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QUESTION 52
Examine the output of the following query:
SQL> SELECT c.name,a.addr,a.gets,a.misses,a.sleeps,
2 a.immediate_gets,a.immediate_misses,b.pid
3 FROM v$latch a, v$latchholder b, v$latchname c
4 WHERE a.addr = b.laddr(+) and a.latch# = c.latch#
5 AND c.name LIKE ‘&latch_name%’ ORDER BY a.latch#;
LATCH NAME ADDR GETS MISSES SLEEPS IMMEDIATE_GETS IMMEDIATE_MISSES ———— ——– ——– ——- —— ————– —————- shared pool
20016544 8520540 14112 3137 0 0
Which two conclusions can you draw from this? (Choose two.)

A. The latch was requested in no wait mode.
B. The latch was requested in willing-to-wait mode.
C. The shared pool operations to allocate and free memory in it caused the misses.
D. Automatic Memory Management is not enabled because the IMMEDIATE_GETS and IMMEDIATE_MISSES columns have zero in them.

Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 53
Examine the output of the query given below: SQL> SELECT mutex_type, location, sum(gets), sum(sleeps) FROM v$mutex_sleep_history GROUP BY mutex_type, location; MUTEX_TYPE LOCATION SUM(GETS) SUM(SLEEPS) ————– ————————————- ———- ———– Library Cache kglhdgn1 62 8669586 4538 Library Cache kglget2 2 2016618 24 Cursor Stat kkocsStoreBindAwareStats [KKSSTALOC8] 2975 1 Cursor Pin kkslce [KKSCHLPIN2] 666831 678 Library Cache kgllkdl1 85 3369224 110 Library Cache kglpnal1 90 224199 13 Library Cache kglic1 49 42068 10 Library Cache kglpin1 4 9620087 374 Library Cache kglpndl1 95 2065089 79 9 rows selected. Which statement is true?
A. Each row in the output represents a SQL statement that had to wait for mutexes.
B. The Cursor Stat and Cursor Pin SLEEPS indicate that the CURSOR_SHARING parameter is set to EXACT.
C. The GETS column shows the number of times a mutex/location was requested by the requesting session while being held by the blocking session.
D. The sum of numbers in the GETS and SLEEPS columns indicates the number of times a mutex/location was requested by the requesting session while being held by the blocking session.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 54
Examine the query output shown below:
SQL> SELECT sum(pins), sum(reloads), sum(reloads)/sum(pins) FROM v$librarycache;
SUM(PINS) SUM(RELOADS) SUM(RELOADS)/SUM(PINS)

16479 16000 0.9709327
Which statement describes the correct interpretation of the reloads-to-pin ratio and the action to be taken?

A. This ratio is reasonable. However, decrease the shared pool size for better performance.
B. This ratio is very high and the shared pool size should be increased immediately to reduce this ratio.
C. This ratio is reasonable. However, this needs monitoring. Increase the shared pool size only if the ratio crosses 1.
D. This ratio is reasonable. However, this needs monitoring. Increase the shared pool size only if the ratio falls below 0.1.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 55
You work as a DBA for a company and manage an online transaction processing (OLTP) system. You received complaints about the performance degradation of SQL statements executed by the application that uses this database.View the Exhibit and examine the output of the queries executed to investigate the performance issues.Which two actions can improve performance? (Choose two.)

A. increasing the size of the shared pool
B. setting the CURSOR_SHARING parameter to EXACT
C. decreasing the value set for the OPEN_CURSORS parameter
D. replacing literals with bind variables in SQL statements with the PLAN_HASH_VALUE 1337874392
E. replacing literals with bind variables in SQL statements with the PLAN_HASH_VALUE 1445457117

Correct Answer: AE
QUESTION 56
You work as a consultant DBA for various clients. A performance issue in one of the online transaction processing (OLTP) systems is reported to you and you received the Automatic Workload Repository (AWR) report generated in the database. The main sections of the AWR report are shown in the Exhibits. View the Exhibit named DBTIME and note % DB Time.

View the Exhibit named TIMEMODEL and note what has contributed to % DB Time. View the Exhibit named EFFICIENCY and examine the various percentages shown.
Identify the option that has the correct answers for the questions given below:
1) Which factor indicates the main problem?
2) What is the main problem?
3) What solution would you recommend?

A. 1) The Exhibit DBTIME shows that the DB CPU event consumed very high % DB Time. 2) The CPU is very slow. 3) Increase the number of processors.
B. 1) hard parse elapsed time has the majority time in parse time elapsed, which is shown in the TIMEMODEL Exhibit. 2) This is due to inadequate Database Buffer Cache. 3) Increase the size of database buffer cache.
C. 1) sql execute elapsed time and parse time elapsed are consuming very high % DB Time in the TIMEMODEL Exhibit. 2) There are too many soft parses. 3) Investigate the HOLD_CURSOR parameter setting in the application and set it appropriately.
D. 1) % Non-Parse CPU is low and Soft Parse % is also low in the EFFICIENCY Exhibit. This shows that very few statements are found in the cache. 2) There are too many hard parses. 3) Investigate the CURSOR_SHARING parameter setting and set it appropriately.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 57
You work as a consultant DBA for various clients. A performance issue in one of the online transaction processing (OLTP) systems is reported to you and you received the Automatic Workload Repository (AWR) report generated in the database. The main sections of the AWR report is shown in the Exhibits. View the Exhibit named DBTIME and note % DB Time.

View the Exhibit named TIMEMODEL and note what has contributed to % DB Time. View the Exhibit named EFFICIENCY and examine the various percentages shown.
Which option describes the correct understanding of the main problem?
A. The Exhibit DBTIME shows that the DB CPU event consumed very high % DB Time, which indicates that the CPU is very slow.
B. sql execute elapsed time and parse time elapsed are consuming very high % DB Time in the TIMEMODEL Exhibit. This indicates too many soft parses.
C. hard parse elapsed time has the majority time in parse time elapsed, which is shown in the TIMEMODEL Exhibit. This indicates inadequate database buffer cache.
D. % Non-Parse CPU: and Soft Parse %: are low in the EFFICIENCY Exhibit, which shows that very few statements are found in the cache. This indicates that there were too many hard parses.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 58
You work as a DBA for a company and you have the responsibility of managing one of its online transaction processing (OLTP) systems. The database
encountered performance-related problems and you generated an Automatic Workload Repository (AWR) report to investigate it further.
View the Exhibits and examine the AWR report.
Which is the appropriate solution to the problem in this database?
A. increasing the size of the shared pool
B. adding one more CPU to the system
C. setting the CURSOR_SHARING parameter to EXACT
D. configuring Java pool because it is not configured

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 59
You work on an online transaction processing (OLTP) database in which the SALES table has 10,000 rows but only four distinct products are sold. View the Exhibit named HIST to check the distribution of values in the table and the histograms on the table.

View the Exhibits named QUERY-1 and QUERY-2 that show details in the V$SQL view for the queries executed on the SALES table.

You check the plan table and notice that both the queries that executed on the SALES table used index range scan. The second query retrieved most of the rows in the table but used index range scan.

Why would the second query use the same plan?
A. because the plan was bind aware
B. because the bind peeking never happened
C. because the OPEN_CURSORS parameter is set to a very low value
D. because the optimizer did not consider selectivity due to the use of bind variables

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 60
You work on an online transaction processing (OLTP) database in which the SALES table has 10,000 rows but only four distinct products are sold. View the Exhibit named HIST to check data distribution in the table and the histograms on the table.

View the Exhibit named QUERY-1 that shows details in the V$SQL view for the query executed on the SALES table having product id 1.

Further, you query the SALES table thrice more in the following order:

query rows having product ID 4


query rows having product ID 2


query rows having product ID 4
View the Exhibit named QUERY-n to see the details about these queries.
What do you infer from this?
A. The second plan was created because the first plan was aged out.
B. The CURSOR_SHARING parameter value was changed to EXACT after the second query was executed.
C. The third plan was created because the first plan was aged out and the second plan had different selectivity.
D. The first two executions used the same plan because at parse time the optimizer did not consider selectivity as the cursor was not yet considered bind-aware.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 61
You are working for a company that uses huge applications to manage its customer details. During your regular performance checks, you executed the following query: SQL> show parameter shared_pool_reserved_size NAME TYPE VALUE —————————— ——————— —————– shared_pool_reserved_size big integer 6920601 SQL> SELECT free_space, used_space, request_misses, request_failures from V$SHARED_POOL_RESERVED; FREE_SPACE USED_SPACE REQUEST_MISSES REQUEST_FAILURES ———- ———- ————– —————- 6469776 555528 0 113 You observed that REQUEST_FAILURES is 113 but not increasing, and also that REQUEST_MISSES is not increasing. What would you interpret from this?
A. The reserved pool is very large. Consider reducing the size of the shared pool.
B. The reserved pool is large and has free space to satisfy requests. Consider reducing the size of the reserved pool.
C. The reserved pool is very small and is not finding enough memory to satisfy requests. Increase the size of the shared pool.
D. The reserved pool is very small and is not finding enough memory to satisfy requests. Increase the size of the reserved pool.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 62
You work for a company as a DBA. The company has an application to manage the details of its business and customer base. However, application users complain that updating the SALES record takes more time than it used to earlier. On investigation, you notice that the application performance degrades when a call is made to the UPDATE_INV procedure. Further, you execute the following query to investigate: SQL> SELECT name, type, sharable_mem, kept 2 FROM v$db_object_cache 3 WHERE sharable_mem > 4000 4 AND EXECUTIONS > 5 5 AND (type=’FUNCTION’ OR type=’PROCEDURE’) 6 / NAME TYPE SHARABLE_MEM KEPT ——————- ————– ————— ———– GETEMKEY FUNCTION 13695 YES UPDATE_INV PROCEDURE 14766 NO SETEMUSERCONTEXT PROCEDURE 13703 YES DECRYPT FUNCTION 17790 YES UPDATE_DEPT PROCEDURE 18765 NO What would you do to improve the performance?
A. Enable the result cache if not already enabled.
B. Flush the shared pool to make space for this procedure.
C. Keep the UPDATE_INV procedure by using the DBMS_SHARED_POOL.KEEP procedure.
D. Increase the size of the keep buffer pool to accommodate the UPDATE_INV procedure.
E. Ask the developers to modify and use literals instead of bind variables in the UPDATE_INV procedure.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 63
You work for a small manufacturing company as a DBA. The company has various applications to manage the details of its business and customer base. The company has only one sales outlet where the operator updates the SALES table in the sales application with the details when a product is sold. The company has many other applications for various other businesses that use the same database. The sales operator, while generating a report, noticed that there are some gaps generated in the serial number in the SLNO column during peak hours of business. On investigating, you find that the SLNO column in the SALES table uses the SLNSEQ sequence to generate the serial numbers when a record is inserted. During peak hours, you noticed the following: When the operator entered the sales details the last time, the sequence number was 1056300, but when you checked the sequence as follows, you found a gap of 100 numbers: SQL> SELECT sequence_name, last_number FROM user_sequences WHERE sequence_name=’SLNSEQ’; SEQUENCE_NAME LAST_NUMBER
SLNSEQ 1056400
You observed this behavior many times and only during peak hours.
What could be the problem and solution for this?

A. The reserved pool is not configured. Configure the reserved pool.
B. The keep buffer pool is not configured. Configure the keep buffer pool.
C. The sequence was created with a CACHE of 100 numbers. Re-create the sequence with a higher CACHE number.
D. The sequence is aging out of the shared pool. Keep the sequence in the shared pool using the DBMS_SHARED_POOL.KEEP procedure.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 64
You work as a DBA for a company and as a performance improvement measure, you implemented the result cache in your database. Many users in the company
say that performance has improved on the queries they use, but some users complain that they have not got any performance benefit on the queries they use.
You checked all the queries they use and the following is one of them:
SQL> SELECT /*+ RESULT_CACHE */ slnoq.currval as “SLNO”, prod_id, pdname, 2 cust_name FROM sales WHERE sl_date < sysdate;
View the Exhibit and examine the testing performed to check this.
Why is the result cache not used? (Choose all that apply.)
A. because the query uses SYSDATE
B. because the query uses an alias for a column
C. because the query uses the SLNOQ.CURRVAL sequence
D. because the table might have an index on the SL_DATE column

Correct Answer: AC QUESTION 65
You work as a DBA for a company and as a performance improvement measure, you implemented the result cache in your database. View the Exhibit named SETTING and note the result cache settings.

Many users in the company state that performance has improved on the queries they use but some users complain that they have not got any performance benefit
on the queries they use. You checked all the queries they use and the following is one of them:
SQL> SELECT slnoq.currval as “SLNO”, prod_id, pdname, 2 cust_name FROM sales WHERE sl_date < sysdate;
View the Exhibit named TEST and examine the testing performed to check this.
Why is the result cache not used? (Choose all that apply.)
A. because the query uses SYSDATE
B. because the query uses an alias for a column
C. because the query uses the SLNOQ.CURRVAL sequence
D. because the CLIENT_RESULT_CACHE_SIZE parameter is set to 0

Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 66
In which case is the database buffer cache NOT used?
A. when physical I/Os are performed to read from data files
B. when the database writer process writes to the SYSTEM tablespace
C. when the server process writes sort data to the temporary tablespace
D. when the database writer process writes undo data to the undo tablespace

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 67
Which two statements are true about the database buffer cache? (Choose two.)
A. A buffer can be written to by many processes at the same time.
B. A buffer containing a block that is identical to the block on disk is called free buffer.
C. A buffer containing a block that is being accessed by a process is called dirty buffer.
D. A buffer available to be overwritten with a different database block at any time is called a dirty buffer.
E. A buffer can contain a different version of a block that is available in a different buffer of the same cache.

Correct Answer: BE
QUESTION 68
You work as a DBA and you have the responsibility of managing a large online transaction processing (OLTP) system. You used the following query during the
performance tuning activity:
SQL> SELECT (1-((phy.value-phyd.value) / (cur.value + con.value))) * 100 2 “Cache Hit ratio”
3 FROM v$sysstat cur, v$sysstat con, v$sysstat phy, v$sysstat phyd 4 WHERE cur.name = ‘db block gets’
5 AND con.name = ‘consistent gets’
6 AND phy.name = ‘physical reads’
7 AND phyd.name = ‘physical reads direct’;
Cache Hit Ratio

Which understanding of this ratio is correct?
A. 98.43% of times the requests have found free buffers.
B. 98.43% of the total number of requests used the buffer cache.
C. 98.43% of times the requests were satisfied by performing physical I/Os.
D. 98.43% of times the requests have found the required data blocks in the buffer cache.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 69
You work as a DBA and have the responsibility of managing a large online transaction processing (OLTP) system. You used the following query during the
performance tuning activity:
SQL> SELECT (1-((phy.value-phyd.value) / (cur.value + con.value))) * 100 2 “Cache Hit ratio”
3 FROM v$sysstat cur, v$sysstat con, v$sysstat phy, v$sysstat phyd 4 WHERE cur.name = ‘db block gets’
5 AND con.name = ‘consistent gets’
6 AND phy.name = ‘physical reads’
7 AND phyd.name = ‘physical reads direct’;
Cache Hit Ratio

What can you conclude based on this ratio?
A. The database performance is very good because of reduced logical I/Os.
B. The database performance cannot be determined based only on this ratio.
C. Good database performance is guaranteed because very few physical I/Os are performed.
D. The database performance is very good because most of the requested data blocks are found in the buffer cache.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 70
You work as a DBA and have the responsibility of managing a large online transaction processing (OLTP) system. You used three queries to check the database performance as shown in the Exhibit.View the Exhibit and analyze the output.

What conclusion can you draw from this?
A. There are many physical I/Os happening.
B. There are many full table scans happening.
C. The data blocks are aging out of the buffer cache very fast.
D. There are many cursors trying to access the same data blocks.
E. The DBWn processes are not freeing sufficient buffers to meet the demand.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 71
Examine the following information from the AWR report: Top 5 Timed Events ~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~ % Total Event Waits Time (s) Call Time ————————————– ———— ———– ——— CPU time 559 88.80 log file parallel write 2,181 28 4.42 SQL*Net more data from client 516,611 27 4.24 db file parallel write 13,383 13 2.04 db file sequential read 563 2 .27 Which could cause waits on the db file sequential read event?
A. too many full table scans
B. too large a database buffer cache
C. too many waits occurring while reading multiple blocks synchronously
D. too many index range scans occurring which refers to blocks not in the database buffer cache

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 72

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QUESTION 21
You have been asked by the HR Manager to define Oracle Alert to show all employees terminated in the
past six months.
Identify three pieces of information that is required to define this Alert. (Choose three.)

A. actions that you want Alert to perform
B. frequency with which you want to run this Alert
C. a SQL statement that retrieves terminated employees
D. name of the concurrent program to be run after Alert runs
E. database table name, which stores employee Information to specify In the Event Details section

Correct Answer: ABC
QUESTION 22
When a quotation is due to expire within the number of days you specified, then you receive the following message in the Notifications Summary window: Quotations active or approaching expiration: [number]. Where is this [number] set up in the system?
A. in the Quote Header – Warning Delay field
B. in the Systems Profile Options – PO: Quote Warning Delay
C. in Purchasing Options on the ‘Default’ Tab – Quote Warning Delay field
D. Lookup Code, which is an (LOV) list of Values, in the Quote Header – Warning Delay field

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 23
Select three true statements regarding the Workflow Document Creation prerequisite (PO Create Documents workflow). (Choose three.)
A. Catalog quote must not be expired, but may be inactive.
B. Supplier and supplier site are required on the requisition related to a contract purchase order.
C. If a system Item is not associated with the requisition line, a supplier item number is required.
D. Sourcing rules are required If the requisition originates in Oracle Purchasing or {Procurement.
E. No source document is required for the PO Create Documents workflow to create a release or purchase order.
F. The only time an approved supplier list is required is if your source document is a blanket purchase agreement and you are using a system item.

Correct Answer: BCF
QUESTION 24
Consider the following setups:
1) Purchasing System Option enforce Full Lot Quantity * Mandatory
2) Rounding Factor at the item level = 75%
3) Unit of Issue at the item level = Dozen
Select two statements that are true. (Choose two.)

A. If the user enters 6 each on an internal requisition, the quantity will be rounded to 0,
B. If the user enters 6 each on a purchase requisition, the quantity will be rounded to 0,
C. If the user enters 11 each on an internal requisition, the quantity will be rounded to 12 each,
D. If the user enters 11 each on a purchase requisition, the quantity will be rounded to 12 each,
E. An advisory message suggesting rounding and a suggested rounding quantity are displayed, but you can override this.

Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 25
Requisition Import groups all requisitions with the same group code under the same requisition header. If
no group code is specified, Requisition Import groups requisitions according to five types of groups that
can be optionally passed to the Requisition Import process. Identify them.
(Choose five.)

A. Group by Item.
B. Group by price.
C. Group by buyer.
D. Group by UOM.
E. Group by location.
F. Group by supplier.
G. Group by description.
H. Group all requisition lines under one requisition header

Correct Answer: ACEFH
QUESTION 26
While defining Approval Groups, which three objects can you define authorization rules for? (Choose three.)
A. Buyer
B. Location
C. Commodity
D. Item Category
E. Account Range
F. Document Amount
Correct Answer: BDE
QUESTION 27
Which two statements are true regarding approval workflows In Purchasing? (Choose two.)
A. You can limit approval levels in an Approval Group by Item Category.
B. Approval routing can cut across legal entities within a business group.
C. A Purchase Requisition and a Standard Purchase Order cannot have different approval levels.
D. The Hierarchy Forward Method routes the document to the first approver in the hierarchy who has the required approval limits for that document.
E. During Position Hierarchy setup, a constraint that must be considered is that the Subordinate must not be the manager of the Position Holder in their regular job roles.
Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 28
Which three are true about the Evaluated Receipt Settlement (ERS) proems? (Choose three)
A. Invoice is always created for the supplier site.
B. Invoice is always created In unapproved status,
C. Invoice currency is always defaulted from the purchase order currency.
D. Payment currency is always defaulted from the purchase order currency, E. Payment terms are always defaulted from the purchase order payment terms.
F. Amount is always determined by multiplying the Quantity received by the purchase order item unit price.

Correct Answer: BCF
QUESTION 29
There are four tabbed regions In the Supplier Item Catalog window (Negotiated Sources, Prior Purchases, Sourcing Rules, and Requisition Templates), but function security can be used to determine whether a user will be able to see all of them. In release R12, where is the requisition setup option that determines which of the tabbed regions is the default?
A. in the Profile Options setup
B. in the Lookup Codes setup
C. in the Document Types setup
D. in the Purchasing Options setup
E. in the Expense Account Rules setup
F. in the Requisition Preferences setup

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 30
Price Tolerance (%) on the Purchasing Options Control section refers to the percentage by which ___________.
A. the purchase order line price cannot exceed a price quote
B. the invoice price cannot exceed the purchase order line price
C. the purchase order line price cannot exceed the blanket amount
D. the supplier catalog price cannot exceed purchase order line price
E. the purchase order line price cannot exceed the requisition line price

Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 31
Select three statements that are true regarding the clearing account. (Choose three.)
A. An asset clearing account can also be used as a project clearing account.
B. You can have a maximum of one asset clearing account per asset category.
C. For each payables document you create, you can have a separate cash clearing account.
D. You can use Cash in Transit report in cash management only if cash clearing account and cash account are separate.
E. You use a separate cash clearing account and cash account to have visibility of the Cash in Transit on the balance sheet.

Correct Answer: BCE
QUESTION 32
Your client has the following requirements for electronic delivery of purchasing documents to indirect spend vendors:
1.
No third-party software should be needed; the built-in Oracle functionality should be used.

2.
No special supplier set up should be required; the supplier should need minimal resources to participate.

3.
No requirement for audit trail or confirmation. The best method within standard functionality is _____.
A. EDI
B. XML
C. Email
D. Facsimile
E. Direct interface

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 33
A Blanket Purchase Agreement Is created with the following cumulative price break:
Quantity > 0: Unit Price = $5 Quantity > 20: Unit Price = $4
Single line, single distribution releases are created as follows:
Release# 1 with quantity 15 Release# 2 with quantity 10
What are the unit price values on the releases?
A. Release1 $5, Release2 $5
B. Release1 $4, Release2 $4
C. Release1 $5, Release2 $4
D. It depends on the price tolerance for the line.
E. Release1 $5, Release2 $4 for a quantity of 5 and $5 for a quantity of 5

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 34
You match an unordered receipt to_____.
A. a purchase order shipment from any organization
B. a Return Material Authorization (RMA. from any organization
C. a purchase order shipment from the same organization for any supplier
D. a purchase release shipment from the same organization for the same supplier
E. a finally closed purchase order shipment from the same organization for the same supplier

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 35
Which four sources of information default records Into the Supplier Header? (Choose four.)
A. Invoice Options
B. System Options
C. Financial Options
D. Payables Options
E. Receiving Options
F. Purchasing Options
G. Approved supplier list

Correct Answer: CDEF
QUESTION 36
While implementing Oracle Payables, Oracle Purchasing, and Oracle General Ledger at GLO Ltd., you are informed by the accountant that the AP Clearing Account balance Is Increasing daily. To solve this issue, what would you check in the accounting process?
A. whether journals are posted regularly
B. whether suppliers are sequentially numbered
C. whether the month-end accrual process is run
D. whether invoices are matched to purchase orders and receipts
E. whether Oracle Payables transactions are reconciled with Oracle General Ledger

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 37
Consider the following scenario for inventory item A: 1) Standard Cost $10 Purchase Order Line Price: $12, Purchase Order Line Quantity: 10 2) Receipt Routing: Direct Delivery You created a receipt of 8 units for item A. Which option correctly describes the effect on different accounts?
A. Debit Material Account $80; Credit Inventory AP Accrual Account $96; Debit Invoice Price Variance Account $16; No effect on Purchase Price Variance Account
B. Debit Material Account $80; Credit Inventory AP Accrual Account $96; No effect on Invoice Price Variance Account; Debit Purchase Price Variance Account $16
C. Debit Material Account $80; Credit Inventory AP Accrual Account $80; No effect on Invoice Price Variance Account; Debit Purchase Price Variance Account $16
D. Credit Material Account $80; Debit Inventory AP Accrual Account $96; No effect on Invoice Price Variance Account; Credit Purchase Price Variance Account $16
E. Debit Material Account $96; Credit Inventory AP Accrual Account $96; No effect on Invoice Price Variance Account; Credit Purchase Price Variance Account $16

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 38
Which three are valid setup options for purchasing document types? (Choose three.)
A. Archive On
B. Forward Method
C. Default Hierarchy
D. Security Access Level
E. Can Change Hierarchy
F. Owner Cannot Approve
Correct Answer: ABC
QUESTION 39
Consider the following scenario for Inventory Item B.
1) Standard Cost: $10 2) Purchase Order Line Quantity: 100; Purchase Order Line Price: $12 3) Match Approval Level: Three-Way Matching; Receipt Routing: Direct Delivery 4) Received Quantity: 40 5) Invoice Price: $14; Invoiced Quantity: 20
Which option describes the effect on different accounts correctly?
A. Debit Material Account $480; Credit Inventory AP Accrual Account $240; Debit Invoice Price Variance Account $40; Debit Purchase Price Variance Account $0; Credit AP Liability Account $280
B. Debit Material Account $400; Credit Inventory AP Accrual Account $240; Debit Invoice Price Variance Account $40; Debit Purchase Price Variance Account $80; Credit AP Liability Account $280
C. Debit Material Account $400 ; Credit Inventory AP Accrual Account $240; Debit Invoice Price Variance Account $80; Debit Purchase price Variance Account $40; Credit AP Liability Account $280
D. Credit Material Account $400; Debit Inventory AP Accrual Account $240; Credit Invoice Price Variance Account $40; Credit Purchase Price Variance Account $80; Debit AP Liability Account $280
Correct Answer: B QUESTION 40
Identify four ways in which sourcing rules significantly improve efficiency of procurement processes. (Choose four.)
A. Allowing you to transfer from one supplier site to the other, if It is a global supplier.
B. Assigning sourcing rules at the item or item-organization level using an assignment set.
C. Giving you the ability to identify the priority to be given to the local sites of a global supplier.
D. Sourcing the highest percentage of an item from only those suppliers who ranked the highest.
E. Allowing you to identify the most efficient shipping method to be used for a specific sourcing rule,
F. Automatically allocating planned orders across different suppliers based on predetermined criteria such as rank and percentage.
G. Allowing the implementer to define a single sourcing rule for an item at the Item Master level, to cater to all inventory organizations.

Correct Answer: BCEF
QUESTION 41
Select three true statements about the default of sourcing Information for requisitions and purchase orders. (Choose three.)
A. The item price on a requisition can be defaulted from the Item attribute setup.
B. Buyer name cannot be defaulted onto a requisition, but you can assign notes to a buyer.
C. You can modify the last name of the requester defaulting from the Human Resources employee record.
D. You must use the Transfer From assignment on a sourcing rule for Item Information to default onto an Internal requisition.
E. When you assign a commodity to an approved supplier list, you do not need to assign the individual items in the commodity.
F. You can have the same item on a quotation and a blanket agreement but the supplier or supplier site must be different, so that It can default onto a requisition line.

Correct Answer: ADE
QUESTION 42
You receive a request to create a new menu. Instead of creating a new menu, you modify an existing menu and save It to a different User Menu Name. What happens after saving the menu with a different User Menu Name?
A. There will be two menus.
B. The original menu is disabled.
C. The new menu will not contain any functions.
D. The new menu will overwrite the original menu.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 43
A Global Single Instance (GS1) provides the global enterprise with a single, complete data model, Identify three features In Oracle Business Suite Release 12 that support a 6SL (Choose three.)
A. maintenance of third-party applications
B. automation of standardized documents and audit processes
C. decentralization of operations by regions, divisions, or processes
D. consolidation of data centers and lowering administrative overhead
E. capture of statutory and customary local requirements In the same database
Correct Answer: BDE
QUESTION 44
Identify two types of regions in Daily Business Intelligence. (Choose two.)
A. menu
B. table
C. folder
D. report
E. graph

Correct Answer: BE
QUESTION 45
A global company uses Oracle E-Business Suite Release 12 for Its operations In the U.S. and Canada. The company Is now adding Mexico to the Oracle E-Business Suite Release 12 Applications. As a system administrator, you need to set the MO: Operating Unit profile option for Mexico. Customer is not using Multi-Org Access Control.
You set the MO: Operating Unit profile option at the ____level.
A. Site
B. User
C. Application
D. Responsibility

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 46
Identify the sequence of steps to determine the Descriptive Flexfield name on a form in Oracle E- Business
Suite Release 12 with Diagnostics enabled.
1) Select Help > Diagnostics > Examine.
2) The username of the DFF appears in the Value field.
3) Select the DFF name from the list of values in the “Field” field.
4) Select the “$DESCRIPTIVE_FUEXFIELD$B value for the Block name.

A. 1, 2, 3, 4
B. 1 4, 3, 2
C. 1, 3, 4, 2
D. 4, 3, 1, 2
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 47
Which two parameters facilitate cross organization reports in a Multi-Org environment? (Choose two.)
A. Ledger
B. Legal Entity
C. Operating Unit
D. Reporting Level
E. Reporting Context

Correct Answer: DE
QUESTION 48
XYZ Corp. has operations In the U.S. and Canada. Within Canada, It has two separate Divisions due to Statutory requirements: one In Quebec and another In Ontario. How would you define the organization structure for XYZ Corp. from the Information given above?
A. two Ledgers, two Legal Entitles, and two Operating Units
B. two Ledgers, two Legal Entities, and three Operating Units
C. two Ledgers, three Legal Entities, and two Operating Units
D. two Ledgers, three Legal Entities, and three Operating Units
E. three Ledgers, three Legal Entities, and three Operating Units

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 49
Identify the four resources that Oracle Technology Network (OTM) provides. (Choose four.)
A. sample codes
B. Bug Database
C. technical articles
D. product downloads
E. product documentation
F. Applications Electronic Technical Reference Manuals (eTRM)

Correct Answer: ACDE
QUESTION 50
ABC Corp, has the following Organization Structure
1) Legal Entity: A 2) Operating Units: B end C 3) Balancing Entitles: 10. 20. and 30
Identify three correct statements regarding the Balancing Entity. (Choose three.)
A. Each Balancing Entity mutt balance within itself.
B. There can be multiple Balancing Entitles within an Operating Unit
C. Balancing Entity is the lowest postable unit in the Chart of Accounts.
D. Balancing Entitles can be automatically secured at the Legal Entity level.
E. Balancing Entities can be secured at the Operating Unit level through Security Rules

Correct Answer: ABE
QUESTION 51
Identify the two benefits of using Multi-Org Access Control. (Choose two.)
A. View asset information across multiple asset books
B. Restrict access to users based on their Organization assignment!
C. Submit and view data across different ledgers using a single responsibility.
D. Enter Payables Invoices for different Operating Units using a single responsibility.
E. View Consolidated requisitions across Operating Units using a single responsibility
Correct Answer: DE
QUESTION 52
Which two options would you use to restrict the functionality provided by a responsibility? (Choose two.)
A. creating an appropriate role
B. creating an appropriate group
C. constructing a new menu hierarchy
D. defining rules to exclude specific functions
Correct Answer: CD
QUESTION 53
A Ledger is a financial reporting entity. What is new in Oracle E-Business Suite Release 12 that facilitates generation of accounting entries?
A. Ledger
B. Chart of Accounts
C. Multi-Org Structure
D. Accounting Convention
E. Financial Accounting Calendar

Correct Answer: D

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QUESTION 1
Which six files are involved in database recovery for block storage option after a database crash?
A. Essn.pag data
B. Essn.ind index
C. Essn.dat
D. Temp.dat
E. Dbname.esm – kernel file that contains control information for db recovery
F. Dbname.tct – transaction control table
G. Dbname.ind – free fragment file for data and index free fragments
H. DBname.otl
I. Metadata folder

Correct Answer: ABEFGH Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
If there is a problem with any one of these essential database files, the entire database becomes corrupted
and Essbase Server cannot start the database:

*
essn.pag (A)

*
essn.ind (B)

*
dbname.esm (E)

*
dbname.tct (F)

*
dbname.ind (G)

*
dbname.otl (for block storage databases) (H): Outline file, which stores all metadata for a database and defines how data is stored, but does not store data itself
To restore the database, delete these file, restart the database, and reload from data files or from export files backed up before the corruption.
References:
QUESTION 2
Which two options would provide a better design for the following accounts and metrics?

A. If there are a small number of accounts that require FTE and Expense dollars, split Accounts and Metrics into 2 dimensions
B. If there are a large number of accounts that require FTE and Expense dollars, split Accounts and Metrics into 2 dimensions
C. If reporting dictates FTE and dollars in the columns and accounts in the rows, split Accounts and Metrics into 2 dimensions
D. If block size is large, then keep Accounts and Metrics as one dimension with a dense dimension

Correct Answer: BD Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Use Application Design Best Practices, Minimize the number of dimensions, Avoid Repetition in dimensions, Avoid inter dimensional irrelevance.

QUESTION 3
Identify the two true statements about incremental loading.
A. Allows for real time data access for end users.
B. Creates *subscribes* along the main slice in the database.
C. Materialization of slices is required to provide users the correct query results.
D. Different materialized views may exist within a slice as compared to the main slice of the database.

Correct Answer: AC Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
A: Incremental loading and fast aggregation can provide near real-time analysis of transactional data.
C: Incremental loading creates subcubes or slices alongside the primary slice of the database.
Note: Following a data load, Essbase ASO does not store any aggregate values, but instead calculates them on demand. For large databases, where the time required to generate these values may become inconvenient, the database can materialize one or more aggregate “views”, made up of one aggregate level from each dimension (for example, the database may calculate all combinations of the fifth generation of Product with the third generation of Customer), and these views are then used to generate other aggregate values where possible. This process can be partially automated, where the administrator specifies the amount of disk space that may be used, and the database generates views according to actual usage. This approach has a major drawback in that the cube cannot be treated for calculation purposes as a single large hypercube, because aggregate values cannot be directly controlled, so write-back from front-end tools is limited, and complex calculations that cannot be expressed as MDX expressions are not possible.
Hyperion Essbase – System 9 Database Administrator’s Guide
QUESTION 4
You should back up the following three for ASO.
A. Hyperion_Home \common
B. Essbaseinstallfolder\bin
C. ARBORPATH \app\appname
D. Essbaseinstallfolder \locale
E. Essbase.sec
F. Essbase.cfg

Correct Answer: CEF Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
C: The application directory should be backup up. BAckups for ASO File system backups are the best method for aggregate storage databases. To backup an ASO database, 9.1. Stop the application. 9.2. Using the File system to back up the arborpath\app\appname
E: essbase.sec* — Essbase security file
F: essbase.cfg — Essbase Server configuration file
References:
QUESTION 5
You have the following analysis requirement. Products roll up to Product Family which rolls up to Product Category. You also need to group Products by Product Manager. Product Managers may manage one or more Products across product families. You do not need to create reports with Product Manager by Product Family. You need to secure products by Product Manager for planning submissions.
You consider Shared members as a solution because of which two options?
A. Shared members provide cross tab reporting (Product Manager in the rows and Product Family across the column)
B. Shared members provide additional categorization but results in a smaller database then if you were to add Product Manager as a separate dimension
C. You can assign security to shared members
D. Shared members can be assigned to sparse members only

Correct Answer: BC Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: The data values associated with a shared member come from another member with the same name. The shared member stores a pointer to data contained in the other member, and the data is stored only once. To define a member as shared, an actual nonshared member of the same name must exist. Using shared members lets you use members repeatedly throughout a dimension. Essbase stores the data value only once, but it displays in multiple locations. Storing the data value only once saves space and improves processing efficiency. (B)
Shared members must be in the same dimension. Data can be shared by multiple members.
QUESTION 6
Identify four disadvantages / considerations when using a transparent partition.
A. Old data
B. Slow retrievals
C. Slow calculations if referencing dynamic calc members in the source
D. Outline sync complexities
E. Increased network load
F. Downtime required to sync data

Correct Answer: BCDE Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Disadvantages of Transparent Partitions
*
Outline synchronization is required (D)
If you make changes to one outline, the two outlines are no longer synchronized. Although Essbase makes
whatever changes it can to replicated and transparent partitions when the outlines are not synchronized,
Essbase may not be able to make the data in the data source available in the data target. Essbase tracks
changes that you make to block storage outlines and provides tools to keep your block storage outlines
synchronized.
Note:
Essbase does not enable automatic synchronization of aggregate storage outlines. You must manually
make the same changes to the source and target outlines.
*
Transparent partitions increase network activity, because Essbase transfers the data at the data source
across the network to the data target. Increased network activity results in slower retrieval times for users.

(E)

*
Because more users are accessing the data source, retrieval time may be slower. (B)
*
If the data source fails, users at both the data source and the data target are affected. Therefore, the
network and data source must be available whenever users at the data source or data target need them.
*
(C) When you perform a calculation on a transparent partition, Essbase performs the calculation using
the current values of the local data and transparent dependents. Essbase does not recalculate the values
of transparent dependents, because the outlines for the data source and the data target may be so
different that such a calculation is inaccurate. To calculate all partitions, issue a CALC ALL command for
each individual partition, and then perform a CALC ALL command at the top level using the new values for
each partition.
*
Formulas assigned to members in the data source may produce calculated results that are inconsistent
with formulas or consolidations defined in the data target, and vice versa.
Note: Advantages of Transparent Partitions Transparent partitions can solve many database problems, but transparent partitions are not always the ideal partition type.

*
You need less disk space, because you are storing the data in one database.

*
The data accessed from the data target is always the latest version. (not A)

*
When the user updates the data at the data source, Essbase makes those changes at the data target.

*
Individual databases are smaller, so they can be calculated more quickly.

*
The distribution of the data is invisible to the end user and the end user’s tools.

*
You can load the data from either the data source or data target.

*
You can enable write-back functionality for aggregate storage databases by creating a transparent partition between an aggregate storage database as the source and a block storage database as the target.
QUESTION 7
Assuming Sales and Year are sparse and Actual is dense, what two actions will the following calc script perform?
FIX (Actual, @CY, Sales) DATAEXPORT “BINFILE” “data.txt”; ENDFIX
A. Export the data for actual, current year, sales into a text file called data.txt
B. Export the data for actual, current year into a text file called data.txt
C. Export data blocks in a compressed encrypted format
D. Create a text file that can be imported using the DATAIMPORTBIN calc command in another database that has different dimensionality

Correct Answer: AC Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The FIX…ENDFIX command block restricts database calculations to a subset of the database. All
commands nested between the FIX and ENDFIX statements are restricted to the specified database
subset.
Syntax:
FIX (fixMbrs)COMMANDS ;ENDFIX

fixMbrs: A member name or list of members from any number of database dimensions.

DATAEXPORT writes data to a text file, binary file, or as direct input to a relational file using ODBC. The
data blocks will be saved in a compressed encrypted format to a text file. For a binary output
file:DATAEXPORT “Binfile” “fileName”

QUESTION 8
A calculation script is performed on a database for which Create Block on Equation is OFF. The command SET CREATEBLOCKONEQ ON is issued immediately before an equation in the script. Which statement accurately describe when blocks will be created?
A. Blocks will be created ONLY when the equation assigns non-constant values to members of a sparse dimension
B. Blocks will be created ONLY when the equation assigns constant values to members of a sparse dimension
C. Blocks will be created when the equation assigns either constant or non-constant values to members of a sparse dimension.
D. No blocks will be created.

Correct Answer: C Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
C: Blocks are always (whether or not CREATEBLOCKONEQ is ON or OFF) created when a constant value is assigned to a member of a sparse dimension (for which a block does not exist). When SET CREATEBLOCKONEQ ON blocks will also be created when an non-constant value is assigned to a member of a sparse dimension (for which a block does not exist) in a new block.
Note: If this would be a select two alternative question, the alternatives would have to be reworded slightly
differently.

Note #1:
The SET CREATEBLOCKONEQ command controls, within a calculation script, whether or not new blocks
are created when a calculation formula assigns anything other than a constant to a member of a sparse
dimension. SET CREATEBLOCKONEQ overrides the Create Block on Equation setting for the database.

Syntax: SET CREATEBLOCKONEQ ON|OFF;
ON: When a calculation formula assigns a non-constant value to a member of a sparse dimension for
which a block does not exist, Analytic Services creates a new block.

Note #2: The Create Blocks on Equation setting is a database property. The initial value for the Create
Blocks on Equation setting is OFF; no new blocks are created when something other than a constant is
assigned to a sparse dimension member. You can use Administration Services or MaxL to set the Create
Blocks on Equation setting to ON at the database-level. For more information about enabling the Create
Blocks on Equation property for a database, see MaxL documentation in the Technical Reference or
Administration Services online help.
For more specific control, you can use the SET CREATEBLOCKONEQ calculation command within a
calculation script to control creation of new blocks at the time the command is encountered in the script.
Use of the SET CREATEBLOCKONEQ calculation command has the following characteristics:

*
When Analytic Services encounters a SET CREATEBLOCKONEQ command within a calculation script, Analytic Services ignores the database-level setting.

*
Where needed in the calculation script, you can use multiple SET CREATEBLOCKONEQ commands to define the Create Blocks on Equation setting value for the calculations that follow each command.

*
The value set by the SET CREATEBLOCKONEQ command stays in affect until the next SET CREATEBLOCKONEQ command is processed or the calculation script is finished.
References:
QUESTION 9
Market size is an attribute dimension with the following members: Large, Medium, and Small.
Which of the following options below represent valid syntax statements in a calc script?
A. FIX (@ATTRIBUTE(Large))
B. Calc Dim (Accounts, Markets, “Market Size”);
C. Calc Dim (Accounts, Markets, Market Size);
D. FIX(Large)

Correct Answer: AB Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
For example, using Sample Basic, assume this statement is in a calculation script:
FIX (@children(january))CALC DIM (Accounts, Product, Market)ENDFIX
QUESTION 10
Moving a stored entity member in a sparse dimension causes_________.
A. a Full restructure
B. an Index restructure
C. an Outline restructure
D. No restructure

Correct Answer: B Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
If a member of a sparse dimension is moved, deleted, or added, Essbase restructures the index and
creates new index files. Restructuring the index is relatively fast; the time required depends on the index
size.

QUESTION 11
During a multidimensional analysis getting data from a supplemental data source is an example of________.
A. Drill across
B. Drill Through
C. Trending
D. Pivoting

Correct Answer: A Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
QUESTION 12
Identify the two true statements about expense reporting tags.
A. Provide accurate time balance calculations
B. Provide accurate variance reporting on revenue and expense accounts
C. Are assigned to the dimension tagged Time
D. Are assigned to the dimension tagged Accounts
E. Are assigned to the Dimension containing variance members.

Correct Answer: BD Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
B: The variance reporting calculation requires that any item that represents an expense to the company
must have an expense reporting tag.
Essbase provides two variance reporting properties: expense and non-expense. The default is non-
expense.
Variance reporting properties define how Essbase calculates the difference between actual and budget
data in members with the @VAR or @VARPER function in their member formulas.

D: Expense reporting is tagged to the accounts dimension such that variance, profit etc. Member will not
show the negative value when we calculate it.

Note: The first, last, average, and expense tags are available exclusively for use with accounts dimension members.
QUESTION 13
You are building a sales analysis model. In this model there is no requirement for calculation. The user needs to aggregate data across all dimensions and wants to archive many years of data. Archived data will be analyzed once in while.
What types of cube would you build using Essbase for this kind of requirement?
A. Block Storage
B. XOLAP
C. Aggregate Storage
D. Virtual Cube

Correct Answer: C Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Consider using the aggregate storage storage model if the following is true for your database:

*The database is sparse and has many dimensions, and/or the dimensions have many levels of members.
*The database is used primarily for read-only purposes, with few or no data updates. (C) *The outline
contains no formulas except in the dimension tagged as Accounts. *Calculation of the database is
frequent, is based mainly on summation of the data, and does not rely on calculation scripts.

QUESTION 14
How are the ASO data files managed?
A. Page files
B. Index files
C. Table spaces
D. Bin files

Correct Answer: C Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
With regard to ASO, table spaces are comparable to page and index files For ASO – the data is stored in
table spaces in a .dat file in the \App\Appname\default folder. Again the format is some type of binary and
you cannot open the file and do anything with the contents.

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QUESTION NO: 1
Which interface provides the ability to see changes in real-time as they occur?
A. ConcunentMap
B. java. util. AbstractMap
C. ObservableMap
D. InvocableMap
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 2
Coherence provides the ideal infrastructure for building services, and the
applications.
A. Data Grid, Client and Server based
B. Ouster, Client and Server based
C. Data Grid, DNS based
D. Cloud cluster, Client and Server based
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 3
Node Manager is a WebLogic Server that enables you to start, shut down, and restart Administration Server and Managed Server instances from a remote location.
A. Instance
B. Utility
C. Destination
D. Ouster
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 4
Which two Oracle products come pre-packaged with Oracle’s JRockit JDK?
A. Oracle WebLogic Server
B. Oracle Coherence
C. Oracle Database
D. Oracle Real Time Operations Control
Answer: A,B
QUESTION NO: 5
Which three of the following are considered Fixed Asset Depreciation Rule Components?
A. International Depreciation Methods
B. Header
C. Annual Rules
D. Rule Conventions
E. Predefined Depreciation Methods
Answer: B,C,D
QUESTION NO: 6
As a best practice, what would you change in the following command line to create successful domain template “My WebLogic Domain”?
Pack -domain=C: \oracle\user_projects\domains\mydomain – template=C:\oracle\user_templates\mydomain -template_name=”My WebLogic Domain”
A. Pack -domain=C:\oracle\user projects\domains\mydomain.dll – template=C:\oracle\user_templates\mydomain.jar -template_name=”My WebLogic Domain”
B. Pack-domain=C:\oracle\user_projects\domains\mydomain.jar – template=C:\oracle\userJ:emplates\mydomain -template_name=nMy WebLogic Domain”
C. Pack -domain=C:\oracle\user_projects\domains\mydomain – template=C:\oracle\user_templates\mydornain.jar -template_name=”My WebLogic Domain”
D. Pack -domain=C:\oracle\user_projects\domains\mydomain.jar – template=C:\oracle\user_templates\mydomain.jar -template_name=”My WebLogic Domain”
Answer: C QUESTION NO: 7

In a typical production environment, which server(s) hosts the application?
A. Node Server
B. Administration Server
C. Managed Server
D. Configuration Server
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 8
In a typical production environment, which server(s) hosts the application?
A. Node Server
B. Administration Server
C. Managed Server
D. Configuration Server
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 9
Which three data source integrations are provided by Coherence out of the box?
A. TopLink Grid and TopLink Essentials
B. Java Persistence API (JPA)
C. Open Database Connectivity (ODBC)
D. File System
E. Java Database Connectivity (JDBC)
Answer: A,B,E QUESTION NO: 10

Which two statements are true about the Application Grid?
A. Application Grid computing brings key industry-leading technologies like MS IIS and Grade WebLogic Server together.
B. Application Grid computing promotes well architected sharing of resources.
C. Application Grid computing is based on Oracle’s RAC technology.
D. Application Grid computing results in more predictable behavior through better Instrumentation and more optimal allocation of resources.
Answer: B,D
QUESTION NO: 11
Which statement is true about XpauseTarget in Oracle JRockit JVM?
A. This option is supported by all type of Garbage collection modes.
B. This option is only supported by Generational Garbage Collection mode.
C. This option is only supported by Mark and Sweep Garbage Collection Model.
D. This option is only supported by Dynamic Garbage Collection Model.
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 12
Identify the feature of WebLogic JMS: If the message destination (5, not available at the moment the sages are being sent, either because of network problems or system failures, then the messages are saved on a local server instance, and are forwarded to the remote destination once it becomes available.
A. Unit of Work
B. Store-and-Forward
C. Unit of Order
D. Distributed Destinations
Answer: B QUESTION NO: 13

In Real Operations Insight, metrics are sent from the various WebLogic Suite components into Enterprise Manager for and .
A. Optimization
B. Visualization
C. Automation
D. Customization
Answer: A,C
QUESTION NO: 14
When scaling Coherence from one to two cache servers, it will not show the same scalability as two to four. Why?
A. Coherence uses a more efficient TCMP algorithm going from two to four cache servers.
B. When going from one to two cache servers, object backups are copied across servers so work is doubled, but going from two to four is a fixed amount of work.
C. Near cache is enabled with a larger quorum thus performance is improved.
D. All of the above.
Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 15
This is a special WebLogic Server instance included by the WebLogic Server Domains. It represents a central point from which you configure and manage all resources in the domain.
A. Managed Server
B. Web Server
C. Administration Server
D. Node Server
Answer: C QUESTION NO: 16
You are an Enterprise Architect in a large IT organization. Your organization has deployed applications on a variety of containers such as WLS, WebSphere, and JBoss.
Why would you consider consolidating on a single type of container (instead of a mix)?
A. Guarantee of higher application performance and reliability if the transactions are flowing between instances of the same container type.
B. Easier to build a Shared Services infrastructure that can provide best practices, tools and expertise around HA/Management… with a single type of container than a mix of multiple types.
C. You’ll save on hardware costs with a homogeneous environment.
D. It’s a necessary step in our move toward adopting SOA.
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 17
Which two statements are true when a Coherence cluster member is lost?
A. Remaining members recover by repartitioning the data across the remaining cluster members in parallel with normal request processing.
B. Some latencies may be experienced due to higher priority of recovery.
C. In flight operations may be lost.
D. A system administrator must manually assist recovery of the lost data.
Answer: A,B

QUESTION NO: 18
Which two statements are true about Oracle JRockit Mission Control (JRMC)?
A. JRMC is platform neutral. It supports most JVMs in market.
B. JRMC is used for Deep visibility and analysis of single JVMs.
C. JRMC comes with custom in-memory agents and is supported by standard APIs (JVMT1).
D. JRMC is bundled with the WebLogic Suite and WebLogic Server EE.

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QUESTION NO: 1
Sever Manager provides a unified interface where administrators can view information regarding EnterpriseOne. What are the three major functions of Server Manager?
A. Check the EnterpriseOne Server Installed Programs
B. Check the EnterpriseOne Server Configurations
C. Check the EnterpriseOne Server OS Patch level
D. Monitor the EnterpriseOne Server Process
E. Monitor the EnterpriseOne Server Task Manager
Answer: A,B,C
QUESTION NO: 2
When selecting a Path Code Database as part of the EnterpriseOne Platform Pack installation, which two get installed on the server?
A. System/Foundation code
B. Path Code specifications and runtime libraries
C. Database scripts to create and load databases
D. Server Manager Agent
E. Path Code Databases – Central Objects, Business Data, …
Answer: B,C

QUESTION NO: 3
ACME is working on setting up security for *PUBLIC, individual users, and roles. What security type grants permission to run an application regardless of other security settings?
A. Application
B. Action
C. Exit
D. Exclusive Application
E. Tab
Answer: D QUESTION NO: 4
ACME is about to upgrade their Development environment from ERP 8.0 to EnterpriseOne
9.00. Which pre-upgrade task is NOT recommended by the EnterpriseOne Upgrade documentation?
A. Verify Media Object queue setting in P98MOQUE
B. Generate serialized objects for the development environment
C. Transfer production versions to prototype using UBE R9830512
D. Make sure all work in progress objects have been checked into the development environment
E. Check the modification and merge flags through the Specification Merge Selection application
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 5
EnterpriseOne subsystem UBE jobs provide the system the ability to run without interaction and to avoid the fixed cost of repeated UBE startup overhead. Which of the options would make UBE a good candidate for the subsystem?
A. Long running jobs
B. Short duration jobs
C. Process intensive jobs
D. Light-weight process jobs
E. High memory usage jobs
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 6
What configuration option is NOT required for Object Management Workbench (OMW) to function?
A. Activity Rules
B. User Roles
C. Constants
D. Allowed Actions
E. Save Location
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 7
Regardless of the platform choice, Work with Server Jobs is the key mechanism to review the status of a UBE job that has been submitted to server. After a job has been submitted, which of the following configuration option is NOT required for Object Management Workbench (OMW) to function an administrator cannot do from Work with Server Jobs?
A. Print Jobs
B. Change Job Priority
C. View Logs for Job
D. Terminate Jobs
E. Resubmit a Job
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 8
What three object types are promoted via Object Management Workbench (OMW)?
A. UDCs
B. User Overrides
C. Data Dictionary Item
D. Favorites
E. Serialized Objects
Answer: A,B,C

QUESTION NO: 9
ACME has decided to begin their EnterPriseOne implementation using the Oracle VM Templates for JDE. Which three types are available for immediate download and quick implementation via e-delivery?
A. Enterprise Server
B. HTML Server
C. Portal Server
D. Deployment Server
E. Database Server
Answer: A,B,E

QUESTION NO: 10
When deploying a Full Package to an Enterprise Server, what defines the location of the object specifications to be used during runtime that the package deployment modifies?
A. The path code spec directory
B. The package spec directory
C. JDE.INI
D. OCM
E. The spec.ini file in the package spec directory

Answer: E
QUESTION NO: 11
ACME is exploring different database vendors for their EnterpriseOne Application Server. Which database technology manages database users through the platform OS accounts?
A. Oracle
B. SQL Server
C. Informix
D. UDB
E. MSDE
Answer: A QUESTION NO: 12

The EnterpriseOne Scheduler server kernel does NOT:
A. Launch jobs at scheduled times
B. Monitor the progress and ending states of scheduled jobs
C. Launch batch processes in a server/environment/user combination
D. Monitor all batch processing
E. Dispatch functions every minute
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 13
ACME is utilizing multiple roles per user and having their users sign in on the web using *ALL as the user’s role. Joe belongs to APADMIN (sequence 10) and APUSER (sequence 15) which have differences in the security records that enforce apps that can and cannot be run. What security records will be enforced for Joe on priority?
A. APADMIN’s security records only
B. APUSER’s security records only
C. APUSER’s security will have precedence over all other security records.
D. APADMIN’s security will have precedence over all other security records.
E. ALL security records will be enforced despite any conflicts.
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 14
ACME is about to upgrade their Development environment from ERP 8.0 to EnterpriseOne 8.9. In the Specification Merge Selection application, what is the correct setting for the Mod Flag and Merge Option columns to merge an object during the upgrade?
A. Mod Flag=blank; Merge Option=blank
B. Mod Flag=blank; Merge Option=l
C. Mod Flag=blank; Merge Option=2
D. Mod Flag=C; Merge Option=l
E. Mod Flag=C; Merge Option=2
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 15
EnterpriseOne Application Servers must have their services started prior to running a UBE or executing a business function. When starting the EnterpriseOne service, if there is a problem, where is the best location to look for reasons for the issue?
A. Log files in the system\bin32 directory
B. PDFs in the printqueue
C. Server Manager for the Enterprise Server managed instance
D. HTML server log files
E. The logs directory on the enterprise server as defined by thejde.ini
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 16
Universal Table Browser (UTB) and Data Browser are used by users to view the record contents of tables. In order to secure users from seeing unauthorized data, which two security options should be put in place?
A. Application
B. Action
C. Column
D. Exclusive Application
E. Row
Answer: C,E
QUESTION NO: 17
Universal Table Browser (UTB) is used by users to view the record contents of tables. If the administrator would like to view the contents of object specifications in the Central Objects data source, what is the local client JDE.INI file setting in the [INTERACTIVE RUNTIME] section to enable UTB to see those records?
A. ShowTables=Show
B. TAMMenus=Show
C. RDBTable=Show
D. UTBTables=show
E. ShowMeMyTables=Show

Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 18
ACME has completed their EnterpriseOne installation and would like to apply the North America Business Accelerator in order to pre-configure the system for usage. Which is the proper way to launch the OBA?
A. On the Deployment Server through Software Updates
B. Stand alone installation on the Deployment Server
C. On the Deployment Server through the OBA Application
D. On the Deployment Server through Change Assistant
E. On the Deployment Server through Configuration Assistant
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 19
Which statement regarding roles is FALSE?
A. Sensitive Roles can be excluded from *ALL and a user can specify a single role at sign-on to work with only that role’s information.
B. Security can be applied to roles rather than individual users allowing for less maintenance of security records.
C. Users cannot belong to multiple roles.
D. Role delegation can be used for one user to assign their roles to another user.
E. Roles contain effective and expiration dates.
Answer: A QUESTION NO: 20

Which two options are required in order to create a Business Services Server instance?
A. Business Services Server component
B. J2EE Application Server -OAS, WebSphere or WebLogic
C. J2EE Application Server Container
D. JDBC Driver
E. JDeveloper
Answer: A,C

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QUESTION NO: 1
What does the term “outlier elimination” that is used in the 7000-series system mean?
A. Truncating chronological data
B. Removing inactive client sessions
C. Throttling throughput with busy clients
D. Blocking errant processes
E. Cropping the highest data points from view
Answer: E Explanation: Vertical outlier elimination. Without this, the y-axis would always be compressed to include the highest event. Click the crop outliers icon to toggle between diferent percentages of outlier elimination. Mouse over this icon to see the current value.
Reference:Sun ZFS Storage 7000 Analytics Guide,Quantize Plot

QUESTION NO: 2
Which three items are available via the Status Dashboard in the Browser User Interface (BUI)?
A. Summary of storage pool and main memory usage
B. Known hardware faults
C. Status of each physical network port
D. Status of services on the appliance
Answer: A,B,D
Explanation: The Status > Dashboard screen provides a view of storage(A), memory(A),
services(D), hardware,activity,and recent alerts.

B: Hardware
This area of the Dashboard shows an overview of hardware on the appliance.
Faults
If there is a known fault, the amber fault icon appears.

D:Services This area of the Dashboard shows the status of services on the appliance, with a light icon to show the state of each service.
Reference:Sun ZFS Storage 7000 System Administration Guide,Dashboard
QUESTION NO: 3
Which three statements are true?
A. One share can have multiple protocol access to its data
B. The identity mapping feature can manage Windows and UNIX user Identities simultaneously on the same share.
C. All shares within one project can share common settings.
D. Snapshot and Replication can be done at the share level only.
E. One of the share properties that protects the share against accidental deletion of the share is “read only.”
Answer: A,C,E Explanation:
A:AShareis aZFSfilesystem shared using data protocols C:Shares can be grouped into projectsfor common administrative purposes, including space management and common settings. A project defines a common administrativecontrol point for managing shares. All shares within a project can share common settings, andquotas can be enforced at the project level in addition to the share level.
E: Share property Types Read Only:These properties represent statistics about the project and share and cannot bechanged. The most common properties of this type are space usage statistics.
QUESTION NO: 4
Enterprise solid state devices (SSDs) based on Mash technology are a critical component of the 7000-series systems. Which statement is true?
A. Flash technology completes operations as fast as, or better than, DRAM.
B. Enterprise SSDs support bad block management, wear leveling, and error correction codes (ECC) for data integrity
C. Read-optimized SSDs are used in place of NVRAM to host the ZFS Intent Log (ZIL)
D. Write-based SSDs are used to extend the ZFS cache (L2ARC) for reads and writes
Answer: D Explanation: The L2ARC is the 2nd Level Adaptive Replacement Cache, and is an SSD based cache that is accessed before reading from the much slower pool disks.

Reference:Sun ZFS Storage 7000 System Administration Guide,Cache: L2ARC I/O bytes

QUESTION NO: 5
Which Command Line Interface (CLI) command provides hardware status details?
A. Maintenance hardware show
B. Hardware status is not available through the CLI
C. Status hardware show
D. Status dashboard hardware
Answer: A Explanation: Hardware status details are available in the CLI under the maintenance hardware section. Use show to list the status of all components. The list command will list available chassis, which can be selected and then viewed using show. Example: tarpon:> maintenance hardware show Chassis: NAME STATE MANUFACTURER MODEL chassis-000 0839QCJ01A ok Sun Microsystems, Inc. Sun Storage 7410 cpu-000 CPU 0 ok AMD Quad-Core AMD Op cpu-001 CPU 1 ok AMD Quad-Core AMD Op cpu-002 CPU 2 ok AMD Quad-Core AMD Op cpu-003 CPU 3 ok AMD Quad-Core AMD Op disk-000 HDD 0 ok STEC MACH8 IOPS disk-001 HDD 1 ok STEC MACH8 IOPS disk-002 HDD 2 absent – -disk-003 HDD 3 absent – -disk-004 HDD 4 absent – -disk-005 HDD 5 absent – -disk-006 HDD 6 ok HITACHI HTE5450SASUN500G disk-007 HDD 7 ok HITACHI HTE5450SASUN500G fan-000 FT 0 ok unknown ASY,FAN,BOARD,H2 fan-001 FT 0 FM 0 ok Sun Microsystems, Inc. 541-2068 fan-002 FT 0 FM 1 ok Sun Microsystems, Inc. 541-2068 fan-003 FT 0 FM 2 ok Sun Microsystems, Inc. 541-2068 fan-004 FT 1 ok unknown ASY,FAN,BOARD,H2 fan-005 FT 1 FM 0 ok Sun Microsystems, Inc. 541-2068fan-006 FT 1 FM 1 ok Sun Microsystems, Inc. 541-2068 fan-007 FT 1 FM 2 ok Sun Microsystems, Inc. 541-2068 memory-000 DIMM 0/0 ok HYNIX 4096MB DDR-II 66 memory-001 DIMM 0/1 ok HYNIX 4096MB DDR-II 66

Reference:Sun Storage 7000Unied Storage SystemService Manual, CLI

QUESTION NO: 6
Which three are supported methods for viewing system statistics?
A. Analytics
B. Solaris stat tools: iostat(1M), vmstat(1M), and so on
C. Appliance CLI
D. Oracle SunPlex Manager
E. SNMP
Answer: A,C,E Explanation: A:Analyticsstatistics provide incredible appliance observability, showing how the appliance is behaving and how clients on the network are using it.
C:
Note:The Sun ZFS Storage Appliance’s scripting functionality is implemented by a JavaScript
Language Interpreter build in the appliance CLI layer.

E:The SNMP (Simple Network Management Protocol) service provides two diferent functions on the appliance: *Appliance status informationcan be served by SNMP. *Alerts can be conigured to send SNMP traps Both SNMP versions 1 and 2c are available when this service is enabled

QUESTION NO: 7
Log devices are designed to improve the performance of asynchronous write workloads.

A. True
B. False
Answer: B
Explanation: Log devices are used to prevent data loss, not to improve performance.

Note:The data on logdevices is only used in the event of node failure, so in order to lose data with
an unmirrored logdevice it is necessary for both the device to fail and the node to reboot within a
few seconds.
QUESTION NO: 8
Which two statements regarding thin provisioning are true?
A. The property for thin provisioned may only be set on a LUN
B. The property for thin provisioned may be set on a share or LUN
C. A LUN that is thinly provisioned will only represent to the host the physical amount of space used
D. A thinly provisioned LUN will represent to the host the defined LUN size, and not the actual physical space used
Answer: A,D Explanation: Thin provisioned Controls whether space is reserved for the volume. This property is only valid for LUNs.
By default, a LUN reserves exactly enough space to completelyfill the volume. This ensures that clients will not get out-of-space errors at inopportune times. This property allows the volume size to exceed the amount of available space. When set, the LUN will consume only the space that has been written to the LUN. While this allows for thin provisioning of LUNs, most ilesystems do not expect to get”out of space”from underlying devices, and if the share runs out of space, it may cause instability and/or data corruption on clients. When not set, the volume size behaves like a reservation excluding snapshots. It therefore has the same pathologies, including failure to take snapshots if the snapshot could theoretically diverge to the point of exceeding the amount of available space
Reference: Sun ZFS Storage 7000 System Administration Guide, Thin provisioned
QUESTION NO: 9

What type of I/O workload is likely to get the most benefit from read SSDs?
A. Random write
B. Random read
C. Sequential read
D. Sequential write
E. Mixed random and sequential write
Answer: B Explanation: The L2ARC is the 2nd Level Adaptive Replacement Cache, and is an SSD based cache that is accessed before reading from the much slower pool disks. The L2ARC is currently intended for random read workloads.
Reference: Sun ZFS Storage 7000 Analytics GuideCache: L2ARC I/O bytes

QUESTION NO: 10
Which two items are the correct and supported ways to add user accounts to the 7000-series system?
A. Editing/etc/passwd and/etc/shadow
B. After logging in to the BUI as root, click the Maintenance: Users: Add User via the plus (+) sign and fill out the blanks; click Apply.
C. Using ssh, add users via the CLI by “configuration users create”. Set the properties, and commit.
D. Using ssh, add users via the CLI by “configuration users user newname” where newname is the new userID to be added.
E. From the BUI as root, click Configuration: USERS: plus(+) sign to add a new user and fill out the blanks; click add.
F. Add user accounts in active directory, LDAP, or NIS. User accounts don’t usually need to be added to the 7000.
Answer: D,E Explanation: D:CLI See set 4 below. Adding an administrator
E:Go to Configuration->Users. Add user.
The BUI Users page lists both users and groups, along with buttons for administration.

Mouse-over an entry to expose its clone, edit and destroy buttons. Double-click an entry to view
its edit screen.

QUESTION NO: 11
What is the unique identifier of a device in an iSCSI network?
A. Initiator target device (ITD)
B. ICN-Initiator CHAP name
C. iSCSI LUN designator (ILD)
D. IQN-iSCSI qualified name
E. iSCSI device id
Answer: D Explanation: In an iSCSI configuration, the iSCSI host or server sends requests to a node. The host contains one or more initiators that attach to an IP network to initiate requests to and receive responses from an iSCSI target. Each initiator and target are given a unique iSCSI name such as an iSCSI qualified name (IQN) or an extended-unique identifier (EUI). An IQN is a 223-byte ASCII name.

QUESTION NO: 12
Worksheets can be exported as part of a support bundle.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A Explanation: BUI commands includes: *send worksheet with support bundle *upload a support bundle that includes this worksheet, allowing for off-line analysis of your system by your support provider. You should only do this if you have been explicitly asked to upload such a bundle by support personnel.

QUESTION NO: 13
The “iSCSI operations” raw statistic can be broken down by?
A. Initiator
B. LUN
C. Command
D. Latency
E. All of the above
Answer: E
Explanation: Protocol: iSCSI operations
This statistic shows iSCSI operations/sec (iSCSI IOPS) requested by initiators to the appliance.
Various useful breakdowns are available.
Breakdowns

* initiator,iSCSI client initiator
*lun,the LUNfor this iSCSI request.
*command,SCSI command sent by the iSCSI protocol. This can show the real nature of the
requested I/O (read/write/sync-cache/…).
*latency.a heat map showing the latency of iSCSI I/O, as measured from when the iSCSI
request arrived on the appliance from the network, to when the response is sent; this
latency includes the time to process the iSCSI request, and to perform any disk I/O.

Reference: Sun ZFS Storage 7000 System Administration Guide, Protocol: iSCSI operations

QUESTION NO: 14
Analytics provides .
A. A graphical view of iostat statistics, when can be customized to provide lower-level detail.
B. Real-time CPU and power statistics to maximize utilization and minimize power consumption.
C. A graphical view of Solaris kstat performance statistics, which can be customized to provide
lower-level detail.

D. Real-time graphs of various statistics, which can be saved for later viewing.
Answer: D Explanation: Analytics provides real time graphs of various statistics, which can be saved for later viewing
Analytics is an advanced facility to graph a variety of statistics in real-time and record this data
for later viewing. It has been designed for both long term monitoring and short term analysis.
When needed, it makes use of DTrace to dynamically create custom statistics, which allows
diferent layers of the operating system stack to be analyzed in detail.
Reference:Sun ZFS Storage 7000 Analytics Guide

QUESTION NO: 15
Random read workloads are usually best served from:
A. DRAM, followed by pool disks
B. Read cache devices (Readzillas)
C. DRAM, followed by read cache devices
D. Log devices (Logzillas)
E. Tape drives
Answer: B
Explanation: Readzillais aread-optimizedflash SSD for the L2ARC.

Reference: Sun ZFS Storage 7000 System Administration Guide
QUESTION NO: 16
What tool can be used to set up DFS target shares coming from a 7000 series system?
A. The File Server Management Console from a Windows 2003R2 server with the File Server Role enabled
B. The Computer Management Console from a Windows 2003R2 server with the Domain Controller Role enabled
C. The 7000-series system Command Line Interface
D. The 7000-serles system Web Console
Answer: A Explanation: The Distributed File System (DFS) solution in Windows Server 2003 R2 allows administrators togroup shared folders across the network into a virtual tree of folders called a namespace. The current7000 software release allows for an appliance CIFS share to act as a DFS target. A namespace rootmust already be active on an alternate object in Active Directory. CIFS shares from the 7000 may beadded as targets to any DFS root.
To add a CIFS share from the 7000 as a target or DFS referral, click add folder from an existing DFSroot share, in this case a domain wide share of \\sspg\HR, as shown in Illustration
Reference:Microsoft WindowsIntegration on the Sun Storage 7000, Implementation Guide,DFS Target

QUESTION NO: 17
Data integrity is provided through which two features?
A. Enhanced version of UFS
B. Copy-on-write operations
C. Parallel reads and writes to the same file
D. Memory-based, end-to-end checksumming
Answer: B,D Explanation: B:ZFS use Copy-On-Write, which means old data is not altered. Whenever data is edited and updated, the old data is always left intact, and only the edits are stored, on a new place on the disk. This means every change can be traced back in time. This allows the user to discard

thelatest change which caused the problem, and instead go back to an earlier functioning state.

This is also how ZFS Snapshots works.
D:To maximize the availability of your data in production, Sun ZFS Storage appliances include
acomplete end-to-end architecture for data integrity, including redundancies at every level of the
stack. Key features include:
*the ZFS file system provides memory-based end-to-end dataand metadata checksumming with
self-healing capabilities to fix potential issues.

Note:ZFS is a combined file system and logical volume manager designed by Sun Microsystems.
The features of ZFS include data integrity verification against data corruption modes, support for
high storage capacities, integration of the concepts of filesystem and volume management,
snapshots and copy-on-write clones, continuous integrity checking and automatic repair, RAID-Z
and native NFSv4 ACLs.

One major feature that distinguishes ZFS from other file systems is that ZFS is designed from the
ground up with a focus on data integrity. That is, protect the user’s data on disk, against silent data
corruption caused by e.g., bit rot, current spikes, bugs in disk firmware, ghost writes, etc.

Reference:Sun Storage 7000Unified Storage System,Just the Facts
QUESTION NO: 18
The 7000-series system comes predefined with usernames and passwords for which two items below?
A. Root
B. Admin
C. User
D. Operator
E. Root on the SP
F. Admin on the SP
Answer: A,E Explanation: The process to reset the root password on a Sun Storage 7000 appliance involves two basic steps. The first step is to clear the password for the system’s Service Processor. Once the service processor password has been reset, we can use it in the second step to interrupt the system initialization process so that we can force the appliance configuration to start. Reference:https://wikis.oracle.com/display/FishWorks/How+To+Reset+the+Root+Password+on+t
he+7000+Series
QUESTION NO: 19

What is the only mode in which the SRP service can operate?
A. Link mode
B. Initiator mode
C. Peer mode
D. Target mode
E. HCA mode
Answer: D
Explanation: The SRP service mayonly operate in target mode.

Reference: Sun ZFS Storage 7000 System Administration Guide,SRP,Target configuration
QUESTION NO: 20
What is the maximum number of storage controllers that can form a single cluster?

A. 1
B. 2
C. 4
D. 255
E. unlimited
Answer: B Explanation: It is important to understand the scope of the Sun ZFS Storage 7000 series clustering implementation. The term ‘cluster’ is used in the industry to refer to many different technologies with a variety of purposes. We use it here to mean a metasystem comprised of two appliance heads and shared storage, used to provide improved availability in the case in which one of the heads succumbs to certain hardware or software failures. A cluster contains exactly two appliances or storage controllers.
Reference: Sun ZFS Storage 7000 System Administration Guide, Clustering,Features and Benefits

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QUESTION 1
You executed the following command to drop a user:
DROP USER scott CASCADE;
Which two statements regarding the above command are correct? (Choose two.)

A. All the objects of scott are moved to the Recycle Bin
B. Any objects in the Recycle Bin belonging to scott are purged
C. All the objects owned by scott are permanently dropped from the database
D. All the objects of scott in the Recycle Bin must be purged before executing the DROP command
E. Any objects in the Recycle Bin belonging to scott will not be affected by the above DROP command

Correct Answer: BC QUESTION 2
Which client requests to the database can be captured as a part of the workload capture? (Choose all that apply.)
A. Flashback query
B. Distributed transactions
C. Logging in and logging out of sessions
D. All DDL statements having bind variables
E. Direct path load of data from external files

Correct Answer: CD QUESTION 3
You executed the following SQL statement to shrink the EMPLOYEES table segment stored in the
EXAMPLE tablespace:
ALTER TABLE employees SHRINK SPACE CASCADE;
Which statement is correct in this scenario?

A. The EMPLOYEES table will be changed to read-only mode during the shrink operation
B. The indexes created on the EMPLOYEES table will need to be rebuilt after the shrink operation is over
C. The shrink behavior will be cascaded to all dependent segments of the table that support a shrink operation
D. Data manipulation language (DML) operations will not be possible on the EMPLOYYES table during the COMPACTION phase of the shrink operation

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 4
You want to convert your existing non-ASM files to ASM files for the database PROD. Which method or command would you use to accomplish this task?
A. Data Pump Export and Import
B. Conventional export and import
C. The CONVERT command of RMAN
D. The BACKUP AS COPY….. command of RMAN

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 5
You have three production databases, HRDB, FINDB and ORGDB that use the same ASM instance. At the
end of the day, while all three production database instances are running, you execute the following
command on the ASM instance.
SQL> shutdown immediate;
What is the result of executing this command?

A. The ASM instance is shut down, but the other instances are still running
B. It results in an error because other database instances are connected to it
C. All the instances, including the ASM instance, are shut down in the IMMEDIATE mode
D. HRDB, FINDB and ORGDB instances are shut down in the ABORT mode and the ASM instance is shut down in the IMMEDIATE mode

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 6
You are managing an Oracle 11g database with ASM storage, for which the COMPATIBLE initialization parameter is set to 11.1.0. In the ASM instance, the COMPATIBLE.RDBMS attribute for the disk group is set to 10.2 and the COMPATIBLE.ASM attribute is set to 11.1. Which two statements are in this scenario for the features enabled for ASM? (Choose two.)
A. The ASM-preferred mirror read feature is enabled
B. The ASM supports variable size of extents of 1,8 and 64 allocation units
C. The ASM disk is dropped immediately from a disk group when it becomes unavailable
D. The RDBMS always reads the primary copy of a mirrored extent of the ASM disk group

Correct Answer: AB QUESTION 7
You have three temporary tablespace groups named G1, G3 and G3 in you database.
You are creating a new temporary tablespace as follows:
CREATE TEMPORARY TABLESAPCE TEMP1 TEMPFILE `/u1/data/temp1.dbf’ SIZE 10M TABLESPACE

GROUP”;
Which statement regarding the above command is correct?

A. It will create the tablespace TEMP1 in group G1
B. It will create the tablespace TEMP1 in group G3
C. It will not add the tablespace TEMP1 to any group
D. It will create the tablespace TEMP1 in the default group

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 8
You executed the following SQL statement to shrink the EMPLOYEES table segment stored in the
EXAMPLE tablespace:
ALTER TABLE employees SHRINK SPACE CASCADE;
Which statement is correct in this scenario?

A. The EMPLOYEES table will be changed to read-only mode during the shrink operation
B. The indexes created on the EMPLOYEES table will need to be rebuilt after the shrink operation is over
C. The shrink behavior will be cascaded to all dependent segments of the table that support a shrink operation
D. Data manipulation language (DML) operations will not be possible on the EMPLOYYES table during the COMPACTION phase of the shrink operation

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 9
You have the following requirements in relation to the detection of block corruption for your database instance:
1.
Check for logical self-consistency of data blocks when modified in memory

2.
Checksums are calculated before and after the block change

3.
Checks are performed for the lost writes to the physical standby database Which method would help you perform the above checks automatically?
A. Set the DB_SECUREFILE parameter to PERMITTED
B. Set the DB_ULTRA_SAFE parameter to DATA_ONLY
C. Set the DB_LOCK_CHECKSUM parameter to TYPICAL
D. Set the DB_LOST _WRITE_PROTECT parameter to TYPICAL

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 10
Which client requests to the database can be captured as a part of the workload capture? (Choose all that apply.)
A. Flashback query
B. Distributed transactions
C. Logging in and logging out of sessions
D. All DDL statements having bind variables
E. Direct path load of data from external files

Correct Answer: CD QUESTION 11
ENCRYPT_TS is an encrypted tablespace that contains tables with data. Which statement is true regarding the effect of queries and data manipulation language (DML) statements on the encrypted data in the tables?
A. The data is decrypted during SORT and JOIN operations
B. The data remains encrypted when it is read into memory
C. The data remains encrypted when it is stored in the redo logs
D. The data remains encrypted in the UNDO tablespace provided that the UNDO tablespace was created with the encryption option enabled

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 12
See the Exhibit:

To examine the error obtained during the I/O calibration process.
There are no data files on raw devices. What is the reason for this error?

A. The DISK_ASYNCH_IO parameter is set to TRUE
B. The FILESYSTEMIO_OPTIONS parameter is set to NONE
C. Another session runs the I/O calibration process concurrently
D. The pending area has not been created before running the I/O calibration process

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 13
See the exhibit: To examine the error while executing the REPARI FAILURe command in an RMAN session. What is the reason for this error?

A. Another repair session is running concurrently
B. The failure ID has not been mentioned in the command for data file5.
C. There are new failures recorded in the Automatic Diagnostic Repository (ADR).
D. The ADVISE FAILURE command has not been issued before the REPAIR FAILURE command.

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 14
The Oracle Database 11g database is running in the ARCHIVELOG mode. The archived redo log files are
stored on three locations. The Flash Recovery Area is one of the locations. The details are given below:

LOG_ARCHIVE_DEST_1 = `LOCATION = /disk1/archive’ LOG_ARCHIVE_DEST_2 = `SERVICE = stdb1′
DB-RECOVERY_FILE_DEST = `/u01/oradata’
Examine the following RMAN command is used to set the deletion policy for archived log files:

RMAN> CONFIGURE ARCHIVELOG DELETION POLICY TO BACKED up 2 TIMES TO sbt;

Which statement is true regarding what this command accomplishes?

A. All archived redo log files backed up at least twice to tape are deleted
B. All archived redo log files backed up at least once to tape are eligible for deletion C. All archived redo log files backed up at least twice to tape are deleted from the flash recovery area
D. All archived redo log files in local archiving destinations and the flash recovery area backed up at least twice to tape are eligible for deletion

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 15
You want to convert you existing non-ASM files to ASM files for the database PROD. Which method or command would you use to accomplish this task?
A. Data Pump Export and Import
B. Conventional export and import
C. The COVERT command of RMAN
D. The BACKUP AS COPY….. command of RMAN

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 16
See the Exhibit: In the CUSTOMERS_OBE table, when the value of COST_STATE_PROVINCE is “CA”, the value of COUNTRY_ID is “US”. See the exhibit to examine the commands and query plans.

The optimizer can sense 8 rows instead of 29 rows, which is the actual number of rows in the table. What can you do to make the optimizer detect the actual selectivity?
A. Set the STATISTICS_LEVEL parameter to TYPICAL
B. Change the STALE_PERCENT value for the CUSTOMERS_OBE table
C. Set the OPTIMIZER_USE_PENDiNG_STATISTICS parameter to FALSE
D. Create extended statistics for the CUST_STATE_PROVINCE and COUNTRY_ID columns

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 17
You plan to set up the automatic Workload Repository (AWR) baseline metric threshold for moving window baseline. Which action would you take before performing this task?
A. Compute the baseline statistics
B. Take an immediate AWR snapshot
C. Decrease the window size for the baseline
D. Decrease the expiration time for the baseline

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 18
See the following PL/SQL block:
DECLARE
my_plans pls_integer,
BEGIN
My_plans := DBMS_SPM.LOAD_PLANS_FROM_CURSOR_CACHE(sql_id=> >9twu5t2dn5xd?;

END;

Which statement is true about the plan being loaded into the SQL plan baseline by the above command?

A. It is loaded with the FIXED status
B. It is loaded with the ACCEPTED status
C. It is not loaded with the ENABLED status
D. It is not loaded with the ACCEPTED status

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 19
Identify the three predefined server-generated alerts. (Choose three.)
A. Drop User
B. Tablespace Space Usage
C. Resumable Session Suspended
D. Recovery Area Low On Free Space
E. SYSTEM Tablespace Size Increment

Correct Answer: BCD QUESTION 20
You perform the following activities during the database upgrade from Oracle Database 10g to Oracle Database 11g;
1.
Capture plans for a SQL workload into a SQL Tuning Set (STS) before upgrade

2.
Load these plans from the STS into the SQL plan baseline immediately after the upgrade What is the reason for performing these activities?
A. To minimize plan regression due to the use of a new optimizer version
B. To completely avoid the use of new plans generated by a new optimizer version
C. To prevent plan capturing when the SQL statement is executed after the database upgrade
D. To keep the plan in the plan history so that is can be used when the older version of the optimizer is used

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 21

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QUESTION: 1
What two steps are required to create a root repository in an Oracle VM server pool?

A. Use the repos.py command with the –new option, along with either a device path or an nfs path.
B. Use the repos.py command with the –new option, along with the UUID assigned to the repository.
C. Use the repos.py command with the–new option, along with the UUID assigned to the repository and a device path.
D. Use the repos.py command with the path. -root option, along with either a device path or an nfs path.
E. Use the repos.py command with the–root option, along with the UUID assigned to the repository.
Answer: A, E
QUESTION: 2
When converting hardware virtualized machine to full PV, the guest falls to boot. What line in vm.cfq is likely leftover from the HVM configuration?
A. vnclisten = ‘0.0.0.0’
B. pae =1
C. builder=’hvm’
D. serial=’pty’
Answer: D

QUESTION: 3
In hardware virtualized environment, which answer best describes the drivers that are used in dom0 and the guest to communicate network I/O requests?
A. QEMU emulation is used in dom0, and a netfront driver is used in the guest.
B. A native device driver is used in dom0, and QEMU emulation is used in the guest.
C. A netfront driver is used in dom0, and a netback driver is used in the guest.
D. QEMU emulation is used in dom0, and a native device driver is used in the guest.
E. Native drivers are used in both dom0 and the guest
Answer: C QUESTION: 4

When using NFS, what technology is used to control locking on the NFS mount?
A. Oracle VM uses the same DLM (distributed lock manager) for NFS as it does for OCFS2 partitions.
B. The standard NFS drivers are sufficient to properly lock files in an NFS repository.
C. Oracle VM ships with the IO-EMU drivers, which provide proper locking for files on an NFS repository.
D. Oracle VM ships with a DM-NFS server, which runs on the master pool server and handles distributed file locking for an NFS repository.
Answer: A

QUESTION: 5
When crating a repository on an iSCSI LUN, how should the LUN be formatted?
A. The LUN should be formatted with ext3 from every participating node in the cluster.
B. The LUN should be formatted with ext3 from a single node in the cluster.
C. The LUN should be formatted with OCFS2 from every participating node in the cluster.
D. The LUN should be partitioned, and then formatted with OCFS2 from every participating node in the cluster.
E. The LUN should be formatted with OCFS2 from a single node in the cluster.
Answer: D
QUESTION: 6
What task can an Administrator do that a Manager cannot in Oracle VM Manager?
A. manage server pools
B. manage servers
C. manage resources
D. manage virtual machines
E. create users and groups
F. import resources
Answer: E QUESTION: 7

You have a large number of virtual machines that need access to a storage repository. Which answer describes the factors you use to determine your storage repository strategy?
A. Oracle VM 2.x has multiple identical storage repositories. Additional identical repositories can be added as needed. A best practice is to select a medium size for the repository based on your usage.
B. The way to grow an Oracle VM 2.x storage repository is to add additional space to the rootrepository as needed. A best practice is to only configure additional space when determined it is needed.
C. Oracle VM 2.x has a single fixed storage repository. A best practice is to configure the repository with 30%-40% headroom for growth.
D. The way to grow an Oracle VM 2.x storage repository is to add sub-repositories beneath the root repository. A best practice is to provision one or more larger repositories to avoid the management overhead of numerous sub-repositories.
Answer: A

QUESTION: 8
In Oracle 2.2.x under which directory does each repository create a mount point and what is the name of subdirectory?
A. Each repository will create mount point under /OVS, with a directory named using the UUID of the respiratory.
B. Each repository will create a mount point under /var/ovs, In a directory named using the UUID ofthe repository.
C. Each repository will create a mount point under /var/ovs/mount, in a directory named using theUUID of the repository.
D. Each repository will create a mount point under /OVS, with a directory named using a sequencenumber starting at 0.
E. Each repository will create a mount point under /var/ovs, with a directory named using a sequence number starting at 0.
F. Each repository will create a mount point under /var/ovs/mount, with a directory named using a sequence number starting at 0.
Answer: A
QUESTION: 9
What requirements apply to shared storage on an HA Server Pool?

A. Each server in the pool must have a connection to the shared storage, using NFS, ISCSI or a SAN Either ext3 or OCFS2 should be used to format the shared file system. B. Each server in the pool must have a connection to the shared storage, using NFS, (SCSI or a SAN. Either gfs or OCFS2 should be used to format the shared file system.
C. t least one server in the pool must have a connection to the shared storage, using iSCSI or a SAN. Either ext3 or OCFS2 should be used to format the shared file system.
D. Each server in the pool must have a connection to the shared storage, using iSCSI or a SAN. Only OCFS2 should be used to format the shared file system when using iSCSI or a SAN.
E. Each server in the pool must have a connection to the shared storage, using NFS, iSCSI or a SAN. Only OCFS2 should be used to format the shared file system when using iSCSI or a SAN.
Answer: E

QUESTION: 10
In a paravirtualized environment, which answer best describes the drivers that are used in domO and the guest to communicate block I/O requests?
A. A blkback driver is used in dom0, and a blkfront driver is used in the guest.
B. A native device driver is used in dom0, and a blkback driver is used in the guest.
C. A blkfront driver is used in dom0, and a native device driver is used in the guest.
D. A blkfront driver is used in dom0, and a blkbck driver is used in the guest.
E. Native drivers are used in both dom0 and the guest.
Answer: A

QUESTION: 11
In Oracle VM 2.2.x, what directory will the root repository be symbolically linked to on each Oracle VM Server attached to a storage pool?
A. /OVS3
B. /var/ovs/mount/root
C. /var/ovs/mount/OVSROOT
D. /OVSROOT
E. /var/OVS
F. /opt/ovs
Answer: F
QUESTION: 12

During installation of Oracle VM Manager to a new Oracle Enterprise Linux server, the installer fails with a message indicating that there is insufficient swap space. What is the cause for this error?
A. The installer has determined that the Oracle application server’s (OC4J) minimum requirement for swap space has not been met.
B. The installer has determined that the Oracle Database XE server’s minimum requirement for swap space has not been met.
C. The installer has determined that there is insufficient swap space to unpack the installer into the /var subdirectory.
D. The installer has determined that the swap space recognized by the system has been incorrectly formatted to use TMPFS instead of SWAPFS.
Answer: B

QUESTION: 13
In a paravirtualized environment, which answer best describes the drivers that are used in domO and the guest to communicate network I/O requests?
A. A netback driver is used in dom0, and a netfront driver is used in the guest.
B. A native device driver is used in dom0, and a netback driver is used in the guest.
C. A netfront driver is used in dom0, and a native device driver is used in the guest.
D. A netfront driver is used in dom0, and a blkbck driver is used in the guest.
E. Native drivers are used in both dom0 and the guest.
Answer: E

QUESTION: 14
The Oracle VM administrator is having issues shutting down a virtual machine. Which log file will best help troubleshoot whether the shutdown command is being successfully executed on the target server?
A. /var/log/ovs-agent/ovs_performance.log
B. /var/log/ovs-agent/ovs_operation.log
C. /var/log/xen/xend.log
D. /var/log/xen/xend-debug.log
Answer: C
QUESTION: 15

Oracle VM Server 2.2 consists of which two software components?
A. Oracle Database XE
B. Oracle Enterprise Linux 5.3
C. Xen Hypervisor
D. Oracle Containers for Java (OC4J)
E. Oracle WebLogic Server (WLS)
Answer: B, C

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QUESTION NO: 1
Which interface provides the ability to see changes in real-time as they occur?
A. ConcunentMap
B. java. util. AbstractMap
C. ObservableMap
D. InvocableMap
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 2
Coherence provides the ideal infrastructure for building services, and the
applications.
A. Data Grid, Client and Server based
B. Ouster, Client and Server based
C. Data Grid, DNS based
D. Cloud cluster, Client and Server based
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 3
Node Manager is a WebLogic Server that enables you to start, shut down, and restart Administration Server and Managed Server instances from a remote location.
A. Instance
B. Utility
C. Destination
D. Ouster
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 4
Which two Oracle products come pre-packaged with Oracle’s JRockit JDK?
A. Oracle WebLogic Server
B. Oracle Coherence
C. Oracle Database
D. Oracle Real Time Operations Control
Answer: A,B
QUESTION NO: 5
Which three of the following are considered Fixed Asset Depreciation Rule Components?
A. International Depreciation Methods
B. Header
C. Annual Rules
D. Rule Conventions
E. Predefined Depreciation Methods
Answer: B,C,D
QUESTION NO: 6
As a best practice, what would you change in the following command line to create successful domain template “My WebLogic Domain”?
Pack -domain=C: \oracle\user_projects\domains\mydomain – template=C:\oracle\user_templates\mydomain -template_name=”My WebLogic Domain”
A. Pack -domain=C:\oracle\user projects\domains\mydomain.dll – template=C:\oracle\user_templates\mydomain.jar -template_name=”My WebLogic Domain”
B. Pack-domain=C:\oracle\user_projects\domains\mydomain.jar – template=C:\oracle\userJ:emplates\mydomain -template_name=nMy WebLogic Domain”
C. Pack -domain=C:\oracle\user_projects\domains\mydomain – template=C:\oracle\user_templates\mydornain.jar -template_name=”My WebLogic Domain”
D. Pack -domain=C:\oracle\user_projects\domains\mydomain.jar – template=C:\oracle\user_templates\mydomain.jar -template_name=”My WebLogic Domain”
Answer: C QUESTION NO: 7

In a typical production environment, which server(s) hosts the application?
A. Node Server
B. Administration Server
C. Managed Server
D. Configuration Server
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 8
In a typical production environment, which server(s) hosts the application?
A. Node Server
B. Administration Server
C. Managed Server
D. Configuration Server
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 9
Which three data source integrations are provided by Coherence out of the box?
A. TopLink Grid and TopLink Essentials
B. Java Persistence API (JPA)
C. Open Database Connectivity (ODBC)
D. File System
E. Java Database Connectivity (JDBC)
Answer: A,B,E QUESTION NO: 10

Which two statements are true about the Application Grid?
A. Application Grid computing brings key industry-leading technologies like MS IIS and Grade WebLogic Server together.
B. Application Grid computing promotes well architected sharing of resources.
C. Application Grid computing is based on Oracle’s RAC technology.
D. Application Grid computing results in more predictable behavior through better Instrumentation and more optimal allocation of resources.
Answer: B,D
QUESTION NO: 11
Which statement is true about XpauseTarget in Oracle JRockit JVM?
A. This option is supported by all type of Garbage collection modes.
B. This option is only supported by Generational Garbage Collection mode.
C. This option is only supported by Mark and Sweep Garbage Collection Model.
D. This option is only supported by Dynamic Garbage Collection Model.
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 12
Identify the feature of WebLogic JMS: If the message destination (5, not available at the moment the sages are being sent, either because of network problems or system failures, then the messages are saved on a local server instance, and are forwarded to the remote destination once it becomes available.
A. Unit of Work
B. Store-and-Forward
C. Unit of Order
D. Distributed Destinations
Answer: B QUESTION NO: 13

In Real Operations Insight, metrics are sent from the various WebLogic Suite components into Enterprise Manager for and .
A. Optimization
B. Visualization
C. Automation
D. Customization
Answer: A,C
QUESTION NO: 14
When scaling Coherence from one to two cache servers, it will not show the same scalability as two to four. Why?
A. Coherence uses a more efficient TCMP algorithm going from two to four cache servers.
B. When going from one to two cache servers, object backups are copied across servers so work is doubled, but going from two to four is a fixed amount of work.
C. Near cache is enabled with a larger quorum thus performance is improved.
D. All of the above.
Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 15
This is a special WebLogic Server instance included by the WebLogic Server Domains. It represents a central point from which you configure and manage all resources in the domain.
A. Managed Server
B. Web Server
C. Administration Server
D. Node Server
Answer: C QUESTION NO: 16
You are an Enterprise Architect in a large IT organization. Your organization has deployed applications on a variety of containers such as WLS, WebSphere, and JBoss.
Why would you consider consolidating on a single type of container (instead of a mix)?
A. Guarantee of higher application performance and reliability if the transactions are flowing between instances of the same container type.
B. Easier to build a Shared Services infrastructure that can provide best practices, tools and expertise around HA/Management… with a single type of container than a mix of multiple types.
C. You’ll save on hardware costs with a homogeneous environment.
D. It’s a necessary step in our move toward adopting SOA.
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 17
Which two statements are true when a Coherence cluster member is lost?
A. Remaining members recover by repartitioning the data across the remaining cluster members in parallel with normal request processing.
B. Some latencies may be experienced due to higher priority of recovery.
C. In flight operations may be lost.
D. A system administrator must manually assist recovery of the lost data.
Answer: A,B

QUESTION NO: 18
Which two statements are true about Oracle JRockit Mission Control (JRMC)?
A. JRMC is platform neutral. It supports most JVMs in market.
B. JRMC is used for Deep visibility and analysis of single JVMs.
C. JRMC comes with custom in-memory agents and is supported by standard APIs (JVMT1).
D. JRMC is bundled with the WebLogic Suite and WebLogic Server EE.

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QUESTION 1
Which six files are involved in database recovery for block storage option after a database crash?
A. Essn.pag data
B. Essn.ind index
C. Essn.dat
D. Temp.dat
E. Dbname.esm – kernel file that contains control information for db recovery
F. Dbname.tct – transaction control table
G. Dbname.ind – free fragment file for data and index free fragments
H. DBname.otl
I. Metadata folder

Correct Answer: ABEFGH Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
If there is a problem with any one of these essential database files, the entire database becomes corrupted
and Essbase Server cannot start the database:

*
essn.pag (A)

*
essn.ind (B)

*
dbname.esm (E)

*
dbname.tct (F)

*
dbname.ind (G)

*
dbname.otl (for block storage databases) (H): Outline file, which stores all metadata for a database and defines how data is stored, but does not store data itself
To restore the database, delete these file, restart the database, and reload from data files or from export files backed up before the corruption.
References:
QUESTION 2
Which two options would provide a better design for the following accounts and metrics?

A. If there are a small number of accounts that require FTE and Expense dollars, split Accounts and Metrics into 2 dimensions
B. If there are a large number of accounts that require FTE and Expense dollars, split Accounts and Metrics into 2 dimensions
C. If reporting dictates FTE and dollars in the columns and accounts in the rows, split Accounts and Metrics into 2 dimensions
D. If block size is large, then keep Accounts and Metrics as one dimension with a dense dimension

Correct Answer: BD Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Use Application Design Best Practices, Minimize the number of dimensions, Avoid Repetition in dimensions, Avoid inter dimensional irrelevance.

QUESTION 3
Identify the two true statements about incremental loading.
A. Allows for real time data access for end users.
B. Creates *subscribes* along the main slice in the database.
C. Materialization of slices is required to provide users the correct query results.
D. Different materialized views may exist within a slice as compared to the main slice of the database.

Correct Answer: AC Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
A: Incremental loading and fast aggregation can provide near real-time analysis of transactional data.
C: Incremental loading creates subcubes or slices alongside the primary slice of the database.
Note: Following a data load, Essbase ASO does not store any aggregate values, but instead calculates them on demand. For large databases, where the time required to generate these values may become inconvenient, the database can materialize one or more aggregate “views”, made up of one aggregate level from each dimension (for example, the database may calculate all combinations of the fifth generation of Product with the third generation of Customer), and these views are then used to generate other aggregate values where possible. This process can be partially automated, where the administrator specifies the amount of disk space that may be used, and the database generates views according to actual usage. This approach has a major drawback in that the cube cannot be treated for calculation purposes as a single large hypercube, because aggregate values cannot be directly controlled, so write-back from front-end tools is limited, and complex calculations that cannot be expressed as MDX expressions are not possible.
Hyperion Essbase – System 9 Database Administrator’s Guide
QUESTION 4
You should back up the following three for ASO.
A. Hyperion_Home \common
B. Essbaseinstallfolder\bin
C. ARBORPATH \app\appname
D. Essbaseinstallfolder \locale
E. Essbase.sec
F. Essbase.cfg

Correct Answer: CEF Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
C: The application directory should be backup up. BAckups for ASO File system backups are the best method for aggregate storage databases. To backup an ASO database, 9.1. Stop the application. 9.2. Using the File system to back up the arborpath\app\appname
E: essbase.sec* — Essbase security file
F: essbase.cfg — Essbase Server configuration file
References:
QUESTION 5
You have the following analysis requirement. Products roll up to Product Family which rolls up to Product Category. You also need to group Products by Product Manager. Product Managers may manage one or more Products across product families. You do not need to create reports with Product Manager by Product Family. You need to secure products by Product Manager for planning submissions.
You consider Shared members as a solution because of which two options?
A. Shared members provide cross tab reporting (Product Manager in the rows and Product Family across the column)
B. Shared members provide additional categorization but results in a smaller database then if you were to add Product Manager as a separate dimension
C. You can assign security to shared members
D. Shared members can be assigned to sparse members only

Correct Answer: BC Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: The data values associated with a shared member come from another member with the same name. The shared member stores a pointer to data contained in the other member, and the data is stored only once. To define a member as shared, an actual nonshared member of the same name must exist. Using shared members lets you use members repeatedly throughout a dimension. Essbase stores the data value only once, but it displays in multiple locations. Storing the data value only once saves space and improves processing efficiency. (B)
Shared members must be in the same dimension. Data can be shared by multiple members.
QUESTION 6
Identify four disadvantages / considerations when using a transparent partition.
A. Old data
B. Slow retrievals
C. Slow calculations if referencing dynamic calc members in the source
D. Outline sync complexities
E. Increased network load
F. Downtime required to sync data

Correct Answer: BCDE Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Disadvantages of Transparent Partitions
*
Outline synchronization is required (D)
If you make changes to one outline, the two outlines are no longer synchronized. Although Essbase makes
whatever changes it can to replicated and transparent partitions when the outlines are not synchronized,
Essbase may not be able to make the data in the data source available in the data target. Essbase tracks
changes that you make to block storage outlines and provides tools to keep your block storage outlines
synchronized.
Note:
Essbase does not enable automatic synchronization of aggregate storage outlines. You must manually
make the same changes to the source and target outlines.
*
Transparent partitions increase network activity, because Essbase transfers the data at the data source
across the network to the data target. Increased network activity results in slower retrieval times for users.

(E)

*
Because more users are accessing the data source, retrieval time may be slower. (B)
*
If the data source fails, users at both the data source and the data target are affected. Therefore, the
network and data source must be available whenever users at the data source or data target need them.
*
(C) When you perform a calculation on a transparent partition, Essbase performs the calculation using
the current values of the local data and transparent dependents. Essbase does not recalculate the values
of transparent dependents, because the outlines for the data source and the data target may be so
different that such a calculation is inaccurate. To calculate all partitions, issue a CALC ALL command for
each individual partition, and then perform a CALC ALL command at the top level using the new values for
each partition.
*
Formulas assigned to members in the data source may produce calculated results that are inconsistent
with formulas or consolidations defined in the data target, and vice versa.
Note: Advantages of Transparent Partitions Transparent partitions can solve many database problems, but transparent partitions are not always the ideal partition type.

*
You need less disk space, because you are storing the data in one database.

*
The data accessed from the data target is always the latest version. (not A)

*
When the user updates the data at the data source, Essbase makes those changes at the data target.

*
Individual databases are smaller, so they can be calculated more quickly.

*
The distribution of the data is invisible to the end user and the end user’s tools.

*
You can load the data from either the data source or data target.

*
You can enable write-back functionality for aggregate storage databases by creating a transparent partition between an aggregate storage database as the source and a block storage database as the target.
QUESTION 7
Assuming Sales and Year are sparse and Actual is dense, what two actions will the following calc script perform?
FIX (Actual, @CY, Sales) DATAEXPORT “BINFILE” “data.txt”; ENDFIX
A. Export the data for actual, current year, sales into a text file called data.txt
B. Export the data for actual, current year into a text file called data.txt
C. Export data blocks in a compressed encrypted format
D. Create a text file that can be imported using the DATAIMPORTBIN calc command in another database that has different dimensionality

Correct Answer: AC Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The FIX…ENDFIX command block restricts database calculations to a subset of the database. All
commands nested between the FIX and ENDFIX statements are restricted to the specified database
subset.
Syntax:
FIX (fixMbrs)COMMANDS ;ENDFIX

fixMbrs: A member name or list of members from any number of database dimensions.

DATAEXPORT writes data to a text file, binary file, or as direct input to a relational file using ODBC. The
data blocks will be saved in a compressed encrypted format to a text file. For a binary output
file:DATAEXPORT “Binfile” “fileName”

QUESTION 8
A calculation script is performed on a database for which Create Block on Equation is OFF. The command SET CREATEBLOCKONEQ ON is issued immediately before an equation in the script. Which statement accurately describe when blocks will be created?
A. Blocks will be created ONLY when the equation assigns non-constant values to members of a sparse dimension
B. Blocks will be created ONLY when the equation assigns constant values to members of a sparse dimension
C. Blocks will be created when the equation assigns either constant or non-constant values to members of a sparse dimension.
D. No blocks will be created.

Correct Answer: C Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
C: Blocks are always (whether or not CREATEBLOCKONEQ is ON or OFF) created when a constant value is assigned to a member of a sparse dimension (for which a block does not exist). When SET CREATEBLOCKONEQ ON blocks will also be created when an non-constant value is assigned to a member of a sparse dimension (for which a block does not exist) in a new block.
Note: If this would be a select two alternative question, the alternatives would have to be reworded slightly
differently.

Note #1:
The SET CREATEBLOCKONEQ command controls, within a calculation script, whether or not new blocks
are created when a calculation formula assigns anything other than a constant to a member of a sparse
dimension. SET CREATEBLOCKONEQ overrides the Create Block on Equation setting for the database.

Syntax: SET CREATEBLOCKONEQ ON|OFF;
ON: When a calculation formula assigns a non-constant value to a member of a sparse dimension for
which a block does not exist, Analytic Services creates a new block.

Note #2: The Create Blocks on Equation setting is a database property. The initial value for the Create
Blocks on Equation setting is OFF; no new blocks are created when something other than a constant is
assigned to a sparse dimension member. You can use Administration Services or MaxL to set the Create
Blocks on Equation setting to ON at the database-level. For more information about enabling the Create
Blocks on Equation property for a database, see MaxL documentation in the Technical Reference or
Administration Services online help.
For more specific control, you can use the SET CREATEBLOCKONEQ calculation command within a
calculation script to control creation of new blocks at the time the command is encountered in the script.
Use of the SET CREATEBLOCKONEQ calculation command has the following characteristics:

*
When Analytic Services encounters a SET CREATEBLOCKONEQ command within a calculation script, Analytic Services ignores the database-level setting.

*
Where needed in the calculation script, you can use multiple SET CREATEBLOCKONEQ commands to define the Create Blocks on Equation setting value for the calculations that follow each command.

*
The value set by the SET CREATEBLOCKONEQ command stays in affect until the next SET CREATEBLOCKONEQ command is processed or the calculation script is finished.
References:
QUESTION 9
Market size is an attribute dimension with the following members: Large, Medium, and Small.
Which of the following options below represent valid syntax statements in a calc script?
A. FIX (@ATTRIBUTE(Large))
B. Calc Dim (Accounts, Markets, “Market Size”);
C. Calc Dim (Accounts, Markets, Market Size);
D. FIX(Large)

Correct Answer: AB Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
For example, using Sample Basic, assume this statement is in a calculation script:
FIX (@children(january))CALC DIM (Accounts, Product, Market)ENDFIX
QUESTION 10
Moving a stored entity member in a sparse dimension causes_________.
A. a Full restructure
B. an Index restructure
C. an Outline restructure
D. No restructure

Correct Answer: B Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
If a member of a sparse dimension is moved, deleted, or added, Essbase restructures the index and
creates new index files. Restructuring the index is relatively fast; the time required depends on the index
size.

QUESTION 11
During a multidimensional analysis getting data from a supplemental data source is an example of________.
A. Drill across
B. Drill Through
C. Trending
D. Pivoting

Correct Answer: A Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
QUESTION 12
Identify the two true statements about expense reporting tags.
A. Provide accurate time balance calculations
B. Provide accurate variance reporting on revenue and expense accounts
C. Are assigned to the dimension tagged Time
D. Are assigned to the dimension tagged Accounts
E. Are assigned to the Dimension containing variance members.

Correct Answer: BD Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
B: The variance reporting calculation requires that any item that represents an expense to the company
must have an expense reporting tag.
Essbase provides two variance reporting properties: expense and non-expense. The default is non-
expense.
Variance reporting properties define how Essbase calculates the difference between actual and budget
data in members with the @VAR or @VARPER function in their member formulas.

D: Expense reporting is tagged to the accounts dimension such that variance, profit etc. Member will not
show the negative value when we calculate it.

Note: The first, last, average, and expense tags are available exclusively for use with accounts dimension members.
QUESTION 13
You are building a sales analysis model. In this model there is no requirement for calculation. The user needs to aggregate data across all dimensions and wants to archive many years of data. Archived data will be analyzed once in while.
What types of cube would you build using Essbase for this kind of requirement?
A. Block Storage
B. XOLAP
C. Aggregate Storage
D. Virtual Cube

Correct Answer: C Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Consider using the aggregate storage storage model if the following is true for your database:

*The database is sparse and has many dimensions, and/or the dimensions have many levels of members.
*The database is used primarily for read-only purposes, with few or no data updates. (C) *The outline
contains no formulas except in the dimension tagged as Accounts. *Calculation of the database is
frequent, is based mainly on summation of the data, and does not rely on calculation scripts.

QUESTION 14
How are the ASO data files managed?
A. Page files
B. Index files
C. Table spaces
D. Bin files

Correct Answer: C Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
With regard to ASO, table spaces are comparable to page and index files For ASO – the data is stored in
table spaces in a .dat file in the \App\Appname\default folder. Again the format is some type of binary and
you cannot open the file and do anything with the contents.
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