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QUESTION 52
Examine the output of the following query:
SQL> SELECT c.name,a.addr,a.gets,a.misses,a.sleeps,
2 a.immediate_gets,a.immediate_misses,b.pid
3 FROM v$latch a, v$latchholder b, v$latchname c
4 WHERE a.addr = b.laddr(+) and a.latch# = c.latch#
5 AND c.name LIKE ‘&latch_name%’ ORDER BY a.latch#;
LATCH NAME ADDR GETS MISSES SLEEPS IMMEDIATE_GETS IMMEDIATE_MISSES ———— ——– ——– ——- —— ————– —————- shared pool
20016544 8520540 14112 3137 0 0
Which two conclusions can you draw from this? (Choose two.)

A. The latch was requested in no wait mode.
B. The latch was requested in willing-to-wait mode.
C. The shared pool operations to allocate and free memory in it caused the misses.
D. Automatic Memory Management is not enabled because the IMMEDIATE_GETS and IMMEDIATE_MISSES columns have zero in them.

Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 53
Examine the output of the query given below: SQL> SELECT mutex_type, location, sum(gets), sum(sleeps) FROM v$mutex_sleep_history GROUP BY mutex_type, location; MUTEX_TYPE LOCATION SUM(GETS) SUM(SLEEPS) ————– ————————————- ———- ———– Library Cache kglhdgn1 62 8669586 4538 Library Cache kglget2 2 2016618 24 Cursor Stat kkocsStoreBindAwareStats [KKSSTALOC8] 2975 1 Cursor Pin kkslce [KKSCHLPIN2] 666831 678 Library Cache kgllkdl1 85 3369224 110 Library Cache kglpnal1 90 224199 13 Library Cache kglic1 49 42068 10 Library Cache kglpin1 4 9620087 374 Library Cache kglpndl1 95 2065089 79 9 rows selected. Which statement is true?
A. Each row in the output represents a SQL statement that had to wait for mutexes.
B. The Cursor Stat and Cursor Pin SLEEPS indicate that the CURSOR_SHARING parameter is set to EXACT.
C. The GETS column shows the number of times a mutex/location was requested by the requesting session while being held by the blocking session.
D. The sum of numbers in the GETS and SLEEPS columns indicates the number of times a mutex/location was requested by the requesting session while being held by the blocking session.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 54
Examine the query output shown below:
SQL> SELECT sum(pins), sum(reloads), sum(reloads)/sum(pins) FROM v$librarycache;
SUM(PINS) SUM(RELOADS) SUM(RELOADS)/SUM(PINS)

16479 16000 0.9709327
Which statement describes the correct interpretation of the reloads-to-pin ratio and the action to be taken?

A. This ratio is reasonable. However, decrease the shared pool size for better performance.
B. This ratio is very high and the shared pool size should be increased immediately to reduce this ratio.
C. This ratio is reasonable. However, this needs monitoring. Increase the shared pool size only if the ratio crosses 1.
D. This ratio is reasonable. However, this needs monitoring. Increase the shared pool size only if the ratio falls below 0.1.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 55
You work as a DBA for a company and manage an online transaction processing (OLTP) system. You received complaints about the performance degradation of SQL statements executed by the application that uses this database.View the Exhibit and examine the output of the queries executed to investigate the performance issues.Which two actions can improve performance? (Choose two.)

A. increasing the size of the shared pool
B. setting the CURSOR_SHARING parameter to EXACT
C. decreasing the value set for the OPEN_CURSORS parameter
D. replacing literals with bind variables in SQL statements with the PLAN_HASH_VALUE 1337874392
E. replacing literals with bind variables in SQL statements with the PLAN_HASH_VALUE 1445457117

Correct Answer: AE
QUESTION 56
You work as a consultant DBA for various clients. A performance issue in one of the online transaction processing (OLTP) systems is reported to you and you received the Automatic Workload Repository (AWR) report generated in the database. The main sections of the AWR report are shown in the Exhibits. View the Exhibit named DBTIME and note % DB Time.

View the Exhibit named TIMEMODEL and note what has contributed to % DB Time. View the Exhibit named EFFICIENCY and examine the various percentages shown.
Identify the option that has the correct answers for the questions given below:
1) Which factor indicates the main problem?
2) What is the main problem?
3) What solution would you recommend?

A. 1) The Exhibit DBTIME shows that the DB CPU event consumed very high % DB Time. 2) The CPU is very slow. 3) Increase the number of processors.
B. 1) hard parse elapsed time has the majority time in parse time elapsed, which is shown in the TIMEMODEL Exhibit. 2) This is due to inadequate Database Buffer Cache. 3) Increase the size of database buffer cache.
C. 1) sql execute elapsed time and parse time elapsed are consuming very high % DB Time in the TIMEMODEL Exhibit. 2) There are too many soft parses. 3) Investigate the HOLD_CURSOR parameter setting in the application and set it appropriately.
D. 1) % Non-Parse CPU is low and Soft Parse % is also low in the EFFICIENCY Exhibit. This shows that very few statements are found in the cache. 2) There are too many hard parses. 3) Investigate the CURSOR_SHARING parameter setting and set it appropriately.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 57
You work as a consultant DBA for various clients. A performance issue in one of the online transaction processing (OLTP) systems is reported to you and you received the Automatic Workload Repository (AWR) report generated in the database. The main sections of the AWR report is shown in the Exhibits. View the Exhibit named DBTIME and note % DB Time.

View the Exhibit named TIMEMODEL and note what has contributed to % DB Time. View the Exhibit named EFFICIENCY and examine the various percentages shown.
Which option describes the correct understanding of the main problem?
A. The Exhibit DBTIME shows that the DB CPU event consumed very high % DB Time, which indicates that the CPU is very slow.
B. sql execute elapsed time and parse time elapsed are consuming very high % DB Time in the TIMEMODEL Exhibit. This indicates too many soft parses.
C. hard parse elapsed time has the majority time in parse time elapsed, which is shown in the TIMEMODEL Exhibit. This indicates inadequate database buffer cache.
D. % Non-Parse CPU: and Soft Parse %: are low in the EFFICIENCY Exhibit, which shows that very few statements are found in the cache. This indicates that there were too many hard parses.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 58
You work as a DBA for a company and you have the responsibility of managing one of its online transaction processing (OLTP) systems. The database
encountered performance-related problems and you generated an Automatic Workload Repository (AWR) report to investigate it further.
View the Exhibits and examine the AWR report.
Which is the appropriate solution to the problem in this database?
A. increasing the size of the shared pool
B. adding one more CPU to the system
C. setting the CURSOR_SHARING parameter to EXACT
D. configuring Java pool because it is not configured

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 59
You work on an online transaction processing (OLTP) database in which the SALES table has 10,000 rows but only four distinct products are sold. View the Exhibit named HIST to check the distribution of values in the table and the histograms on the table.

View the Exhibits named QUERY-1 and QUERY-2 that show details in the V$SQL view for the queries executed on the SALES table.

You check the plan table and notice that both the queries that executed on the SALES table used index range scan. The second query retrieved most of the rows in the table but used index range scan.

Why would the second query use the same plan?
A. because the plan was bind aware
B. because the bind peeking never happened
C. because the OPEN_CURSORS parameter is set to a very low value
D. because the optimizer did not consider selectivity due to the use of bind variables

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 60
You work on an online transaction processing (OLTP) database in which the SALES table has 10,000 rows but only four distinct products are sold. View the Exhibit named HIST to check data distribution in the table and the histograms on the table.

View the Exhibit named QUERY-1 that shows details in the V$SQL view for the query executed on the SALES table having product id 1.

Further, you query the SALES table thrice more in the following order:

query rows having product ID 4


query rows having product ID 2


query rows having product ID 4
View the Exhibit named QUERY-n to see the details about these queries.
What do you infer from this?
A. The second plan was created because the first plan was aged out.
B. The CURSOR_SHARING parameter value was changed to EXACT after the second query was executed.
C. The third plan was created because the first plan was aged out and the second plan had different selectivity.
D. The first two executions used the same plan because at parse time the optimizer did not consider selectivity as the cursor was not yet considered bind-aware.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 61
You are working for a company that uses huge applications to manage its customer details. During your regular performance checks, you executed the following query: SQL> show parameter shared_pool_reserved_size NAME TYPE VALUE —————————— ——————— —————– shared_pool_reserved_size big integer 6920601 SQL> SELECT free_space, used_space, request_misses, request_failures from V$SHARED_POOL_RESERVED; FREE_SPACE USED_SPACE REQUEST_MISSES REQUEST_FAILURES ———- ———- ————– —————- 6469776 555528 0 113 You observed that REQUEST_FAILURES is 113 but not increasing, and also that REQUEST_MISSES is not increasing. What would you interpret from this?
A. The reserved pool is very large. Consider reducing the size of the shared pool.
B. The reserved pool is large and has free space to satisfy requests. Consider reducing the size of the reserved pool.
C. The reserved pool is very small and is not finding enough memory to satisfy requests. Increase the size of the shared pool.
D. The reserved pool is very small and is not finding enough memory to satisfy requests. Increase the size of the reserved pool.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 62
You work for a company as a DBA. The company has an application to manage the details of its business and customer base. However, application users complain that updating the SALES record takes more time than it used to earlier. On investigation, you notice that the application performance degrades when a call is made to the UPDATE_INV procedure. Further, you execute the following query to investigate: SQL> SELECT name, type, sharable_mem, kept 2 FROM v$db_object_cache 3 WHERE sharable_mem > 4000 4 AND EXECUTIONS > 5 5 AND (type=’FUNCTION’ OR type=’PROCEDURE’) 6 / NAME TYPE SHARABLE_MEM KEPT ——————- ————– ————— ———– GETEMKEY FUNCTION 13695 YES UPDATE_INV PROCEDURE 14766 NO SETEMUSERCONTEXT PROCEDURE 13703 YES DECRYPT FUNCTION 17790 YES UPDATE_DEPT PROCEDURE 18765 NO What would you do to improve the performance?
A. Enable the result cache if not already enabled.
B. Flush the shared pool to make space for this procedure.
C. Keep the UPDATE_INV procedure by using the DBMS_SHARED_POOL.KEEP procedure.
D. Increase the size of the keep buffer pool to accommodate the UPDATE_INV procedure.
E. Ask the developers to modify and use literals instead of bind variables in the UPDATE_INV procedure.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 63
You work for a small manufacturing company as a DBA. The company has various applications to manage the details of its business and customer base. The company has only one sales outlet where the operator updates the SALES table in the sales application with the details when a product is sold. The company has many other applications for various other businesses that use the same database. The sales operator, while generating a report, noticed that there are some gaps generated in the serial number in the SLNO column during peak hours of business. On investigating, you find that the SLNO column in the SALES table uses the SLNSEQ sequence to generate the serial numbers when a record is inserted. During peak hours, you noticed the following: When the operator entered the sales details the last time, the sequence number was 1056300, but when you checked the sequence as follows, you found a gap of 100 numbers: SQL> SELECT sequence_name, last_number FROM user_sequences WHERE sequence_name=’SLNSEQ’; SEQUENCE_NAME LAST_NUMBER
SLNSEQ 1056400
You observed this behavior many times and only during peak hours.
What could be the problem and solution for this?

A. The reserved pool is not configured. Configure the reserved pool.
B. The keep buffer pool is not configured. Configure the keep buffer pool.
C. The sequence was created with a CACHE of 100 numbers. Re-create the sequence with a higher CACHE number.
D. The sequence is aging out of the shared pool. Keep the sequence in the shared pool using the DBMS_SHARED_POOL.KEEP procedure.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 64
You work as a DBA for a company and as a performance improvement measure, you implemented the result cache in your database. Many users in the company
say that performance has improved on the queries they use, but some users complain that they have not got any performance benefit on the queries they use.
You checked all the queries they use and the following is one of them:
SQL> SELECT /*+ RESULT_CACHE */ slnoq.currval as “SLNO”, prod_id, pdname, 2 cust_name FROM sales WHERE sl_date < sysdate;
View the Exhibit and examine the testing performed to check this.
Why is the result cache not used? (Choose all that apply.)
A. because the query uses SYSDATE
B. because the query uses an alias for a column
C. because the query uses the SLNOQ.CURRVAL sequence
D. because the table might have an index on the SL_DATE column

Correct Answer: AC QUESTION 65
You work as a DBA for a company and as a performance improvement measure, you implemented the result cache in your database. View the Exhibit named SETTING and note the result cache settings.

Many users in the company state that performance has improved on the queries they use but some users complain that they have not got any performance benefit
on the queries they use. You checked all the queries they use and the following is one of them:
SQL> SELECT slnoq.currval as “SLNO”, prod_id, pdname, 2 cust_name FROM sales WHERE sl_date < sysdate;
View the Exhibit named TEST and examine the testing performed to check this.
Why is the result cache not used? (Choose all that apply.)
A. because the query uses SYSDATE
B. because the query uses an alias for a column
C. because the query uses the SLNOQ.CURRVAL sequence
D. because the CLIENT_RESULT_CACHE_SIZE parameter is set to 0

Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 66
In which case is the database buffer cache NOT used?
A. when physical I/Os are performed to read from data files
B. when the database writer process writes to the SYSTEM tablespace
C. when the server process writes sort data to the temporary tablespace
D. when the database writer process writes undo data to the undo tablespace

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 67
Which two statements are true about the database buffer cache? (Choose two.)
A. A buffer can be written to by many processes at the same time.
B. A buffer containing a block that is identical to the block on disk is called free buffer.
C. A buffer containing a block that is being accessed by a process is called dirty buffer.
D. A buffer available to be overwritten with a different database block at any time is called a dirty buffer.
E. A buffer can contain a different version of a block that is available in a different buffer of the same cache.

Correct Answer: BE
QUESTION 68
You work as a DBA and you have the responsibility of managing a large online transaction processing (OLTP) system. You used the following query during the
performance tuning activity:
SQL> SELECT (1-((phy.value-phyd.value) / (cur.value + con.value))) * 100 2 “Cache Hit ratio”
3 FROM v$sysstat cur, v$sysstat con, v$sysstat phy, v$sysstat phyd 4 WHERE cur.name = ‘db block gets’
5 AND con.name = ‘consistent gets’
6 AND phy.name = ‘physical reads’
7 AND phyd.name = ‘physical reads direct’;
Cache Hit Ratio

Which understanding of this ratio is correct?
A. 98.43% of times the requests have found free buffers.
B. 98.43% of the total number of requests used the buffer cache.
C. 98.43% of times the requests were satisfied by performing physical I/Os.
D. 98.43% of times the requests have found the required data blocks in the buffer cache.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 69
You work as a DBA and have the responsibility of managing a large online transaction processing (OLTP) system. You used the following query during the
performance tuning activity:
SQL> SELECT (1-((phy.value-phyd.value) / (cur.value + con.value))) * 100 2 “Cache Hit ratio”
3 FROM v$sysstat cur, v$sysstat con, v$sysstat phy, v$sysstat phyd 4 WHERE cur.name = ‘db block gets’
5 AND con.name = ‘consistent gets’
6 AND phy.name = ‘physical reads’
7 AND phyd.name = ‘physical reads direct’;
Cache Hit Ratio

What can you conclude based on this ratio?
A. The database performance is very good because of reduced logical I/Os.
B. The database performance cannot be determined based only on this ratio.
C. Good database performance is guaranteed because very few physical I/Os are performed.
D. The database performance is very good because most of the requested data blocks are found in the buffer cache.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 70
You work as a DBA and have the responsibility of managing a large online transaction processing (OLTP) system. You used three queries to check the database performance as shown in the Exhibit.View the Exhibit and analyze the output.

What conclusion can you draw from this?
A. There are many physical I/Os happening.
B. There are many full table scans happening.
C. The data blocks are aging out of the buffer cache very fast.
D. There are many cursors trying to access the same data blocks.
E. The DBWn processes are not freeing sufficient buffers to meet the demand.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 71
Examine the following information from the AWR report: Top 5 Timed Events ~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~ % Total Event Waits Time (s) Call Time ————————————– ———— ———– ——— CPU time 559 88.80 log file parallel write 2,181 28 4.42 SQL*Net more data from client 516,611 27 4.24 db file parallel write 13,383 13 2.04 db file sequential read 563 2 .27 Which could cause waits on the db file sequential read event?
A. too many full table scans
B. too large a database buffer cache
C. too many waits occurring while reading multiple blocks synchronously
D. too many index range scans occurring which refers to blocks not in the database buffer cache

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 72

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QUESTION 21
You have been asked by the HR Manager to define Oracle Alert to show all employees terminated in the
past six months.
Identify three pieces of information that is required to define this Alert. (Choose three.)

A. actions that you want Alert to perform
B. frequency with which you want to run this Alert
C. a SQL statement that retrieves terminated employees
D. name of the concurrent program to be run after Alert runs
E. database table name, which stores employee Information to specify In the Event Details section

Correct Answer: ABC
QUESTION 22
When a quotation is due to expire within the number of days you specified, then you receive the following message in the Notifications Summary window: Quotations active or approaching expiration: [number]. Where is this [number] set up in the system?
A. in the Quote Header – Warning Delay field
B. in the Systems Profile Options – PO: Quote Warning Delay
C. in Purchasing Options on the ‘Default’ Tab – Quote Warning Delay field
D. Lookup Code, which is an (LOV) list of Values, in the Quote Header – Warning Delay field

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 23
Select three true statements regarding the Workflow Document Creation prerequisite (PO Create Documents workflow). (Choose three.)
A. Catalog quote must not be expired, but may be inactive.
B. Supplier and supplier site are required on the requisition related to a contract purchase order.
C. If a system Item is not associated with the requisition line, a supplier item number is required.
D. Sourcing rules are required If the requisition originates in Oracle Purchasing or {Procurement.
E. No source document is required for the PO Create Documents workflow to create a release or purchase order.
F. The only time an approved supplier list is required is if your source document is a blanket purchase agreement and you are using a system item.

Correct Answer: BCF
QUESTION 24
Consider the following setups:
1) Purchasing System Option enforce Full Lot Quantity * Mandatory
2) Rounding Factor at the item level = 75%
3) Unit of Issue at the item level = Dozen
Select two statements that are true. (Choose two.)

A. If the user enters 6 each on an internal requisition, the quantity will be rounded to 0,
B. If the user enters 6 each on a purchase requisition, the quantity will be rounded to 0,
C. If the user enters 11 each on an internal requisition, the quantity will be rounded to 12 each,
D. If the user enters 11 each on a purchase requisition, the quantity will be rounded to 12 each,
E. An advisory message suggesting rounding and a suggested rounding quantity are displayed, but you can override this.

Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 25
Requisition Import groups all requisitions with the same group code under the same requisition header. If
no group code is specified, Requisition Import groups requisitions according to five types of groups that
can be optionally passed to the Requisition Import process. Identify them.
(Choose five.)

A. Group by Item.
B. Group by price.
C. Group by buyer.
D. Group by UOM.
E. Group by location.
F. Group by supplier.
G. Group by description.
H. Group all requisition lines under one requisition header

Correct Answer: ACEFH
QUESTION 26
While defining Approval Groups, which three objects can you define authorization rules for? (Choose three.)
A. Buyer
B. Location
C. Commodity
D. Item Category
E. Account Range
F. Document Amount
Correct Answer: BDE
QUESTION 27
Which two statements are true regarding approval workflows In Purchasing? (Choose two.)
A. You can limit approval levels in an Approval Group by Item Category.
B. Approval routing can cut across legal entities within a business group.
C. A Purchase Requisition and a Standard Purchase Order cannot have different approval levels.
D. The Hierarchy Forward Method routes the document to the first approver in the hierarchy who has the required approval limits for that document.
E. During Position Hierarchy setup, a constraint that must be considered is that the Subordinate must not be the manager of the Position Holder in their regular job roles.
Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 28
Which three are true about the Evaluated Receipt Settlement (ERS) proems? (Choose three)
A. Invoice is always created for the supplier site.
B. Invoice is always created In unapproved status,
C. Invoice currency is always defaulted from the purchase order currency.
D. Payment currency is always defaulted from the purchase order currency, E. Payment terms are always defaulted from the purchase order payment terms.
F. Amount is always determined by multiplying the Quantity received by the purchase order item unit price.

Correct Answer: BCF
QUESTION 29
There are four tabbed regions In the Supplier Item Catalog window (Negotiated Sources, Prior Purchases, Sourcing Rules, and Requisition Templates), but function security can be used to determine whether a user will be able to see all of them. In release R12, where is the requisition setup option that determines which of the tabbed regions is the default?
A. in the Profile Options setup
B. in the Lookup Codes setup
C. in the Document Types setup
D. in the Purchasing Options setup
E. in the Expense Account Rules setup
F. in the Requisition Preferences setup

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 30
Price Tolerance (%) on the Purchasing Options Control section refers to the percentage by which ___________.
A. the purchase order line price cannot exceed a price quote
B. the invoice price cannot exceed the purchase order line price
C. the purchase order line price cannot exceed the blanket amount
D. the supplier catalog price cannot exceed purchase order line price
E. the purchase order line price cannot exceed the requisition line price

Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 31
Select three statements that are true regarding the clearing account. (Choose three.)
A. An asset clearing account can also be used as a project clearing account.
B. You can have a maximum of one asset clearing account per asset category.
C. For each payables document you create, you can have a separate cash clearing account.
D. You can use Cash in Transit report in cash management only if cash clearing account and cash account are separate.
E. You use a separate cash clearing account and cash account to have visibility of the Cash in Transit on the balance sheet.

Correct Answer: BCE
QUESTION 32
Your client has the following requirements for electronic delivery of purchasing documents to indirect spend vendors:
1.
No third-party software should be needed; the built-in Oracle functionality should be used.

2.
No special supplier set up should be required; the supplier should need minimal resources to participate.

3.
No requirement for audit trail or confirmation. The best method within standard functionality is _____.
A. EDI
B. XML
C. Email
D. Facsimile
E. Direct interface

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 33
A Blanket Purchase Agreement Is created with the following cumulative price break:
Quantity > 0: Unit Price = $5 Quantity > 20: Unit Price = $4
Single line, single distribution releases are created as follows:
Release# 1 with quantity 15 Release# 2 with quantity 10
What are the unit price values on the releases?
A. Release1 $5, Release2 $5
B. Release1 $4, Release2 $4
C. Release1 $5, Release2 $4
D. It depends on the price tolerance for the line.
E. Release1 $5, Release2 $4 for a quantity of 5 and $5 for a quantity of 5

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 34
You match an unordered receipt to_____.
A. a purchase order shipment from any organization
B. a Return Material Authorization (RMA. from any organization
C. a purchase order shipment from the same organization for any supplier
D. a purchase release shipment from the same organization for the same supplier
E. a finally closed purchase order shipment from the same organization for the same supplier

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 35
Which four sources of information default records Into the Supplier Header? (Choose four.)
A. Invoice Options
B. System Options
C. Financial Options
D. Payables Options
E. Receiving Options
F. Purchasing Options
G. Approved supplier list

Correct Answer: CDEF
QUESTION 36
While implementing Oracle Payables, Oracle Purchasing, and Oracle General Ledger at GLO Ltd., you are informed by the accountant that the AP Clearing Account balance Is Increasing daily. To solve this issue, what would you check in the accounting process?
A. whether journals are posted regularly
B. whether suppliers are sequentially numbered
C. whether the month-end accrual process is run
D. whether invoices are matched to purchase orders and receipts
E. whether Oracle Payables transactions are reconciled with Oracle General Ledger

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 37
Consider the following scenario for inventory item A: 1) Standard Cost $10 Purchase Order Line Price: $12, Purchase Order Line Quantity: 10 2) Receipt Routing: Direct Delivery You created a receipt of 8 units for item A. Which option correctly describes the effect on different accounts?
A. Debit Material Account $80; Credit Inventory AP Accrual Account $96; Debit Invoice Price Variance Account $16; No effect on Purchase Price Variance Account
B. Debit Material Account $80; Credit Inventory AP Accrual Account $96; No effect on Invoice Price Variance Account; Debit Purchase Price Variance Account $16
C. Debit Material Account $80; Credit Inventory AP Accrual Account $80; No effect on Invoice Price Variance Account; Debit Purchase Price Variance Account $16
D. Credit Material Account $80; Debit Inventory AP Accrual Account $96; No effect on Invoice Price Variance Account; Credit Purchase Price Variance Account $16
E. Debit Material Account $96; Credit Inventory AP Accrual Account $96; No effect on Invoice Price Variance Account; Credit Purchase Price Variance Account $16

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 38
Which three are valid setup options for purchasing document types? (Choose three.)
A. Archive On
B. Forward Method
C. Default Hierarchy
D. Security Access Level
E. Can Change Hierarchy
F. Owner Cannot Approve
Correct Answer: ABC
QUESTION 39
Consider the following scenario for Inventory Item B.
1) Standard Cost: $10 2) Purchase Order Line Quantity: 100; Purchase Order Line Price: $12 3) Match Approval Level: Three-Way Matching; Receipt Routing: Direct Delivery 4) Received Quantity: 40 5) Invoice Price: $14; Invoiced Quantity: 20
Which option describes the effect on different accounts correctly?
A. Debit Material Account $480; Credit Inventory AP Accrual Account $240; Debit Invoice Price Variance Account $40; Debit Purchase Price Variance Account $0; Credit AP Liability Account $280
B. Debit Material Account $400; Credit Inventory AP Accrual Account $240; Debit Invoice Price Variance Account $40; Debit Purchase Price Variance Account $80; Credit AP Liability Account $280
C. Debit Material Account $400 ; Credit Inventory AP Accrual Account $240; Debit Invoice Price Variance Account $80; Debit Purchase price Variance Account $40; Credit AP Liability Account $280
D. Credit Material Account $400; Debit Inventory AP Accrual Account $240; Credit Invoice Price Variance Account $40; Credit Purchase Price Variance Account $80; Debit AP Liability Account $280
Correct Answer: B QUESTION 40
Identify four ways in which sourcing rules significantly improve efficiency of procurement processes. (Choose four.)
A. Allowing you to transfer from one supplier site to the other, if It is a global supplier.
B. Assigning sourcing rules at the item or item-organization level using an assignment set.
C. Giving you the ability to identify the priority to be given to the local sites of a global supplier.
D. Sourcing the highest percentage of an item from only those suppliers who ranked the highest.
E. Allowing you to identify the most efficient shipping method to be used for a specific sourcing rule,
F. Automatically allocating planned orders across different suppliers based on predetermined criteria such as rank and percentage.
G. Allowing the implementer to define a single sourcing rule for an item at the Item Master level, to cater to all inventory organizations.

Correct Answer: BCEF
QUESTION 41
Select three true statements about the default of sourcing Information for requisitions and purchase orders. (Choose three.)
A. The item price on a requisition can be defaulted from the Item attribute setup.
B. Buyer name cannot be defaulted onto a requisition, but you can assign notes to a buyer.
C. You can modify the last name of the requester defaulting from the Human Resources employee record.
D. You must use the Transfer From assignment on a sourcing rule for Item Information to default onto an Internal requisition.
E. When you assign a commodity to an approved supplier list, you do not need to assign the individual items in the commodity.
F. You can have the same item on a quotation and a blanket agreement but the supplier or supplier site must be different, so that It can default onto a requisition line.

Correct Answer: ADE
QUESTION 42
You receive a request to create a new menu. Instead of creating a new menu, you modify an existing menu and save It to a different User Menu Name. What happens after saving the menu with a different User Menu Name?
A. There will be two menus.
B. The original menu is disabled.
C. The new menu will not contain any functions.
D. The new menu will overwrite the original menu.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 43
A Global Single Instance (GS1) provides the global enterprise with a single, complete data model, Identify three features In Oracle Business Suite Release 12 that support a 6SL (Choose three.)
A. maintenance of third-party applications
B. automation of standardized documents and audit processes
C. decentralization of operations by regions, divisions, or processes
D. consolidation of data centers and lowering administrative overhead
E. capture of statutory and customary local requirements In the same database
Correct Answer: BDE
QUESTION 44
Identify two types of regions in Daily Business Intelligence. (Choose two.)
A. menu
B. table
C. folder
D. report
E. graph

Correct Answer: BE
QUESTION 45
A global company uses Oracle E-Business Suite Release 12 for Its operations In the U.S. and Canada. The company Is now adding Mexico to the Oracle E-Business Suite Release 12 Applications. As a system administrator, you need to set the MO: Operating Unit profile option for Mexico. Customer is not using Multi-Org Access Control.
You set the MO: Operating Unit profile option at the ____level.
A. Site
B. User
C. Application
D. Responsibility

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 46
Identify the sequence of steps to determine the Descriptive Flexfield name on a form in Oracle E- Business
Suite Release 12 with Diagnostics enabled.
1) Select Help > Diagnostics > Examine.
2) The username of the DFF appears in the Value field.
3) Select the DFF name from the list of values in the “Field” field.
4) Select the “$DESCRIPTIVE_FUEXFIELD$B value for the Block name.

A. 1, 2, 3, 4
B. 1 4, 3, 2
C. 1, 3, 4, 2
D. 4, 3, 1, 2
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 47
Which two parameters facilitate cross organization reports in a Multi-Org environment? (Choose two.)
A. Ledger
B. Legal Entity
C. Operating Unit
D. Reporting Level
E. Reporting Context

Correct Answer: DE
QUESTION 48
XYZ Corp. has operations In the U.S. and Canada. Within Canada, It has two separate Divisions due to Statutory requirements: one In Quebec and another In Ontario. How would you define the organization structure for XYZ Corp. from the Information given above?
A. two Ledgers, two Legal Entitles, and two Operating Units
B. two Ledgers, two Legal Entities, and three Operating Units
C. two Ledgers, three Legal Entities, and two Operating Units
D. two Ledgers, three Legal Entities, and three Operating Units
E. three Ledgers, three Legal Entities, and three Operating Units

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 49
Identify the four resources that Oracle Technology Network (OTM) provides. (Choose four.)
A. sample codes
B. Bug Database
C. technical articles
D. product downloads
E. product documentation
F. Applications Electronic Technical Reference Manuals (eTRM)

Correct Answer: ACDE
QUESTION 50
ABC Corp, has the following Organization Structure
1) Legal Entity: A 2) Operating Units: B end C 3) Balancing Entitles: 10. 20. and 30
Identify three correct statements regarding the Balancing Entity. (Choose three.)
A. Each Balancing Entity mutt balance within itself.
B. There can be multiple Balancing Entitles within an Operating Unit
C. Balancing Entity is the lowest postable unit in the Chart of Accounts.
D. Balancing Entitles can be automatically secured at the Legal Entity level.
E. Balancing Entities can be secured at the Operating Unit level through Security Rules

Correct Answer: ABE
QUESTION 51
Identify the two benefits of using Multi-Org Access Control. (Choose two.)
A. View asset information across multiple asset books
B. Restrict access to users based on their Organization assignment!
C. Submit and view data across different ledgers using a single responsibility.
D. Enter Payables Invoices for different Operating Units using a single responsibility.
E. View Consolidated requisitions across Operating Units using a single responsibility
Correct Answer: DE
QUESTION 52
Which two options would you use to restrict the functionality provided by a responsibility? (Choose two.)
A. creating an appropriate role
B. creating an appropriate group
C. constructing a new menu hierarchy
D. defining rules to exclude specific functions
Correct Answer: CD
QUESTION 53
A Ledger is a financial reporting entity. What is new in Oracle E-Business Suite Release 12 that facilitates generation of accounting entries?
A. Ledger
B. Chart of Accounts
C. Multi-Org Structure
D. Accounting Convention
E. Financial Accounting Calendar

Correct Answer: D

Free practice questions for Oracle 1Z0-520 exam.These questions are aimed at giving you an idea of the type of questions you can expect on the actual exam.You will get an idea of the level of knowledge each topic goes into but because these are simple web pages you will not see the interactive and performance based questions – those are available in the Oracle 1Z0-520.

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