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QUESTION 67
Which statements are true regarding system-partitioned tables? (Choose all that apply.)
A. Only a single partitioning key column can be specified.
B. All DML statements must use partition-extended syntax.
C. The same physical attributes must be specified for each partition.
D. Unique local indexes cannot be created on a system-partitioned table.
E. Traditional partition pruning and partitionwise joins are not supported on these tables.

Correct Answer: DE
QUESTION 68
The OPTIMIZER_USE_PLAN_BASELINES parameter is set to TRUE. The optimizer generates a plan for a SQL statement but does not find a matching plan in the SQL plan baseline. Which two operations are performed by the optimizer in this scenario? (Choose two.)
A. The optimizer adds the new plan to the plan history.
B. The optimizer selects the new plan for the execution of the SQL statement.
C. The optimizer adds the new plan to the SQL plan baseline as an accepted plan.
D. The optimizer adds the new plan to the SQL plan baseline but not in the ENABLED state.
E. The optimizer costs each of the accepted plans in the SQL plan baseline and picks the one with the lowest cost.

Correct Answer: AE
QUESTION 69
Which two statements about Oracle Direct Network File System (NFS) are true? (Choose two.)
A. It bypasses the OS file system cache
B. A separate NFS interface is required for use across Linux, UNIX, and Windows platforms.
C. It uses the operating system kernel NFS layer for user tasks and network communication modules.
D. File systems need not be mounted by the kernel NFS system when being served through Direct NFS.
E. Oracle Disk Manager can manage NFS on its own, without using the operating system kernel NFS driver.

Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 70
You are managing an Oracle Database 11 g instance with ASM storage. You lost an ASM disk group
DATA. You have RMAN backup of data as well as ASM metadata backup.
You want to re-create the missing disk group by using the ASMCMD md_restore command. Which of
these methods would you use to achieve this? (Choose all that apply.)

A. Restore metadata in an existing disk group by passing the existing disk group name as an input parameter.
B. Restore the disk group with changed disk group specification, failure group specification, disk group name, and other disk attributes.
C. Restore the disk group with the exact configuration as the backed-up disk group, using the same disk group name, same set of disks, and failure group configurations.
D. Restore the disk group with the exact configuration as the backed-up disk group, using the same disk group name, same set of disks, failure group configurations, and data on the disk group.

Correct Answer: ABC QUESTION 71
Evaluate the following command and Its output:
SQL>SELECT * FROM dba_temp_free_space;
TABLESPACE_NAME TABLESPACE_SIZE ALLOCATED_SPACE FREE_SPACE LMTEMP 250609664

101048576 149561088
Which two statements correctly interpret the output? (Choose two.)

A. FREE_SPACE indicates only the space that is currently unallocated.
B. ALLO CAT ED_S PACE indicates only the space currently allocated and in use.
C. FREE_SPACE indicates only the space that is currently allocated and available for reuse.
D. ALLO CAT ED_S PACE indicates both the space currently allocated and used, and the space that is available for reuse.
E. FREE_SPACE indicates both the space that is currently allocated and available for reuse, and the space that is currently unallocated.
Correct Answer: DE QUESTION 72
In your database, the RESULT_CACHE_MODE parameter has been set to MANUAL in the initialization parameter file.
You issued the following command:
SQL>SELECT /*+ RESULT_CACHE 7 sale_categoiy, sum(sale_amt) FROM sales
GROUP BY sale_categoiy;

Where would the result of this query be stored?

A. PGA
B. large pool
C. shared pool
D. database buffer cache

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 73
You are working on a CATDB database that contains an Oracle Database version 11.1 catalog schema owned by the userRC011. The INST1 database contains an Oracle Database version 10.1 catalog schema owned by the user RCAT10.
You want the RMAN to import metadata for database IDs 1423241 and 1423242, registered in RCAT10, into the recover catalog owned by RC011.
You executed the following RMAN commands:
RMAN> CONNECT CATALOG rco1 1/password@catdb RMAN> IMPORT CATALOG rcat1 0/oracle@inst1;
What happens when you execute the above commands? (Choose all that apply.)
A. They deregister all databases registered in the RCAT10 catalog.
B. They import metadata for all registered databases in the RCAT10 database.
C. They register all the RCATIO-catalog registered databases in the RC011 catalog.
D. They overwrite all stored scripts in the RC011 catalog with the same name as that in the RCAT10 catalog.

Correct Answer: ABC
QUESTION 74
Which three are the valid statements in relation to SQL plan baselines? (Choose three.)
A. The plans can be manually loaded to the SQL plan baseline.
B. The plans in the SQL plan baseline are verified and accepted plans.
C. The plans generated for every SQL statement are stored in the SQL plan baseline by default.
D. The plan baselines are stored temporarily in the memory as long as the database instance is running.
E. For the SQL plan baselines to be accessible to the optimizer, the SYSAUX tablespace must be online.

Correct Answer: ABE
QUESTION 75
You run the SQL Tuning Advisor (STA) to tune a SQL statement that is part of a fixed SQL plan baseline. The STA generates a SQL profile for the SQL statement, which recommends that you accept the profile. Which statement is true when you accept the suggested SQL profile?
A. The tuned plan is not added to the SQL plan baseline.
B. The tuned plan is added to the fixed SQL plan baseline as a fixed plan.
C. The tuned plan is added to the fixed SQL plan baseline as a nonfixed plan.
D. The tuned plan is added to a new nonfixed SQL plan baseline as a nonfixed plan.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 76
Which three statements correctly describe the features of the I/O calibration process? (Choose three.)
A. Only one I/O calibration process can run at a time
B. It automates the resource allocation for the Automated Maintenance Tasks.
C. It improves the performance of the performance-critical sessions while running.
D. It can be used to estimate the maximum number of l/Os and maximum latency time for the system.
E. The latency time is computed only when the TIMED_STATISTICS initialization parameter is set to TRUE.
Correct Answer: ADE
QUESTION 77
Which two statements about the SQL Management Base (SMB) are true? (Choose two.)
A. It contains only SQL profiles generated by SQL Tuning Advisor.
B. It stores plans generated by the optimizer using a stored outline.
C. It is part of the data dictionary and stored in the SYSAUXtablespace.
D. It is part of the data dictionary and stored in the SYSTEM tablespace.
E. It contains the statement log, the plan history, plan baselines, and SQL profiles.

Correct Answer: CE
QUESTION 78
Sales details are being stored on a daily basis in the SALES_2007 table. A large amount of data is added to the table daily. To save disk space, you issued the following command:
ALTER TABLE sales_2007 COMPRESS FOR ALL OPERATIONS; What would be the outcome of this command?
A. It produces an error because data already exists in the table.
B. It produces an error because compression can be enabled at table creation only.
C. It compresses all data added or modified henceforth but the existing data in the table is not compressed immediately.
D. It immediately compresses all existing data as well as new data, resulting from either fresh additions or modifications to existing data.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 79
Which client requests to the database can be captured as a part of the workload capture? (Choose all that apply.)
A. flashback query
B. distributed transactions
C. logging in and logging out of sessions
D. all DDL statements having bind variables
E. direct path load of data from external files

Correct Answer: CD
QUESTION 80
Which two statements are true regarding the SQL Repair Advisor? (Choose two.)
A. The SQL Repair Advisor can be invoked to tune the performance of the regressed SQL statements.
B. The SQL Repair Advisor can be invoked even when the incident is not active for a SQL statement crash.
C. The SQL Repair Advisor is invoked by the Health Monitor when it encounters the problematic SQL statement.
D. The DBA can invoke the SQL Repair Advisor when he or she receives an alert generated when a SQL statement crashes and an incident is created in the ADR.
Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 81
Which setting enables the baselines by default in Oracle Database 11g?
A. setting the STATISTICS_LEVEL parameter to TYPICAL
B. adding filters to the Automatic Database Diagnostic Monitor (ADDM)
C. enabling Automated Maintenance Task using Oracle Enterprise Manager
D. setting the OPTIMIZER_USE_PENDING_STATISTICS parameter to TRUE
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 82
Which two activities are NOT supported by the Data Recovery Advisor? (Choose two.)
A. Diagnose and repair a data file corruption offline.
B. Diagnose and repair a data file corruption online.
C. Diagnose and repair failures on a standby database.
D. Recover from failures in the Real Application Cluster (RAC) environment.
Correct Answer: CD
QUESTION 83
In which cases is reference partitioning effective in enhancing performance?
A. It is effective only in partition pruning.
B. It is effective only in partitionwise joins provided that the query predicates are different from the partitioning key.
C. It is effective in both partition pruning as well as partitionwise joins provided that the query predicates are identical to the partitioning key.
D. It is effective in both partition pruning as well as partitionwise joins irrespective of whether the query predicates are different from or identical to the partitioning key.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 84
Your database initialization parameter file has the following entry:
SEC_MAX_FAILED_LOGIN_ATTEMPTS=3
Which statement is true regarding this setting?
A. It is enforced only if the password profile is enabled for the user.
B. It locks the user account after the specified number of attempts.
C. It drops the connection after the specified number of login attempts fail for any user.
D. It drops the connection after the specified number of login attempts fail only for users who have the SYSDBA privilege.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 85
Which statement is true for enabling Enterprise Manager Support Workbench in Oracle Database 11g to upload the physical files generated by Incident Packaging Service (IPS) to MetaLink?
A. The database must be running in ARCHIVELOG mode.
B. No special setup is required, and the feature is enabled by default.
C. The path for the Automatic Diagnostic Repository (ADR) must be configured with the DIAGNOSTIC_DEST initialization parameter.
D. The Enterprise Manager Support Workbench can be enabled only if the background process manageability monitor (MMON) is configured.
E. Select the Enable option in the Oracle Configuration Manager Registration window during the installation of the Oracle Database 11 g software, provide valid MetaLink credentials and select license agreement.
Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 86
Which two statements are true regarding Health Monitor checks in Oracle Database 11g? (Choose two.)
A. Health Monitor checks are always initiated manually when there is some critical error.
B. Health Monitor checks can be used to scan the contents of the redo log and archive logs for accessibility and corruption
C. Health Monitor checks can be used to verify the contents of dictionary entries for each dictionary object and fix it automatically.
D. Health Monitor checks can be used to verify the integrity of database files and report failures if these files are inaccessible, corrupt or inconsistent.
Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 87
a

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QUESTION 30
View the Exhibit and examine the description for the CUSTOMERS table.

You want to update the CUST_CREDIT_LIMIT column to NULL for all the customers, where CUST_INCOME_LEVEL has NULL in the CUSTOMERS table. Which SQL statement will accomplish the task?
A. UPDATE customers SET cust_credit_limit = NULL WHERE CUST_INCOME_LEVEL = NULL;
B. UPDATE customers SET cust_credit_limit = NULL WHERE cust_income_level IS NULL;
C. UPDATE customers SET cust_credit_limit = TO_NUMBER(NULL) WHERE cust_income_level = TO_NUMBER(NULL);
D. UPDATE customers SET cust_credit_limit = TO_NUMBER(‘ ‘,9999) WHERE cust_income_level IS NULL;

Correct Answer: B Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 31
Which two statements about sub queries are true? (Choose two.)
A. A sub query should retrieve only one row.
B. A sub query can retrieve zero or more rows.
C. A sub query can be used only in SQL query statements.
D. Sub queries CANNOT be nested by more than two levels.
E. A sub query CANNOT be used in an SQL query statement that uses group functions.
F. When a sub query is used with an inequality comparison operator in the outer SQL statement, the column list in the SELECT clause of the sub query should contain only one column.

Correct Answer: BF Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: sub query can retrieve zero or more rows, sub query is used with an inequality comparison operator in the outer SQL statement, and the column list in the SELECT clause of the sub query should contain only one column.
Incorrect answer: A sub query can retrieve zero or more rows C sub query is not SQL query statement D sub query can be nested E group function can be use with sub query
QUESTION 32
View the Exhibit and examine the structure of the PROMOTIONS table.

You have to generate a report that displays the promo name and start date for all promos that started after the last promo in the ‘INTERNET’ category.
Which query would give you the required output?
A. SELECT promo_name, promo_begin_date FROM promotions WHERE promo_begin_date > ALL (SELECT MAX(promo_begin_date) FROM promotions ) AND promo_category = ‘INTERNET’;
B. SELECT promo_name, promo_begin_date FROM promotions WHERE promo_begin_date IN (SELECT promo_begin_date FROM promotions WHERE promo_category=’INTERNET’);
C. SELECT promo_name, promo_begin_date FROM promotions WHERE promo_begin_date > ALL (SELECT promo_begin_date FROM promotions WHERE promo_category = ‘INTERNET’);
D. SELECT promo_name, promo_begin_date FROM promotions WHERE promo_begin_date > ANY (SELECT promo_begin_date FROM promotions WHERE promo_category = ‘INTERNET’);

Correct Answer: C Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 33
Which are /SQL*Plus commands? (Choose all that apply.)
A. INSERT
B. UPDATE
C. SELECT
D. DESCRIBE
E. DELETE
F. RENAME

Correct Answer: D Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Describe is a valid iSQL*Plus/ SQL*Plus command.
INSERT, UPDATE & DELETE are SQL DML Statements. A SELECT is an ANSI Standard SQL Statement

not an iSQL*Plus Statement. RENAME is a DDL Statement.
QUESTION 34
Which two statements are true regarding the COUNT function? (Choose two.)
A. COUNT(*) returns the number of rows including duplicate rows and rows containing NULL value in any of the columns
B. COUNT(cust_id) returns the number of rows including rows with duplicate customer IDs and NULL value in the CUST_ID column
C. COUNT(DISTINCT inv_amt) returns the number of rows excluding rows containing duplicates and NULL values in the INV_AMT column
D. A SELECT statement using COUNT function with a DISTINCT keyword cannot have a WHERE clause
E. The COUNT function can be used only for CHAR, VARCHAR2 and NUMBER data types

Correct Answer: AC Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Using the COUNT Function
The COUNT function has three formats:
COUNT(*)
COUNT(expr)
COUNT(DISTINCT expr)
COUNT(*) returns the number of rows in a table that satisfy the criteria of the SELECT statement, including
duplicate rows and rows containing null values in any of the columns. If a WHERE clause is included in the
SELECT statement, COUNT(*) returns the number of rows that satisfy the condition in the WHERE clause.
In contrast,
COUNT(expr) returns the number of non-null values that are in the column identified by expr. COUNT
(DISTINCT expr) returns the number of unique, non-null values that are in the column identified by expr.

QUESTION 35
Examine the description of the EMP_DETAILS table given below: Exhibit:

Which two statements are true regarding SQL statements that can be executed on the EMP_DETAIL table? (Choose two.)
A. An EMP_IMAGE column can be included in the GROUP BY clause
B. You cannot add a new column to the table with LONG as the data type
C. An EMP_IMAGE column cannot be included in the ORDER BY clause
D. You can alter the table to include the NOT NULL constraint on the EMP_IMAGE column

Correct Answer: BC Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: LONG Character data in the database character set, up to 2GB. All the functionality of LONG (and more) is provided by CLOB; LONGs should not be used in a modern database, and if your database has any columns of this type they should be converted to CLOB. There can only be one LONG column in a table. Guidelines A LONG column is not copied when a table is created using a subquery. A LONG column cannot be
included in a GROUP BY or an ORDER BY clause.
Only one LONG column can be used per table.
No constraints can be defined on a LONG column.
You might want to use a CLOB column rather than a LONG column.

QUESTION 36
Which CREATE TABLE statement is valid?
A. CREATE TABLE ord_details (ord_no NUMBER(2) PRIMARY KEY, item_no NUMBER(3) PRIMARY KEY, ord_date DATE NOT NULL);
B. CREATE TABLE ord_details (ord_no NUMBER(2) UNIQUE, NOT NULL, item_no NUMBER(3), ord_date DATE DEFAULT SYSDATE NOT NULL);
C. CREATE TABLE ord_details (ord_no NUMBER(2) , item_no NUMBER(3), ord_date DATE DEFAULT NOT NULL, CONSTRAINT ord_uq UNIQUE (ord_no), CONSTRAINT ord_pk PRIMARY KEY (ord_no));
D. CREATE TABLE ord_details (ord_no NUMBER(2), item_no NUMBER(3), ord_date DATE DEFAULT SYSDATE NOT NULL, CONSTRAINT ord_pk PRIMARY KEY (ord_no, item_no));

Correct Answer: D Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: PRIMARY KEY Constraint A PRIMARY KEY constraint creates a primary key for the table. Only one primary key can be created for each table. The PRIMARY KEY constraint is a column or a set of columns that uniquely identifies each row in a table. This constraint enforces the uniqueness of the column or column combination and ensures that no column that is part of the primary key can contain a null value. Note: Because uniqueness is part of the primary key constraint definition, the Oracle server enforces the uniqueness by implicitly creating a unique index on the primary key column or columns.
QUESTION 37
See the exhibit and examine the structure of the CUSTOMERS and GRADES tables: You need to display names and grades of customers who have the highest credit limit. Which two SQL statements would accomplish the task? (Choose two.)

A. SELECT custname, grade FROM customers, grades WHERE (SELECT MAX(cust_credit_limit) FROM customers) BETWEEN startval and endval;
B. SELECT custname, grade FROM customers, grades WHERE (SELECT MAX(cust_credit_limit) FROM customers) BETWEEN startval and endval AND cust_credit_limit BETWEEN startval AND endval;
C. SELECT custname, grade FROM customers, grades WHERE cust_credit_limit = (SELECT MAX(cust_credit_limit) FROM customers) AND cust_credit_limit BETWEEN startval AND endval;
D. SELECT custname, grade FROM customers , grades WHERE cust_credit_limit IN (SELECT MAX(cust_credit_limit) FROM customers) AND MAX(cust_credit_limit) BETWEEN startval AND endval;

Correct Answer: BC Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 38
See the Exhibit and Examine the structure of the CUSTOMERS table:

Using the CUSTOMERS table, you need to generate a report that shows an increase in the credit limit by 15% for all customers. Customers whose credit limit has not been entered should have the message “Not Available” displayed.
Which SQL statement would produce the required result?
A. SELECT NVL(cust_credit_limit,’Not Available’)*.15 “NEW CREDIT” FROM customers;
B. SELECT NVL(cust_credit_limit*.15,’Not Available’) “NEW CREDIT” FROM customers;
C. SELECT TO_CHAR(NVL(cust_credit_limit*.15,’Not Available’)) “NEW CREDIT” FROM customers;
D. SELECT NVL(TO_CHAR(cust_credit_limit*.15),’Not Available’) “NEW CREDIT” FROM customers;

Correct Answer: D Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
NVL Function
Converts a null value to an actual value:
Data types that can be used are date, character, and number.
Data types must match:

NVL(commission_pct,0)
NVL(hire_date,’01-JAN-97′)
NVL(job_id,’No Job Yet’)

QUESTION 39
You need to calculate the number of days from 1st Jan 2007 till date:
Dates are stored in the default format of dd-mm-rr.
Which two SQL statements would give the required output? (Choose two.)

A. SELECT SYSDATE – TO_DATE(’01/JANUARY/2007′) FROM DUAL;
B. SELECT TO_DATE(SYSDATE,’DD/MONTH/YYYY’)-’01/JANUARY/2007′ FROM DUAL;
C. SELECT SYSDATE – TO_DATE(’01-JANUARY-2007′) FROM DUAL
D. SELECT SYSDATE – ’01-JAN-2007′ FROM DUAL
E. SELECT TO_CHAR(SYSDATE,’DD-MON-YYYY’)-’01-JAN-2007′ FROM DUAL;

Correct Answer: AC Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 40
Which two are true about aggregate functions? (Choose two.)
A. You can use aggregate functions in any clause of a SELECT statement.
B. You can use aggregate functions only in the column list of the select clause and in the WHERE clause of a SELECT statement.
C. You can mix single row columns with aggregate functions in the column list of a SELECT statement by grouping on the single row columns.
D. You can pass column names, expressions, constants, or functions as parameter to an aggregate function.
E. You can use aggregate functions on a table, only by grouping the whole table as one single group.
F. You cannot group the rows of a table by more than one column while using aggregate functions.
Correct Answer: AD Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 41
See the structure of the PROGRAMS table:

Which two SQL statements would execute successfully? (Choose two.)
A. SELECT NVL(ADD_MONTHS(END_DATE,1),SYSDATE) FROM programs;
B. SELECT TO_DATE(NVL(SYSDATE-END_DATE,SYSDATE)) FROM programs;
C. SELECT NVL(MONTHS_BETWEEN(start_date,end_date),’Ongoing’) FROM programs;
D. SELECT NVL(TO_CHAR(MONTHS_BETWEEN(start_date,end_date)),’Ongoing’) FROM programs;

Correct Answer: AD Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
NVL Function
Converts a null value to an actual value:
Data types that can be used are date, character, and number.
Data types must match:

NVL(commission_pct,0)

NVL(hire_date,’01-JAN-97′)

NVL(job_id,’No Job Yet’)

MONTHS_BETWEEN(date1, date2): Finds the number of months between date1 and date2 . The result
can be positive or negative. If date1 is later than date2, the result is positive; if date1 is earlier than date2,
the result is negative. The noninteger part of the result represents a portion of the month.
MONTHS_BETWEEN returns a numeric value. – answer C NVL has different datatypes – numeric and
strings, which is not possible!

The data types of the original and if null parameters must always be compatible. They must either be of the
same type, or it must be possible to implicitly convert if null to the type of the original parameter. The NVL
function returns a value with the same data type as the original parameter.

QUESTION 42
You issue the following command to drop the PRODUCTS table: SQL>DROP TABLE products;
What is the implication of this command? (Choose all that apply.)
A. All data in the table are deleted but the table structure will remain
B. All data along with the table structure is deleted
C. All views and synonyms will remain but they are invalidated
D. The pending transaction in the session is committed
E. All indexes on the table will remain but they are invalidated
Correct Answer: BCD Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 43
Exhibit contains the structure of PRODUCTS table: Evaluate the following query:
What would be the outcome of executing the above SQL statement?
A. It produces an error
B. It shows the names of products whose list price is the second highest in the table.
C. It shown the names of all products whose list price is less than the maximum list price
D. It shows the names of all products in the table Correct Answer: B

Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 44
See the Exhibits and examine the structures of PRODUCTS, SALES and CUSTOMERS table: You issue the following query:
Which statement is true regarding the outcome of this query?
A. It produces an error because the NATURAL join can be used only with two tables
B. It produces an error because a column used in the NATURAL join cannot have a qualifier
C. It produces an error because all columns used in the NATURAL join should have a qualifier
D. It executes successfully

Correct Answer: B Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: Creating Joins with the USING Clause Natural joins use all columns with matching names and data types to join the tables. The USING clause can be used to specify only those columns that should be used for an equijoin. The Natural JOIN USING Clause The format of the syntax for the natural JOIN USING clause is as follows: SELECT table1.column, table2.column FROM table1 JOIN table2 USING (join_column1, join_column2…); While the pure natural join contains the NATURAL keyword in its syntax, the JOIN…USING syntax does not. An error is raised if the keywords NATURAL and USING occur in the same join clause. The JOIN…USING clause allows one or more equijoin columns to be explicitly specified in brackets after the USING keyword. This avoids the shortcomings associated with the pure natural join. Many situations demand that tables be joined only on certain columns, and this format caters to this requirement.
QUESTION 45
You work as a database administrator at ABC.com. You study the exhibit carefully.
Exhibit:

You want to create a SALE_PROD view by executing the following SQL statements:

Which statement is true regarding the execution of the above statement?
A. The view will be created and you can perform DLM operations on the view
B. The view will not be created because the join statements are not allowed for creating a view
C. The view will not be created because the GROUP BY clause is not allowed for creating a view
D. The view will be created but no DML operations will be allowed on the view
Correct Answer: D Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: Rules for Performing DML Operations on a View You cannot add data through a view if the view includes: Group functions A GROUP BY clause The DISTINCT keyword The pseudocolumn ROWNUM keyword Columns defined by expressions NOT NULL columns in the base tables that are not selected by the view
QUESTION 46
Which three statements are true regarding the data types in Oracle Database 10g/11g? (Choose three.)
A. The BLOB data type column is used to store binary data in an operating system file
B. The minimum column width that can be specified for a VARCHAR2 data type column is one
C. A TIMESTAMP data type column stores only time values with fractional seconds
D. The value for a CHAR data type column is blank-padded to the maximum defined column width
E. Only One LONG column can be used per table

Correct Answer: BDE Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
LONG Character data in the database character set, up to 2GB. All the functionality of LONG (and more) is
provided by CLOB; LONGs should not be used in a modern database, and if your database has any
columns of this type they should be converted to CLOB. There can only be one LONG column in a table.
DVARCHAR2 Variable-length character data, from 1 byte to 4KB. The data is stored in the database
character set. The VARCHAR2 data type must be qualified with a number indicating the maximum length
of the column.
If a value is inserted into the column that is less than this, it is not a problem: the value will only take up as
much space as it needs. If the value is longer than this maximum, the INSERT will fail with an error.
VARCHAR2(size)
Variable-length character data (A maximum size must be specified: minimum size is 1; maximum size is
4,000.)
BLOB Like CLOB, but binary data that will not undergo character set conversion by Oracle Net. BFILE A
locator pointing to a file stored on the operating system of the database server. The size of the files is
limited to 4GB.
TIMESTAMP This is length zero if the column is empty, or up to 11 bytes, depending on the precision
specified.
Similar to DATE, but with precision of up to 9 decimal places for the seconds, 6 places by default.

QUESTION 47
Which three are true? (Choose three.)
A. A MERGE statement is used to merge the data of one table with data from another.
B. A MERGE statement replaces the data of one table with that of another.
C. A MERGE statement can be used to insert new rows into a table.
D. A MERGE statement can be used to update existing rows in a table.

Correct Answer: ACD Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: The MERGE Statement allows you to conditionally insert or update data in a table. If the rows are present in the target table which match the join condition, they are updated if the rows are not present they are inserted into the target table
QUESTION 48
Which two statements are true regarding views? (Choose two.)
A. A sub query that defines a view cannot include the GROUP BY clause
B. A view is created with the sub query having the DISTINCT keyword can be updated
C. A Data Manipulation Language (DML) operation can be performed on a view that is created with the sub query having all the NOT NULL columns of a table
D. A view that is created with the sub query having the pseudo column ROWNUM keyword cannot be updated

Correct Answer: CD Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: Rules for Performing DML Operations on a View You cannot add data through a view if the view includes: Group functions A GROUP BY clause The DISTINCT keyword The pseudocolumn ROWNUM keyword Columns defined by expressions NOT NULL columns in the base tables that are not selected by the view
QUESTION 49
Examine the structure of the EMPLOYEES and NEW_EMPLOYEES tables:

Which DELETE statement is valid?
A. DELETE FROM employees WHERE employee_id = (SELECT employee_id FROM employees);
B. DELETE * FROM employees WHERE employee_id=(SELECT employee_id FROM new_employees);
C. DELETE FROM employees WHERE employee_id IN (SELECT employee_id FROM new_employees WHERE name = `Carrey’);
D. DELETE * FROM employees WHERE employee_id IN (SELECT employee_id FROM new_employees WHERE name = `Carrey’);

Correct Answer: C Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 50
View the Exhibits and examine the structures of the PROMOTIONS and SALES tables.

Evaluate the following SQL statements:

Which statement is true regarding the output of the above query?
A. It gives details of product IDs that have been sold irrespective of whether they had a promo or not
B. It gives the details of promos for which there have been no sales
C. It gives the details of promos for which there have been sales
D. It gives details of all promos irrespective of whether they have resulted in a sale or not Correct Answer: D

Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 51
Examine the structure of the EMPLOYEES table:

Which UPDATE statement is valid?
A. UPDATE employees SET first_name = `John’
SET last_name = `Smith’
WHERE employee_id = 180;

B. UPDATE employees SET first_name = `John’, SET last_name = `Smoth’ WHERE employee_id = 180;
C. UPDATE employee SET first_name = `John’ AND last_name = `Smith’ WHERE employee_id = 180;
D. UPDATE employee SET first_name = `John’, last_name = `Smith’ WHERE employee_id = 180;

Correct Answer: D Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 52
View the Exhibit and evaluate structures of the SALES, PRODUCTS, and COSTS tables.

Evaluate the following SQL statements: Which statement is true regarding the above compound query?

A. It shows products that have a cost recorded irrespective of sales
B. It shows products that were sold and have a cost recorded
C. It shows products that were sold but have no cost recorded
D. It reduces an error Correct Answer: C

Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 53
The PRODUCTS table has the following structure:

Evaluate the following two SQL statements:

Which statement is true regarding the outcome?
A. Both the statements execute and give the same result
B. Both the statements execute and give different results
C. Only the second SQL statement executes successfully
D. Only the first SQL statement executes successfully

Correct Answer: B Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: Using the NVL2 Function The NVL2 function examines the first expression. If the first expression is not null, the NVL2 function returns the second expression. If the first expression is null, the third expression is returned. Syntax NVL2(expr1, expr2, expr3) In the syntax: expr1 is the source value or expression that may contain a null expr2 is the value that is returned if expr1 is not null expr3 is the value that is returned if expr1 is null
QUESTION 54
Which statements are correct regarding indexes? (Choose all that apply.)
A. For each data manipulation language (DML) operation performed, the corresponding indexes are automatically updated.
B. A nondeferrable PRIMARY KEY or UNIQUE KEY constraint in a table automatically creates a unique index.
C. A FOREIGN KEY constraint on a column in a table automatically creates a non unique key D. When a table is dropped, the corresponding indexes are automatically dropped

Correct Answer: ABD Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 55
You work as a database administrator at ABC.com. You study the exhibit carefully. Exhibit:

Which two SQL statements would execute successfully? (Choose two.)
A. UPDATE promotions SET promo_cost = promo_cost+ 100 WHERE TO_CHAR(promo_end_date, ‘yyyy’) > ‘2000’;
B. SELECT promo_begin_date FROM promotions WHERE TO_CHAR(promo_begin_date,’mon dd yy’)=’jul 01 98′;
C. UPDATE promotions SET promo_cost = promo_cost+ 100 WHERE promo_end_date > TO_DATE(SUBSTR(’01-JAN-2000′,8));
D. SELECT TO_CHAR(promo_begin_date,’dd/month’) FROM promotions WHERE promo_begin_date IN (TO_DATE(‘JUN 01 98’), TO_DATE(‘JUL 01 98’));

Correct Answer: AB Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 56
Examine these statements:

CREATE ROLE registrar;
GRANT UPDATE ON student_grades TO registrar;
GRANT registrar to user1, user2, user3;

What does this set of SQL statements do?

A. The set of statements contains an error and does not work.
B. It creates a role called REGISTRAR, adds the MODIFY privilege on the STUDENT_GRADES object to the role, and gives the REGISTRAR role to three users.
C. It creates a role called REGISTRAR, adds the UPDATE privilege on the STUDENT_GRADES object to the role, and gives the REGISTRAR role to three users.
D. It creates a role called REGISTRAR, adds the UPDATE privilege on the STUDENT_GRADES object to the role, and creates three users with the role.
E. It creates a role called REGISTRAR, adds the UPDATE privilege on three users, and gives the REGISTRAR role to the STUDENT_GRADES object.
F. It creates a role called STUDENT_GRADES, adds the UPDATE privilege on three users, and gives the UPDATE role to the registrar.

Correct Answer: C Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: the statement will create a role call REGISTRAR, grant UPDATE on student_grades to registrar, grant the role to user1,user2 and user3.
Incorrect answer: A the statement does not contain error B there is no MODIFY privilege D statement does not create 3 users with the role E privilege is grant to role then grant to user F privilege is grant to role then grant to user
QUESTION 57
Examine the structure of the MARKS table:
Exhibit:

Which two statements would execute successfully? (Choose two.)
A. SELECT student_name,subject1 FROM marks WHERE subject1 > AVG(subject1);
B. SELECT student_name,SUM(subject1) FROM marks WHERE student_name LIKE ‘R%’;
C. SELECT SUM(subject1+subject2+subject3) FROM marks WHERE student_name IS NULL;
D. SELECT SUM(DISTINCT NVL(subject1,0)), MAX(subject1) FROM marks WHERE subject1 > subject2;

Correct Answer: CD Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 58
You are currently located in Singapore and have connected to a remote database in Chicago. You issue the following command:
Exhibit: PROMOTIONS is the public synonym for the public database link for the PROMOTIONS table. What is the outcome?

A. Number of days since the promo started based on the current Singapore data and time.
B. An error because the ROUND function specified is invalid
C. An error because the WHERE condition specified is invalid
D. Number of days since the promo started based on the current Chicago data and time Correct Answer: D

Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 59
Evaluate the following two queries: Exhibit:

Exhibit:

Which statement is true regarding the above two queries?
A. Performance would improve in query 2 only if there are null values in the CUST_CREDIT_LIMIT column
B. Performance would degrade in query 2
C. There would be no change in performance
D. Performance would improve in query 2

Correct Answer: C Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Note: The IN operator is internally evaluated by the Oracle server as a set of OR conditions, such as
a=value1 or a=value2 or a=value3. Therefore, using the IN operator has no performance benefits and is
used only for logical simplicity.

QUESTION 60
View the Exhibit and examine the structure of the CUSTOMERS and CUST_HISTORY tables.

The CUSTOMERS table contains the current location of all currently active customers. The CUST_HISTORY table stores historical details relating to any changes in the location of all current as well as previous customers who are no longer active with the company.
You need to find those customers who have never changed their address. Which SET operator would you use to get the required output?
A. INTERSECT
B. UNION ALL
C. MINUS

D. UNION Correct Answer: C
Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 61
You created an ORDERS table with the following description: Exhibit:

You inserted some rows in the table. After some time, you want to alter the table by creating the PRIMARY KEY constraint on the ORD_ID column.
Which statement is true in this scenario?
A. You cannot add a primary key constraint if data exists in the column
B. You can add the primary key constraint even if data exists, provided that there are no duplicate values
C. The primary key constraint can be created only a the time of table creation
D. You cannot have two constraints on one column

Correct Answer: B Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 62
Which object privileges can be granted on a view?
A. none
B. DELETE, INSERT,SELECT
C. ALTER, DELETE, INSERT, SELECT
D. DELETE, INSERT, SELECT, UPDATE

Correct Answer: D Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: Object privilege on VIEW is DELETE, INSERT, REFERENCES, SELECT and UPDATE. Incorrect answer: A Object privilege on VIEW is DELETE, INSERT, REFERENCES, SELECT and UPDATE B Object privilege on VIEW is DELETE, INSERT, REFERENCES, SELECT and UPDATE C Object privilege on VIEW is DELETE, INSERT, REFERENCES, SELECT and UPDATE
Refer: Introduction to Oracle9i: SQL, Oracle University Study Guide, 13-12
QUESTION 63
When does a transaction complete? (Choose all that apply.)
A. When a PL/SQL anonymous block is executed
B. When a DELETE statement is executed
C. When a data definition language statement is executed
D. When a TRUNCATE statement is executed after the pending transaction
E. When a ROLLBACK command is executed
Correct Answer: CDE Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 64
View the Exhibit and examine the structure of the CUSTOMERS table. Exhibit:

you issue the following SQL statement on the CUSTOMERS table to display the customers who are in the
same country as customers with the last name ‘king’ and whose credit limit is less than the maximum credit limit in countries that have customers with the last name ‘king’.

Which statement is true regarding the outcome of the above query?
A. It produces an error and the < operator should be replaced by < ANY to get the required output
B. It produces an error and the IN operator should be replaced by = in the WHERE clause of the main query to get the required output
C. It executes and shows the required result
D. It produces an error and the < operator should be replaced by < ALL to get the required output

Correct Answer: C Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 65
You need to create a table for a banking application. One of the columns in the table has the following requirements:
You want a column in the table to store the duration of the credit period The data in the column should be stored in a format such that it can be easily added and subtracted with DATE data type without using conversion The maximum period of the credit provision in the application is 30 days the interest has to be calculated for the number of days an individual has taken a credit for
Which data type would you use for such a column in the table?
A. INTERVAL YEAR TO MONTH
B. NUMBER
C. TIMESTAMP
D. DATE
E. INTERVAL DAY TO SECOND
Correct Answer: E Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 66
The STUDENT_GRADES table has these columns: Which statement finds students who have a grade point average (GPA) greater than 3.0 for the calendar year 2001?

A. SELECT student_id, gpa FROM student_grades WHERE semester_end BETWEEN ’01-JAN-2001′ AND ’31-DEC-2001′ OR gpa > 3.;
B. SELECT student_id, gpa FROM student_grades WHERE semester_end BETWEEN ’01-JAN-2001′ AND ’31-DEC-2001′ AND gpa gt 3.0;
C. SELECT student_id, gpa FROM student_grades WHERE semester_end BETWEEN ’01-JAN-2001′ AND ’31-DEC-2001′ AND gpa > 3.0;
D. SELECT student_id, gpa FROM student_grades WHERE semester_end BETWEEN ’01-JAN-2001′ AND ’31-DEC-2001′ OR gpa > 3.0;
E. SELECT student_id, gpa FROM student_grades WHERE semester_end > ’01-JAN-2001′ OR semester_end < ’31-DEC-2001′ AND gpa >= 3.0;

Correct Answer: C Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 67
View the Exhibit and examine the data in the PROMOTIONS table.

You need to display all promo categories that do not have ‘discount’ in their subcategory. Which two SQL statements give the required result? (Choose two.)
A. SELECT promo_category FROM promotions MINUS SELECT promo_category FROM promotions
WHERE promo_subcategory = ‘discount’;
B. SELECT promo_category FROM promotions INTERSECT SELECT promo_category FROM promotions WHERE promo_subcategory = ‘discount’;
C. SELECT promo_category FROM promotions MINUS SELECT promo_category FROM promotions WHERE promo_subcategory <> ‘discount’;
D. SELECT promo_category FROM promotions INTERSECT SELECT promo_category FROM promotions WHERE promo_subcategory <> ‘discount’;
Correct Answer: AD Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 68
You work as a database administrator at ABC.com. You study the exhibit carefully.
Exhibit:

and examine the structure of CUSTOMRS AND SALES tables:
Evaluate the following SQL statement:
Exhibit:
Which statement is true regarding the execution of the above UPDATE statement?
A. It would not execute because the SELECT statement cannot be used in place of the table name
B. It would execute and restrict modifications to only the column specified in the SELECT statement
C. It would not execute because a sub query cannot be used in the WHERE clause of an UPDATE statement
D. It would not execute because two tables cannot be used in a single UPDATE statement Correct Answer: B

Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 69
See the Exhibit and examine the structure of the PROMOTIONS table: Exhibit:

Using the PROMOTIONS table, you need to find out the average cost for all promos in the range $0-2000
and $2000-5000 in category A.
You issue the following SQL statements:
Exhibit:
What would be the outcome?
A. It generates an error because multiple conditions cannot be specified for the WHEN clause
B. It executes successfully and gives the required result
C. It generates an error because CASE cannot be used with group functions
D. It generates an error because NULL cannot be specified as a return value Correct Answer: B

Explanation Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: CASE Expression Facilitates conditional inquiries by doing the work of an IF-THEN-ELSE statement: CASE expr WHEN comparison_expr1 THEN return_expr1 [WHEN comparison_expr2 THEN return_expr2 WHEN comparison_exprn THEN return_exprn ELSE else_expr] END
QUESTION 70
Which two statements are true regarding the USING and ON clauses in table joins? (Choose two.)
A. The ON clause can be used to join tables on columns that have different names but compatible data types
B. A maximum of one pair of columns can be joined between two tables using the ON clause
C. Both USING and ON clause can be used for equijoins and nonequijoins
D. The WHERE clause can be used to apply additional conditions in SELECT statement containing the ON or the USING clause

Correct Answer: AD Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: Creating Joins with the USING Clause If several columns have the same names but the data types do not match, use the USING clause to specify the columns for the equijoin. Use the USING clause to match only one column when more than one column matches. The NATURAL JOIN and USING clauses are mutually exclusive Using Table Aliases with the USING clause When joining with the USING clause, you cannot qualify a column that is used in the USING clause itself. Furthermore, if that column is used anywhere in the SQL statement, you cannot alias it. For example, in the query mentioned in the slide, you should not alias the location_id column in the WHERE clause because the column is used in the USING clause. The columns that are referenced in the USING clause should not have a qualifier (table name oralias) anywhere in the SQL statement. Creating Joins with the ON Clause The join condition for the natural join is basically an equijoin of all columns with the same name. Use the ON clause to specify arbitrary conditions or specify columns to join. ANSWER C The join condition is separated from other search conditions. ANSWER D The ON clause makes code easy to understand.
QUESTION 71
Examine the structure of the EMPLOYEES table:

Which INSERT statement is valid?
A. INSERT INTO employees (employee_id, first_name, last_name, hire_date) VALUES ( 1000, `John’, `Smith’, `01/01/01′);
B. INSERT INTO employees(employee_id, first_name, last_name, hire_date) VALUES ( 1000, `John’, `Smith’, ’01 January 01′);
C. INSERT INTO employees(employee_id, first_name, last_name, Hire_date) VALUES ( 1000, `John’, `Smith’, To_date(`01/01/01′));
D. INSERT INTO employees(employee_id, first_name, last_name, hire_date) VALUES ( 1000, `John’, `Smith’, 01-Jan-01);

Correct Answer: D Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: It is the only statement that has a valid date; all other will result in an error. Answer A is incorrect, syntax error, invalid date format
QUESTION 72
The user Alice wants to grant all users query privileges on her DEPT table. Which SQL statement accomplishes this?
A. GRANT select ON dept TO ALL_USERS;
B. GRANT select ON dept TO ALL;
C. GRANT QUERY ON dept TO ALL_USERS
D. GRANT select ON dept TO PUBLIC;

Correct Answer: D Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: view the columns associated with the constraint names in the USER_CONS_COLUMNS view.
Incorrect answer: A table to view all constraints definition and names B show all object name belong to user C does not display column associated E no such view
Refer: Introduction to Oracle9i: SQL, Oracle University Study Guide, 10-25
QUESTION 73
Which is an iSQL*Plus command?
A. INSERT
B. UPDATE
C. SELECT
D. DESCRIBE
E. DELETE
F. RENAME

Correct Answer: D Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The only SQL*Plus command in this list: DESCRIBE. It cannot be used as SQL command. This command
returns a description of tablename, including all columns in that table, the datatype for each column and an
indication of whether the column permits storage of NULL values.

Incorrect answer:
A INSERT is not a SQL*PLUS command
B UPDATE is not a SQL*PLUS command
C SELECT is not a SQL*PLUS command
E DELETE is not a SQL*PLUS command
F RENAME is not a SQL*PLUS command

Refer: Introduction to Oracle9i: SQL, Oracle University Study Guide, 7
QUESTION 74
You work as a database administrator at ABC.com. You study the exhibit carefully. Exhibit

Using the PROMOTIONS table, you need to display the names of all promos done after January 1, 2001
starting with the latest promo.
Which query would give the required result? (Choose all that apply.)

A. SELECT promo_name,promo_begin_date FROM promotions WHERE promo_begin_date > ’01-JAN-01′ ORDER BY 1 DESC;
B. SELECT promo_name,promo_begin_date “START DATE” FROM promotions WHERE promo_begin_date > ’01-JAN-01′ ORDER BY “START DATE” DESC;
C. SELECT promo_name,promo_begin_date FROM promotions WHERE promo_begin_date > ’01-JAN-01′ ORDER BY 2 DESC;
D. SELECT promo_name,promo_begin_date FROM promotions WHERE promo_begin_date > ’01-JAN-01′ ORDER BY promo_name DESC;

Correct Answer: BC Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 75
See the Exhibit and examine the structure of the SALES, CUSTOMERS, PRODUCTS and ITEMS tables: The PROD_ID column is the foreign key in the SALES table, which references the PRODUCTS table. Similarly, the CUST_ID and TIME_ID columns are also foreign keys in the SALES table referencing the CUSTOMERS and TIMES tables, respectively.

Evaluate the following the CREATE TABLE command:
Exhibit: Which statement is true regarding the above command?

A. The NEW_SALES table would not get created because the column names in the CREATE TABLE command and the SELECT clause do not match
B. The NEW_SALES table would get created and all the NOT NULL constraints defined on the specified columns would be passed to the new table
C. The NEW_SALES table would not get created because the DEFAULT value cannot be specified in the column definition
D. The NEW_SALES table would get created and all the FOREIGN KEY constraints defined on the specified columns would be passed to the new table

Correct Answer: B Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Creating a Table Using a Subquery
Create a table and insert rows by combining the CREATE
TABLE statement and the AS subquery option.
CREATE TABLE table
[(column, column…)]
AS subquery;
Match the number of specified columns to the number of subquery columns.
Define columns with column names and default values.
Guidelines
The table is created with the specified column names, and the rows retrieved by the SELECT statement
are inserted into the table.
The column definition can contain only the column name and default value. If column specifications are
given, the number of columns must equal the number of columns in the subquery SELECT list.
If no column specifications are given, the column names of the table are the same as the column names in
the subquery.
The column data type definitions and the NOT NULL constraint are passed to the new table. Note that only
the explicit NOT NULL constraint will be inherited. The PRIMARY KEY column will not pass the NOT NULL
feature to the new column. Any other constraint rules are not passed to the new table. However, you can
add constraints in the column definition. 1Z0-051

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QUESTION 25
In which two aspects does hot patching differ from conventional patching? (Choose two.)
A. It consumes more memory compared with conventional patching.
B. It can be installed and uninstalled via OPatch unlike conventional patching.
C. It takes more time to install or uninstall compared with conventional patching.
D. It does not require down time to apply or remove unlike conventional patching.
E. It is not persistent across instance startup and shutdown unlike conventional patching.
Correct Answer: AD QUESTION 26
Which statement about the enabling of table compression in Oracle Database 11g is true?
A. Compression can be enabled at the table, tablespace, or partition level for direct loads only.
B. Compression can be enabled only at the table level for both direct loads and conventional DML.
C. Compression can be enabled at the table, tablespace, or partition level for conventional DML only.
D. Compression can be enabled at the table, tablespace, or partition level for both direct loads and conventional DML.

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 27
Which are the prerequisites for performing flashback transactions on your database? (Choose all that apply.)
A. Supplemental log must be enabled.
B. Supplemental log must be enabled for the primary key
C. Undo retention guarantee for the database must be configured.
D. Execute permission on the DBMS_FLASHBACK package must be granted to the user.

Correct Answer: ABD QUESTION 28
You are managing an Oracle Database 11 g database. You want to take the of size 100 TB on tape drive, but you have tape drives of only 10 GB each, quickly and efficiently?
A. intrafile parallel backup
B. parallel image copy backup
C. backup with MAXPIECESIZE configured for the channel
D. parallel backup with MAXPIECESIZE configured for the channel

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 29
Which statements are true regarding the Query Result Cache? (Choose all that apply.)
A. It can be set at the system, session, or table level.
B. It is used only across statements in the same session.
C. It can store the results from normal as well as flashback queries.
D. It can store the results of queries based on normal, temporary, and dictionary tables.

Correct Answer: AC QUESTION 30
You want to analyze a SQL Tuning Set (STS) using SQL Performance Analyzer in a test database. Which two statements are true regarding the activities performed during the test execution of SQLs in a SQL Tuning Set? (Choose two.)
A. Every SQL statement in the STS is considered only once for execution.
B. The SQL statements in the STS are executed concurrently to produce the execution plan and execution statistics.
C. The execution plan and execution statistics are computed for each SQL statement in the STS.
D. The effects of DDL and DML are considered to produce the execution plan and execution statistics.

Correct Answer: AC QUESTION 31
Which two changes and their effect on the system can be tested by using the Database Replay feature?
(Choose two.)
A. multiplexing of the control file
B. database and operating system upgrades
C. adding the redo log member to the database
D. changing the database storage to ASM-managed storage

Correct Answer: BD QUESTION 32
You executed the following commands:
SQL> ALTER SESSION SET OPTIMIZER_USE_PENDING_STATISTICS = false; SQL> EXECUTE
DBMS_STATS.SET_TABLE_PREFS(‘SHI, ‘CUSTOMERS’, ‘PUBLISH’.’false’);
SQL> EXECUTE DBMS_STATS.GATHER_TABLE_STATS(‘SH’, ‘CUSTOMERS’);

Which statement is correct regarding the above statistics collection on the SH.CUSTOMERS table in the above session?
A. The statistics are stored in the pending statistics table in the data dictionary.
B. The statistics are treated as the current statistics by the optimizer for all sessions.
C. The statistics are treated as the current statistics by the optimizer for the current sessions only.
D. The statistics are temporary and used by the optimizer for all sessions until this session terminates.

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 33
The Database Resource Manager is automatically enabled in the maintenance window that runs the Automated Maintenance Task. What is the reason for this?
A. to prevent the creation of an excessive number of scheduler job classes
B. to allow the Automated Maintenance Tasks to use system resources without any restriction
C. to allow resource sharing only among the Automated Maintenance Tasks in the maintenance window
D. to prevent the Automated Maintenance Tasks from consuming excessive amounts of system resources

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 34
Which is the source used by Automatic SQL Tuning that runs as part of the AUTOTASK framework?
A. SQL statements that are part of the AWR baseline only
B. SQL statements based on the AWR top SQL identification
C. SQL statements that are part of the available SQL Tuning Set (STS) only
D. SQL statements that are available in the cursor cache and executed by a user other than SYS

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 35
View the Exhibit and examine the output.

You executed the following command to enable Flashback Data Archive on the EXCHANGE_RATE table:
ALTER TABLE exchange_rate FLASHBACK ARCHIVE;
What is the outcome of this command?

A. The table uses the default Flashback Archive.
B. The Flashback Archive is created on the SYSAUXtablespace.
C. The Flashback Archive is created on the same tablespace where the tables are stored.
D. The command generates an error because no Flashback Archive name is specified and there is no default Flashback Archive-

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 36
View the Exhibit to examine the error during the database startup.

You open an RMAN session for the database instance. To repair the failure, you executed the following as
the first command in the RMAN session:
RMAN> REPAIR FAILURE;
Which statement describes the consequence of the command?

A. The command performs the recovery and closes the failures.
B. The command only displays the advice and the RMAN script required for repair.
C. The command produces an error because the ADVISE FAILURE command has not been executed before the REPAIR FAILURE command
D. The command executes the RMAN script to repair the failure and removes the entry from the Automatic Diagnostic Repository (ADR).

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 37
You issued the following command on the temporary tablespace LMTEMP in your database:
SQL>ALTER TABLESPACE Imtemp SHRINK SPACE KEEP 20M;
Which requirement must be fulfilled for this command to succeed?

A. The tablespace must be locally managed.
B. The tablespace must have only one temp file.
C. The tablespace must be made nondefault and offline.
D. The tablespace can remain as the default but must have no active sort operations. Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 38
You are working as a DBA on the decision support system. There is a business requirement to track and store all transactions for at least three years for a few tables in the database. Automatic undo management is enabled in the database. Which configuration should you use to accomplish this task?
A. Enable Flashback Data Archive for the tables.
B. Enable supplemental logging for the database.
C. Specify undo retention guarantee for the database.
D. Create Flashback Data Archive on the tablespace on which the tables are stored.
E. Query V$UNDOSTAT to determine the amount of undo that will be generated and create an undo tablespace for that size.

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 39
Your organization decided to upgrade the existing Oracle 10g database to Oracle 11 g database in a multiprocessor environment. At the end of the upgrade, you observe that the DBA executes the following script:
SQL>@utlrp.sql
What is the significance of executing this script?
A. It performs parallel recompilation of only the stored PL/SQL code.
B. It performs sequential recompilation of only the stored PL/SQL code.
C. It performs parallel recompilation of any stored PL/SQL as well as Java code.
D. It performs sequential recompilation of any stored PL/SQL as well as Java code.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 40
Which two are the uses of the ASM metadata backup and restore (AMBR) feature? (Choose two.)
A. It can be used to backup all data on ASM disks.
B. It can be used to re-create the ASM disk group with its attributes.
C. It can be used to recover the damaged ASM disk group along with the data.
D. It can be used to gather information about a preexisting ASM disk group with disk paths, disk name, failure groups, attributes, templates, and alias directory structure.
Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 41
You executed the following PL/SQL block successfully:

VARIABLE tname VARCHAR2(20)

BEGIN
dbms_addm.insert_finding_directive (NULL, DIR_NAME=>’Detail CPU Usage1, FINDING_NAME=>’CPU
Usage1,
MIN_ACTIVE_SESSIONS=>0,MIN_PERC_IMPACT=>90);
:tname := ‘database ADDM task4’;
dbms_addm.analyze_db(:tname, 150,162);
END;
/
Then you executed the following command:

SQL> SELECT dbms_addm.get_report(:tname) FROM DUAL; The above command produces Automatic
Database Diagnostic Monitor (ADDM) analysis____.

A. with the CPU Usage finding if it is less than 90
B. without the CPU Usage finding if it is less than 90
C. with the CPU Usage finding for snapshots below 90
D. with the CPU Usage finding for snapshots not between 150 and 162

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 42
Which statements describe the capabilities of the DBMS_NETWORK_ACL_ADMIN package? (Choose all that apply.)
A. It can be used to allow the access privilege settings for users but not roles.
B. It can be used to allow the access privilege settings for users as well as roles.
C. It can be used to control the time interval for which the access privilege is available to a user.
D. It can be used to selectively restrict the access for each user in a database to different host computers.
E. It can be used to selectively restrict a user’s access to different applications in a specific host computer.

Correct Answer: BCD
QUESTION 43
To generate recommendations to improve the performance of a set of SQL queries in an application, you
execute the following blocks of code:

BEGIN
dbms_advisor.create_task(dbms_advisor.sqlaccess_advisor,lTASK1l); END;
/
BEGIN
dbms_advisor.set_task_parameter(lTASK1l,lANALYSIS_SCOPElllALLl);
dbms_advisor.set_task_parameter(lTASK1,,,MODE,llCOMPREHENSIVEl); END;
/
BEGIN
dbms_advisor.execute_task(‘TASK1’);
dbms_output.put_line(dbms_advisor.get_task_script(‘TASK11)); END;
/
The blocks of code execute successfully; however, you do not get the required outcome.
What could be the reason?

A. A template needs to be associated with the task.
B. A workload needs to be associated with the task.
C. The partial or complete workload scope needs to be associated with the task.
D. The type of structures (indexes, materialized views, or partitions) to be recommended need to be specified for the task.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 44
You are managing an Oracle Database 11 g instance with ASM storage. The ASM instance is down. To know the details of the disks in the DATA disk group ,, you issued the following ASMCMD command:
ASMCMD> lsdsk-l -d DATA
Which statement is true regarding the outcome of this command?
A. The command succeeds but it retrieves only the disk names.
B. The command produces an error because the ASM instance is down.
C. The command succeeds but it shows only the status of the ASM instance.
D. The command succeeds and retrieves information by scanning the disk headers based on an ASMJDISKSTRING value.
Correct Answer: D QUESTION 45
You plan to set up the Automatic Workload Repository (AWR) baseline metric thresholds for a moving window baseline. Which action would you take before performing this task?
A. Compute the baseline statistics.
B. Take an immediate AWR snapshot.
C. Decrease the window size for the baseline.
D. Decrease the expiration time for the baseline.

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 46
You need to create a partitioned table to store historical data and you Issued the following command:

CREATE TABLE purchas_interval
PARTITION BY RANGE (time_id)
INTERVAL (NUMTOYMINTERVAL(1 ,’month1)) STORE IN (tbs1 ,tbs2,tbs3)

PARTITION p1 VALUES LESS THAN(TO_DATE(‘1-1-2005I, ‘dd-mm-yyyy’)), PARTITION p2 VALUES
LESS THAN(TO_DATE(‘1-1-2007’, ‘dd-mm-yyyy’))) AS
SELECT *
FROM purchases
WHERE time_id < TO_DATE(‘1-1-2007’l’dd-mm-yyyy’);

What is the outcome of the above command?

A. It returns an error because the range partitions P1 and P2 should be of the same range.
B. It creates two range partitions (P1, P2). Within each range partition, it creates monthwise subpartitions.
C. It creates two range partitions of varying range. For data beyond ‘1-1-2007,’ it creates partitions with a width of |_| one month each
D. It returns an error because the number of tablespaces (TBS1 ,TBS2,TBS3)specified does not match the number of range partitions (P1 ,P2) specified.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 47
View the Exhibit to examine the Automatic Database Diagnostic Monitor (ADDM) tasks.

You executed the following commands:

SQL> VAR tname VARCHAR2(60);
SQL> BEGIN
:tname := lmy_instance_analysis_mode_task,;
DBMS_ADDM .INSERT_SEGMENT_DIRECTIVE(:tname ,lSg_directivel ,’SCOTT1); END;

Which statement describes the consequence?

A. The ADDM task is filtered to suppress the Segment Advisor suggestions for the SCOTT schema.
B. The ADDM task is filtered to produce the Segment Advisor suggestions for the SCOTT schema only.
C. The PL/SQL block produces an error because the my_instance_analysis_mode_task task has not been reset to its initial state.
D. All subsequent ADDM tasks including my_instance_analysis_mode_task are filtered to suppress the Segment Advisor suggestions for the SCOTT schema.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 48
Examine the following PL/SQL block:

DECLARE
my_plans plsjnteger;
BEGIN
My_plans := DBMS_SPM.LOAD_PLANS_FROM_CURSOR_CACHE (sql_Id => ? 9twu5t2dn5xd?;
END;

Which statement is true about the plan being loaded into the SQL plan baseline by the above command?
A. It is loaded with the FIXED status.
B. It is loaded with the ACCEPTED status.
C. It is not loaded with the ENABLED status.
D. It is not loaded with the ACCEPTED status.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 49
View the Exhibit exhibit1 to observe the maintenance window property.

View the Exhibit exhibits to examine the output of the query. Which two statements describe the conclusions? (Choose two.)
A. The window duration should be increased.
B. RESOURCE_PERCENTAGE should be increased.
C. RESOURCE_PERCENTAGE should be decreased.
D. The repeat time for the window should be decreased.

Correct Answer: AB QUESTION 50
Evaluate the following statements: CREATE TABLE purchase_orders
(pojd NUMBER(4),
po_date TIMESTAMP,
supplie_id NUMBER(6),
po_total NUMBER(8,2),
CONSTRAINT order_pk PRIMARY KEY(po_id))
PARTITION BY RANGE(po_date)
(PARTITION Q1 VALUES LESS THAN (TO_DATE(?1-apr-2007?d-mon-yyyy?),

PARTITION Q2 VALUES LESS THAN (TO_DATE(?1-jul-2007?d-mon-yyyy?),

PARTITION Q3 VALUES LESS THAN (TO_DATE(?1-oct-2007?d-mon-yyyy?),

PARTITION Q4 VALUES LESS THAN (TO_DATE(?1-jan-2008?d-mon-yyyy?));

CREATE TABLE purchase_order_items
(po_id NUMBER(4) NOT NULL, product_id NUMBER(6) NOT NULL, unit_price NUMBER(8,2),
quantity NUMBER(8),

CONSTRAINT po_items_fk
FOREIGN KEY (po_id) REFERENCES purchase_orders(po_id)) PARTITION BY REFERENCE
(po_items_fk);

What are the two consequences of the above statements? (Choose two.)

A. Partitions of PURCHASE_ORDER_ITEMS have system-generated names.
B. Both PURCHASEjDRDERS and PURCHASEJDRDERJTEMS tables are created with four partitions each.
C. Partitions of the PURCHASEJDRDERJTEMS table exist in the same tablespaces as the partitions of the PURCHASEJDRDERS table.
D. The PURCHASEJDRDERJTEMS table inherits the partitioning key from the parent table by automatically duplicating the key columns.
E. Partition maintenance operations performed on the PURCHASEJDRDERJTEMS table are automatically reflected in the PURCHASEjDRDERS table.
Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 51
Which statements are true regarding SecureFile LOBs? (Choose all that apply.)
A. The amount of undo retained is user controlled.
B. SecureFile LOBs can be used only for nonpartitioned tables.
C. Fragmentation is minimized by using variable-sized chunks dynamically.
D. SecureFile encryption allows for random reads and writes of the encrypted data.
E. It automatically detects duplicate LOB data and conserves space by storing only one copy.
Correct Answer: CD
QUESTION 52
View the Exhibit for some of the current parameter settings.

A user logs in to the HR schema and issues the following commands:
SQL> CREATE TABLE emp (empno NUMBER(3), enameVARCHAR2(20), sal NUMBER(8,2));
SQL> INSERT INTO emp(empno,ename) VALUES(1 /JAMES’); At this moment, a second user also logs in to the HR schema and issues the following command:
SQL> ALTER TABLE emp MODIFY sal NUMBER(10,2);
What happens in the above scenario?
A. A deadlock is created.
B. The second user’s command executes successfully.
C. The second user’s session immediately produces the resource busy error.
D. The second user’s session waits for a time period before producing the resource busy error.

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 53
You upgraded Oracle Database 10g to Oracle Database 11 g. How would this affect the existing users’ passwords?
A. All passwords automatically become case-sensitive.
B. All passwords remain non-case-sensitive till they are changed.
C. All passwords remain non-case-sensitive and cannot be changed.
D. All passwords remain non-case-sensitive until their password attribute in the profile is altered.

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 54
What recommendations does the SQL Access Advisor provide for optimizing SQL queries? (Choose all that apply.)
A. selection of SQL plan baselines
B. partitioning of tables and indexes
C. creation of index-organized tables
D. creation of bitmap, function-based, and B-tree indexes
E. optimization of materialized views for maximum query usage and fast refresh

Correct Answer: BDE QUESTION 55
Your system has been upgraded from Oracle Database 10g to Oracle Database 11g. You imported SQL Tuning Sets (STS) from the previous version. After changing the OPTIMIZER_FEATURE_ENABLE parameter to 10.2.0.4 and running the SQL Performance Analyzer, you observed performance regression for a few SQL statements.
What would you do with these SQL statements?
A. Set OPTIMIZER_USE_PLAN_BASELINES to FALSE to prevent the use of regressed plans.
B. Capture the plans from the previous version using STS and then load them into the stored outline.
C. Capture the plans from the previous version using STS and then load them into SQL Management Base (SMB).
D. Set OPTIMIZER_CAPTURE_SQL_PLAN_BASELINES to FALSE to prevent the plans from being loaded to the SQL plan baseline.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 56
You are managing Oracle Database 11 g with an ASM storage with high redundancy. The following
command was issued to drop the disks from the dga disk group after five hours:
ALTER DISKGROUP dga OFFLINE DISKS IN FAILGROUP f2 DROP AFTER 5H; Which statement is true
in this scenario?

A. It starts the ASM fast mirror resync.
B. It drops all disk paths from the dga disk group.
C. All the disks in the dga disk group would be OFFLINE and the DISK_REPAIR_TIME disk attribute would be set to 5 hours.
D. All the disks in the dga disk group in failure group f2 would be OFFLINE and the DISK_REPAIR_TIME disk attribute would be set to 5 hours.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 57
View the Exhibit to observe the error.

You receive this error regularly and have to shut down the database instance to overcome the error. What can the solution be to reduce the chance of this error in future, when implemented?
A. locking the SGA in memory
B. automatic memory management
C. increasing the value of SGA_MAX_SIZE
D. setting the PRE_PAGE_SGA parameter to TRUE

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 58
Which three statements are true regarding the functioning of the Autotask Background Process (ABP)? (Choose three.)
A. It translates tasks into jobs for execution by the scheduler
B. It creates jobs without considering the priorities associated with them.
C. It determines the list of jobs that must be created for each maintenance window.
D. It is spawned by the MMON background process at the start of the maintenance window.
E. It maintains a repository in the SYSTEM tablespace to store the history of the execution of all tasks.

Correct Answer: ACD QUESTION 59
You executed the following commands in an RMAN session for your database instance that has failures:
RMAN> LIST FAILURE;
After some time, you executed the following command in the same session:

RMAN> ADVISE FAILURE;

But there are new failures recorded in the Automatic Diagnostic Repository (ADR) after the execution of
the last LIST FAILURE command. Which statement is true for the above ADVISE FAILURE command in
this scenario?

A. It produces a warning for new failures before advising for CRITICAL and HIGH failures.
B. It ignores new failures and considers the failures listed in the last LIST FAILURE command only.
C. It produces an error with recommendation to run the LIST FAILURE command before the ADVISE FAILURE command.
D. It produces advice only for new failures and the failures listed in the last LIST FAILURE command are ignored.

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 60
View the Exhibit to examine the output for the V$DIAG_INFO view.

Which statements are true regarding the location of diagnostic traces? (Choose all that apply.)
A. The path to the location of the background as well as the foreground process trace files is /u01/oracle/diag/rdbms/orclbi/orclbi/trace.
B. The location of the text alert log file is /u01/oracle/diag/rdbms/orclbi/orclbi/alert.
C. The location of the trace file for the current session is/u01/oracle/diag/rdbms/orclbi/orclbi/trace.
D. The location of the XML-formatted version of the alert log is /u01/oracle/diag/rdbms/orclbi/orclbi/alert.

Correct Answer: ACD QUESTION 61
Evaluate the following command:
SQL>ALTER SYSTEM SET db_securefile = ‘IGNORE1;

What is the impact of this setting on the usage of Secure Files?
A. It forces Basic Files to be created even if the SECUREFILE option is specified to create the LOB.
B. It forces Secure Files to be created even if the BASICFILE option is specified to create the LOB.
C. It does not allow the creation of Secure Files and generates an error if the SECUREFILE option is specified to create the LOB.
D. It ignores the SECUREFILE option only if a Manual Segment Space Management tablespace is used and creates a Basic File.

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 62
You are managing an Oracle Database 11g ASM instance with a disk group dg01 having three disks. One of the disks in the disk group becomes unavailable because of power failure. You issued the following command to change the DISK_REPAIR_TIME attribute from 3.6 hours to 5 hours:
ALTER DISKGROUP dg01 SET ATTRIBUTE ‘disk_repair_time’ = ‘5h’;
To which disks in the disk group will the new value be applicable?
A. all disks in the disk group
B. all disks that are currently in OFFLINE mode
C. all disks that are not currently in OFFLINE mode
D. all disks in the disk group only if all of them are ONLINE

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 63
You issued the following RMAN command to back up the database: RMAN> RUN{ ALLOCATE CHANNEL c1 DEVICE TYPE Sbt BACKUP DATABASE TAG quarterly KEEP FOREVER RESTORE POINT FY06Q4;}
Which two statements are true regarding the backup performed? (Choose two.)
A. Archived redo log files are backed up along with data files
B. Only data files are backed up and a restore point named FY06Q4 is created.
C. Archived log files are backed up along with data files, and the archived log files are deleted.
D. The command creates a restore point named FY06Q4 to match the SCN at which this backup is consistent.
Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 64
View the Exhibit to examine a portion of the output from the VALIDATE DATABASE command.
Which statement is true about the block corruption detected by the command?
A. No action is taken except the output in the Exhibit.
B. The corruption is repaired by the command implicitly.
C. The failure is logged into the Automatic Diagnostic Repository (ADR).
D. The ADVISE FAILURE command is automatically called to display the repair script.

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 65
Which two kinds of failures make the Data Recovery Advisor (DRA) generate a manual checklist? (Choose two.)
A. failures because a data file is renamed by error
B. failures when no standby database is configured
C. failures that require no archive logs to be applied for recovery
D. failures due to loss of connectivity-for example, an unplugged disk cable

Correct Answer: AD QUESTION 66
Which two statements are true regarding the starting of the database instance using the following command? (Choose two.)
SQL>STARTUP UPGRADE A. It enables all system triggers.
B. It allows only SYSDBA connections.
C. It ensures that all job queues remain active during the upgrade process.
D. It sets system initialization parameters to specific values that are required to enable database upgrade scripts to be run.

Correct Answer: BD

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