execution of all tasks.

Correct Answer: ACD QUESTION 59
You executed the following commands in an RMAN session for your database instance that has failures:
RMAN> LIST FAILURE;
After some time, you executed the following command in the same session:

RMAN> ADVISE FAILURE;

But there are new failures recorded in the Automatic Diagnostic Repository (ADR) after the execution of
the last LIST FAILURE command. Which statement is true for the above ADVISE FAILURE command in
this scenario?

A. It produces a warning for new failures before advising for CRITICAL and HIGH failures.
B. It ignores new failures and considers the failures listed in the last LIST FAILURE command only.
C. It produces an error with recommendation to run the LIST FAILURE command before the ADVISE FAILURE command.
D. It produces advice only for new failures and the failures listed in the last LIST FAILURE command are ignored.

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 60
View the Exhibit to examine the output for the V$DIAG_INFO view.

Which statements are true regarding the location of diagnostic traces? (Choose all that apply.)
A. The path to the location of the background as well as the foreground process trace files is /u01/oracle/diag/rdbms/orclbi/orclbi/trace.
B. The location of the text alert log file is /u01/oracle/diag/rdbms/orclbi/orclbi/alert.
C. The location of the trace file for the current session is/u01/oracle/diag/rdbms/orclbi/orclbi/trace.
D. The location of the XML-formatted version of the alert log is /u01/oracle/diag/rdbms/orclbi/orclbi/alert.

Correct Answer: ACD QUESTION 61
Evaluate the following command:
SQL>ALTER SYSTEM SET db_securefile = ‘IGNORE1;

What is the impact of this setting on the usage of Secure Files?
A. It forces Basic Files to be created even if the SECUREFILE option is specified to create the LOB.
B. It forces Secure Files to be created even if the BASICFILE option is specified to create the LOB.
C. It does not allow the creation of Secure Files and generates an error if the SECUREFILE option is specified to create the LOB.
D. It ignores the SECUREFILE option only if a Manual Segment Space Management tablespace is used and creates a Basic File.

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 62
You are managing an Oracle Database 11g ASM instance with a disk group dg01 having three disks. One of the disks in the disk group becomes unavailable because of power failure. You issued the following command to change the DISK_REPAIR_TIME attribute from 3.6 hours to 5 hours:
ALTER DISKGROUP dg01 SET ATTRIBUTE ‘disk_repair_time’ = ‘5h’;
To which disks in the disk group will the new value be applicable?
A. all disks in the disk group
B. all disks that are currently in OFFLINE mode
C. all disks that are not currently in OFFLINE mode
D. all disks in the disk group only if all of them are ONLINE

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 63
You issued the following RMAN command to back up the database: RMAN> RUN{ ALLOCATE CHANNEL c1 DEVICE TYPE Sbt BACKUP DATABASE TAG quarterly KEEP FOREVER RESTORE POINT FY06Q4;}
Which two statements are true regarding the backup performed? (Choose two.)
A. Archived redo log files are backed up along with data files
B. Only data files are backed up and a restore point named FY06Q4 is created.
C. Archived log files are backed up along with data files, and the archived log files are deleted.
D. The command creates a restore point named FY06Q4 to match the SCN at which this backup is consistent.
Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 64
View the Exhibit to examine a portion of the output from the VALIDATE DATABASE command.
Which statement is true about the block corruption detected by the command?
A. No action is taken except the output in the Exhibit.
B. The corruption is repaired by the command implicitly.
C. The failure is logged into the Automatic Diagnostic Repository (ADR).
D. The ADVISE FAILURE command is automatically called to display the repair script.

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 65
Which two kinds of failures make the Data Recovery Advisor (DRA) generate a manual checklist? (Choose two.)
A. failures because a data file is renamed by error
B. failures when no standby database is configured
C. failures that require no archive logs to be applied for recovery
D. failures due to loss of connectivity-for example, an unplugged disk cable

Correct Answer: AD QUESTION 66
Which two statements are true regarding the starting of the database instance using the following command? (Choose two.)
SQL>STARTUP UPGRADE A. It enables all system triggers.
B. It allows only SYSDBA connections.
C. It ensures that all job queues remain active during the upgrade process.
D. It sets system initialization parameters to specific values that are required to enable database upgrade scripts to be run.

Correct Answer: BD

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QUESTION: 1
Which two statements are true regarding Oracle Net? (Choose two.)

A. It must reside only on the client for traditional client/server applications.
B. It must reside only on the database server for web-based applications.
C. It must reside on both the web server and database server for web-based applications.
D. It must reside on both the client and database server for traditional client/server applications.
Answer: C, D
QUESTION: 2 You want to change your database by adding some new columns to a particular tale. These new columns represent new data that is not accessed by the current application. Which approach would be the simplest in making these changes?
A. Use edition-based redefinition to create a new version of the table.
B. Add the columns to the table, since dependent objects will not be affected.
C. Encompass all access to these columns in separate PL/SQL procedures to avoid dependency issues.
D. Add the columns to a different table and create a view to access the joined result.

Answer: A
QUESTION: 3 Choose three areas for which Oracle Database 11g Release 2 and Enterprise Manager offer tools that can recommended solutions on optimal implementation.
A. Indexes
B. Compression
C. Data recovery
D. Data block size
E. CPU usage
F. Availability
Answer: A, B, E

QUESTION: 4
You issue the following command as a DBA:
SQL> SHUTDOWN
What would be the outcome of the above command?

A. It causes the instance to abort.
B. It waits for all sessions to disconnect.
C. It rolls back the current transactions and disconnects a/I sessions.
D. It waits for the current transaction in each session to complete before disconnecting the sessions.

Answer: B
QUESTION: 5
Which statement is true regarding Automatic Memory Management?

A. You need to specify only the SGA memory size.
B. You need to specify the SGA and PGA memory sizes separately.
C. You need to specify the total memory size, which is dynamically sized forSGA and PGA components and can beexchanged between the SGA and PGA.
D. You need to specify the total memory size, which is dynamically sizedfor SGA and PGA components but cannot be exchanged between the SGA and PGA.

Answer: C
QUESTION: 6 You are a performance-sensitive DBA, and you are nervous about gathering new statistics, since they may alter optimization plans in an unexpected way. To avoid this potential outcome, your best course of action would be to:
A. refrain from collecting statistics
B. use Real Application Testing to capture the workload and the worked and then run the worked on a test machine
C. use hints to create fixed plans for SQL statements
D. use deferred publishing of statistics to allow you to test execution plans before making the statistics public

E. use invisible indexes to dominate execution plans

Answer: D
QUESTION: 7
Which three options correctly map SQL commands with their categories? (Choose thee)

A. SELECT: transaction control
B. DROP: data control language
C. ROLLBACK: transition control
D. REVOKE:Data control language
E. ALTER: Data manipulation language
F. MERGE: Data manipulation language

Answer: C, D, F
QUESTION: 8
Which three statements are true regarding an Oracle instance? (Choose three)

A. One instance is associated with only one database.
B. Multiple database instances can run on one computer.
C. Only one database instance can run on one computer.
D. One instance can be associated with multiple databases.
E. A database instance is created based on the information in the control file.
F. A database instance is created based on the information in the SPFILE file.

Answer: A, B, F
QUESTION: 9
Which two statements are true regarding the use of SQL in Oracle database? (Choose two)

A. SQL is used to control access to the database and its objects.
B. SQL can handle the creation of variables to store temporary values in a session.
C. SQL allows a user to specify where the data is physically stored on the storage device.

D. SQL is used to manipulate the data in binary file large objects (LOBs) that are stored outside
the database.
E. All SQL statements automatically use the optimizing that is available as part of Oracle database to determine the most efficient means of accessing data.
Answer: A, E

User HR has made some modifications to the data in the HR.EMPLOYEES table. You need to now restore the data in the table to a previous version and use the Enterprise Manager. From which source dose the operation flash back the table data to the specified time?
A. redo logs
B. undo table space
C. flash recovery area
D. temporary table space

Answer: C
QUESTION: 11 The DBA of your database informs you that the Oracle instance has started. What does this imply?
A. Users can access the data in the database.
B. Only the SGA has been allocated for the database.
C. Only the background and user processes are running.

D. Memory areas have been allocated and background processes have been started.

Answer: D
QUESTION: 12
Which two statements are true regarding SQL*Plus? (Choose two.)

A. It has commands to perform database administration operations.
B. It can be used in interactive hut not batch mode for SQL commands.
C. It has to be installed separately after the Oracle database install installation.
D. Operating system commands can be executed from the SOL *Plus command prompt

Answer: A, D
QUESTION: 13
Which statement is true regarding undo table space?

A. Undo table space Is a temporary table space.
B. Only one undo table space can exist in a database.
C. Undo table space can consist of only one data file that is reused in a cyclic fashion.
D. Multiple undo table spaces can exist in a database but only one can be active at a lime.

Answer: D
QUESTION: 14
Which three statements are true regarding inconsistent backup? (Choose three)

A. It can be used only for incomplete recovery.
B. It can be taken only when the database is open. C. It can be taken only when the database is closed.
D. It can be used for complete and incomplete recovery.
E. The archived redo logs changes must be applied to the data files before the backup.
F. Both online and archived redo logs can have changes that have not been applied before the backup.
Answer: B, D, F
QUESTION: 15
Which three options correctly match environment variables with their specific functionalities?
(Choose three.)

A. ORACLE_SID: specifies the instance name
B. ORACLE_SID: specifies the global database name
C. ORACLE_ BASE: specifies the toot of the Oracle Database directory tree in all platforms
D. ORACLE_ BASE: specifies the directory containing the Oracle software executables and network file
E. ORACLE_HOME: specifies the root of the Oracle Database directory tree only in UNIX and Linux platforms
F. ORACLE_HOME: specifies the directory containing only the Oracle software executables but not the network files

Answer: A, D, E
QUESTION: 16 Your test database is currently running in the ARCHIVELOG mode and you plan to switch to the NOARCHIVELOG mode temporarily. Which type of backup should you perform before switching the mode to ensure database recovery is possible?
A. whole backup
B. level o incremental backup of data files
C. full backup of data files using only backup sets
D. full backup of data files using only image copies

Answer: A
QUESTION: 17 You create an index, EMP_IDX, on the ENAME column in the EMP table. Identify the three operations in which FMP_IDX would be used? (Choose three.)

A. addition of new data to the EMP table
B. deletion of existing row from the EMP table
C. modification of data in any column in the EMP table
D. all queries that display data from the ENAME column
E. queries that search for data based on a condition on the ENAME column

Answer: A, B, E
QUESTION: 18
Which three statements are true about database storage structures? (Choose three.)

A. A data file can span across table spaces.
B. An extent contains one or more segments.
C. Table spaces contain one or more data files.
D. Data objects are stored as segments in table spaces.
E. Segments can span across data files within a table space.

Answer: C, D, E
QUESTION: 19
Which three statements about the Automatic Database Diagnostic Monitor (ADDM) are true?
(Choose three)

A. requires the database to be open
B. analyses the performance of specified objects
C. implements all recommendations automatically
D. recommends solutions and quantifies expected benefits
E. retains snapshots in the SYSAUX table space until the database is restarted
F. analyzes the snapshots stored in the Automatic Workload Repository (AWR)

Answer: D, E, F
QUESTION: 20 You want to use the automatic management of backup and recovery operations feature for your database. Which configuration must you set?

A. Enable the flash recovery area and specify it as the archived redo log destination
B. Disable the flash recovery area and start the database instance in ARCHIVELOG mode.
C. Enable the flash recovery area but do not specify it as the archived redo log destination. D. Disable the flash recovery area and start the database instance in NOABCHIVELOG mo.

Answer: A

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QUESTION 1
A developer needs to deliver a large-scale enterprise application that connects developer chooses an EJB 3.1-compliant application server, which three are true about the EJB business component tier? (Choose three.)
A. Load-balancing is NOT a guarantee for all EJB 3.1 containers.
B. Clustering is guaranteed to be supported by the EJB 3.1 container.
C. Thread pooling can be optimized by the Bean Provider programmatically.
D. Bean Providers are NOT required to write code for transaction demarcation.
E. Support for server fail-over is guaranteed for an EJB 3.1-compliant application server.
F. EJB 3.1 compliant components are guaranteed to work within any Java EE 6 application server

Correct Answer: ACF Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
The EJB tier hosts the business logic of a J2EE application and provides system-level services to the business components problems include state maintenance, transaction management, and availability to local and remote clients.
The EJB 3.1 specification does not address “high-end” features like clustering (not B), load-balancing (A) and fail-over (not E).
F: The target platform for EJB is Java EE.

QUESTION 2
A developer examines a list of potential enterprise applications and selects the most appropriate technologies to use for each application.
For which two applications is EJB an appropriate solution? (Choose two.)
A. To render a GUI for mobile clients.
B. As a container for web-tier components including JSP.
C. As a Web service endpoint accessed by non-Java clients.
D. To receive and respond to HTTP Post requests directly from a web browser.
E. As an online shopping cart which can persist across multiple sessions with a single client.

Correct Answer: CE Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 3
Which two statements are true? (Choose two.)
A. Typically, remotely accessible objects should be coarse-grained.
B. If a client accesses an enterprise bean locally such access must be mediated by the EJB container.
C. A given enterprise bean’s transaction information is immutable because it is deployed across various containers.
D. If a container provides services NOT required by the EJB specification, then that container is NOT considered to be an EJB container.
E. An enterprise bean’s transaction Information can be accessed by external tools only if the information is contained in an XML deployment descriptor.
Correct Answer: BD Explanation Explanation/Reference:

D: An EJB container is nothing but the program that runs on the server and implements the EJB specifications. EJB container provides special type of the environment suitable for running the enterprise components. Enterprise beans are used in distributed applications that typically contains the business logic.
Incorrect answers:
A: Remotely accessible objects should be fine-grained

QUESTION 4
Assume you would like to receive notification from the container as a stateless session bean transitions to and from the ready state.
Which of the following life cycle back annotations would you use? (Choose one.)
A. @PostConstruct, @PostDestroy
B. @PostConstruct, @PreDestroy
C. @PreConstruct, @PostDestroy
D. @PostConstruct, @PostDestroy, @Remove
E. @PostConstruct, @PreDestroy, @Remove

Correct Answer: B Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
The Lifecycle of a Stateless Session Bean The EJB container typically creates and maintains a pool of stateless session beans, beginning the stateless session bean’s lifecycle. The container performs any dependency injection and then invokes the method annotated @PostConstruct, if it exists. The bean is now ready to have its business methods invoked by a client.
At the end of the lifecycle, the EJB container calls the method annotated @PreDestroy, if it exists. The bean’s instance is then ready for garbage collection.
Lifecycle of a Stateless Session Bean:

Note: An enterprise bean goes through various stages during its lifetime, or lifecycle. Each type of enterprise bean (stateful session, stateless session, singleton session, or message-driven) has a different lifecycle.
Reference: http://docs.oracle.com/javaee/6/tutorial/doc/giplj.html
QUESTION 5
Which API must an EJB 3.1 container make available to enterprise beans at runtime? (Choose one)
A. The JXTA 1.1 API
B. The MIDP 2.0 API
C. The Java SE 6 JNDI API
D. The Java SE 5 JDBC API

Correct Answer: CD Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 6
A developer wants to write a stateful session bean using the following interface as local business interface:
1.
package acme;

2.
public interface Bar {

3.
public void bar ();

4.
}
Assuming there is not an ejb-jar.xml file, which code can be inserted into Lines 4-6 below to define the
bean with the ejb name of BarBean?

1.
package acme;
2.
import javax.ejb.*;
3.
import java.io.*;
4.
5.
6.
7.
}

A. @Stateful public class BarEJB implements Bar { public void bar () {}
B. @Stateful (name = “Bar”) public class Barbean implements Bar { public void bar () {}
C. @Stateful public class BarBean implements Serializable, Bar { public void bar () {}
D. @Stateful (name = “bar”) public class BarBean implements Serializable, Bar { public void bar () throws java.rmi.RemoteException {}

Correct Answer: C Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 7
A developer creates a stateful session bean that is used by many concurrent clients. The clients are written
by other development team; and it is assumed that these clients might not remove the bean when ending
their session. The number of concurrent sessions will be greater than the defined bean cache size.

The developer must consider that the state of the session bean can be influenced by either passivation or
timeout.
Which three actions should the developer take to make the bean behave correctly in passivation and
timeout situations? (Choose three.)

A. Release references to resources in a @Remove annotated method.
B. Re-establish references to resources in an @Init annotated method.
C. Release references to resources in a @PreDestroy annotated method.
D. Release references to resources in a @PrePassivate annotated method.
E. Re-establish references to resources in a @PostActivate annotated method.
Correct Answer: CDE Explanation

Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 8
A stateful session bean contains a number of instance variables. The types of instance variables A and B are serializable. Instance variable B is a complex type which is populated by many business calls, and can, therefore, not be refilled by the client without starting all over. A helper instance variable C is defined as having a Serializable type, and can hold all the information which is in variable B. for example, B is of type XML-DOM tree and C of Type String.
Which two solutions, when combined, maintain the state of the session bean over a passivation and activation by the container? (Choose two.)
A. The value of helper variable C is used to create the value of Instance variable B in the beans no-arg constructor.
B. The value of helper variable C is used to create the value of instance variable B in a @postcreate annotated method.
C. The value of helper variable C is used to create the value of instance variable B in a @postActivate annotated method.
D. Instance variable A must be made null and instance variable B must be converted to a Serializable type and assigned to another instance variable in a @preDestroy annotated method.
E. Instance variable A must be defined transient. Instance variable B must be converted to a Serializable type, set to null, and assigned to the instance variable C in a @PrePassivate annotated method.

Correct Answer: CE Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 9
A developer writes a stateful session bean FooBean with one remote business interface Foo. Foo defines an integer / setter method pair implemented as:
10.
private int value;

11.
public void setValue (int i) {value = i; }

12.
public int getValue () {return value; }
A session bean ClientBean has a business method doSomething and an ejb-ref with ejb-ref-name “fooRef” that is mapped to FooBean’s Foo interface.
11.
@Resource private SessionContext SessionCtx;

12.
public void doSomething () {

13.
Foo foo1 = (Foo) sessionCtx.lookup(“fooRef”);

14.
Foo foo2 = (Foo) sessionCtx.lookup(“fooRef”);

15.
foo1.setvalue(1);
Which statement is true after the code at line 15 completes?
A. Foo1.getValue () = = 0 and foo2.getValue() = = 0
B. Foo1.getValue () = = 0 and foo2.getValue() = = 1
C. Foo1.getValue () = = 1 and foo2.getValue() = = 0
D. Foo1.getValue () = = 1 and foo2.getValue() = = 1
Correct Answer: D Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Foo1 and Foo2 references the same object.
QUESTION 10
A developer writes a stateless session bean FooBean with one remote business interface FooRemote containing one business method foo. Method foo takes a single parameter of application-defined type MyData.
11.
public class MyData implements java.io.Serialization {

12.
int a;

13.
}
Methods foo is implemented with the FooBean class as:
11.
public void foo (MyData data) {

12.
data.a = 2;

13.
}
Another session bean within the same application has a reference to FooRemote in variable fooRef and calls method foo with the following code:
11.
MyData data = new MyData();

12.
data.a = 1;

13.
fooRef.foo(data);

14.
System.out.printIn(data.a);
What is the value of data.a when control reaches Line 14 of the client?
A. 0
B. 1
C. 2

Correct Answer: B Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 11
Which two statements are correct about stateless session beans? (Choose two.)
A. The bean class may declare instance variables.
B. The lifetime of the bean instance is controlled by the client.
C. The container may use the same bean instance to handle multiple business method invocations at the same time.
D. The container may use the same bean instance to handle business method invocations requested by different clients, but not concurrently.

Correct Answer: AC Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
* A: Stateless session beans are EJB’s version of the traditional transaction processing applications, which are executed using a procedure call. The procedure executes from beginning to end and then returns the result. Once the procedure is done, nothing about the data that was manipulated or the details of the request are remembered. There is no state.
These restrictions don’t mean that a stateless session bean can’t have instance variables and therefore some kind of internal state. There’s nothing that prevents you from keeping a variable that tracks the number of times a bean has been called or that tracks data for debugging. An instance variable can even hold a reference to a live resource like a URL connection for writing debugging data, verifying credit cards, or anything else that might be useful.
A stateless session bean is relatively easy to develop and also very efficient.
C: Stateless session beans require few server resources because they are neither persistent nor dedicated to one client. Because they aren’t dedicated to one client, many EJB objects can use just a few instances of a stateless bean. A stateless session bean does not maintain conversational state relative to the EJB object it is servicing, so it can be swapped freely between EJB objects. As soon as a stateless instance services a method invocation, it can be swapped to another EJB object immediately. Because there is no conversational state, a stateless session bean doesn’t require passivation or activation, further reducing the overhead of swapping. In short, they are lightweight and fast!
* The Lifecycle of a Stateless Session Bean Because a stateless session bean is never passivated, its lifecycle has only two stages: nonexistent and ready for the invocation of business methods. The EJB container typically creates and maintains a pool of stateless session beans, beginning the stateless session bean’s lifecycle. The container performs any dependency injection and then invokes the method annotated @PostConstruct, if it exists. The bean is now ready to have its business methods invoked by a client.
At the end of the lifecycle, the EJB container calls the method annotated @PreDestroy, if it exists (not B). The bean’s instance is then ready for garbage collection.
QUESTION 12
A developer wants to release resources within a stateless session bean class. The cleanup method should be executed by the container before an instance of the class is removed. The deployment descriptor is NOT used.
Which three statements are correct? (Choose three.)
A. The cleanup method may declare checked exceptions.
B. The cleanup method must have no arguments and return void.
C. The cleanup method is executed in an unspecified transaction and security context.
D. The developer should mark the cleanup method with the @PreDestroy annotation.
E. The developer should mark the cleanup method with the @PostDestroy annotation.
F. The cleanup method is executed in the transaction and security context of the last business method Invocation.

Correct Answer: BCD Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 13
A developer creates a stateless session bean. This session bean needs data from a remote system. Reading this data takes a long time. Assume that the data will NOT change during the life time of the bean and that the information to connect to the remote system is defined in JNDI.
Which statement describes how to manage the data correctly?
A. Read the data in the bean’s constructor.
B. The data can only be read in the bean’s business methods.
C. Read the data in a method which is annotated with @PrePassivate.
D. Read the data in a method which is annotated with @PostActivate.
E. Read the data in a method which is annotated with @PostConstruct.
Correct Answer: E Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 14
Suppose an EJB named HelloWorldBean is deployed as a standalone ejb-jar. Assuming the HelloWorldBean is implemented as follows: Which HelloWorldBean methods are accessible by another EJB within the same ejb-jar?

A. All of the methods declared in HelloWorldBean
B. All of the methods declared in HelloWorld and HelloWorldBean
C. All of the public methods declared in HelloWorldBean
D. All of the public methods declared in HelloWorld and all of the methods declared in HelloWorldBean Correct Answer: C

Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 15
Given the following stateless session bean: How would you change the EJB to prevent multiple clients from simultaneously accessing the sayHello method of a single bean instance?

A. Convert sayHello into a synchronized method
B. Execute the call to generateLocalizedHello in a synchronized block
C. Convert generateLocalizehello into a synchronized method
D. Convert HelloWordBean into a singleton bean
E. No changes are needed

Correct Answer: A Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
*
It is not possible for two invocations of synchronized methods on the same object to interleave. When one thread is executing a synchronized method for an object, all other threads that invoke synchronized methods for the same object block (suspend execution) until the first thread is done with the object.

*
When a synchronized method exits, it automatically establishes a happens-before relationship with any subsequent invocation of a synchronized method for the same object. This guarantees that changes to the state of the object are visible to all threads.
Reference: The Java Tutorial, Synchronized Methods
QUESTION 16
Given singleton bean FooEJB:

How many distinct FooEJB bean instances will be used to process the code on the lines 101-105?
A. 0
B. 1
C. 2

Correct Answer: B Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Java has several design patterns Singleton Pattern being the most commonly used. Java Singleton pattern belongs to the family of design patterns, that govern the instantiation process. This design pattern proposes that at any time there can only be one instance of a singleton (object) created by the JVM.
QUESTION 17
A developer writes a Singleton bean that holds state for a single coordinate: An update thread acquires an EJB reference to CoordinateBean and alternates between invoking SetCoordinate (0, 0) and SetCoordinate (1, 1) in a loop.

At the same time, ten reader threads each acquire an EJB reference to CoordinateBean and invoke getCoordinate () in a loop.
Which represents the set of all possible coordinate values [X, Y] returned to the reader threads?
A. [0, 0]
B. [1, 1]
C. [0, 0], [1, 1]
D. [0, 0], [0, 1], [1, 0], [1, 1] Correct Answer: C

Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 18
Assume a client will be accessing a Singleton bean.
Which client views is a Singleton bean capable of exposing? (Choose two)

A. Web Service
B. Message listener
C. EJB 2.x Remote Home
D. EJB 3.x local business
E. Java Persistence API entity

Correct Answer: AB Explanation Explanation/Reference:
Singleton session beans are appropriate in the following circumstances.
*
State needs to be shared across the application.

*
A single enterprise bean needs to be accessed by multiple threads concurrently.

*
The application needs an enterprise bean to perform tasks upon application startup and shutdown.

*
The bean implements a web service. (A)
B: An interceptor method you define in a separate interceptor class takes an invocation context as argument: using this context, your interceptor method implementation can access details of the original session bean business method or message-driven bean message listener method invocation. Singleton Interceptors If your interceptors are stateless, you can use an OC4J optimization extension to the EJB 3.0 specification that allows you to specify singleton interceptors. When you configure a session bean or message-driven bean to use singleton interceptors and you associate the bean with an interceptor class, OC4J creates a single instance of the interceptor class that all bean instances share. This can reduce memory requirements and life cycle overhead.
Note:
Singleton session beans offer similar functionality to stateless session beans but differ from them in that
there is only one singleton session bean per application, as opposed to a pool of stateless session beans,
any of which may respond to a client request. Like stateless session beans, singleton session beans can
implement web service endpoints.

Reference: The Java EE 6 Tutorial, What Is a Session Bean?
Reference: Oracle Containers for J2EE Enterprise JavaBeans Developer’s Guide, How do you use an
Enterprise Bean in Your Application

QUESTION 19
A developer writes a Singleton bean that uses the java Persistence API within a business method:

Two different concurrently executing caller threads acquire an EJB reference to PersonBean and each invoke the getPerson () method one time. How many distinct transaction are used to process the caller invocations?
A. 0
B. 1
C. 2

Correct Answer: B Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Only one transaction is required. LockType READ allows simultaneous access to singleton beans.
Note: READ
public static final LockType READ For read-only operations. Allows simultaneous access to methods designated as READ, as long as no WRITE lock is held.
Reference: javax.ejb, Enum LockType
QUESTION 20
Given the following client-side code that makes use of the session bean Foo:
10. @EJB Foo bean1;
12. @EJB Foo bean2;
// more code here
20.
boolean test1 = beanl.equals(bean1);

21.
boolean test2 = beanl.equals(bean2) ;
Which three statements are true? (Choose three)
A. If Foo is stateful, test1 is true, and test2 is true.
B. If Foo is stateful, test1 is true, and test2 is false.
C. If Foo is stateless, test1 is true, and test2 is true.
D. If Foo is stateless, test1 is true, and test2 is false.
E. If Foo is singleton, test1 is true, and test2 is true.
F. If Foo is singleton, test1 is true, and test2 is false.

Correct Answer: BCE Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

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QUESTION 1
A simple master-to-slave replication is currently being used. The following information is extracted from the
SHOW SLAVE STATUS output:

Last_SQL_Error: Error ‘Duplicate entry ‘8’ for key ‘PRIMARY’ ‘ on query. Default database:
‘mydb’. Query: ‘insert into mytable VALUES (‘8’ , ‘George’) ‘ Skip_Counter: 0
Retrieved _Gtid_Set: 38f32e23480a7-32a1-c323f78067fd37821: 1-8 Auto _Position: 1

You execute a “SHOW CREATE TABLE mytable” on the slave:

CREATE TABLE `mytable’ (
`ID’ int(11) NOT NULL DEFAULT `0′,
`name’ char(10) DEFAULT NULL,
PRIMARY KEY (`ID’)
)

The table mytable on the slave contains the following:
You have issued a STOP SLAVE command. One or more statements are required before you can issue a START SLAVE command to resolve the duplicate key error.
Which statement should be used?
A. SET GLOBAL SQL_SKIP_SLAVE_COUNTER=1
B. SET GTID_NEXT=”CONSISTENCY”; BEGIN; COMMIT; SET GTID_NEXT=” AUTOMATIC’;
C. SET GLOBAL enforce_gtid_consistency=ON
D. SET GTID_EXECUTED=”38f32e23480a7-32a1-c323f78067fd37821 : 9″;
E. SET GTID_NEXT=”38f32e23480a7-32a1-c323f78067fd37821 : 9″; BEGIN; COMMIT; SET GTID_NEXT=”AUTOMATIC”;

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 2
Consider the following statement on a RANGE partitioned table:
ALTER TABLE orders DROP PARTITION p1, p3;
What is the outcome of executing the above statement?

A. Only the first partition (p1) will be dropped as only one can be dropped at any time.
B. All data in p1 and p3 partitions are removed, but the table definition remains unchanged.
C. A syntax error will result as you cannot specify more than one partition in the same statement.
D. All data in pi and p3 partitions are removed and the table definition is changed.

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 3
You inherit a legacy database system when the previous DBA, Bob, leaves the company. You are notified that users are getting the following error:
mysql> CALL film_in_stock (40, 2, @count);
ERROR 1449 (HY000): The user specified as a definer (`bon’@’localhost’) does not exist

How would you identify all stored procedures that pose the same problem?

A. Execute SELECT * FROM mysql.routines WHERE DEFINER=’[email protected]’;.
B. Execute SHOW ROUTINES WHERE DEFINER=’bob[email protected]’.
C. Execute SELECT * FROM INFORMATION_SCHEMA. ROUTINES WHERE DEFINER=’[email protected]’;.
D. Execute SELECT * FROM INFORMATION_SCHEMA. PROCESSLIST WHERE USER=’bob’ and HOST=’ localhost’;.
E. Examine the Mysql error log for other ERROR 1449 messages.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 4
When designing an InnoDB table, identify an advantage of using the BIT datatype Instead of one of the integer datatypes.
A. BIT columns are written by InnoDB at the head of the row, meaning they are always the first to be retrieved.
B. Multiple BIT columns pack tightly into a row, using less space.
C. BIT (8) takes less space than eight TINYINT fields.
D. The BIT columns can be manipulated with the bitwise operators &, |, ~, ^, <<, and >>. The other integer types cannot.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 5
ROW-based replication has stopped working. You investigate the error log file and find the following entries:
2013-08-27 14:15:47 9056 [ERROR] Slave SQL: Could not execute Delete_rows event on table test.t1; Can’t find record in `t1′, Error_code: 1032; handler error HA_ERR_KEY_NOT_FOUND; the event’s master log 56_master-bin. 000003, end_log_pos 851, Error_code: 1032 2013-08-27 14:15:47 9056 [warning] Slave: Can’t find record in `t1′ Error_code: 1032 2013-08-27 14:15:47 9056 [ERROR] Error running query, slave SQL thread aborted. Fix the problem, and restart the slave SQL thread with “SLAVE START”. We stopped at log `56_master- bin. 000003′ position 684
Why did you receive this error?
A. The slave SQL thread does not have DELETE privileges to execute on test.t1 table.s
B. The table definition on the slave -litters from the master.
C. Multi-threaded replication slaves can have temporary errors occurring for cross database updates.
D. The slave SQL thread attempted to remove a row from the test.t1 table, but the row did not exist.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 6
Mysqldump was used to create a single schema backup; Shell> mysqldump u root p sakila > sakila2013.sql
Which two commands will restore the sakila database without interfering with other running database?
A. Mysql> USE sakila; LOAD DATA INFILE `sakila2013.sql’;
B. Shell> mysql u root p sakila sakila2013.sql
C. Shell> mysql import u root p sakila sakila2013.sql
D. Shell> mysql u root -p e `use sakila; source sakila2013.sql’
E. Shell> mysql u root p silent < sakila2013.sql

Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 7
Consider the Mysql Enterprise Audit plugin.
You are checking user accounts and attempt the following query:
Mysql> SELECT user, host, plugin FROM mysql.users; ERROR 1146 (42S02): Table `mysql.users’ doesn’t exist
Which subset of event attributes would indicate this error in the audit.log file?
A. NAME=”Query” STATUS=”1146″ SQLTEXT=”select user,host from users”/>
B. NAME=”Error” STATUS=”1146″ SQLTEXT=”Error 1146 (42S02): Table `mysql.users’ doesn’t exist”/>
C. NAME=”Query” STATUS=”1146″ SQLTEXT=” Error 1146 (42S02): Table `mysql.users’ doesn’t exist”/>
D. NAME=”Error” STATUS=”1146″ SQLTEXT=”select user,host from users”/>
E. NAME=”Error” STATUS=”0″ SQLTEXT=”Error 1146 (42S02): Table `mysql.users’ doesn’t exist”/>

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 8
Which query would you use to find connections that are in the same state for longer than 180 seconds?
A. SHOW FULL PROCESSLIST WHEER Time > 180;
B. SELECT * FROM INFORMATION_SCHEMA.EVENTS SHERE STARTS < (DATE_SUB (NOW ( ), INTERVAL 180 SECOND) );
C. SELECT * FROM INFORMATION_SCHEMA.SESSION_STATUS WHERE STATE < (DATE_SUB (NOW ( ), INTERVAL 180 SECOND) );
D. SELECT * FROM INFORMATION_SCHEMA.PROCESSLIST WHERE TIME > 180;
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 9
A database exists as a read-intensive server that is operating with query_cachek_type = DEMAND.
The database is refreshed periodically, but the resultset size of the queries does not fluctuate.
Note the following details about this environment:
A web application uses a limited set of queries.

The Query Cache hit rate is high.

All resultsets fit into the Query Cache.

All queries are configured to use the Query Cache successfully.
The response times for queries have recently started to increase. The cause for this has correctly been identified as the increase in the number of concurrent users accessing the web service.
Based solely on the information provided, what is the most likely cause for this slowdown at the database level?
A. The Query Cache is pruning queries due to an increased number of requests.
B. Query_cache_min_res_unit has been exceeded, leading to an increased performance overhead due to additional memory block lookups.
C. Mutex contention on the Query Cache is forcing the queries to take longer due to its single- threaded nature.
D. The average resultset of a query is increasing due to an increase in the number of users requiring SQL statement execution.

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 10
You have a login-path named “adamlocal” that was created by using the mysql_config_editor command.
You need to check what is defined for this login_path to ensure that it is correct for you deployment.
You execute this command:
$ mysql_config_editor print login-path=adamlocal
What is the expected output of this command?

A. The command prints all parameters for the login-path. The password is printed in plain text.
B. The command prints all parameters for the login-path. The password is shown only when you provide the password option.
C. The command prints all parameter for the login-path. The password is replaced with stars.
D. The command prints the encrypted entry for the login-path. The is only possible to see if an entry exists.

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 11
You are using replication and the binary log files on your master server consume a lot of disk space. Which two steps should you perform to safely remove some of the older binary log files?
A. Ensure that none of the attached slaves are using any of the binary logs you want to delete.
B. Use the command PURGE BINARY LOGS and specify a binary log file name or a date and time to remove unused files.
C. Execute the PURGE BINARY LOGE NOT USED command.
D. Remove all of the binary log files that have a modification date earlier than today.
E. Edit the .index file to remove the files you want to delete.

Correct Answer: BD QUESTION 12
Which two statements are true about InnoDB auto-increment locking?
A. The auto-increment lock can be a table-level lock.
B. InnoDB never uses table-level locks.
C. Some settings for innodb_autoinc_lock_mode can help reduce locking.
D. InnoDB always protects auto-increment updates with a table-level lock.
E. InnoDB does not use locks to enforce auto-increment uniqueness.

Correct Answer: AD QUESTION 13
Consider the Mysql Enterprise Audit plugin.
A CSV file called data.csv has 100 rows of data.

The stored procedure prepare_db ( ) has 10 auditable statements.
You run the following statements in the mydb database:
Mysql> CALL prepare_db ( );

Mysql> LOAD DATA INFILE `/tmp/data.cav’ INTO TABLE mytable; Mysql> SHOW TABLES; How many events are added to the audit log as a result of the preceding statements?
A. 102; top-level statements are logged, but LOAD DATA INFILE is logged as a separate event.
B. 3; only the top-level statements are logged.
C. 111; top-level statements and all lower-level statements are logged.
D. 12; only top-level statements and stored procedure events are logged.

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 14
You execute the following statement in a Microsoft Windows environment. There are no conflicts in the path name definitions.
C:
\> mysqld install Mysql56 defaults file = C : \my opts.cnf What is the expected outcome?

A.
Mysqld acts as an MSI installer and installs the Mysql 5.6 version, with the c: \my-opts.cnf configuration file.

B.
Mysql is installed as the Windows service name Mysql56, and uses c: \my-opts.cnf as the configuration file

C.
An error message is issued because install is not a valid option for mysqld.

D.
A running Mysql 5.6 installation has its runtime configuration updated with the server variables set in c: \my-opts.cnf.

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 15
Consider the events_% tables in performance Schema.
Which two methods will clear or reset the collected events in the tables?

A. Using DELETE statements, for example, DELETE FROM performance_schema.events_watis_current;
B. Using the statement RESET PERFORMANCE CACHE;
C. Using the statement FLUSH PERFORMANCE CACHE;
D. Using TRUNCATE statements, for example, TRUNATE TABLE performance_schema.events_waits_current;
E. Disabling and re-enabling all instruments
F. Restarting Mysql

Correct Answer: DE QUESTION 16
What are four capabilities of the mysql client program?
A. Creating and dropping databases
B. Creating, dropping, and modifying tables and indexes
C. Shutting down the server by using the SHUTDOWN command
D. Creating and administering users
E. Displaying replication status information F. Initiating a binary backup of the database by using the START BACKUP command

Correct Answer: BDEF QUESTION 17
Assume that you want to know which Mysql Server options were set to custom values. Which two methods would you use to find out?
A. Check the configuration files in the order in which they are read by the Mysql Server and compare them with default values.
B. Check the command-line options provided for the Mysql Server and compare them with default values.
C. Check the output of SHOW GLOBAL VARIABLES and compare it with default values.
D. Query the INFORMATION_SCHEMA.GLOBAL_VARIABLES table and compare the result with default values.

Correct Answer: CD QUESTION 18
You install a copy of Mysql 5.6.13 on a brand new Linux server by using RPM packages. The server starts
successfully as verified by the following commands:

$ pidof mysqld
3132

$tail – n2 /var/lib.mysql/hostname.err
2013-08-18 08:18:38 3132 [Note] /usr/sbin/mysqld: ready for connections.
Version: ‘5.6.13-enterprise-commercial-advaced’ socket: ‘/tmp/mysql.sock’ port;
3306 Mysql Enterprise Server – Advanced Edition (Commercial)

You attempt to log in as the root user with the following command:

$mysql –u root
ERROR 1045 (28000): Access denied for user ‘root’@’localhost’ (using password: NO)

Which statement is true about this scenario?

A. The RPM installation script sets a default password of password for new installations.
B. The local root user must log in with a blank password initially: mysql u root p.
C. New security measures mean that the mysql_secure_installation script must be run first on all new installations.
D. The mysql_install_bd post-installation script used random-password.

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 19
A Mysql Server has been running an existing application successfully for six months.
The my.cnf is adjusted to contain the following additional configuration:
[mysqld]

Default-authentication-plugin=sha256_password
The Mysql Server is restarted without error.
What effect will the new configuration have in existing accounts?

A. They will have their passwords updated on start-up to sha256_password format.
B. They will have to change their password the next time they login to the server.
C. They are not affected by this configuration change.
D. They all connect via the secure sha256_password algorithm without any configuration change.

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 20
In a design situation, there are multiple character sets that can properly encode your data. Which three should influence your choice of character set?
A. Disk usage when storing data
B. Syntax when writing queries involving JOINS
C. Comparing the encoded data with similar columns on other tables
D. Memory usage when working with the data
E. Character set mapping index hash size

Correct Answer: CDE QUESTION 21
What are three actions performed by the mysql_secure_installation tool?
A. It prompts you to set the root user account password.
B. It checks whether file permissions are appropriate within datadir.
C. It asks to remove the test database, which is generated at installation time.
D. It can delete any anonymous accounts.
E. It verifies that all users are configuration with the longer password hash.

Correct Answer: ACD QUESTION 22
Consider the query:
Mysql> SET @run = 15;
Mysql> EXPLAIN SELECT objective, stage, COUNT (stage) FROM iteminformation
WHERE [email protected] AND objective=’7.1′
GROUP BY objective,stage
ORDER BY stage;
The iteminformation table has the following indexes; Mysql> SHOW INDEXES FROM iteminformation:

This query is run several times in an application with different values in the WHERE clause in a growing data set.
What is the primary improvement that can be made for this scenario?
A. Execute the run_2 index because it has caused a conflict in the choice of key for this query.
B. Drop the run_2 index because it has caused a conflict in the choice of key for this query.
C. Do not pass a user variable in the WHERE clause because it limits the ability of the optimizer to use indexes.
D. Add an index on the objective column so that is can be used in both the WHERE and GROUP BY operations.
E. Add a composite index on (run,objective,stage) to allow the query to fully utilize an index.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 23
Consider typical High Availability (HA) solutions that do not use shared storage. Which three HA solutions do not use shared storage?
A. Mysql Replication
B. Distributed Replicated Block Device (DRBD) and Mysql
C. Windows Cluster and Mysql
D. Solaris Cluster and Mysql
E. Mysql NDB Cluster

Correct Answer: ACD
QUESTION 24
Which three statements are characteristic of the MEMORY storage engine?
A. Each table is represented on disk as an.frm file.
B. Each table has a corresponding.MYI and .MYD file.
C. It can support foreign keys.
D. It cannot contain text or BLOB columns.
E. Table contents are not saved if the server is restarted.
F. It can support transactions

Correct Answer: ADE
QUESTION 25
Consider the Mysql Enterprise Audit plugin.
The following event detail is found in the audit log:
<AUDIT_RECORD TIMESTAMP=”2013-04-09t01:54:17” NAME=”Connect”
CONNECTION_ID=”3”
STATUS=”1045” USER=”kate” PROXY_USER=”” HOST=”localhost” IP=”” DB=””/>
Which two points can be concluded from the given event?
A. A connection was blocked by a firewall or a similar security mechanism.
B. A connection was attempted via socket rather than TCP.
C. A connection failed because the proxy user privileges did not match the login user.
D. A connection as the user kate was successful.
E. A connection failed due to authentication being unsuccessful.

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QUESTION 35

Which two statements about this policy are true?
A. It replaces the first four digits of the value from the SALARY column with the number 9.
B. It replaces the first digit of the value from the SALARY column with the number 4.
C. It replaces the first digit of the value from the COMMISSION_PCTcolumn with 9.
D. It replaces the first nine digits of the value from the COMMISSION_PCTcolumn with 1.
E. It uses the full data redaction method.
F. It uses the random redaction method.

Correct Answer: DF Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 36
Which option represents a function of Global Data Services (GDS)?
A. performs data replication
B. performs database failovers
C. replaces the functionality of Oracle Clusterware and Oracle RAC
D. coordinates site failovers
E. works seamlessly with Oracle Site Guard

Correct Answer: AB Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 37
Which two statements represent where Oracle Net must reside?
A. Only on the client for traditional client/server applications
B. Only on the database server for web-based applications
C. On both the web server and database server for web-based applications
D. On both the client and database server for traditional client/server applications.

Correct Answer: BD Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 38
When you start up a CDB, which operations are performed automatically and in what order?

a – The instance is started.
b – Control files are opened.
c – The root container is opened (redo logs and root data files).
d – Seed pluggable database is in READ ONLY mode.
e – Other PDBs are still in MOUNTED mode.
f – Triggers may fire if they exist to open other PDBs.

A. a, b, c, d, e, f
B. b, c, a, d, e, f
C. c, b, a, d, f, e
D. a, b, c, d
E. b, c, a, d

Correct Answer: D Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 39
Which new process was introduced as of Oracle Database 12c?
A. Result Cache Background process (RCBG)
B. AQ Coordinator process (QMNC)
C. Change Tracking Writer process (CTWR)
D. Listener Registration process (LREG)
Correct Answer: D Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Reference: http://musingdba.wordpress.com/2013/07/05/new-in-oracle-database-12c-a/
QUESTION 40

Which two statements are true about this common user?
A. SQL> conn c##usr/[email protected] You are connected to PDB1 successfully.
B. SQL> conn c##usr/[email protected] You are connected to PDB2 successfully.
C. SQL> conn c##usr/[email protected] You are unable to create a connection. You first need to sync PDB2 by executing: SQL> conn / as sysdba SQL>exec DBMS_PDB.SYNC_PDB;
D. SQL> conn c##usr/[email protected] You are unable to create a connection. You need to create the common user c# #usr explicitly in PDB2 by executing: SQL>conn system/[email protected] SQL> CREATE USER c##usrIDENTIFIED BYpwd CONTAINER=CURRENT; Now you are able to connect as common user c##usr to PDB2.

Correct Answer: AD Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 41
Which two statements are true regarding undo data records?
A. They are required to support Flashback features.
B. They are not required if Flashback features are enabled.
C. They are retained until the session making the changes ends.
D. Undo records contain copies of data as it appears after a change is made.
E. Undo records contain copies of data as it appears before a change is made.
Correct Answer: AE Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Reference: http://docs.oracle.com/cd/E11882_01/server.112/e25494/undo.htm#ADMIN11463
QUESTION 42
Your customer has two CDBs: one for Production and one for development. You are asked to create a new development PDB (salesdev) from an existing production PDB (salesprd). Which two options would accomplish this?
A. You copy all the PDBSSEEDdata files from the production CDB into the development CDB and execute this on the development CDB; SQL> CREATE PLUGGABLE DATABASE salesdev ADMIN USER salesdm IDENTIFIED by password;
B. You alter the salesprd source database to open in read-only mode, and start cloning the source database: SQL> ALTER PLUGGABLE DATABASE salesprd OPEN READ ONLY; SQL> CREATE PLUGGABLE DATABASE salesdev FROM salesprd;
C. You alter the salesprd source database to open in read-only mode: SQL> ALTER PLUGGABLE DATABASE salesprd OPEN READ ONLY; In the development CDB, you create a databaselink “PRD” that connects to the root of the source CDB, and start cloning the source PDB: SQL> CREATE PLUGGABLE DATABASE salesdevFROM [email protected];
D. Connected as the salesprd local DBA, you create an XML using: SQL> ALTER PLUGGABLE DATABASE salespdb UNPLUG INTO ‘ /tmp/salesprd-xml’ ; Copy the XML file and all salesprd-related files to the target CDB and start plugging the copy into the development CDB using: SQL> CREATE PLUGGABLE DATABASE salesdev USING’ /tmp/salesprd.xml’;

Correct Answer: AD Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
A: Creating a PDB Using the Seed
You can use the CREATE PLUGGABLE DATABASE statement to create a PDB in a CDB using the files
of the seed.

D: Plugging In an Unplugged PDB
To plug in an unplugged PDB, the following prerequisites must be met:

*
Complete the prerequisites described in “Preparing for PDBs”.
*
The XML file that describes the PDB must exist in a location that is accessible to the CDB.
The USING clause must specify the XML file.
Etc

QUESTION 43
Your database is down. You log in as the SYS user and issue this command: SQL> STARTUP
What happens after the instance is started?
A. Nothing else happens.
B. The database is mounted but not opened.
C. The database is mounted and finally opened.
D. The database is opened and finally mounted.

Correct Answer: C Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Reference: http://docs.oracle.com/cd/E17781_01/server.112/e18804/startup.htm
QUESTION 44
Which option represents the steps to add a multiplexed copy of the current control file or to rename a
control file in Oracle Database 12c?

a – Shut down the database.
b – Restart the database.
c – Copy an existing control file to a new location by using operating system commands. d – Edit the
CONTROL_FILESparameter in the database initialization parameter file to add the new control file name,
or to change the existingcontrol file name.

A. b, c, d
B. a, c, d, b
C. a, d, b, c
D. c, d, b

Correct Answer: B Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Reference: http://docs.oracle.com/cd/E16655_01/server.121/e17636/control.htm#ADMIN11287
QUESTION 45
Your database is open and the listener is running. The DBA stops the listener by using the command:
LSNRCTL> STOP
What happens to the sessions that are currently connected to the database instance?
A. They can perform only queries.
B. They are not affected and continue to function normally.
C. They are terminated and the active transactions are rolled back.
D. They are not allowed to perform any operations till the listener is started.

Correct Answer: D Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Note: Oracle Net Listener is a separate process that runs on the database server. It receives incoming client connection requests and manages the traffic of these requests to the database server.
QUESTION 46
Your customer wants all email addresses from the database displayed as [hidden]@company.com. What method of data redaction must you use?
A. full redaction
B. partial redaction
C. regular expressions
D. random redaction
E. no redaction

Correct Answer: B Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 47
Your customer is looking for a solution that meets these four needs:
1 – Replicate data from source to target for reporting purposes. 2 -Replicate data from one source to multiple targets. 3 – Replicate data between two databases for instant failover. 4 – Replicate data from multiple sources to a single target for a data warehouse.
Which GoldenGate-supported topology would you recommended?
A. Uni-directional for 1 Peer-to-peer for 2 Bi-directional for 3 Consolidation for 4
B. Peer-to-peer for 1 Broadcast for 2 Bi-directional for 3
Consolidation for 4
C. Uni-directional for 1 Broadcast for 2 Bi-directional for 3 Consolidation for 4
D. Peer-to-peer for 1 Consolidation for 2 Broadcast for 3 Cascading for 4

Correct Answer: C Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 48
You execute some DMLcommands, followed by a COMMIT Statement. Which option correctly describes how the logwriter (LGWR) process takes part in the transaction commit?
A. 1. LGWR writes the commit record to disk.
2. LGWR writes all redo entries from Redo Log Buffer to disk.
B. 1. GWR writes only the transaction’s redo entries from Redo Log Buffer to disk.
2. LGWR writes the commit record to disk.
C. 1. LGWR puts the commit record to Redo Log Buffer.
2. IGWR writes all redo entries from Redo Log Buffer to disk.
D. 1. LGWR puts the commit record to Redo Log Buffer.
2.
If the activity is high, LGWR waits three seconds for other transactions to commit.

3.
LGWR writes all redo log entries from Redo Log Buffer to disk.
E. 1. LGWR puts the commit record to Redo Log Buffer.
2.
LGWR signals the database writer (DBW) process to write dirty blocks to disk.

3.
LGWR writes all redo entries from Redo Log Buffer to disk.

Correct Answer: C Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 49
Which two statements about PDBs and CDBs are true?
A. There is only one SYSTEM tablespace per CDB.
B. There is only one instance per PDB.
C. There is a set of redo log files per PDB.
D. There is only one UNDO tablespace per CDB.
E. There is one SYSAUXtablespace per PDB.
Correct Answer: DE Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 50
You went to create a new CDB foe your customer. Which two statements are true about the seed pluggable database that will reside in the new CDB?
A. You have to copy the seed data files yourself,

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QUESTION 1
Which statement about CDB architecture is true?
A. Oracle-supplied metadata resides only in the root container.
B. A seed PDB can sometimes be opened for particular operations.
C. Multiple PDBs with the same name can reside in the same CDB.
D. A CDB can have an infinite number of PDBs.
E. You can create common users in PDBs.

Correct Answer: A Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Reference: http://docs.oracle.com/cd/E16655_01/server.121/e17633/cdbovrvw.htm#CNCPT89235

QUESTION 2
As part of your Oracle Database 12c post-installation tasks, you run these commands:
Cd $ORACLE_HOME/bin srvctl stop database -d myDb chopt enable dm srvctl start database -d myDb
What does this do?
A. It enables the Oracle Data Mining option in your Oracle binary files.
B. It creates the Fast Recovery Area disk group.
C. It generates Client Static Library.
D. It configures one of the Oracle user accounts.
E. It configures Oracle Net Services.
F. It configures Oracle Messaging Gateway.

Correct Answer: A Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Reference: http://docs.oracle.com/cd/E16655_01/install.121/e17889/postinst.htm#RILIN1049 (see 4.4)
QUESTION 3
Exhibit below:

Which three statements are true about terminating a session?
A. Without any error, you can terminate the active session by executing: SQL> ALTER SYSTEM KILL SESSION ‘7, 15′;
B. You can terminate the active session by executing: SQL> ALTER SYSTEM KILL SESSION “7, 15′; But you also get the error message: ORA-00028: your session has been killed C. You cannot terminate the active session. You have to wait until that session becomes inactive.
D. Without any error, you can terminate the inactive session by executing: SQL> ALTER SYSTEM KILL SESSION ’12, 63’;
E. When an inactive session is killed, the status of that session remains visible in VSSESSION with status KILLED. The rowf the terminated session is removed from VSSESSION after the user attempts to use the session again.
F. You cannot terminate the inactive session. You have to wait until that session becomes active again.

Correct Answer: BDE Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
B (not A, Not C):
* You terminate a current session using the SQL statement ALTER SYSTEM KILL SESSION. The following statement terminates the session whose system identifier is 7 and serial number is
15:
* Terminating an Active Session If a user session is processing a transaction (ACTIVE status) when you terminate the session, the transaction is rolled back and the user immediately receives the following message:
ORA-00028: your session has been killed
ALTER SYSTEM KILL SESSION ‘7,15’;
E (not F): Terminating an Inactive Session
If the session is not making a SQL call to Oracle Database (is INACTIVE) when it is terminated, the ORA-00028 message is not returned immediately. The message is not returned until the user subsequently attempts to use the terminated session.
When an inactive session has been terminated, the STATUS of the session in the V$SESSION view is KILLED. The row for the terminated session is removed from V$SESSION after the user attempts to use the session again and receives the ORA-00028 message.
Reference: Oracle Database Administrator’s Guide, Terminating Sessions URL: http://docs.oracle.com/cd/ B28359_01/server.111/b28310/manproc008.htm#ADMIN11192

QUESTION 4
Which two statements are true about shared server sessions?
A. No Program Global Area (PGA) is allocated for shared server processes.
B. User Global Area is stored in System Global Area (SGA).
C. Shared SQL Area is allocated from Program Global Area (PGA).
D. Private SQL Area is allocated from Library Cache.
E. Large Pool is used for SQL work areas.

Correct Answer: AD Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
A: The PGA is memory specific to an operating process or thread that is not shared by other processes or threads on the system. Because the PGA is process-specific, it is never allocated in the SGA.
The PGA is a memory heap that contains session-dependent variables required by a dedicated or shared server process. The server process allocates memory structures that it requires in the PGA.
D: The library cache is a shared pool memory structure that stores executable SQL and PL/SQL code. This cache contains the shared SQL and PL/SQL areas and control structures such as locks and library cache handles. In a shared server architecture, the library cache also contains private SQL areas.
Incorrect:
Not B: The SGA is a read/write memory area that, along with the Oracle background processes, form a

database instance. All server processes that execute on behalf of users can read information in the instance SGA. Several processes write to the SGA during database operation. not C: A private SQL area (PGA) holds information about a parsed SQL statement and other session-specific information for processing. When a server process executes SQL or PL/SQL code, the process uses the private SQL area to store bind variable values, query execution state information, and query execution work areas.
Reference: Oracle Database Concepts, 12c, Memory Architecture

QUESTION 5
Which targets can be managed by using Enterprise Manager Cloud Control?
A. Hosts and databases
B. Hosts, databases, and application servers
C. Application servers and web applications
D. Databases, Oracle Management Server (OMS), and Oracle Management Repository (OMR)
E. Databases, application servers, and web applications
F. Hosts, databases, application servers, web applications, OMS, and OMR

Correct Answer: A Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Reference: http://www.oracle.com/technetwork/oem/framework-infra/wp-em12c-security-best- practicesv2-1493383.pdf (page 3, second bulleted point, last couple of sentences)
QUESTION 6
Which two statements are true regarding SQL*Plus?
A. It has commands for performing database administration operations.
B. It can be used in interactive but not batch mode for SQL commands.
C. It has to be installed separately after the Oracle Database 12c installation.
D. Operating system commands can be executed from the SQL*Plus command prompt.

Correct Answer: AC Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
C: how to start SQL*Plus:
1- Make sure that SQL*Plus has been installed on your computer.

2.
Log on to the operating system (if required).
3.
Enter the command, SQLPLUS, and press Return.
Etc.

Not B: In SQL*Plus command-line, the use of an external editor in combination with the @, @@ or START commands is an effective method of creating and executing generic scripts. You can write scripts which contain SQL*Plus, SQL and PL/SQL commands, which you can retrieve and edit. This is especially useful for storing complex commands or frequently used reports.
Reference: http://docs.oracle.com/cd/B14117_01/server.101/b12170/qstart.htm
QUESTION 7
Which two statements about the Process Monitor (PMON) process are true?
A. PMON performs process recovery when a client process fails.
B. During instance startup, PMON takes care of instance recovery.
C. PMON performs listener registration.
D. PMON restarts background and dispatcher processes when they fail.
E. PMON resolves failures of distributed transactions.

Correct Answer: AC Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 8
Which statement is true about loading data by using the conventional path of SQL*Loader?
A. Redo is not generated while performing conventional path loads.
B. Only PRIMARY KEY, UNIQUE KEY, and NOT NULL constraints are checked,
C. No exclusive locks are acquired when the conventional path loads are performed.
D. Instead of performing transactions, SQL*Loader directly writes data blocks to the data files.
E. INSERT triggers are disabled before the conventional path load and re-enabled at the end of the load. Correct Answer: B

Explanation Explanation/Reference:
Reference: http://docs.oracle.com/cd/A57673_01/DOC/server/doc/SUT73/ch8.htm#data %20paths (see direct loads, integrity constraints, and triggers)
QUESTION 9
Identify three key properties of a transaction in Oracle Database 12c.
A. durability
B. consistency
C. concurrency
D. isolation
E. scalability
F. manageability Correct Answer: ABD

Explanation Explanation/Reference:
Reference: http://docs.oracle.com/cd/E16655_01/server.121/e17633/transact.htm#CNCPT016
QUESTION 10
Which type of file system is NOT valid for storing data files, online redo log files, and control files for a pluggable database?
A. Automatic Storage Management (ASM)
B. OS file system
C. logical volume (LVM)
D. clustered file system
E. RAW Correct Answer: E

Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 11
Which two statements about ADDM are true?
A. Real-Time ADDM uses AWR snapshots of the last 10 minutes.
B. Real-Time ADDM uses ASH recent activity from SGA data.
C. Real-Time ADDM analyzes performance in a completely different fashion than regular ADDM.
D. Regular ADDM uses AWR snapshots that are not yet purged.

Correct Answer: CD Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
C: Real-Time ADDM provides an innovative way to analyze problems in unresponsive or hung databases. Using a normal and a diagnostic mode connection Real-Time ADDM runs through a set of predefined criteria to analyze the current performance and helps the DBA to resolve deadlocks, hangs, shared pool contentions and many other exception situations that today forces the administrator to bounce their databases, causing significant loss of revenue. Real-Time ADDM is the only tool available in the market today that can log into a hung database, analyze the problem and recommend a resolution
Note: Real-Time ADDM is an innovative way to analyze problems in extremely slow or unresponsive databases, which would have traditionally required a database restart. Real-Time ADDM can help resolve issues such as deadlocks, hangs, and shared pool contentions, as well as many other exception situations, without resorting to a restart of the database.
D: ADDM builds upon the data captured in AWR.
QUESTION 12
Which two items are key for maintaining data consistency in Oracle Database 12c?
A. undo data
B. isolation level
C. lock mechanism
D. serializability

Correct Answer: C Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Reference: http://docs.oracle.com/cd/E11882_01/server.112/e25789/consist.htm#CNCPT88969 (overview of the oracle database locking mechanism)
QUESTION 13
You are about to install Oracle Database 12c Enterprise Edition. Which statement is true?
A. You should not install the Oracle Database software into an existing Oracle home from a different release.
B. A multitenant container database (CDB) can have several pluggable databases (PDBs) with different character sets.
C. Oracle recommends that you back up the root. sh script after you complete the installation.
D. Cloning an Oracle home is useful if you are performing multiple Oracle Database Installations.
E. You can stop existing Oracle processes, including the listener and the database running in the Oracle home, before the database software installation.
Correct Answer: B Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 14
Which logical storage relationship is correct?
A. Tablespace< Segment < Extent < Oracle Datablock
B. B) Segment < Extent < Oracle Datablock<Tablespace
C. Tablespace< Extent < Segment < Oracle Datablock
D. Data File <Tablespace< Segment < Extent < Oracle Datablock

Correct Answer: A Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Reference: http://www.dummies.com/how-to/content/basics-of-logical-structures-in-oracle- 12c.html
QUESTION 15
Which two statements about multitenant architecture are true?
A. Multiple PDBs on a single server need multiple database instances and multiple sets of database files.
B. Although consolidated into a single physical database, PDBs mimic the behavior of non- CDBs.
C. A PDB administrator can use Oracle Flashback or point-in-time recovery to retrieve lost data from a PDB, only by shutting down all the PDBs from the CDB.
D. It is easier to collect performance metrics for many databases in a CDB than individual non- CDB databases.
E. It takes more time to apply a patch to one CDB that holds hundreds of PDBs than to hundreds of non-CDB databases.

Correct Answer: BD Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
B: A PDB is a portable collection of schemas, schema objects, and nonschema objects that appears to an Oracle Net client as a non-CDB. All Oracle databases before Oracle Database 12c were non-CDBs.
D: Ease of performance tuning
It is easier to collect performance metrics for a single database than for multiple databases. It is easier to size one SGA than 100 SGAs.
Reference: Benefits of the Multitenant Architecture for Database Consolidation URL: http:// docs.oracle.com/cd/E16655_01/server.121/e17633/cdbovrvw.htm#CNCPT89239
QUESTION 16
Which three statements represent the benefits of multitenant architecture for database consolidation?
A. You can unplug a PDB from a development CDB and plug it into a production CDB, which allows for easier and more rapid movement of data and code.
B. You can consolidate shared database memory by combining multiple PDBs in a single CDB.
C. Patching individual PDBs requires the same amount of time as patching individual databases.
D. Consolidating separate databases into a single CDB requires the same amount of storage allocation.
E. In multitenant architecture, a PDB behaves the same as a non-CDB as seen from a client connecting with Oracle Net. No client modification is required.

Correct Answer: ADE Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
A: By design, you can quickly plug a PDB into a CDB, unplug the PDB from the CDB, and then plug this
PDB into a different CDB. The implementation technique for plugging and unplugging is similar to the
transportable tablespace technique.

D: The process of consolidating data from multiple databases into one database on one computer is
known as database consolidation. Starting in Oracle Database 12c, the Oracle Multitenant option enables
you to consolidate data and code without altering existing schemas or applications.
By consolidating hardware and sharing database memory and files, you reduce costs for hardware,
storage, availability, and labor. For example, 100 PDBs on a single server share one database instance
and one set of database files, thereby requiring less hardware and fewer personnel.

E: A PDB is a portable collection of schemas, schema objects, and nonschema objects that appears to an Oracle Net client as a non-CDB. All Oracle databases before Oracle Database 12c were non-CDBs.
Reference: Benefits of the Multitenant Architecture for Database Consolidation URL: http:// docs.oracle.com/cd/E16655_01/server.121/e17633/cdbovrvw.htm#CNCPT89239
QUESTION 17
Which statement about the Oracle Advanced Security Data Redaction feature is true?
A. It transparently encrypts data at rest in Oracle databases.
B. It securely manages encryption keys.
C. It protects against theft or loss of disks and backups.
D. It prevents OS users from inspecting tablespace files.
E. It limits the exposure of sensitive data in applications.
F. It alters data in caches, buffers, and persistent storage.
G. It impacts operational activities such as backup & restore, upgrade & patch, and replication.

Correct Answer: E Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Redacting Sensitive Data for Display Data Redaction provides selective, on-the-fly redaction of sensitive data in query results prior to display by applications so that unauthorized users cannot view the sensitive data. It enables consistent redaction of database columns across application modules accessing the same data. Data Redaction minimizes changes to applications because it does not alter actual data in internal database buffers, caches, or storage, and it preserves the original data type and formatting when transformed data is returned to the application. Data Redaction has no impact on database operational activities such as backup and restore, upgrade and patch, and high availability clusters.
Reference: Oracle Advanced Security, 12c, Oracle Data Sheet
QUESTION 18
Which three statements about Automatic Database Diagnostic Monitor (ADDM) are true?
A. It requires the database to be open.
B. It analyzes the performance of specified objects.
C. It implements all recommendations automatically.
D. It recommends solutions and quantifies expected benefits.
E. It retains snapshots in the SYSAUX tablespace until the database is restarted.
F. It analyzes the snapshots stored in the Automatic Workload Repository (AWR).

Correct Answer: BDF Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Reference: http://docs.oracle.com/cd/B19306_01/server.102/b14211/diagnsis.htm
QUESTION 19
Which is the default port number for Database Express?
A. 7801
B. 5500
C. 2243
D. 1521
E. 22

Correct Answer: D Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Reference: http://docs.oracle.com/cd/B25329_01/doc/install.102/b25143.pdf (page 4, first bulleted point)
QUESTION 20
Your customer is looking for a solution to address these downtime needs:
-Online addition and removal of disks should automatically rebalance data across new storage configurations while storage, database, and applications remain online.
-Dynamically add or remove clustered nodes without disrupting the database or applications.
-Automate the sizing and distribution of shared memory.
-Add a column with a default value without disrupting the database or applications.
-Perform rolling patch upgrades.
Which four would you recommend to address those needs?
A. Automatic Storage Management (ASM)
B. Online Data and Application change
C. Global Data Services (GDS)
D. Real Application Clusters (RAC)
E. Oracle Streams
F. Online Table Redefinition
G. Oracle Database Vault

Correct Answer: ACDE Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 21
Your database instance is down because there was a user-initiated shutdown. Which option represents
the actions performed, in the correct order, if you start up the instance?

a – The control file is read.
b – Memory is allocated.
c – Background processes pre started.
d -The initialization parameter file is read,
e- Redo log files and data files are opened.

A. b, c, a
B. d, a, e
C. a, e, d, b
D. d, b, c, a, e
E. c, b, d, a, e
Correct Answer: E Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 22
Which three components are always part of System Global Area?
A. Database Buffer Cache
B. Undo Log Buffer
C. Shared Pool
D. Small Pool
E. Java Pool
F. Private SQL Area Correct Answer: ACE

Explanation Explanation/Reference:
Reference: http://docs.oracle.com/cd/E11882_01/server.112/e40540/memory.htm#CNCPT802
QUESTION 23
Which two statements about Database Express are true?
A. It uses internal infrastructure components, such as XDB and SQL*Net.
B. It can perform actions outside the database.
C. It has background tasks and processes that periodically collect information via FTP.
D. It has two new features: Performance Hub and Composite Active Reports.
E. It is not supported on Standard Edition (SE) and Express Edition (XE). Correct Answer: AD

Explanation Explanation/Reference:
Reference: http://www.oracle.com/technetwork/database/manageability/emx-intro-1970113.html
QUESTION 24
Which three operations can the PUBLIC user with the SYSOPER privilege perform?
A. STARTUP
B. SHUTDOWN
C. CREATE DATABASE
D. DROP DATABASE
E. ALTER DATABASE RECOVER Correct Answer: ABE

Explanation Explanation/Reference:
Reference: http://docs.oracle.com/cd/B28359_01/server.111/b28310/dba006.htm#ADMIN11049
QUESTION 25
To revoke unnecessary and unused privileges, you can use Privilege Analysis. Which sequence should
you follow?

1 -Start the analysis.
2 – Set up the analysis policy type (database, role, context).
3 – Generate the results.
4 -View the results in DBA_USED_PRIVSand DBA_UNUSED_PRJVS.
5 – Stop the analysis.

A. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5
B. 2, 1, 5, 3, 4
C. 5, 1, 2, 3, 4
D. 2, 3, I, 5, 4
E. 1, 2, 4, 5, 2 Correct Answer: A

Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 26
Which command do you use to create a local role while you are connected as the local user?
A. create local role l_hr;
B. create role c##_hr container=current;
C. create role l_hr container=current;
D. create role l_hr container=all; Correct Answer: C

Explanation Explanation/Reference:
You can include CONTAINER=CURRENT in the CREATE ROLE statement to specify the role as a local role.
Reference: Oracle Database Security Guide , Creating a Local Role
QUESTION 27
YOU want to move all objects of the CONSULTANT user from the test database to theDB- USER schema of the production database. Which option of IMPDP would you use to accomplish this task?
A. FULL
B. SCHEMAS
C. TRANSFORM
D. REMAP_SCHEMA
E. REMAP_TABLESPACE Correct Answer: D

Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 28
For which database operation do you need the database to be in MOUNT state?
A. renaming the control files
B. re-creating the control files
C. dropping a user in your database
D. dropping a tablespace in your database
E. configuring the database instance to operate in ARCHIVELOG or NOARCHIVELOG mode Correct Answer: E

Explanation Explanation/Reference:
To enable or disable archiving, the database must be mounted but not open.

Note: See step 5 below.
Changing the Database Archiving Mode
To change the archiving mode of the database, use the ALTER DATABASE statement with the

ARCHIVELOG or NOARCHIVELOG clause. To change the archiving mode, you must be connected to the
database with administrator privileges (AS SYSDBA).
The following steps switch the database archiving mode from NOARCHIVELOG to ARCHIVELOG:
1.Shut down the database instance

2.Back up the database.
3.Edit the initialization parameter file to include the initialization parameters that specify the destinations for
the archived redo log files
4.Start a new instance and mount, but do not open, the database.

STARTUP MOUNT
To enable or disable archiving, the database must be mounted but not open.

5.Change the database archiving mode. Then open the database for normal operations.
ALTER DATABASE ARCHIVELOG;
ALTER DATABASE OPEN;

6.Shut down the database.
SHUTDOWN IMMEDIATE

7.Back up the database.

QUESTION 29
Examine the table:
Table name: PRODUCTS Schema: SCOTT Tablespace: USERS Organization: Standard (Heap Organized)
This table contains 20 rows. In the data that has been entered, the PROD_ID column contains only single-digit values, PROD_NAME has a maximum of five characters, and PROD_RATE has four-digit values for all rows.
Which two statements are true regarding the modifications that can be performed to the structure of the PRODUCTS table?
A. PROD_NAME size can be increased from five to 10 characters.
B. PROD_ID can be changed from CHAR to NUMBER data type.
C. PROD_RATE size can be changed from NUMBER(4) to NUMBER(6, 2).
D. New columns can be added only if they have a NOT NULL constraint.
E. None of the existing columns can be dropped because they contain data.

Correct Answer: AC Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 30
A DBA informs you that an Oracle instance has started. What does this imply?
A. Users can access the data in the database.
B. Only SGA has been allocated for the database.
C. Only background and user processes are running.
D. Memory areas have been allocated and background processes have been started.
Correct Answer: D Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 31
Real-Time ADDM detects a high-load performance issue within the database. Which condition triggered it?
A. The average active sessions were more than three times the number of CPU cores.
B. Active sessions were more than 10% of total load and CPU utilization was more than 50%.
C. Memory allocations were more than 95% of physical memory.
D. Hung sessions were more than 10% of total sessions.
E. A deadlock was detected.
F. The session limit was close to 100%.

Correct Answer: A Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Reference: http://docs.oracle.com/cd/E16655_01/server.121/e15857/pfgrf_diag.htm#TGDBA95369 (table 7-1)

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QUESTION 1
Identify the two direct sources from where SQL plans can be loaded into the SQL plan baselines. (Choose two.)
A. Cursor cache
B. Stored outline
C. SQL Tuning Set
D. Automatic Workload Repository (AWR) snapshots

Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 2
Which two statements about workload capture and replay operations are true? (Choose two.)
A. The clients must be created manually on the test machines to perform more realistic testing.
B. Restart the database in RESTRICTED mode before beginning workload replay to enable a clean state for workload replay.
C. Restart the database in RESTRICTED mode before beginning workload capture to enable a clean state for capturing the workload.
D. The application state of the capture system must be identical to the application state of the replay system when the workload replay begins.
Correct Answer: CD
QUESTION 3
View the Exhibit exhibit1 to examine the series of SQL commands.

View the Exhibit exhibit2 to examine the plans available in the SQL plan baseline. The baseline in the first row of the Exhibit is created when OPTIMIZER_MODE was set to FIRST_ROWS.
Which statement is true if the SQL query in exhibit1 is executed again when the value of OPTIMIZER_MODE is set to FIRST_ROWS?
A. The optimizer uses a new plan because none of the plans in the exhibit2 are fixed plans.
B. The optimizer uses the plan in the second row of the exhibit2 because it is an accepted plan.
C. The optimizer uses the plan in the first row of the exhibit2 because it is the latest generated plan.
D. The optimizer uses the plan in the first row of the exhibit2 because OPTIMIZER_MODE was set to FIRST_ROW during its creation.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 4
Which statement describes the effect of table redefinition on the triggers attached to the table?
A. All triggers on the table remain valid.
B. All triggers on the table are invalidated and are automatically revalidated with the next DML execution on the table ‘
C. All triggers on the table are invalidated and must be manually recompiled before the next DML execution on the table.
D. Only triggers that are affected by the changes to the structure of the table are invalidated and automatically revalidated with the next DML execution on the table.
Correct Answer: B QUESTION 5

USER_DATA is a nonencrypted tablespace that contains a set of tables with data. You want to convert all existing data in the USER_DATA tablespace and the new data into the encrypted format. Which methods would you use to achieve this? (Choose all that apply.)
A. Use Data Pump to transfer the existing data to a new encrypted tablespace.
B. Use ALTER TABLE..MOVE to transfer the existing data to a new encrypted tablespace.
C. Use CREATE TABLE AS SELECT to transfer the existing data to a new encrypted tablespace.
D. Enable row movement for each table to be encrypted and then use ALTER TABLESPACE to encrypt the tablespace.
E. Encrypt the USER_DATA tablespace using the ALTER TABLESPACE statement so that all the data in the tablespace is automatically encrypted.

Correct Answer: ABC
QUESTION 6
Evaluate the following block of code

BEGIN
DBMS_NETWORK_ACL_ADMIN.CREATE_ACL(
acl => lmycompany-com-permissions.xmll1
principal => ‘ACCTJvlGR1,
is_grant => TRUE,
privilege => ‘connect’);
DBMS_NETWORK_ACL_ADMIN.ASSIGN_ACL(
acl => ‘mycompany-com-permissions.xml’,
host => “.mycompany.com’);
END;
What is the outcome of the above code?

A. It produces an error because a fully qualified host name needs to be specified.
B. It produces an error because the range of ports associated with the hosts has not been specified.
C. It creates an access control list (ACL) with the user ACCT_MGR who gets the CONNECT and RESOLVE privileges
D. It creates an access control list (ACL) with the user ACCT_MGR who gets the CONNECT privilege but not the RESOLVE privilege.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 7
Which steps are mandatory to enable Direct NFS?
1.
Mount all required file systems using the kernel NFS driver.

2.
Create an oranfstab file containing the attributes for each NFS server to be accessed using Direct NFS.

3.
Replace the ODM library libodm11 .so_stub with libodm11 .so.
A. 2 and 3
B. 1 and 3
C. 1 and 2
D. 1, 2 and 3

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 8
Which statements are true regarding the concept of problems and incidents in the fault diagnosability infrastructure for Oracle Database 11g? (Choose all that apply.)
A. The problem key is the same as the incident number,
B. Every problem has a problem key, which is a text string that describes the problem.
C. The database makes an entry into the alert log file when problems and incidents occur.
D. The database sends an incident alert to the Oracle Enterprise Manager Database Home page.
E. Only the incident metadata and dumps are stored in the Automatic Diagnostic Repository (ADR).

Correct Answer: BCD
QUESTION 9
You are managing an Oracle Database 11 g database. You want to take a backup on tape drives of the USERS tablespace that has a single data file of 900 MB. You have tape drives of 300 MB each. To accomplish the backup, you issued the following RMAN command:
RMAN>BACKUP SECTION SIZE 300M TABLESPACE users;
What configuration should be effected to accomplish faster and optimized backups by using the above command?
A. The SBT channel must be configured, with the MAXPIECESIZE set to 300 MB.
B. The SBT channel must be configured, with the parallelism setting for’ the SBT device set to 3
C. The COMPATIBLE initialization parameter for the database instance must be set to at least 10.0.
D. The SBT channel must be configured, with the default parallelism setting for the SBT device set to 1.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 10
When executing a SQL workload, you choose to generate execution plans only, without collecting execution statistics. Which two statements describe the implications of this? (Choose two.)
A. It produces less accurate results of the comparison analysis.
B. It automatically calls the SQL Tuning Advisor for recommendations.
C. It shortens the time of execution and reduces the impact on system resources
D. Only the changes in the execution plan, and not performance regression, are detected.

Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 11
You are managing an Oracle Database 11 g database with the ASM storage. The database is having big file tablespaces. You want files to open faster and less memory to be used in the shared pool to manage the extent maps. What configuration would you effect to achieve your objective? (Choose all that apply.)
A. Set the ASM compatibility attribute for the ASM disk group to 11.1.0.
B. Set the RDBMS compatibility attribute for the ASM disk group to 11.1.0.
C. Set the COMPATIBLE initialization parameter for the ASM instance to 11.1.0.
D. Set the COMPATIBLE initialization parameter for the database instance to 11.1.0.

Correct Answer: ABD
QUESTION 12
You want to take the backup of the USERS tablespace. It has a single data file of 900 MB.. You have tape drives of 300 MB each. The SBT channel is configured for the RMAN. To accomplish the backup, you issued the following RMAN command: RMAN> BACKUP SECTION SIZE 300M TABLESPACE users; Which two statements are true regarding the execution of the above command? (Choose two.)
A. The backup piece size will be limited to 300 MB.
B. The operation is accomplished using the default channel available.
C. The RMAN parallelizes the backup although the parallelism is not set for a channel,
D. Three channels for the tape drive must be configured by setting the parallelism to three.

Correct Answer: AB QUESTION 13
View the Exhibit.

Examine the following command that is executed for the TRANSPORT table in the SH schema: SQL> SELECT DBMS_STATS.CREATE_EXTENDED_STATS(lsh\ ‘customers^be1, ‘(countryjd, cust_state_province)’) FROM dual;
Which statement describes the significance of this command?
A. It collects statistics into the pending area in the data dictionary.
B. It creates a virtual hidden column in the CUSTOMERSjDBE table.
C. It collects statistics with AUTO_SAMPLE_SIZE for ESTIMATE_PERCENT.
D. It creates a histogram to hold skewed information about the data in the columns.

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 14
View the Exhibit to examine the parameter values.

You are planning to set the value for the MEMORY_TARGET parameter of your database instance. What
value would you assign?
A. 90 MB
B. 272 MB
C. 362 MB
D. 1440 MB

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 15
You installed Oracle Database 11g and are performing a manual upgrade of the Oracle9i database. As a
part of the upgrade process, you execute the following script:
SQL>@utlu111 i.sql
Which statement about the execution of this script is true?

A. It must be executed from the Oracle Database 11 g environment.
B. It must be executed only after the SYSAUX tablespace has been created.
C. It must be executed from the environment of the database that is being upgraded
D. It must be executed only after AUTOEXTEND is set to ON for all existing tablespaces.
E. It must be executed from both the Oracle Database 11 g and Oracle Database 9i environments.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 16
Which three statements about performance analysis by SQL Performance Analyzer are true? (Choose three.)
A. It detects changes in SQL execution plans.
B. It produces results that can be used to create the SQL plan baseline.
C. The importance of SQL statements is based on the size of the objects accessed.
D. It generates recommendations to run SQL Tuning Advisor to tune regressed SQLs.
E. It shows only the overall impact on workload and not the net SQL impact on workload.

Correct Answer: ABD
QUESTION 17
Which tasks can be accomplished using the Enterprise Manager Support Workbench in Oracle Database 11g? (Choose all that apply.)
A. Generate reports on data failure such as data file failures,
B. You can package and upload diagnostic data to Oracle Support.
C. You can track the Service Request (SR) and implement repairs.
D. You can manually run health checks to gather diagnostic data for a problem.
Correct Answer: BCD
QUESTION 18
Which statement is true regarding the VALIDATE DATABASE command?
A. It checks the database for intrablock corruptions only
B. It checks for block corruption in the valid backups of the database.
C. It checks the database for both intrablock and interblock corruptions.
D. It checks for only those corrupted blocks that are associated with data files.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 19
Which two are the prerequisites to enable Flashback Data Archive? (Choose two.)
A. Undo retention guarantee must be enabled.
B. Database must be running in archivelog mode.
C. Automatic undo management must be enabled.
D. The tablespace on which the Flashback Data Archive is created must be managed with Automatic Segment Space Management (ASSM).

Correct Answer: CD
QUESTION 20
You are managing the APPPROD database as a DBA. You plan to duplicate this database in the same system with the name DUPDB.
You issued the following RMAN commands to create a duplicate database:
RMAN> CONNECT target sys/[email protected]
RMAN> DUPLICATE TARGET DATABASE TO dupdb FROM ACTIVE DATABASE DB_FILE_NAME_CONVERT ‘/oracIe/oradata/prod/1, ‘/scratch/oracIe/oradata/dupdb/1 SPILE PARAMETER_VALUE_CONVERT’/oracle/oradata/prod/1, ‘/scratch/oracIe/oradata/dupdb/1 SET SGA_MAX_SIZE = ‘300M1 SET SGA_TARGET = ‘250M’ SET LOG_FILE_NAME_CONVERT ‘/oracle/oradata/prod/redo/’, ‘/scratch/oracIe/oradata/dupdb/redo/1;
Which three are the prerequisites for the successful execution of the above command? (Choose three.)
A. The source database should be open.
B. The target database should be in ARCHIVELOG mode if it is open.
C. RMAN should be connected to both the instances as SYSDBA
D. The target database backups should be copied to the source database backup directories.
E. The password file must exist for the source database and have the same SYS user password as the target.

Correct Answer: ACE

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QUESTION 1
Examine the query and its execution plan:

Which statement is true regarding the execution plan?
A. This query first fetches rows from the CUSTOMERS table that satisfy the conditions, and then the join return NULL from the CUSTOMER_ID column when it does not find any corresponding rows in the ORDERS table.
B. The query fetches rows from CUSTOMERS and ORDERS table simultaneously, and filters the rows that satisfy the conditions from the resultset.
C. The query first fetches rows from the ORDERS table that satisfy the conditions, and then the join returns NULL form CUSTOMER_ID column when it does not find any corresponding rows in the CUSTOMERS table.
D. The query first joins rows from the CUSTOMERS and ORDERS tables and returns NULL for the ORDERS table columns when it does not find any corresponding rows in the ORDERS table, and then fetches the rows that satisfy the conditions from the result set.

Correct Answer: A Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 2
Which three statements are true about histograms?
A. They capture the distribution of different values in an index for better selectivity estimates.
B. They can be used only with indexed columns.
C. They provide metadata about distribution of and occurrences of values in a table column.
D. They provide improved selectivity estimates in the presence of data skew, resulting in execution plans with uniform distribution.
E. They help the optimizer in deciding whether to use an index or a full table scan.
F. They help the optimizer to determine the fastest table join order.

Correct Answer: CEF Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
C: A histogram is a frequency distribution (metadata) that describes the distribution of data values within a table.
E: It’s well established that histograms are very useful for helping the optimizer choose between a full-scan and and index-scan.
F: Histograms may help the Oracle optimizer in deciding whether to use an index vs. a full-table scan (where index values are skewed) or help the optimizer determine the fastest table join order. For determining the best table join order, the WHERE clause of the query can be inspected along with the execution plan for the original query. If the cardinality of the table is too-high, then histograms on the most selective column in the WHERE clause will tip-off the optimizer and change the table join order. Note:
* The Oracle Query Optimizer uses histograms to predict better query plans. The ANALYZE command or DBMS_STATS package can be used to compute these histograms.
Incorrect:
B: Histograms are NOT just for indexed columns.
Adding a histogram to an un-indexed column that is used in a where clause can improve performance.
D: Histograms Opportunities Any column used in a where clause with skewed data Columns that are not queried all the time Reduced overhead for insert, update, delete
QUESTION 3

View the exhibit and examine the query and its execution plan from the PLAN_TABLE. Which statement is true about the execution?
A. The row with the ID column having the value 0 is the first step execution plan.
B. Rows are fetched from the indexes on the PRODUCTS table and from the SALES table using full table scan simultaneously, and then hashed into memory.
C. Rows are fetched from the SALES table, and then a hash join operator joins with rows fetched from indexes on the PRODUCTS table.
D. All the partitions of the SALES table are read in parallel.

Correct Answer: C Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 4
Which four statements are correct about communication between parallel execution process?
A. The number of logical pathways between parallel execution producers and consumers depends on the degree parallelism.
B. The shared pool can be used for parallel execution messages buffers.
C. The large pool can be used for parallel execution messages buffers.
D. The buffer cache can be used for parallel execution message buffers.
E. Communication between parallel execution processes is never required if a query uses full partition-wise joins.
F. Each parallel execution process has an additional connection to the parallel execution coordinator.

Correct Answer: ABEF Explanation Explanation/Reference:
A: Note that the degree of parallelism applies directly only to intra-operation parallelism. If inter-operation parallelism is possible, the total number of parallel execution servers for a statement can be twice the specified degree of parallelism. No more than two sets of parallel execution servers can run simultaneously. Each set of parallel execution servers may process multiple operations. Only two sets of parallel execution servers need to be active to guarantee optimal inter-operation parallelism.
B: By default, Oracle allocates parallel execution buffers from the shared pool.
F: When executing a parallel operation, the parallel execution coordinator obtains parallel execution servers from the pool and assigns them to the operation. If necessary, Oracle can create additional parallel execution servers for the operation. These parallel execution servers remain with the operation throughout job execution, then become available for other operations. After the statement has been processed completely, the parallel execution servers return to the pool.
Reference: Oracle Database Data Warehousing Guide, Using Parallel Execution
QUESTION 5
You have enabled DML by issuing: ALTER session ENABLE PARALLEL DML;
The PARELLEL_DEGREE_POLICY initialization parameter is set to AUTO.
Which two options true about DML statements for which parallel execution is requested?

A. Statements for which PDML is requested will execute serially estimated time is less than the time specified by the PARALLEL_MIN_THRESHOLD parameter.
B. Statements for which PDML is requested will be queued if the number of busy parallel execution servers greater than PARALLEL_MIN_SERVERS parameter.
C. Statements for which PDML is requested will always execute in parallel if estimated execution in parallel if estimated execution time is greater than the time specified by the PARELLEL_MIN_TIME_THRESHOLD parameter.
D. Statements for which PDML is requested will be queued if the number of busy parallel execution servers is greater than PARELLEL_SERVERS_TARGET parameter.
E. Statement for which PDML is requested will be queued if the number of busy parallel execution servers is greater than PARELLEL_DEGREE_LIMIT parameter.

Correct Answer: CD Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
C: PARALLEL_MIN_TIME_THRESHOLD specifies the minimum execution time a statement should have before the statement is considered for automatic degree of parallelism. By default, this is set to 30 seconds. Automatic degree of parallelism is only enabled if PARALLEL_DEGREE_POLICY is set to AUTO or LIMITED.
D: PARALLEL_SERVERS_TARGET specifies the number of parallel server processes allowed to run parallel statements before statement queuing will be used. When the parameter PARALLEL_DEGREE_POLICY is set to AUTO, Oracle will queue SQL statements that require parallel execution, if the necessary parallel server processes are not available. Statement queuing will begin once the number of parallel server processes active on the system is equal to or greater than PARALLEL_SERVER_TARGET.
Note:
*
PARALLEL_DEGREE_POLICY specifies whether or not automatic degree of Parallelism, statement queuing, and in-memory parallel execution will be enabled.

AUTO
Enables automatic degree of parallelism, statement queuing, and in-memory parallel execution.
*
PARALLEL_MIN_SERVERS specifies the minimum number of parallel execution processes for the instance. This value is the number of parallel execution processes Oracle creates when the instance is started.
Reference: Oracle Database Reference; PARALLEL_SERVERS_TARGET
QUESTION 6
Examine Exhibit1 to view the query and its AUTOTRACE output.

Which two statements are true about tracing?
A. The displayed plan will be stored in PLAN_TABLE.
B. Subsequent execution of this statement will use the displayed plan that is stored in v$SQL.
C. The displayed plan may not necessarily be used by the optimizer.
D. The query will not fetch any rows; it will display only the execution plan and statistics.
E. The execution plan generated can be viewed from v$SQLAREA.

Correct Answer: AD Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
The PLAN_TABLE is automatically created as a public synonym to a global temporary table. This temporary table holds the output of EXPLAIN PLAN statements for all users. PLAN_TABLE is the default sample output table into which the EXPLAIN PLAN statement inserts rows describing execution plans
QUESTION 7
Which two types of column filtering may benefit from partition pruning?
A. Equally operates on range-partitioned tables.
B. In-list operators on system-partitioned tables
C. Equality operators on system-partitioned tables
D. Operators on range-partitioned tables
E. Greater than operators on hash-partitioned tables

Correct Answer: AD Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
The query optimizer can perform pruning whenever a WHERE condition can be reduced to either one of the following two cases:
partition_column = constant
partition_column IN (constant1, constant2, …, constantN)
In the first case, the optimizer simply evaluates the partitioning expression for the value given, determines which partition contains that value, and scans only this partition. In many cases, the equal sign can be replaced with another arithmetic comparison, including <, >, <=, >=, and <>. Some queries using BETWEEN in the WHERE clause can also take advantage of partition pruning.
Note:
*
The core concept behind partition pruning is relatively simple, and can be described as “Do not scan partitions where there can be no matching values”.

When the optimizer can make use of partition pruning in performing a query, execution of the query can be an order of magnitude faster than the same query against a nonpartitioned table containing the same column definitions and data.

*
Example:
Suppose that you have a partitioned table t1 defined by this statement:

CREATE TABLE t1 (
fname VARCHAR(50) NOT NULL,
lname VARCHAR(50) NOT NULL,
region_code TINYINT UNSIGNED NOT NULL,
dob DATE NOT NULL
)
PARTITION BY RANGE( region_code ) (
PARTITION p0 VALUES LESS THAN (64),
PARTITION p1 VALUES LESS THAN (128),
PARTITION p2 VALUES LESS THAN (192),
PARTITION p3 VALUES LESS THAN MAXVALUE
);

Consider the case where you wish to obtain results from a query such as this one:

SELECT fname, lname, region_code, dob
FROM t1
WHERE region_code > 125 AND region_code < 130;
p0 or
It is easy to see that none of the rows which ought to be returned will be in either of the partitions p3; that is, we need to search only in partitions p1 and p2 to find
matching rows. By doing so, it is possible to expend much less time and effort in finding matching rows than would be required to scan all partitions “cutting away”
of unneeded partitions is known as pruning.
in the table. This

QUESTION 8
Which two statements about In-Memory Parallel Execution are true?
A. It can be configured using the Database Resource Manager.
B. It increases the number of duplicate block images in the global buffer cache.
C. It requires setting PARALLEL_DEGREE_POLICY to LIMITED.
D. Objects selected for In-Memory Parallel Execution have blocks mapped to specific RAC instances.
E. It requires setting PARALLEL_DEGREE_POLICY to AUTO
F. Objects selected for In-Memory Parallel Execution must be partitioned tables or indexes.
Correct Answer: DE Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
D, E: In-Memory Parallel Execution
When the parameter PARALLEL_DEGREE_POLICY is set to AUTO, Oracle Database decides if an object that is accessed using parallel execution would benefit from being cached in the SGA (also called the buffer cache). The decision to cache an object is based on a well-defined set of heuristics including the size of the object and frequency on which it is accessed. In an Oracle RAC environment, Oracle Database maps pieces of the object into each of the buffer caches on the active instances. By creating this mapping, Oracle Database automatically knows which buffer cache to access to find different parts or pieces of the object. Using this information, Oracle Database prevents multiple instances from reading the same information from disk over and over again, thus maximizing the amount of memory that can cache objects. If the size of the object is larger than the size of the buffer cache (single instance) or the size of the buffer cache multiplied by the number of active instances in an Oracle RAC cluster, then the object is read using direct-path reads.
E: PARALLEL_DEGREE_POLICY specifies whether or not automatic degree of Parallelism, statement queuing, and in-memory parallel execution will be enabled.
AUTO Enables automatic degree of parallelism, statement queuing, and in-memory parallel execution.
Incorrect:
C: LIMITED Enables automatic degree of parallelism for some statements but statement queuing and in- memory Parallel Execution are disabled. Automatic degree of parallelism is only applied to those statements that access tables or indexes decorated explicitly with the PARALLEL clause. Tables and indexes that have a degree of parallelism specified will use that degree of parallelism.
Reference: Oracle Database VLDB and Partitioning Guide 11g, How Parallel Execution Works
QUESTION 9
Which three are benefits of In-Memory Parallel Execution?
A. Reduction in the duplication of block images across multiple buffer caches
B. Reduction in CPU utilization
C. Reduction in the number of blocks accessed
D. Reduction in physical I/O for parallel queries
E. Ability to exploit parallel execution servers on remote instance

Correct Answer: ACD Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Note: In-Memory Parallel Execution
When the parameter PARALLEL_DEGREE_POLICY is set to AUTO, Oracle Database decides if an object that is accessed using parallel execution would benefit from being cached in the SGA (also called the buffer cache). The decision to cache an object is based on a well-defined set of heuristics including the size of the object and frequency on which it is accessed. In an Oracle RAC environment, Oracle Database maps pieces of the object into each of the buffer caches on the active instances. By creating this mapping, Oracle Database automatically knows which buffer cache to access to find different parts or pieces of the object. Using this information, Oracle Database prevents multiple instances from reading the same information from disk over and over again, thus maximizing the amount of memory that can cache objects. If the size of the object is larger than the size of the buffer cache (single instance) or the size of the buffer cache multiplied by the number of active instances in an Oracle RAC cluster, then the object is read using direct-path reads.
Reference: Oracle Database VLDB and Partitioning Guide 11g, How Parallel Execution Works
QUESTION 10
You plan to bulk load data INSERT INTO . . . SELECT FROM statements.
Which two situations benefit from parallel INSERT operations on tables that have no materialized views defined on them?
A. Direct path insert of a million rows into a partitioned, index-organized table containing one million rows and a conventional B*tree secondary index.
B. Direct path insert of a million rows into a partitioned, index-organized table containing 10 rows and a bitmapped secondary index.
C. Direct path insert of 10 rows into a partitioned, index-organized table containing one million rows and conventional B* tree secondary index.
D. Direct path insert of 10 rows into a partitioned, index-organized table containing 10 rows and a bitmapped secondary index
E. Conventional path insert of a million rows into a nonpartitioned, heap-organized containing 10 rows and having a conventional B* tree index.
F. Conventional path insert of 10 rows into a nonpartitioned, heap-organized table one million rows and a bitmapped index.

Correct Answer: AB Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Note:
*
A materialized view is a database object that contains the results of a query.

*
You can use the INSERT statement to insert data into a table, partition, or view in two ways: conventional INSERTand direct-path INSERT.

*
With direct-path INSERT, the database appends the inserted data after existing data in the table. Data is written directly into datafiles, bypassing the buffer cache. Free space in the existing data is not reused. This alternative enhances performance during insert operations and is similar to the functionality of the Oracle direct-path loader utility, SQL*Loader. When you insert into a table that has been created in parallel mode, direct-path INSERT is the default.

*
Direct-path INSERT is not supported for an index-organized table (IOT) if it is not partitioned, if it has a mapping table, or if it is reference by a materialized view.

*
When you issue a conventional INSERT statement, Oracle Database reuses free space in the table into which you are inserting and maintains referential integrity constraints

*
Conventional INSERT always generates maximal redo and undo for changes to both data and metadata, regardless of the logging setting of the table and the archivelog and force logging settings of the database
QUESTION 11
Which are the two prerequisites for enabling star transformation on queries?
A. The STAR_TRANSFORMATION_ENABLED parameter should be set to TRUE or TEMP_DISABLE.
B. A B-tree index should be built on each of the foreign key columns of the fact table(s),
C. A bitmap index should be built on each of the primary key columns of the fact table(s).
D. A bitmap index should be built on each of the foreign key columns of the fact table(s).
E. A bitmap index must exist on all the columns that are used in the filter predicates of the query.

Correct Answer: AE Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
A: Enabling the transformation
E: Star transformation is essentially about adding subquery predicates corresponding to the constraint dimensions. These subquery predicates are referred to as bitmap semi-join predicates. The transformation is performed when there are indexes on the fact join columns (s.timeid, s.custid…). By driving bitmap AND and OR operations (bitmaps can be from bitmap indexes or generated from regular B-Tree indexes) of the key values supplied by the subqueries, only the relevant rows from the fact table need to be retrieved. If the filters on the dimension tables filter out a lot of data, this can be much more efficient than a full table scan on the fact table. After the relevant rows have been retrieved from the fact table, they may need to be joined back to the dimension tables, using the original predicates. In some cases, the join back can be eliminated.
Star transformation is controlled by the star_transformation_enabled parameter. The parameter takes 3 values.
TRUE – The Oracle optimizer performs transformation by identifying fact and constraint dimension tables automatically. This is done in a cost-based manner, i.e.
the transformation is performed only if the cost of the transformed plan is lower than the non-transformed plan. Also the optimizer will attempt temporary table
transformation automatically whenever materialization improves performance.
FALSE – The transformation is not tried.

TEMP_DISABLE – This value has similar behavior as TRUE except that temporary table transformation is not tried.

The default value of the parameter is FALSE. You have to change the parameter value and create indexes on the joining columns of the fact table to take
advantage of this transformation.

Reference: Optimizer Transformations: Star Transformation

QUESTION 12
An application accessing your database got the following error in response to SQL query:
ORA-12827: insufficient parallel query slaves available
View the parallel parameters for your instance:
No hints are used and the session use default parallel settings.
What four changes could you make to help avoid the error and ensure that the query executes in parallel?
A. Set PARELLEL_DEGREE_POLICY to AUTO.
B. Increase the value of PARELLEL_MAX_SERVERS.
C. Increase PARELLEL_SERVERS_TARGET.
D. Decrease PARELLEL_MIN_PERCENT.
E. Increase PARELLEL_MIN_SERVERS.
F. Decrease PARELLEL_MIN_TIME_THRESHOLD.
G. Increase PARELLEL__MIN_TIME_THRESHOLD.

Correct Answer: ACDG Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
C: PARALLEL_SERVERS_TARGET specifies the number of parallel server processes allowed to run parallel statements before statement queuing will be used. When the parameter PARALLEL_DEGREE_POLICY is set to AUTO, Oracle will queue SQL statements that require parallel execution, if the necessary parallel server processes are not available. Statement queuing will begin once the number of parallel server processes active on the system is equal to or greater than PARALLEL_SERVER_TARGET.
By default, PARALLEL_SERVER_TARGET is set lower than the maximum number of parallel server processes allowed on the system (PARALLEL_MAX_SERVERS) to ensure each parallel statement will get all of the parallel server resources required and to prevent overloading the system with parallel server processes.
D: Note: ORA-12827: insufficient parallel query slaves available Cause: PARALLEL_MIN_PERCENT parameter was specified and fewer than minimum slaves were acquired Action: either re-execute query with lower PARALLEL_MIN_PERCENT or wait until some running queries are completed, thus freeing up slaves
A, G: PARALLEL_MIN_TIME_THRESHOLD specifies the minimum execution time a statement should have before the statement is considered for automatic degree of parallelism. By default, this is set to 30 seconds. Automatic degree of parallelism is only enabled if PARALLEL_DEGREE_POLICY is set to AUTO or LIMITED.
QUESTION 13
Examine the Exhibit 1 to view the structure of and indexes for EMPLOYEES and DEPARTMENTS tables.

Which three statements are true regarding the execution plan?
A. The view operator collects all rows from a query block before they can be processed but higher operations in the plan.
B. The in-line query in the select list is processed as a view and then joined.
C. The optimizer pushes the equality predicate into the view to satisfy the join condition.
D. The optimizer chooses sort-merge join because sorting is required for the join equality predicate.
E. The optimizer chooses sort-merge join as a join method because an equality predicate is used for joining the tables.

Correct Answer: ABC Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Incorrect:
Not D, not E:
Sort Merge joins are used for UN-Equality and also there is no SORT clause in the SQL. Note: The optimizer may choose a sort merge join over a hash join for
joining large amounts of data when any of the following conditions is true:

*
The join condition between two tables is not an equijoin, that is, uses an inequality condition such as <, <=, >, or >=.

*
Because of sorts required by other operations, the optimizer finds it cheaper to use a sort merge.
QUESTION 14
In Your Database, The Cursor_Shareing Parameter is set to EXACT. In the Employees table, the data is significantly skewed in the DEPTNO column. The value 10 is found in 97% of rows.
Examine the following command and out put.

Which three statements are correct?
A. The DEPTNO column will become bind aware once histogram statistics are collected.
B. The value for the bind variable will considered by the optimizer to determine the execution plan.
C. The same execution plan will always be used irrespective of the bind variable value.
D. The instance collects statistics and based on the pattern of executions creates a histogram on the column containing the bind value.
E. Bind peeking will take place only for the first execution of the statement and subsequent execution will use the same plan.

Correct Answer: ABD Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
*
We here see that the cursor is marked as bind sensitive (IS_BIND_SEN is Y).
*
In 11g, the optimizer has been enhanced to allow multiple execution plans to be used for a single statement that uses bind variables. This ensures that the best
execution plan will be used depending on the bind value.
A cursor is marked bind sensitive if the optimizer believes the optimal plan may depend *
on the value of the bind variable. When a cursor is marked bind sensitive, Oracle monitors the behavior of the cursor using different bind values, to determine if a
different plan for different bind values is called for.
*
(B, not C): A cursor is marked bind sensitive if the optimizer believes the optimal plan may depend on the value of the bind variable. When a cursor is marked
bind sensitive, Oracle monitors the behavior of the cursor using different bind values, to determine if a different plan for different bind values is called for.

Note: Setting CURSOR_SHARING to EXACT allows SQL statements to share the SQL area only when their texts match exactly. This is the default behavior. Using this setting, similar statements cannot shared; only textually exact statements can be shared.
Reference: Why are there more cursors in 11g for my query containing bind variables?
QUESTION 15
You created a SQL Tuning Set (STS) containing resource-intensive SQL statements. You plan to run the SQL Tuning Advisor.
Which two types of recommendations can be provided by the SQL Tuning Advisor?
A. Semantic restructuring for each SQL statement
B. Gathering missing or stale statistics at the schema level for the entire workload
C. Creating a materialized view to benefit from query rewrite for the entire workload
D. Gathering missing or stale statistics for objects used by the statements.
E. Creating a partition table to benefit from partition pruning for each statement

Correct Answer: AD Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
The output of the SQL Tuning Advisor is in the form of an advice or recommendations, along with a rationale for each recommendation and its expected benefit. The recommendation relates to collection of statistics on objects ( D), creation of new indexes, restructuring of the SQL statement (A), or creation of a SQL profile. You can choose to accept the recommendation to complete the tuning of the SQL statements.
Note:
*
A SQL Tuning Set can be used as input to the SQL Tuning Advisor, which performs automatic tuning of the SQL statements based on other input parameters specified by the user.

*
A SQL Tuning Set (STS) is a database object that includes one or more SQL statements along with their execution statistics and execution context, and could include a user priority ranking. The SQL statements can be loaded into a SQL Tuning Set from different SQL sources, such as the Automatic Workload Repository, the cursor cache, or custom SQL provided by the user.
Reference: Oracle Database Performance Tuning Guide 11g , SQL Tuning Advisor
QUESTION 16
When would bind peeking be done for queries that vary only in values used in the WHERE clause?
A. When the column used in the WHERE clause has evenly distributed data and histogram exists on that column.
B. When the column used in the WHERE clause has evenly distributed data and index exists on that column.
C. When the column used in the WHERE clause has non uniform distribution of data, uses a bind variable, and no histogram exists for the column.
D. When the column used in the WHERE clause has non uniform distribution of data and histogram exists for the column.
Correct Answer: B Explanation

Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 17
Which type of SQL statement would be selected for tuning by the automatic SQL framework?
A. Serial queries that are among the costliest in any or all of the four categories: the past week, any day in the past week, any hour in the past week, or single response, and have the potential for improvement
B. Serial queries that have been tuned within the last 30days and have been SQL profiled by the SQL tuning Advisor.
C. Serial and parallel queries that top the AWR Top SQL in the past week only and have been SQL profiled by the SQL Tuning Advisor.
D. Serial queries that top the AWR Top SQL in the past week only and whose poor performance can be traced to concurrency issues.
E. Serial and parallel queries that are among the costliest in any or all of the four categories: the past week, and day in the past week, any hour in the past week, or a single response, and that can benefit from access method changes.

Correct Answer: E Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
The Automatic Tuning Optimizer is meant to be used for complex and high-load SQL statements that have non-trivial impact on the entire system. The Automatic Database Diagnostic Monitor (ADDM) proactively identifies high-load SQL statements which are good candidates for SQL tuning.
Note:
* When SQL statements are executed by the Oracle database, the query optimizer is used to generate the execution plans of the SQL statements. The query
optimizer operates in two modes:
a normal mode and a tuning mode.

In normal mode, the optimizer compiles the SQL and generates an execution plan. The normal mode of the optimizer generates a reasonable execution plan for the vast majority of SQL statements. Under normal mode, the optimizer operates with very strict time constraints, usually a fraction of a second, during which it must find a good execution plan.
In tuning mode, the optimizer performs additional analysis to check whether the execution plan produced under normal mode can be improved further. The output of the query optimizer is not an execution plan, but a series of actions, along with their rationale and expected benefit for producing a significantly superior plan. When running in the tuning mode, the optimizer is referred to as the Automatic Tuning Optimizer.
Reference: Oracle Database Performance Tuning Guide, Automatic SQL Tuning
QUESTION 18
You instance has these parameter settings:

Which three statements are true about these settings if no hints are used in a SQL statement?
A. A statement estimated for more than 10 seconds always has its degree of parallelism computed automatically.
B. A statement with a computed degree of parallelism greater than 8 will be queued for a maximum of 10 seconds.
C. A statement that executes for more than 10 seconds always has its degree of parallelism computed automatically.
D. A statement with a computed degree of parallelism greater than 8 will raise an error.
E. A statement with any computed degree of parallelism will be queued if the number of busy parallel execution processes exceeds 64.
F. A statement with a computed degree of parallelism of 20 will be queued if the number of available parallel execution processes is less 5.

Correct Answer: CEF Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
C (not A): PARALLEL_MIN_TIME_THRESHOLD specifies the minimum execution time a statement should have before the statement is considered for automatic degree of parallelism. By default, this is set to 30 seconds. Automatic degree of parallelism is only enabled if PARALLEL_DEGREE_POLICY is set to AUTO or LIMITED.
: PARALLEL_DEGREE_LIMIT integer
A numeric value for this parameter specifies the maximum degree of parallelism the optimizer can choose for a SQL statement when automatic degree of parallelism is active. Automatic degree of parallelism is only enabled if PARALLEL_DEGREE_POLICY is set to AUTO or LIMITED.
E: PARALLEL_SERVERS_TARGET specifies the number of parallel server processes allowed to run parallel statements before statement queuing will be used. When the parameter PARALLEL_DEGREE_POLICY is set to AUTO, Oracle will queue SQL statements that require parallel execution, if the necessary parallel server processes are not available. Statement queuing will begin once the number of parallel server processes active on the system is equal to or greater than PARALLEL_SERVER_TARGET.
F: PARALELL_MIN_MINPERCENT
PARALLEL_MIN_PERCENT operates in conjunction with PARALLEL_MAX_SERVERS and PARALLEL_MIN_SERVERS. It lets you specify the minimum percentage of parallel execution processes (of the value of PARALLEL_MAX_SERVERS) required for parallel execution. Setting this parameter ensures that parallel operations will not execute sequentially unless adequate resources are available. The default value of 0 means that no minimum percentage of processes has been set.
Consider the following settings: PARALLEL_MIN_PERCENT = 50 PARALLEL_MIN_SERVERS = 5 PARALLEL_MAX_SERVERS = 10
If 8 of the 10 parallel execution processes are busy, only 2 processes are available. If you then request a query with a degree of parallelism of 8, the minimum 50% will not be met.
Note: With automatic degree of parallelism, Oracle automatically decides whether or not a statement should execute in parallel and what degree of parallelism the statement should use. The optimizer automatically determines the degree of parallelism for a statement based on the resource requirements of the statement.
However, the optimizer will limit the degree of parallelism used to ensure parallel server processes do not flood the system. This limit is enforced by PARALLEL_DEGREE_LIMIT.
Values:
CPU
IO
integer
A numeric value for this parameter specifies the maximum degree of parallelism the optimizer can choose for a SQL statement when automatic degree of parallelism is active. Automatic degree of parallelism is only enabled if PARALLEL_DEGREE_POLICY is set to AUTO or LIMITED.
Reference: PARALLEL_MIN_TIME_THRESHOLD PARALLEL_DEGREE_LIMIT PARALELL_MIN_MINPERCENT PARALELL_SERVERS_TARGET

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