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QUESTION 22
Which statement is true about configuring users for OMi? (Select three.)
A. They can assume either an administrator’s or an operator’s role, but not both.
B. There needs to be a corresponding user on the OS level.
C. They are separate from other HP BSM modules’ users.
D. Capabilities on the group level are merged with the individual ones.
E. Single-sign-on configurations in the HP BSM platform will be honored.
F. You can export/import them to exchange with other OMi servers.

Correct Answer: DEF
QUESTION 23
How can an OMi user access graphical details of historical load characteristics related to an event?
A. Select Admin > Operations Management > Service Perspective, and then select the event of interest. In the Actions panel, select the Show Performance Graph item in the list.
B. Select Applications > Operations Management > Event Perspective, and then select the event of interest. In the Actions panel, select the Show Performance Graph item in the list.
C. Select Applications > Operations Management > Service Perspective, and then select the event of interest. In the Actions panel, select the Show Performance Graph item in the list.
D. Select Applications > Operations Management > Performance Perspective, and then select the event of interest. In the Actions panel, select the Show Performance Graph item in the list.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 24
When defining a tool, what is a type of run-time parameter that can be inserted into a command?
A. CI Attributes
B. Event Settings
C. HP BSM Host
D. Management Server Attributes
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 25
What is the primary reason for associating a tool with a category?
A. to aid in report creation
B. to assign tools to CI types
C. to control access to tools
D. to sort the list of tools in the operator interface
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 26
What is a key benefit of OMi?
A. frees up operator time by passing incidents across to subject matter experts
B. pinpoints who fixed incidents
C. frees up subject matter experts by de-skilling diagnosis of incidents
D. shows how quickly incidents were fixed

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 27
What is a key benefit of TBEC?
A. to identify the affected CIs
B. to identify the servers from which the message came
C. to give the status of affected CIs
D. to enable the identification of root cause events

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 28
How does OMi, in ITIL terminology, provide the highest value?
A. as an incident correlator
B. as an incident consolidator
C. as an integration between the CMDB and incidents
D. as an Operations Bridge

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 29
For most executives, what is the primary financial driver for investing in OMi?
A. to enable first line IT operations staff to resolve a larger percentage of technical issues
B. to enable first line IT operations staff to quickly and seamlessly escalate to the more experienced subject matter experts
C. to enable experienced subject matter experts to access event information and tools
D. to enable IT managers to easily determine the effectiveness of each IT operations team member

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 30
What does OMi in the HP BSM Platform provide?
A. bottom up analysis from agentry
B. bottom up analysis from Operations Manager
C. the link between bottom up and top down analyses
D. top down analysis of service information

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 31
In a comprehensive HP BSM deployment, OMi is required to provide which functionality to the BSM solution set?
A. consolidated view of events received from a wide variety of sources in the IT environment
B. Top View graphical display of business services and underlying CIs, color-coded based on KPI status
C. the capability to alert business service owners of performance and threshold breaches
D. Impact Analysis, based on interdependencies between CIs and preconfigured impact rules
Correct Answer: A QUESTION 32
Which statement is true about the Health Indicator?
A. It provides detailed information about the health of the HP BSM server.
B. It provides the connection between events and KPIs.
C. It is reset upon closure of an event.
D. It is synchronized with the domain manager.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 33
An HP BSM installation already has an Event Management license deployed. Which additional license is required in order to include a system managed by a third-party (non-HP) management solution, where events are consolidated in OMi?
A. Target Connector license
B. Topology-Based Event Correlation license
C. No additional license is required
D. Operations Manager license

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 34
Which panels used by operators to search, select, analyze, and resolve events does the OMi user interface provide by default? (Select three.)
A. Health Perspective
B. Event Perspective
C. System Availability Management
D. Key Indicator Perspective
E. Performance Perspective
F. Service Level Management Perspective

Correct Answer: ABE
QUESTION 35
Why is a Global ID used?
A. to allow CIs to be mapped to models in the CMDB
B. to identify the system uniquely
C. to identify the CI uniquely across the BTO portfolio
D. to identify the source of Operations Manager messages
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 36
Which statement is true about Event Type Indicator (ETI) values used in TBEC rules?
A. ETIs are not used in TBEC rules.
B. The name and value of the ETI must match those specified in the TBEC rule.
C. The name of the ETI must match the one specified in the TBEC rule.
D. The value of the ETI must match one of the values specified in the TBEC rule.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 37
An event that has been identified as a “cause” event is closed by an operator, and all of the associated

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QUESTION 1
You are tuning a customer HP StoreOnce Backup System and notice they are running backups 20 hours a day. As a result, backup jobs are running during the same time as replication jobs. What can you do to limit the available bandwidth and not saturate the link with replication traffic?
A. Enable multiplexing and set concurrency to 1.
B. Enable concurrency control.
C. Map multiple source libraries into a single target library.
D. Enable compression.

Correct Answer: B Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Hewlett-Packard StoreOnce B6000 Configuration Manual Page 40: “7. The use of “concurrency control” is not necessary if replication is run at separate times from
backups and housekeeping. However, if the customer wants to run replication at the same time as backups or housekeeping, they can use concurrency control to
limit the available bandwidth so as not to saturate the link with replication traffic”
QUESTION 2
Your customer is migrating to VMware vSphere 5. Your solution includes HP 3PAR StoreServ Storage with licenses for Remote Copy and sub-LUN tiering. The customer is interested in implementing VMware Storage I/O Control and asks if there are any interoperability concerns with your solution.
How does the inclusion of VMware Storage I/O Control impact your solution?
A. VMware Storage I/O Control integrates into the proposed solution with no changes.
B. HP 3PAR Application Software Suite for VMware must be added to the solution
C. HP 3PAR Adaptive Optimization cannot be used in the solution.
D. VMware Adaptive Queue Depth Throttling must be enabled.

Correct Answer: A Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 3
A customer with a B-Series fabric needs to establish FC-IP connectivity between their primary data center fabric and DR data center fabric to enable replication. However, they are concerned that fabric instability issues in the DR fabric will cause issues in their production fabric.
Which HP storage solution should you recommend?
A. HP C-Series MDS 9222i Multiservice Modular Fabric Switch
B. HP 1606 Extension SAN Switch
C. HP SN6000 FC Switch
D. HP MPX200 Multifunction Routed

Correct Answer: D Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 4
A customer has an environment spanning two data centers in a campus environment. The primary storage is an HP 3PAR StoreServ 10400 Storage System. Data is replicated between sites with an RPO of zero. The customer is questioning whether they have adequate protection. You suggest creating a DR site and actively replicate the data to it.
What are the implications of adding the third data center to the data network?
A. 10GbE links are needed to interconnect the HP StoreServ 3PAR arrays.
B. The data network must support Converged Enhanced Ethernet.
C. The data network must support OpenStack.
D. A dedicated subnet must be added to interconnect the 3PAR arrays.

Correct Answer: D Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 5
You are performing a demo of an HP StoreOnce 2620i Backup System solution in combination with HP Data Protector. All best practice guidelines for the VTL and
Data Protector have been adhered to. However, you receive the following error when formatting a cartridge in a previously-created VTL.
[Normal] From: [email protected] “Drive_Demo” Time: 4/23/2013 10:26:09 PM Tape0:0:0:0C
Initializing new medium: “[4E94F289] 4E94F289”
[Major] From: [email protected] “Drive_Demo” Time: 4/23/2013 10:26:10 PM [90:51] Tape0:0:0:0C
Cannot write to device ([87] Wrong parameter.)
[Major] From: [email protected] “Drive_Demo” Time: 4/23/2013 10:26:10 PM Initialization of medium failed.
[Normal] From [email protected] “Drive_Demo” Time: 4/23/2013 10:26:14 PM Ejecting medium Tape0:0:0:0C”.

What must you do to perform a successful demo?

A. Add an iSNS-Server in the media Server iSCSI configuration, and restart the iSCSI service.
B. Disable “Automatically discover changed SCSI address” for the VTL drives, and rescan the library.
C. Disable “SCSI Reserve /Release (drive)” for all of the drives and robotics in the environment and rescan the library.
D. Change the maximum transfer length of the iSCSI initiator in regedit, and restart the media server.

Correct Answer: C Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 6
Your customer wants to replicate backup data from branch offices to a primary data center where an HP StoreOnce 4430 Backup System using HP StoreOnce Catalyst is located. The main backup application is HP Data Protector 7.01. The file and application servers have Windows 2003, Windows 2008, and SUSE Linux 9 and 10 installed. The file and application servers are a mixture of 32 and 64 bit Windows and Linux operating systems. As a long-term strategy, the customer wants to migrate all services to the primary data center. No additional hardware can be purchased for the branch offices, and complexity should be minimized.
Which deduplication type is optimal for this customer?
A. Source-side
B. Application-side
C. Target-side
D. Server-side

Correct Answer: D Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Target-side NOT: “Target-side Deduplication can be used for conventional B2D environments where full bandwidth links are used between the media server and
the Deduplicated Data Store.” Application-side NOT exist.

Source-side NOT: Limited agents for OS to use Source-side. 32bits not compatible. “Note that the backed up system must support deduplication (64-bit Windows
systems or 64-bit Linux systems only, for details, see the support matrices).”

Server-side: “Note that the Media Agent client must support deduplication (64-bit Windows systems or 64-bit Linux systems only, for details, see the support
matrices). Server-side deduplication enables you to deduplicate data from clients on which deduplication is not supported locally.”

QUESTION 7
You are designing a storage solution for a customer concerned about storage availability during code upgrades. Which HP 3PAR Port Persistence node identity handles host I/O requests, thus providing greater resiliency during code upgrades?
A. Guest
B. Master
C. Slave
D. Native

Correct Answer: A Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: Persistent Ports This is a really cool feature as well – it gives the ability to provide redundant connectivity to multiple controllers on a 3PAR array without having to have host-based multipathing software. How is this possible? Basically it is NPIV for the array. Peer controllers can assume the world wide names for the ports on their partner controller.
If a controller goes down, it’s peer assumes the identities of that controller’s ports, instantaneously providing connectivity for hosts that were (not directly) connected to the ports on the downed controller. This eliminates pauses for MPIO software to detect faults and fail over, and generally makes life a better place.
QUESTION 8
The customer has two HP 3PAR StoreServ 7000 Storage systems split between two data centers. Used capacity of each storage system is 10 TB of data. The replication between data centers is performed via Ethernet/IP, and the replication technology used will be asynchronous. The maximum RPO is 30 minutes, and the daily change rate of the customer data is a maximum of 0.5%, which is created evenly throughout the day.
What is the required minimum bandwidth between the data centers for replication?
A. 40 Mb half-duplex
B. 20 Mb full-duplex
C. 5 Mb half-duplex
D. 10 Mb full-duplex

Correct Answer: D Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
10TB * 0.5% / (3600 * 24 / 0.5) = 0.303 MB/s = 3 Mbps per datacenter (full duplex!!!).

QUESTION 9
A customer asks you to architect a new SAN fabric infrastructure comprised of redundant fabrics for a test/dev server environment. They need to provide selective connectivity for array-based snapshots from disk arrays hosted on the existing Cisco MDS 9506 Multilayer director-based production fabric, to hosts on the test/ dev fabric. A customer requirement is to utilize a different vendor for the test/dev fabric. Which SAN technology enables the test/dev SAN fabric to maintain interoperability between the two fabrics and meet the stated requirements?
A. HP B-Series with Transparent Router (TR)
B. HP H-Series with Transparent Router (TR)
C. HP B Series with Inter-VSAN Routing (iVR)
D. HP H-Series with Inter-Fabric Routing (IFR)

Correct Answer: B Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 10
During an HP customer assessment workshop, the Alinean report shown in the exhibit is created. Which cost saving should you highlight in your presentation when positioning the value of HP 3PAR StoreServ Thin Technologies?

A. Planned downtime
B. Unplanned downtime
C. Application integration
D. Power and cooling

Correct Answer: A Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 11
Which HP 3PAR StoreServ feature improves storage array resiliency?
A. Persistence Ports
B. Virtual Lock
C. Virtual Copy
D. Virtual Domains Correct Answer: A

Explanation Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
“To provide greater resiliency and to avoid dependency on host multi-pathing software, HP 3PAR StoreServ has introduced a new feature called Persistent Ports.”

-in HP 3PAR High Availability
QUESTION 12
You need to ensure data integrity on physical disks within the proposed HP 3PAR StoreServ Storage array. Which HP 3PAR StoreServ Storage component calculates the value of the disk T10 Data Integrity Feature (DIF)?
A. HP Service Processor
B. HP InServ Controllers CPUs
C. Controller Cache Algorithm
D. HP 3PAR Gen4 ASIC Correct Answer: D

Explanation Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:

In “The HP 3PAR Architecture”
QUESTION 13
A customer has an environment that spans two data centers in a campus environment. The primary storage is HP 3PAR 10400, and data is replicated between sites with an RPO of zero.
Recent bad weather has caused flooding near the customer site and the customer is questioning whether they have adequate protection. You suggest creating a data center at a remote location and actively replicating the data to it. The customer is concerned that the remote link to the third site will have insufficient bandwidth and will create a local replication bottleneck.
Which statement addresses the customer concerns?
A. Synchronous Long Distance will schedule data replication outside high latency periods autonomic array
B. Data is transmitted in a continuous stream with write order being handled by the target array.
C. Remote Copy uses multiple connections over the same link from multiple volumes.
D. Over provisioning of the remote link will ensure enough bandwidth is always available for replication. Correct Answer: D

Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 14
You are discussing cost reduction quality management, and business growth with a client. According to industry best practices, which CxO are you meeting with?
A. CFO
B. CIO
C. COO

D. CEO Correct Answer: A
Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 15
Your customer wants to upgrade their existing HP 3PAR S-Class array. A competitor has suggested a non-HP storage array. Your conversation with the customer focuses on the notable architectural enhancements within the new generation of HP 3PAR StoreServ 7400 platforms.
Which enhancements should you focus on? (Select two.)
A. The tightly coupled cache-coherent clustering is built into the Gen4 ASIC.
B. The 64-bit OS enables scalable headroom for performance and capacity.
C. Logical Disk regions have increased from 256 MB and are now 1 GB in size.
D. Write cache mirroring is now implemented N+N across the 7×00 controllers.
E. New HP StoreServ 7×00 now supports 16Gb Fibre Channel speeds.

Correct Answer: BD Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 16
Your client wants to replace their aging storage and server infrastructures with the latest technology available to run their online transaction processing and Oracle data warehouse applications. The client data warehouse holds a minimum of 2 years of trading and market data for reporting, trending, and regulatory functions. The current storage system is an HP 3PAR F400 that has been operational for almost 4 years without any downtime. The client needs 150 TB of raw capacity. Which proposed solution follows the configuration best practices and future proofing?
A. HP 3PAR StoreServ 7400-4 with SSD and NL drives
B. HP 3PAR StoreServ 7200 with 15k SAS and NL drives
C. HP 3PAR StoreServ 7200 with SSD and NL drives
D. HP 3PAR StoreServ 7400-4 with 15k SAS and NL drives Correct Answer: A

Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 17
A customer running an enterprise database has heavy bandwidth traffic on their WAN link that they have isolated to HP 3PAR StoreServ Remote Copy replication between their primary and DR site. They are not concerned with the RTO but would like to improve the RPO.
Which recommendation should you make to decrease their WAN link traffic?
A. Use synchronous mode replication for the entire database.
B. Create more Remote Copy volume groups.
C. Replicate just the database logs.
D. Use synchronous long distance mode for the entire database.

Correct Answer: C Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 18
Refer to the exhibit.

The central IT department of a local city government has data centers in two buildings, which are several kilometers apart and are connected by long wave SFPs. They have implemented two HP 6400 Enterprise Virtual Arrays with synchronous HP Continuous Access EVA zoned for a 6- logical-fabric solution. They are using redundant HP StorageWorks 4/32 SAN Switches at each site.
Central IT recently expanded to include more city departments and added 45 more servers and 23 TB of additional data into their solution However the users are reporting poor application performance.
Which Tool will enable the IT department to gather information about the DR tunnel in the environment?
A. HP DataCenter Fabric Manager
B. HP B-Series SAN
C. HP Command View EVA EVAperf
D. HP Intelligent Infrastructure Analyzer Software

Correct Answer: D Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 19
While discussing a remote replication solution consisting of two HP 3PAR StoreServ arrays, the customer asks you about performance penalties when implementing synchronous replication to a second HP 3PAR StoreServ array.
How should you respond?
A. Synchronous replication affects write performance on the source array.
B. Synchronous replication affects both read and write performance on the source array.
C. Synchronous replication affects read performance on the source array.
D. Synchronous remote replication does not affect performance on the source array. Correct Answer: A

Explanation Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:

QUESTION 20
A client wants to deploy a new HP 3PAR 7400 storage environment. They want to utilize additional features of the array to optimize their backup and data restore capabilities.
Which HP 3PAR software suite should you recommend?
A. Replication
B. Thin
C. System Tuner
D. Security

Correct Answer: B Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 21
In addition to being able to wide-stripe data over many physical disks, what is another unique feature of an HP 3PAR StoreServ compared to competitor block-based arrays?
A. Custom ASIC-enabled Thin Provisioning
B. Asynchronous remote replication
C. Controller functions based on a software implementation of RAID
D. Block storage functions facilitated by software emulation

Correct Answer: A Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Hardware-assisted HP 3PAR Thin Technologies enable customers to reduce capacity requirements by 50 percent.” in HP 3PAR Battlecards

QUESTION 22
Refer to the exhibit: You are presenting a converged infrastructure proposal to the director of IT and the infrastructure administration team. The configuration is to refresh the infrastructure at a wholly-owned subsidiary company.

They plan to have a SQL standby server in their main data center for recovery. The director informs you that the subsidiary IT staff has been laid off and that the configuration needs to be as easy to manage as possible because it will be done remotely.
What should you do to improve the proposal TCO?
A. Add an HP StoreEasy 3000 Gateway
B. Recommend an HP Flat SAN
C. Change HP 3PAR StoreServ 7400 to StoreVirtual 4530
D. Fibre Channel connect the HP StoreOnce 4420 Correct Answer: B

Explanation Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:

HP Virtual Connect for 3PAR with Flat SAN technology To address this problem HP announces HP Virtual Connect for 3PAR with Flat SAN technology. The industry’s first direct connection to fibre channel-based storage that doesn’t require dedicated switches, enabling a simplified architecture with best-in-class storage, servers and network innovations — BladeSystem, Virtual Connect and 3PAR.
Customer benefits include:
-Single layer Fibre Channel storage network – Eliminate SAN switches and HBAs
-Massive simplification of your fabric management
-2.5x faster Fibre Channel storage provisioning
-Automated zoning capabilities to set up zones with one-click vs. hours
-Up to 55% less latency by removing SAN fabric layer
QUESTION 23
A retail customer has primary data centers, distribution centers, and retail stores. The retail locations are smaller sites that have less than 2 TB of data that need to be highly available. Each location is consolidating between six and twelve physical servers into a virtual cluster running on two HP ProLiant DL380 Gen8 servers.
The customer needs a low-cost storage solution that they can use at each retail location and can scale using similar technology for the distribution centers. The solution also needs to integrate with VMware and provide future replication with no additional cost.
Which HP Storage solution should you recommend?
A. HP EVA
B. HP 3PAR StoreServ
C. HP StoreVirtual
D. HP MSA

Correct Answer: D Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 24
A large regional telecommunications company specializing in mobile services has experienced rapid growth.
They currently have 149 million subscribers in 11 markets, including 4 million subscribers locally. The year-onyear data growth between 2003 and 2012 was approximately 15%. The projected growth far 2013 and the next several years is 30% annually.
The proposed mission critical solution needs to work with the existing application modules and deliver a minimum data transfer rate of 6 5 TB per hour and a capacity of 120 TB. Financially, the solution has to offer low Total Cost of Ownership (TCO) over the next 5 years, and solution capacity has to accommodate the performance and growth model.
Which mission critical backup solution and support level should you propose? (Select two.)
A. HP StoreOnce 4430 with two upgrade kits
B. HP StoreOnce B6200 with three 48TB expansion kits
C. HP 6-hour call-to-repair support
D. HP same-day hardware support
E. HP 24/7 4-hour response support

Correct Answer: BE Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 25
You propose a solution to a VMware customer. The solution consists of two HP 3PAR StoreServ Storage systems, one for each data center that the customer currently operates. The customer requires that the solution be capable of making a transparent failover between the primary and secondary data center even in the case of a complete data center failure.
Which HP 3PAR licenses should be included in the proposal? (Select two.)
A. Peer Persistence
B. Remote Optimization
C. Remote Copy
D. Peer Motion
E. Virtual Copy

Correct Answer: AC Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: Peer Persistence http://www8.hp.com/us/en/products/storage-software/product-detail.html? oid=5335710#!tab=features Remote Copy http://www8.hp.com/us/en/products/storage-software/product-detail.html? oid=5044771#!tab=features
QUESTION 26
You are designing a new storage solution for a customer that must have the ability to reserve areas of cache memory for frequently accessed data for specific host LUNS. Which HP Storage system should you recommend to meet the customer requirements?
A. HP XP P9500
B. HP EVA P6550
C. HP 3PAR StoreServ 10000
D. HP StoreVirtual 4530

Correct Answer: C Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: HP XP P9000 Cache LUN (also known as Cache Residency) Overview HP XP P9000 Cache LUN lets you reserve areas of memory cache on your HP XP P9500 Storage to store frequently accessed information. It improves file access times and enables faster data transfers. Assigning information to on-board cache speeds up access to your data because cache-resident data is available at host data transfer speeds for both read and write operations. XP P9000 Cache LUN redirects I/O requests from the XP P9500 drives to data locked in the array’s cache. It is transparent, it is simple to implement, and the performance gains it delivers are immediate. Models Included with HP XP P9000 Array Manager – see section for more information Product Highlights XP P9500 Storage Firmware based Lock data in cache memory Flexible user configuration Scalable Licensing See Capacity-Licensed XP P9000 Software section

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QUESTION NO: 1
A customer is preparing to migrate data between their data centers. They need to perform deduplicalion at the data creation point and eliminate the need for specialized deduplication hardware in their data centers. How does HP StoreOnce Catalyst enable the customer to achieve this goal?
A. by performing source-side deduplication
B. by performing switch-side deduplication
C. by performing server-side deduplication
D. by performing target-side deduplication
Answer: A Explanation: By enabling source-side deduplication (Dedupe 2.0), HP has the advantage of performing deduplication at the data creation point. Source-side deduplication eliminates the need for specialist deduplication hardware at remote and branch office sites. StoreOnce Catalyst allows customers to align backup with data protection needs, such as minimizing bandwidth utilization when moving data between sites or data centers.
Reference: Dedupe 2.0: What HP Has In Store(Once)

QUESTION NO: 2
A customer is planning to migrate a database to a new site. They need to create an extended SAN in a single fabric namespace by using a dedicated link over a distance of 200 km.
Which network protocol should they use to achieve this goal?
A. FCIP
B. iFC
C. FCoE
D. iSCSI
Answer: A Explanation: FCIP connects Fibre Channel fabrics over IP-based networks to form a unified SAN in a single fabric. FCIP relies on IP-based network services to provide connectivity between fabrics over LANs, MANs, or WANs.
Note: HP SAN extension technologies include:

*
FCIP
(greater than 10 km to 20,000 km)
*
FC-ATM
*
FC-SONET
*
WDM
(greater than 35 km to 100–500 km)
*
Fibre Channel using long-wave transceivers
(10 km–35 km)
QUESTION NO: 3
A customer is extending a SAN by using wavelength division multiplexing (WDM) to migrate their master database to a new data center. They need to ensure that there is adequate line speed to perform the migration in the event of a primary path failure.
What should the customer do to achieve this goal?
A. Ensure that all SAN devices use the same Fibre Channel speed.
B. Ensure that all SAN switches have the same core PID number.
C. Ensure that there are separate WDM paths for transmitting and receiving packets
D. Ensure that a secondary path with sufficient buffer-to-buffer credits is available
Answer: D Explanation: WDM devices extend the distance between two FICON directors. The devices are transparent to the directors and do not count as an additional hop. To accommodate WDM devices, you must have enough Fibre Channel BB_credits to maintain line-speed performance. WDM supports Fibre Channel speeds of 10 Gb/s, 8 Gb/s, 4 Gb/s, 2 Gb/s, and 1 Gb/s. When planning for SAN extension, BB_credits are an important consideration in WDM network configurations. Typical WDM implementations for storage replication include a primary and secondary path. You must have enough BB_credits to cover the distances for both the primary path and secondary path so that performance is not affected if the primary path fails.
Reference: HP Mainframe Connectivity Design Guide
QUESTION NO: 4

A customer plans to migrate data from a third-party storage system to an HP 3PAR solution. The customer has leased data center space. Which HP 3PAR Storage solution must be integrated into an HP 3PAR rack?
A. HP 3PAR StoreServ 10800
B. HP 3PAR StoreServ 10400
C. HP 3PAR StoreServ F200
D. HP 3PAR StoreServ 7400

Answer: A Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 5
A company needs to migrate from a third-party storage system to an environment that can grow by scaling out. The solution must also allow use of a server for downloading upgrades.
Which solution meets the company’s requirements?
A. HP 3PAR StoreServ 7000
B. HP StoreOnce 6200
C. HP StoreVirtual 4000
D. HP 3PAR StoreServ 10000
Answer: C Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 6
A storage administrator needs to perform a gradual migration of large backup volumes and jobs to a remote D2D system over time. Because this data is being replicated for the first time, the administrator needs to populate the target device with all the relevant hash codes.
Which method should the administrator use to achieve this goal?

A. using co-location
B. using removable media
C. seeding data over the WAN link
D. setting initializer to migration
Answer: C Explanation: * prior to being able to replicate only unique data between source and target D2D, we must first ensure that each site has the same hash codes or “bulk data” loaded on it – this can be thought of as the reference data against which future backups are compared to see if the hash codes exist already on either source or target. The process of getting the same bulk data or reference data loaded on the D2D source and D2D target is known as “seeding”.
* Seeding is generally is a one-time operation which must take place before steady-state, low bandwidth replication can commence. Seeding can take place in a number of ways: / Over the WAN link – although this can take some time for large volumes of data / Using co-location where two devices are physically in the same location and can use a GbE replication link for seeding. After seeding is complete, one unit is physically shipped to its permanent destination. / Using a form of removable media (physical tape or portable USB disks) to “ship data” between sites.

QUESTION NO: 7
A small-business customer needs to implement a high IOPS storage system for an application that uses approximately 7 TB of space. Because the customer does not expect a large amount of data growth in the next few years, they need to minimize costs.
Which storage system should the customer implement?
A. HP 3PAR StoreServ 7400
B. HP 3PAR StoreServ 10000
C. HP 3PAR StoreServ F200
D. HP 3PAR StoreServ 7200
Answer: D Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 8

A customer wants a new HP 3PAR StoreServ 7200 Storage System to maximize storage performance. What should the customer implement?
A. quad controllers
B. Adaptive Optimization
C. 120 SSDs
D. Dynamic Optimization
Answer: B
Explanation: The HP 3PAR Adaptive Optimization (AO) software takes optimization a step further
into sub-LUN tiering. AO migrates sub-LUN data across CPGs based on user-defined policies.
Two or three CPG tiers can be specified per policy; all volumes
inside a CPG are subject of an AO policy. AO policies usually operate on an FC and NL tier or on
an SSD, FC, and NL tier.

This tool can improve system response and reduce disk acquisition cost by
storing frequently accessed data in the faster tier while moving infrequently accessed data to the
slower and cheaper slower tier.

Incorrect:

Not D: Related to online migration:
P 3PAR’s Dynamic Optimization (DO) software offers the functionality of EVA’s Dynamic LUN
Migration: volumes are migrated online to another CPG with a different RAID level, set size, drive
media type , etc.
QUESTION NO: 9
Your customer has an existing HP StoreServ 7400 with four controllers. The array has only SSD drives installed. What should you consider when sizing a solution which includes Adaptive Optimization?
A. Ensure that 3% of the capacity and 30% of the performance can be delivered by the SAS disks.
B. Include SAS 10/15K disks in the configuration.
C. Add SSDs or nearline disks to a single node pair.
D. Size the nearline tier for 30% of the performance requirement.
Answer: B Explanation:
Note:
*
SAS stands for Serial Attached SCSI. Basically, a SAS drive utilizes the same form factor as a SATA drive but has several high performance advantages. First of all, there’s the platter speed. While typical SATA drives operate at 7200RPM, a SAS drive operates at 10K or 15K. Although the platter speed is double that of SATA, the MTBF (Mean Time Before Failure) remains at the industry standard of 1.2 million hours.

*
Make sure to define tier 0 to be on a higher performance level than tier 1, which in turn should be higher performance than tier 2. For example, you may choose RAID 1 with SSDs for tier 0, RAID 5 with FC drives for tier 1 and RAID 6 with NL or SATA drives for tier 2.

*
Best practices encourage you to begin your Adaptive Optimization configurations with your application CPG starting with tier 1. For example, tier 1 could be CPG using your FC or SAS physical disks. This allows you to add both higher and lower tier capabilities at a later date. If you don’t have higher or lower tier, you can add either or both at a later date by using a new CPG, such as tier 0 using SSDs or tier 2 using NL. Or, you could have CPG tiers with RAID 1 or RAID 5 and RAID 6. The main point is that you should begin with middle CPG tier 1 when configuring Adaptive Optimization with your application.

*
Example: HP 3PAR Adaptive Optimization moved ~33 percent of the IOPS workload to the SSD drives even though that involved moving only 1 percent of the space. Performance improved in two ways: the 33 percent of the IOPS that were serviced by SSD drives got very good latencies (~2 ms), and the latencies for the NL drives also improved (from ~40 ms to ~15 ms). Moreover, the investment in the 16 SSD drives permitted them to add even more NL drives in the future, because the SSD drives have both space and performance headroom remaining.
Reference; Adaptive Optimization for HP 3PAR StoreServ Storage

QUESTION NO: 10
A company needs a storage solution that provides four host bus adapter (HBA) slots and 64 GB of cache. Which HP storage solution meets these requirements?
A. HP 3PAR StoreServ 7400
B. HP StoreOnce 6200
C. HP 3PAR StoreServ 7200

D. HP StoreVirtual 4000
Answer: A Explanation: HP 3PAR StoreServ 7400 4-node base with two 2U enclosures, four controller nodes, 64 GB cache, eight 8Gb/sec FC ports, four adapter slots, and 48 SFF drive bays.

Incorrect:
Not C: 3PAR StoreServ 7200 only has 32 GB cache.

QUESTION NO: 11
A storage administrator needs highly available connectivity from a Microsoft Windows host to an iSCSI storage array. The administrator needs to ensure that the data is still available in the event of a network port failure. What must the administrator enable on the Windows host?
A. MPIO
B. NIC teaming
C. storage cluster services
D. ISCSI initiator failover
Answer: A Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 12
In which HP rack is the factory Integration of an HP StoreServ 7000 supported?
A. HP 5642 rack
B. HP G3 rack
C. HP 10000 rack
D. HPV142 rack

Answer: B Explanation: QUESTION NO: 13
You are meeting with a customer that has a small business with an unpredictable workload in a virtualized environment. Which product family from the HP array portfolio do you lead your discussion with?
A. P2000
B. P4000
C. X3000
D. P6000
Answer: B Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 14
A customer needs to replicate data from a remote location to an HP StoreOnce B6200 Backup.
What should the customer consider when planning the replication?
A. The HP D2D sizing tool should be used to size link speed and understand concurrency restraints.
B. Concurrency control should be used if the replication is not run at the same times as backups and housekeeping jobs.
C. Separate replication jobs should be created for each data type.
D. Backups and housekeeping jobs should be run in the replication window.
Answer: A Explanation: The replication best practices that apply to HP StoreOnce D2D Backup Systems are equally as valid for the HP B6200 StoreOnce Backup System.
Best practices include:
* Use the Sizing tool to size replication link speed and understand replication concurrency restraints.
Reference; HP B6200 Backup System, Recommended Configuration Guidelines

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QUESTION 1
On which entity is a Cyclic Redundancy Check (CRC) function repformed when using the HP StoreOnce Backup System?
A. Frame
B. Transferred file
C. Chunk
D. Backup job

Correct Answer: D Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Page 66
http://h20566.www2.hp.com/portal/site/hpsc/template.BINARYPORTLET/public/kb/docDisplay /
resource.process/?
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Cyclic redundancy check (CRC)
Cyclic redundancy checking (CRC) is an enhanced checksum function. When this option is selected, CRC
checksums are written to the media during backup. CRC checks allow you to verify the media after the
backup. Data Protector re-calculates the CRC during a restore and compares it to the CRC on the
medium. It is also used while verifying and copying the media. This option can be specified for backup,
object copy, and object consolidation operations. The default value is OFF.
Figure 49 shows the default configuration parameters for Ultrium tape drives. CRC checking was OFF.

Figure 49. HP SlorageWorks Ultrium 960 advanced opbons – CRC checking OFF

QUESTION 2
A regional market leader in direct financial services runs several call center across the United States and is opening a number of new call center in the near future. The client uses Windows XP on dedicated workstations. The IT infrastructure consists of numerous HP Proliant DL360 G5 and HP Proliant DL360 G6 servers running VMware ESX or SUSE Linux for the database server direct-attached storage and HP Ultrium tape drives. They want to consolidate the infrastructure.
You are meeting with the IT director. Which technical benefits should you emphasize in your presentation of a new solution? (Select two)
A. faster time-to-market for new services
B. decreased operational expenditure (OPEX)
C. decreased rack space and power usage
D. greater service margin
E. reduced time-to provision systems

Correct Answer: BE Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
http://h20195.www2.hp.com/V2/GetPDF.aspx%2F4AA0-0559ENW.pdf Simplify your data center; make it
more flexible, efficient, and less expensive to operate. Tom Joyce, GM and SVP HP Converged Systems,
explains how HP Converged Infrastructure can turn your IT into a business advantage.
QUESTION 3
A company’s Leas SAN Architect considers HP 3PAR StoreServ a Tier 2 solution due the requirement for node reboot during Inform Operating System upgrades. You present the HP 3PAR Persistence Port feature to the customer to address their concerns. (Refer to the exhibit.)

Which crucial characteristics are true about the HP 3PAR Persistence Port feature? (Select two)
A. The host MPIO software must be reset to restarted after a failover scenario to restore the correct path balance
B. HP 3PAR Persistent Port requires additional failover zone for each node’s guest World Wide Name (WWN)
C. HP 3PAR Persistent Port will maintain connectivity during 3PAR mode upgrade or 3PAR node failure even with a single path host
D. HP 3PAR Persistent Port requires a minimum to two paths per each World Wide Name (WWN) with additional 1:1 zones
E. One a two node array, the HP 3PAR Persistence Port minimum setup requires each fabric switch to be physically connected equally to each in a node pair

Correct Answer: CE Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
http://www8.hp.com/h20195/v2/GetPDF.aspx%2F4AA4-4545ENW.pdf Features and benefits: With the
release of HP 3PAR OS version 3.1.2, HP has introduced new functionality called “Persistent Ports” that
supports non disruptive online software upgrades and recovery from node failures, in a manner that is
transparent to any FC fabric connected host accessing the HP 3PAR StoreServ.
The Server HBA ports may be zoned to only a single array Node’s port WWN or it may be zoned to both.

QUESTION 4
A customer wants to implement a new backup solution. The environment is predominantly Fibre Channel with Windows 2008, Linux hosts, and a number of HPUX hosts attached to a 10 GbE network. They have expressed an interest in the HP StoreOnce technology and its integration with HP Data Protector.
When designing an HP StoreOnce solution for this environment, what needs to be considered?
A. Catalyst integration is only supported on Windows and HPUX hosts.
B. Catalyst gateway are used on the HP-UX hosts.
C. Linux hosts requires Catalyst gateway
D. Fibre Channel hosts may only use VTL emulation.

Correct Answer: D Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
http://h20628.www2.hp.com/km-ext/kmcsdirect/emr_na-c03478346-1.pdf http://h20195.www2.hp.com/V2/
GetPDF.aspx%2F4AA4-1776ENW.pdf http://www.hp.com/hpinfo/newsroom/press_kits/2012/
HPDiscover2012/HPSD_Discover_Store Once_Fact_Sheet.pdf
Each node has two 8Gb FC connections (used for VTL only), two 10GbE and four 1GbE Ethernet connections (used for NAS shares or Catalyst stores). Figure 4 illustrates these physical connections.

QUESTION 5
A pharmaceutical company is planning to replace their existing SAN environment with new HP 3PAR StoreServ array. They run a multi-vendor data center and need to support applications running under multiple operating systems. They must support AIX, VmWare and Microsoft Windows.
10800FC-duo (exhibit):

A pharmaceutical company is planning to replace their existing SAN environment with a new HP 3PAR S to and need to support applications running under multiple operating systems. They must support AIX, VMware versions of Microsoft Windows – Explore HP 3PAR StoreServ Storage HP 3PAR StoreServ Storage interoperability:
HP 3PAR StoreServ 10000 Storage was previously known as HP P10000 3PAR Storage System

Storage array models 10400 and 10800 were previously Known as P10000(V400) and P10000(V800) respectively

HP 3PAR OS 3.1.1 was previously known as InForm OS 3.1.1

For Recovery Manager products (RMV, RME, RMS, RMO) and other host-based product supported configurations, please refer to the 3PAR Array Software page.
Referring to the exhibit, which HP 3PAR StoreServ array would meet their needs?
A. HP StoreServ 7400 FC
B. HP StoreServ 10800 iSCSI
C. HP StoreServ T400 iSCSI
D. HP StoreServ 108000 FC

Correct Answer: A Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 6
Which HP 3PAR InForm Operating System feature allows you to create point-in-time clones with independent service-level parameters?
A. Virtual Copy
B. Smart Copy
C. Remote Copy
D. Full Copy

Correct Answer: D Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: http://www8.hp.com/us/en/products/storage-software/product-detail.html?oid=5044394#! tab=features Data Protection and Copy Space Reclamation Features Improve Capacity Utilization HP 3PAR RAID MP (Multi-Parity) uses Fast RAID 6 and the accelerated performance of the HP 3PAR ASIC to prevent data loss as a result of double disk failures. Performance levels are maintained within 15% of RAID 10 and with capacity overheads comparable to popular RAID 5 modes.
HP 3PAR Full Copy is an HP 3PAR Operating System Software feature that allows you to create thinaware, point-in-time clones with independent service level parameters which can be rapidly resynchronized with base volumes as needed.
The HP 3PAR Thin Copy Reclamation feature keeps your storage lean and efficient by reclaiming unused space resulting from the deletion of virtual copy snapshots associated with virtual copy and remote copy volumes.
QUESTION 7
A company is experiencing performance issues on their four node HP StoreServ 10800 configured with 256x 300 GB Fibre Channel drives. A System Reporter analysis reveals that single tier of Fibre Channel storage is under a lot of I/O pressure from an explosion of VMware servers running high I/O messaging applications used to track package routes daily in an Oracle database.
There are 40x 50GB thin provisioned volumes that make up 90% of mostly read I/O activity during regular business hours. The customer is upset and need a solution to quickly increase performance for these critical applications.
Which solution should you propose to cost-effectively resolve this issue?
A. Upgrade with 256 addition 300 GB drives and Adaptive Optimization to automatically move high I/O volume regions to a RAID 10 CPG for better I/O performance
B. Utilize Peer Motion to non-disruptively move the offending work load to an SSD optimized HP 3PAR StoreServ array.
C. Upgrade with 32x 100GB SSD drives and Adaptive Optimization configured for performance-based placement in two storage tiers.
D. Upgrade with 2 additional nodes and double host-facing Fibre Cannes ports to archive better I/O caching across all array nodes when accessing small volumes

Correct Answer: C Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: Customer case study This section describes the real benefits that a customer derived from using HP 3PAR Adaptive Optimization. The customer had a system with 96 300 GB 15k rpm FC drives and 48 1 TB 7.2k rpm NL drives. The customer had 52 physical servers connected and running VMware with more than 250 VMs. The workload was mixed (development and QA, databases, file servers) and they needed more space to accommodate many more VMs that were scheduled to be moved onto the array. However, they faced a performance issue: they had difficultly managing their two tiers (FC and NL) in a way that kept the busier workloads on their FC disks. Even though the NL disks had substantially less performance capability (because there were fewer NL disks and they were much slower), they had larger overall capacity. As a result, more workloads were allocated to them and they tended to be busier while incurring long latencies. The customer considered two options: either they would purchase additional 96 FC drives, or they would purchase additional 48 NL drives and 16 SSD drives and use HP 3PAR Adaptive Optimization to migrate busy regions onto the SSD drives. They chose the latter and were pleased with the results (illustrated in Figure 7).

Before HP 3PAR Adaptive Optimization as described in the charts–and even though there are fewer NL drives –they incur greater IOPS load than the FC drives in aggregate and consequently have very poor latency (~40 ms) compared with the FC drives (~10 ms). After HP 3PAR Adaptive Optimization has executed for a little while, as shown in the charts on the right, the IOPS load for the NL drives has dropped substantially and has been transferred mostly to the SSD drives. HP 3PAR Adaptive Optimization moved ~33 percent of the IOPS workload to the SSD drives even though that involved moving only 1 percent of the space. Performance improved in two ways: the 33 percent of the IOPS that were serviced by SSD drives got very good latencies (~2 ms), and the latencies for the NL drives also improved (from ~40 ms to ~15 ms). Moreover, the investment in the 16 SSD drives permitted them to add even more NL drives in the future, because the SSD drives have both space and performance headroom remaining. http:// h20195.www2.hp.com/V2/GetPDF.aspx%2F4AA4-0867ENW.pdf
QUESTION 8
A pharmaceutical company is planning to replace their existing SAN storage platform with new HP 3PAR StoreServ array. They tell you that they have a very mixed environment, but have no inventory or diagram of the existing environment. Which tool gathers information to determine compatibility of your proposed array?
A. HP Configuration Collector
B. HP SAN Designer
C. HP System Reporter
D. HP SAN Visibility

Correct Answer: D Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:

HP SAN Visibility
SAN Visibility is a complementary software utility for HP customers that helps with SAN Analysis, SAN Diagnostics and SAN Optimization. SAN Visibility saves you considerable time, money, and effort by automating inventory activities and providing a quick and accurate view of your SAN topology. SAN Visibility has an automated report generation feature that produces recommendations, topology diagrams, and informative SAN element reports for switches, host bus adapters and storage array connectivity. SAN Visibility runs on any Windows desktop or laptop which has network connectivity to a switch within your SAN http://h18006.www1.hp.com/storage/networking/sansolutions.html

HP SAN Designer
SAN Designer is a powerful application to help you design a customized SAN. Configure and design your SAN based on the following attributes: performance, cost, and future growth requirements. SAN Designer helps you select the fabric characteristics as well as the SAN elements allowing for a complete SAN Design. The reporting feature of SAN Designer generates topology diagrams, required SAN components, and additional recommendations for your SAN Design. SAN Designer is a complementary software utility for HP customers and runs on a Windows desktop or laptop. http://h18006.www1.hp.com/storage/networking/sandesigner.html
QUESTION 9
Which HP 3PAR InForm Operating System feature provides the ability to analyze how volumes on the array are using physical disk space and makes intelligent adjustments to maintain optimal volume distribution when new hardware is added to the system?
A. HP 3PAR Peer Motion
B. HP 3PAR Autonomic Rebalance
C. HP 3PAR Adaptive Optimization
D. HP 3PAR System Reporter

Correct Answer: B Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
http://www.hp.com/hpinfo/newsroom/press_kits/2012/HPDiscoverFrankfurt2012/3PAR7000_O
p_System_DS.pdf

HP 3PAR Autonomic Rebalance
HP 3PAR Autonomic Rebalance optimizes the use of future capacity expansions without requiring
administrator intervention. It analyzes how volumes on the HP 3PAR Storage System are using physical
disk space and makes intelligent, autonomic adjustments to ensure optimal volume distribution when new
hardware is added to the system.

(Thank You – Antonio)
HP 3PAR Adaptive Optimization Software is a granular, policy-driven, autonomic storage tiering software
solution. It delivers service level optimization for enterprises and cloud data centers and helps reduce cost,
while increasing agility and minimizing risk.

HP 3PAR System Reporter Do you need to gather and track historical system information for your HP
3PAR Storage Systems? HP 3PAR System Reporter Software is a flexible, intuitive, web-based
performance and capacity management tool that aggregates fine-grained performance and capacity usage
data for HP 3PAR Storage Systems, regardless of location. The highly customizable, robust reporting
offers straightforward report sharing and report scheduling which simplifies performance monitoring and
assists in gathering data for optimization and planning. System Reporter enables quick troubleshooting
and isolation of performance issues minimizing business impact. System Reporter proves particularly
useful for service providers and enterprises about detailed information for service level administration. The
ability to create reports by user group supports charge back and meeting service level agreements. Works
with HP 3PAR Adaptive Optimization Software to enable policy management of autonomic storage tiering
resources.

QUESTION 10
Your city government customer has been using HP Eva 6400s for the last three years. While the arrays have performed fairly well and the city particularly likes the ease of management, they have found several situations where the arrays were lacking in functionality. To support multiple organizations with in the city government, they have had to utilize multiple arrays to ensure separation of management and data access. The city also had some issues handling their utility billing and VMware environments in a single array and added a separate array to ensure adequate performance.
Which HP Storage solution should you recommend to meet the requirements of city?
A. HP StoreVrtual
B. HP StoreAll
C. HP P9500
D. HP 3PAR StoreServ

Correct Answer: D Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
StoreServ and HP 3PAR can start small and grow affordably and non-disruptively with multi- tenant and
federated, efficient reduce acquisition and operational costs by 50% and autonomic save up to 90% of
administrator time.
Help for novice storage users in a Windows, VMware or Linux environments for self- installation.

QUESTION 11
A company is replacing their outdated storage environment with an HP 3PAR StoreServ 7000 at the primary site and also in their co-location facility. These HP 3PAR 7000 Software Suites are included in the proposed package:

HP 3PAR 7000 Operating System Software Suite


HP 3PAR 7000 Reporting Software Suite


HP 3PAR 7000 Application Software Suite for VMware


HP 3PAR 7000 Replication Software Suite
What can be accomplished with the proposed software solution? (Select two)
A. Taking a time-consistent snapshot of their Oracle volumes every 4 hours to protect against corruption
B. Reduction in the amount of physical storage needed with the uses of thin technologies
C. Autonomic storage tiring as their image files become dated
D. Replication of all critical data to the co-location site for disaster recovery
E. Frozen, point-in-time copies of employee data for compliance

Correct Answer: AE Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: http://www.hp.com/hpinfo/newsroom/press_kits/2012/HPDiscoverFrankfurt2012/3PAR7000_O p_System_DS.pdf
Software suites for HP 3PAR StoreServ 7000 Storage HP 3PAR Operating System Software Suite: (Option B) Required for all new HP 3PAR StoreServ 7000 systems, this foundational software suite gives you everything you need to get up and running quickly and efficiently. This suite includes the HP 3PAR Operating System, Management Console, Host Explorer, and SmartStart software designed to get you off to a quick start with your new HP 3PAR StoreServ 7000 system. It also includes all of the platform’s thin software offerings Thin Provisioning, Thin Conversion, and Thin Persistence. Other highlights of this suite include Full Copy, autonomic rebalancing capabilities that help you optimize the use of future capacity expansions, and support for standard multi pathing software for high availability in clustered environments. A 180-day license for online import is included to enable migration from HP EVA storage
This optional suite bundles: HP 3PAR Replication Software Suite (Proposed package) This optional suite bundles HP 3PAR Virtual Copy with Remote Copy Software, both also sold separately for all HP 3PAR StoreServ 7000 models. Included in this bundle is Peer Persistence, which enables peer federation for VMware clusters to improve overall availability. Licensed based on system capacity
HP 3PAR Reporting Software Suite (Proposed package) Enhance system visibility and reporting capabilities with this optional suite, which includes HP 3PAR System Reporter Software and the 3PARInfo application, licensed on a per-system basis HP 3PAR Application Software Suite for VMware (Proposed package) Everything you need to make your VMware environment more agile and efficient including HP 3PAR Recovery Manager for VMware, Host Explorer for VMware, VASA support, and three essential plug-ins: the VMware Site Replication Manager (SRM) Adapter, the HP 3PAR VAAI plug-in, and the 3PAR management plug-in for VMware View. This suite is optional and licensed on a per- system basis
HP 3PAR Data Optimization Software Suite HP 3PAR Security Software Suite (option E) HP 3PAR Application Software Suite for Exchange HP 3PAR Application Software Suite for Oracle (option A) HP 3PAR Application Software Suite for SQL
QUESTION 12
Refer to the exhibit.

Your customer wants to do a refresh on their storage environment. They have given you a drawing to show the existing environment and told you the following:
-Their preferred SAN fabric is Fibre Channel-based and the switches are only a year old.
-They want to purchase a single block storage solution that services all applications.
-The NetBackup deduplication pool has provide to be an expensive option, and a new backup target is required

Budget is limited

A.
HP StoreEasy 3830 Storage

B.
HP StoreVirtual 4330 Storage

C.
HP StoreOnce B6200 Backup

D.
HP StoreOnce 2620 Backup

E.
HP StoreServ 7400 Storage

F.
HP StoreOnce 4430 Backup
Which Hp storage product should you prepare to discuss in your initial meeting with this customer? (Select two.)

Correct Answer: CF Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
HP StoreOnce http://www8.hp.com/us/en/products/data-storage/data-storage-products.html?
compURI=1225909#.UpU3-dK8D6A

Their preferred SAN fabric is Fibre Channel-based and the switches are only a year old $ HP StoreOnce
2620 Backup ((iSCSI Connectivity)
$$ HP StoreOnce 4000 Backup (FC Connectivity and iSCSI Connectivity) $$$ HP StoreOnce B6200
Backup ((FC Connectivity)

HP StoreOnce and StoreEver Enterprise Backup Solutions (EBS) Hardware/Software Compatibility Matrix

-They want to purchase a single block storage solution that services all applications. (Question)
-and a new backup target is required (Question) HP StoreServ is not technology backup but StorageArray $ HP StoreEasy 3830 Storage (FC Connectivity and iSCSI Connectivity) http://h18004.www1.hp.com/products/quickspecs/14435_na/14435_na.pdf $$ HP StorageVirtual 4330 Storage (FC Connectivity and iSCSI Connectivity) http://www8.hp.com/pt/pt/products/ disk-storage/product-etail.html?oid=5335854#!tab=specs$$$ HP StoreServ 7400 Storage (FC Connectivity and iSCSI Connectivity) http://h18000.www1.hp.com/products/quickspecs/14433_div/14433_div.pdf
QUESTION 13

Which field should you change to increase useable capacity and still meet the remaining requirements?
A. Read %
B. RAID choice
C. Number of disk
D. Disk type

Correct Answer: B Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: https://roianalyst.alinean.com/ent_02/AutoLogin.do?d=11840239389855150 Possible Raid Choice, or Number of disk 95% Raid Choice
QUESTION 14
You have Proposed HP 3PAR StoreServ thin provisioning capability to achieve a 40 % reduction in raw storage requirements. The customer considers all storage vendors thin provisioning equal. What are the competitive differentiators of HP 3PAR StoreServ thin provisioning? (Select two)
A. fills empty volume space with zeros for space reclaim identification
B. does not require resource pools
C. provides equivalent performance to a normally provisioned volume
D. features dynamic RAID level conversion based on peak write demand statistics to maintain performance
E. automatically converts fully provisioned volumes to thin volumes

Correct Answer: AC Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:

QUESTION 15
The Converged Infrastructure Architect of small aviation firm issued an RFP to three vendors for a new
Greenfield virtualization infrastructure.
The RFP has the following design criteria:

-8 blades x86 virtualization servers, 2×6 core West mere Processors, 128 GB of RAM
-vCenter Server or a physical host, 1×6 core, 16Gb of RAM, MS Windows 2008R2 license
-licenses for vSphere, five for each server
-scale-out-style, iSCSI-based storage, approximately 100 TB usable
-CIFS access required for a third-party application that is on four physical hosts
-7×24 /4-hour response support – capacity to support host and storage 10 Gb Ethernet connectivity.
Which products satisfy the design requirements?
A. HP StoreSure 2000FC array + HP StoreEasy 3830 Gateway Storage
B. HP StoreVirtual VSA Software + HP StoreEasy 3830 Gateway Storage
C. HP StoreVirtual 4330 array+ HP StoreEasy 3830 Gateway Storage
D. HP StoreSure 2000FC array+ HP StoreAll 9300 Gateway Storage

Correct Answer: A Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Request for proposal (RFP)
Capacity to support host and storage 10 Gb Ethernet connectivity:
HP StoreVirtual VSA Software + HP StoreEasy 3830 Gateway Storage HP StoreVirtual 4330 array 1 GbE
iSCSI (4) Ports Optional upgrade to 10GbE iSCSI (2) Ports HP StoreSure 2000FC array: Fibre Channel,
Combo FC/iSCSI, 6Gb SAS, and 1Gb or 10GbE iSCSI systems
HP StoreAll 9300 Gateway Storage, 4 1GbE ports and choice between 2 10GbE or 2 IB ports for customer
data network.

iSCSI-based storage, approximately 100 TB usable:
HP StoreVirtual 4330 array: Capacity 2.4TB Starting and 1152TB Maximum, Drive description (720) SFF
SAS or (256) SFF MDL SAS or (1152) LFF MDL SAS.

HP StoreVirtual VSA Software: HP StoreVirtual VSA now featuring adaptive optimization with sub-volume
tiering automation to optimize performance and cost for dynamic workloads plus flexible product offerings
ranging from 4-to-50 TB capacity

StoreAll 9300 Gateway Storage: (Not support StoreSure 2000FC) Storage expansion options:
Attach to HP 3PAR StoreServ, EVA or XP arrays

Storage Capacity : 7.2TB raw capacity (5.7TB after RAID) with 24 300GB Enterprise SAS 10K SFF drives,
21.6TB raw capacity (17.1TB after RAID) with 24 900GB Enterprise SAS 10K SFF drives, 48TB raw
capacity (32TB after RAID) with 24 2TB Midline SAS 7.2K LFF drives, 72TB raw capacity (48TB after
RAID) with 24 3TB Midline SAS 7.2K LFF drives and Expansion Capacity Block storage capacity of 7.5TB
raw capacity (6TB after RAID) with 25 300GB Enterprise SAS 10K SFF drives, 22.5TB raw capacity (18TB
after RAID) with 25 900GB Enterprise SAS 10K SFF drives, 48TB raw capacity (32TB after RAID) with 24
2TB Midline SAS 7.2K LFF drives ,72TB raw capacity (48TB after RAID) with 24 3TB Midline SAS 7.2K
LFF drives

HP StoreEasy 3830 Gateway Storage:
Storage expansion options: Attach to 3PAR StorServ, EVA P6000, P9000 or P2000 arrays. Compatible
operating systems: Microsoft Windows (CIFS), Linux, UNIX, VMware. HP StoreSure 2000FC array:
Modular Smart Array (MSA) solutions 2312fc, 2324, and P2000 and focuses on implementing and
managing an MSA SAN solution. iSCSI-based storage, Capacidade 384TB Maximum Including expansion,
depending on model

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QUESTION: 21
What is true in a Not Completed requirement coverage status?

A. Almost one test has an execution status of Failed.
B. None of the tests have an execution status of Blocked.
C. None of the tests can have execution status of Passed.
D. None of the tests can have execution status of No Run.

Answer: B
QUESTION: 22 When defining content for a Library, which entities can be added based on their relationship to the requirements selected?
A. only Tests
B. Tests and Test Sets
C. Tests and Components
D. Tests and Test Resources

Answer: A
QUESTION: 23
Which customization use cases can only be accommodated by editing workflow code?

A. sending an email to a test’s owner whenever a linked requirement is updated
B. permitting developers to see only the defects submitted by their team
C. adding a new status called “Pending Review” to the Test Status system field
D. denying access to the Releases module for certain groups of users

Answer: A
QUESTION: 24 All licenses for a specific HP Lifecycle Management (ALM) module are currently in use and an additional user tries to access that module. Which statement is true about what happens in this situation?

A. ALM uses a concurrency model. The user will be declined access and receive a message indicating such.
B. ALM uses a fixed seat model. What happens depends on whether or not the user is accessing ALM from a computer that has been registered as licensed.
C. ALM allows the user read-only access. Once a license is released, the user will be informed that write privileges have been granted.
D. ALM allows timesharing-based access. All users can access with write privileges for a fixed time.

Answer: A
QUESTION: 25 The ALM Synchronizer is a service that provides out-of-the box integration with which tools? (Select three.)
A. Tasktop
B. Rational ClearQuest
C. Microsoft Project
D. CollabNet TeamForge
E. Rational ReqPro
F. Defects between two ALM Projects

Answer: B, E, F
QUESTION: 26
In which fields of the Design Steps tab is it possible to use parameters? (Select two.)

A. Step Name
B. Expected Result
C. Parameters
D. Test Configurations
E. Description

Answer: B, E
QUESTION: 27 Which HP Application Lifecycle Management command enables you to convert a Manual test to an Automated test type?

A. Convert Script
B. Create Script
C. Generate Script
D. Generate Script from manual test

Answer: C
QUESTION: 28
How is a set of data defined in an Excel report?

A. SQL queries on the project database
B. SQL queries on the management database
C. Data Grid view from the Testing module
D. Data Grid view from the Dashboard module

Answer: A
QUESTION: 29 In the Test Plan module, which graph enables you to correlate the number of tests and the elapsed time interval?
A. Tests Summary graph
B. Tests Results graph
C. Tests Trend graph
D. Tests Progress graph

Answer: D
QUESTION: 30 A company is using HP Quality Center (QC) 10 and HP Application Lifecycle Management (ALM) 11. During an upgrade, how should you install the clients?
A. Do not install HP QC 10 and HP ALM11 clients on the same machine; it will cause errors and HP QC 10 will fail to start.
B. Do not install HP QC 10 and HP ALM11 clients on the same machine; it will cause errors and HP ALM 11 will fail to start.
C. Install HP QC 10 and HP ALM11 clients on the same machine; do not start both clients because it will cause errors.

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Question No : 21
Where do you configure the ability to delegate approvals?
A. the Category record
B. the Phase record
C. the User Profile record
D. the Environment record
Answer: C
Explanation:
Question No : 22 DRAG DROP
Click the Task button. Place the steps for ordering from the Service Catalog in the correct order.

Answer: Question No : 23

Which parameter in the Service Manager Initialization file triggers the creation of multiple log files?
A. maxlogswitching
B. numberoflogfiles
C. maxfilesize
D. maxlogfiles
Answer: B
Explanation:
Question No : 24
Which Service Manager table contains custom calendar records that system administrators can assign to Service Manager activities?
A. calendar
B. caldutyhours
C. workschedules
D. calholtable
E. caltable
Answer: B
Explanation:
Question No : 25
What are major improvements found in Service Manager as compared to Service Center? (Select two.)
A. improved process definition
B. compatibility with all major operating systems
C. improved integration with the HP BTO Portfolio
D. introduction of Service Catalog
E. more attractive to the small business market
Answer: A,C
Explanation:
Question No : 26
During the Service Manager server configuration, the system prompts you for a valid TCP/IP port. Which port number should you choose for Service Manager?
A. a port number smaller than 1024
B. a port number greater than 1024
C. a port number that is either 80 or 8080
D. any free TCP/IP port number
E. port number 1024 only
Answer: B
Explanation:
Question No : 27
By default, when adding a New Operator record, what information must also be provided?
A. an associated user role
B. a menu structure for the operator
C. a default MySM page
D. language and currency for the operator
E. an associated contact record
Answer: E
Explanation:
Question No : 28
Folder entitlement rights are assigned in which record?
A. Profiles
B. Assignment Groups
C. Security Groups
D. Execute Capabilities
E. User Roles
Answer: A
Explanation:
Question No : 29
What must be implemented in order to track Configuration Items (CIs) and Configuration Item Relationships (CIRs) by company ID?
A. Integration Manager
B. Web Services
C. Multi-Tenant Support
D. Single Sign On
Answer: C
Explanation:
Question No : 30
Service Manager 9.2x provides a powerful workflow engine and application platform for automating, facilitating, and enforcing your key IT processes. What is another competitive advantage?
A. Service Manager has the broadest coverage and support of the ITIL V3 Best Practices.
B. Service Manager is the best Asset Management solution.
C. Service Manager is a plug-and-play application.
D. Service Manager is a full web-based application.
Answer: A
Explanation: Question No : 31
Which statement is true about the code page on the SQL Server?
A. The SQL Server database must be created with a code page that supports the character set of most of your data.
B. The SQL Server database must be created with a code page for the country in which your Service Manager server is located.
C. The SQL Server database must be created with the UTF/8 code page.
D. The SQL Server database must be created with a code page that supports multi-byte characters.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Question No : 32
In Service Manager, why is the progress within the workflow of a change much clearer than in Service Desk?
A. There are workorders that are related as predecessors and successors.
B. There is a graph on the Workflow panel that shows all steps within the process.
C. There is a list of tasks that shows the progress.
D. There are status codes that clearly describe the phase within the Change process.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Question No : 33
Where can notifications be added?
A. from the main “Manage Catalog” screen
B. in the “User Properties” configuration pane
C. from the RAD editor pane
D. from the “Alert Definition” pane
Answer: D
Explanation:
Question No : 34 DRAG DROP
Click the Task button. Match each utility with the customer requirement it meets.

Answer:

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QUESTION 1
An industry-leading insurance company in the UK has decided to build a redundant vSphere 5.1 infrastructure cluster with an HP BladeSystem and HP 3PAR StoreServ storage platform. As their consultant, you propose redundant HP BladeSystem c7000 Enclosures, FlexFabric Interconnect modules, and four HP ProLiant BL660c Gen8 Servers, with two dual port Flex- Fabric LOMs in a vSphere ESX5.1 HA cluster. The support department needs to decrease the time of infrastructure management.
Which HP product provides hardware-level management for their HP server and storage solution?
A. HP System Insight Manager
B. Onboard Administrator
C. Integrated Lights Out
D. Virtual Connect Enterprise Manager

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 2
Which features would lead you to position an HP 3PAR StoreServ 7200 as a replacement for an existing HP 8100 Enterprise Virtual Array? (Select two.)
A. thin provisioning
B. seamless data migration
C. compatible replication protocol
D. faster disk spindle speeds
E. similar feature set

Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 3
A consultant develops a storage concept for an SMB customer. To prepare the CxO presentation, the consultant must identify business and technical challenges. Which challenges should be presented during a meeting with the CEO? (Select two.)
A. Data is not protected at the sufficient level.
B. Rack space is not used efficiently.
C. Cost of information is not defined.
D. Operational expenditures (OPEX) nave to be reduced.
E. Server provisioning takes too much time.
Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 4
Your customer is a medium-sized insurance company. They have decided to build a redundant vSphere
5.1 infrastructure cluster with HP BladeSystem. As their consultant, you propose redundant HP BladeSystem c7000 enclosures, Flex Fabric Interconnect modules, and four HP ProLiant BL660c Gen8 Servers, with two dual port Flex-Fabric LOMs in a vSphere ESX 5.1 HA cluster.
Which components provide direct-attached storage for the virtual servers? (Select three.)
A. HP SmartArray P711m Controller
B. HP MSA P2000 G3 Combo
C. HP SmartArray P721m Controller
D. HP D6000 Disk Enclosures
E. HP 3 Gb/s SAS BL Switch
F. HP 6 Gb/s SAS BL Switch

Correct Answer: CDF
QUESTION 5
Which statements are true when zoning an HP MSA P2000 G3 FC array into a fabric? (Select two.)
A. The array can be in multiple operating system zones.
B. Overlapping storage port zones may be configured
C. Zoning is required for all operating systems that access the array.
D. Zoning is not required for a single operating system.
E. The array required port-based zoning to be configured.

Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 6
When designing a solution, what defines the maximum tolerable amount of data loss from an IT service due to a major incident?
A. SLO
B. RTO
C. RPO
D. SLA

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 7
Which HP StoreVirtual feature is unique to the P4900 Storage System?
A. 8Gb FC node connectivity
B. support for Network RAID 5 only
C. SmartSSD Wear Gauge in CMC
D. support for hardware RAID 10

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 8
A medium-sized manufacturing company decides to build a redundant vSphere 5.1 Infrastructure cluster with HP BladeSystem. As their consultant, you propose redundant HP BladeSystem c7000 Enclosures for their local and remote sites. The storage solution you propose is an HP StoreVirtual 4000 with remote replication.
To stay within the budget, you decide to use the HP StoreVirtual VSA at the remote site.
Which feature of the VSA must you consider for future growth?
A. maximum 3 VSAs per site
B. maximum one LAN adapter per VSA
C. maximum one VSA per host
D. maximum 10 TB per VSA
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 9
Which requirement differentiates dual-domain from dual-path SAS?
A. Dual-path requires active SAS cables.
B. Dual-domain requires less hardware.
C. Dual-domain requires dual-port drives.
D. Dual-path requires dual-port controllers.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 10
A leading retail, corporate, and investment bank serves approximately 15 million customers in Central and Eastern Europe. The bank plans to build two redundant data centers in Europe. Their backup strategy is to implement an HP StoreOnce solution in Europe servicing 24 TB across the three remote offices. They have a native 10Gb Ethernet infrastructure and plan to implement HP StoreOnce Catalyst. As their backup presales consultant, you must prepare an evaluation to present the HP StoreOnce solution. Which HP StoreOnce solution should you propose for the remote offices?
A. One HP StoreOnce 4220 Backup for each remote office, as well as Replication and HP StoreOnce Catalyst licenses
B. One HP StoreOnce 4220 Backup for each of the three remote offices, as well as HP StoreOnce Catalyst licenses
C. One HP StoreOnce 4210 Fibre Channel Backup for each remote office, as well as Replication and HP StoreOnce Catalyst licenses
D. One HP StoreOnce 4220 Backup for each remote office, as well as HP StoreOnce Catalyst licenses for source and target

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 11
A CIO is interested in moving their infrastructure to a private cloud solution in the future. The consultant advises implementing an HP Virtual System.
On which stage of migration is the HP Virtual System positioned?
A. Self-service application with lifecycle management
B. Standardize and consolidate
C. Virtualize and automate
D. Self-service virtualization infrastructure

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 12
A medium-sized warehouse company has built their Windows-based IT environment over time. They have recently virtualized their servers using VMware technologies. They want to build a centralized storage solution but without a new storage network. Your solution is based on the HP StoreEasy product.
Which common features meet the customer requirements? (Select two)
A. StoreEasy Management
B. 16 Petabyte namespace
C. SAN gateway facility
D. node-based flexibility
E. NFS 4.1 protocol support

Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 13
Which HP Storage solution is built on an architecture that allows a customer to scale capacity and performance linearly without incurring downtime or performance bottlenecks?
A. HP StoreEasy
B. HP StareServ
C. HP StoreSure
D. HP StoreVirtual

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 14
A customer has a head office with a number of branch offices that have no local servers. The customer requires a file-serving solution that provides these benefits: High Availability Low-cost and low-overhead No additional hardware or software required at branch offices Reduced WAN usage with caching of frequently-used files Clients access data at LAN speed
Which solution should you propose to meet the customer requirements?
A. HP StoreEasy 5000 Storage
B. HP StoreAll 9000 Storage
C. HP StoreSure 2000 Storage
D. HP StoreEasy 1000 Storage

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 15
Which resource supports implementing a drawing of the storage network cable management in the documentation?
A. HP Single Point of Connectivity Knowledge (SPOCK)
B. HP Network Design Center
C. VisioCafe
D. HP Storage Sizer

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 16
While discussing the new HP StoreEasy solution, a customer expresses concerns about potential performance issues that have been associated with previous generations of Windows NAS systems.
Which new feature of the HP StoreEasy solution should you highlight to demonstrate the increased reliability and performance of the platform for files and applications?
A. resilient file system (ReFS)
B. addition of Fibre Channel support for file shares, and storage for applications
C. increased support for 35,000 concurrent users with three shares per single file server
D. support for Unified LUN Presentation from the GUI

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 17
Which HP product utilizes a common deduplication algorithm across the environment and allows deduplication at the source, media server, or target side?
A. HP StoreSure with Single Instance Storage
B. HP StoreOnce with Catalyst
C. HP StoreEasy with Windows 2012
D. HP StoreServ with Thin Provisioning

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 18
Which HP Server solution is optimized for data center virtualization to achieve the highest density, maximize power efficiency by sharing power supplies and fans, maintain total flexibility through a Single Point of Management, and support most of the HP Interconnect technologies?
A. ML
B. BL
C. DL
D. SL

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 19
A leading retail, corporate, and investment bank serves approximately one million customers within Central and Eastern Europe. The bank plans to modernize their data protection infrastructure to fulfill their strong data security expectations.
Which components should you suggest to provide encryption of their backed-up data? (Select two.)
A. HP LTO-4 SB1760c Tape Blade
B. HP LTO-3 Ultrium 800 GB WORM Drive
C. HP Enterprise Secure Key Manager
D. HP Ultrium 960 Tape Drives
E. HP Ultrium 448 Tape Drives

Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 20
An alternative energy company was founded in 2003 by a joint venture of two regional energy companies in the United States. They focused on engineering solutions for the solar energy sector. Since 2010, they have offered operational services, including billing and financial services, for solar power plants. The acquisition of companies related to this sector is a future strategy to raise their market share. Moreover, in 2012 the company established a branch office in Europe to take part in the extensive European market growth.
A new storage solution is being designed for the company’s central organization. Which questions should the IT manager be asked to verify that the proposed solution will cover the business needs when acquiring new companies? (Select two.)
A. Which requirements must be met today, in three months, and in six months?
B. How do you expect business to grow in the near future?
C. How does the user define performance?
D. Which criteria must be met for fault tolerance and recovery time?
E. Is the intended use of the solution processor intensive?

Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 21
When designing an HP 3PAR StoreServ environment that involves HP Peer Motion, which configuration requirements must be considered?
A. All host servers connected to the target array must be removed from the Fibre Channel zoning to prevent data corruption.
B. Source and destination arrays must be at InForm software version 3.1.2. or higher.
C. Volume Sets are not supported during the migration and volume-set membership must be removed.
D. The destination system cannot import volumes with existing Remote Copy membership.
Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 22
Which device facilitates the migration of data between heterogeneous storage systems?

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QUESTION NO: 1
Which setup utility menu would you use to configure the SATA settings for an HP ap5000 AiO POS System?
A. Power menu
B. Security menu
C. Advanced menu
D. Storage menu

Answer: C
Reference:ftp://ftp.moteselectronics.com/HP/All%20In%20One%20PC/AP5000%20(POS%20Syst em)/hp%20ap5000.pdf(page 9, SATA configuration)

QUESTION NO: 2
You can damage the Vacuum Fluorescent Display on an HP ap5000 AiO POS System if you mistakenly connect it to which port?
A. COM1 port
B. COM2 port
C. COM3 port
D. COM4 port

Answer: C
Reference:ftp://ftp.moteselectronics.com/HP/All%20In%20One%20PC/AP5000%20(POS%20Syst em)/hp%20ap5000.pdf(page 26)

QUESTION NO: 3
How do you awaken an HP ap5000 AiO POS System from a low power (sleep) state? (Select Two.)
A. Press any keyboard key
B. Move the mouse-E1
C. Press the power button.
D. Touch the touchscreen.
E. Press Ctrl/S.
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QUESTION 1
Refer to the exhibit.

A company has HP APs that are managed by the two Unified Wired-Wireless controllers. Wireless users use Wi-Fi Protected access (WPA2) and authenticate with 802.1X to HP Access Manager (UAM). The SSID uses centralized forwarding. Users need to be able to roam seamlessly from area 1 to area 2.
Which step helps to meet these needs?
A. Configure local forwarding for the SSID on both controllers.
B. Configure controller 1 as a backup controller for APs in area; configure controller 2 as a backup controller for APs in area1.
C. Change the security mode to preshared key (PSK) and enable opportunistic key change (also called “fast roaming”).
D. Set up enable a roam that includes both controllers. Correct Answer: A
Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 2
An administrator sets up an OpenFlow instance on an HP Provision switch in passive mode. What does this mean?
A. The switch first attempts to switch or route traffic using its own MAC forwarding and routing tables. If it does not know how to treat the traffic, it uses the OpenFlow table.
B. The switch does not associate this OpenFlow instance with a specific VLAN Instead VLANs that are not assigned to another OpenFlow instance are associated with this instance.
C. The switch matches all traffic in the instance against an OpenFlow table, but, if it finds no match, it forwards the traffic normally
D. The switch does not forward any traffic in the instance locally. Instead, it encapsulates all traffic in OpenFlow Packeket_Out messages to the controller. Correct Answer: B
Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 3
Table of Acronyms

An HP Comware switch is configured with the MDC feature. It has three MDCs, which use the same CPU and are assigned these CPU weights:
MDC 1 = 10

MDC 2 = 4

DC 3 = 2
Currently:

MDC 1 needs to use 25 percent of the CPU resources.
MDC 2 needs to use 60 percent of the CPU resources.

MDC 3 needs to use 60 percent of the CPU resources.
Approximately what percentage of the CPU does each MDC receive while at the current CPU request rates?
A. MDC 1 = 25 percent, MDC 2 = 50 percent, and MDC 3 = 25 percent
B. MDC 1 = 63 percent, MDC 2 = 25 percent, and MDC 3 = 12 percent
C. MDC 1 = 10 percent. MDC 2 = 4 percent, and MDC 3 = 2 percent
D. MDC 1 = 25 percent. MDC 2 = 25 percent, and MDC 3 = 12 percent
Correct Answer: B Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Reference: http://h10032.www1.hp.com/ctg/Manual/c03595099 (page 209, see `specifying a CPU weight for an MDC’)
QUESTION 4
A company is deploying an HP Unified Wired-Wireless controller solution with an HP BYOD solution. Guests will connect to an open Guest SSID and be redirected by their default gateway to a portal hosted by User Access Manager (UAM). The default gateway is a Comware routing device.
The administrator has set up portal authentication on the Comware device to implement the redirect. The administrator asks the BYOD solution designer about the correct RADIUS and domain settings for portal authentication on the switch. What should the BYOD solution designer explain to the administrator?
A. The administrator does not need to make any changes as long as the switch is managed by IMC. UAM will automatically access the managed switch and configure the correct settings.
B. These settings are not necessary because the UAM BYOD portal automatically handles the authentication and then forces the guest to reconnect the SSID and authenticate with MAC-Auth.
C. The RADIUS scheme and domain must be configured with the same settings that would be used for traditional portal authentication to UAM. In addition, the RADIUS scheme must use the standard server type.
D. The RADIUS scheme and domain must be configured with the same settings that would be used for traditional portal authentication to UAM. In addition, the RADIUS scheme must enable transparent MAC authentication.
Correct Answer: D Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 5
Refer to the exhibit.

An HP provision switch has OpenFlow table entries indicated in the exhibit.

The switch should forward most traffic between 10.1.10.0/24 and 10.1.20.0/24 on port 1. However any IP traffic between server 1, at 005056-111111 and
10.1.10.10, and server 2, at 005056-222222 and 10.20.20, should be forwarded on port 2.
Which change to the rules let the switch behave as desired?

A. For flow 3, the table ID is set to 200, and the priority is set to 47000
B. For flow 4, the priority is set to 47000
C. For flow 4, the table ID is set to 100, and the priority is set to 47000
D. For flow 3, the instruction is set to Write Actions output 1 Correct Answer: A
Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 6
Table of Acronyms Exhibit 1

Exhibit 2 The switches shown in the exhibit are implementing SPBM. The administrator is now setting up interface ten1/0/1 to connect to a new VMware host. What is the correct port type and VLAN assignment for the interface?

A. Trunk port than permits VLANs 101 and 103
B. Hybrid port than permits VLANs 201 and 203
C. Trunk port that permits VLANs 10 and 20
D. Access port that permits the default VLAN
Correct Answer: A Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 7
Table of Acronyms

Refer to the exhibit

An administrator wants to connect four data centers using HP EVI. What is the correct setup for the EVI tunnel interfaces?
A. Three EVI tunnel interfaces on each EVI edge device-one EVI tunnel interface is required for each GRE tunnel in the mesh
B. One EVI tunnel interface on Switch 1, which will be configured as the ENDP server, and no interfaces on the other switches
C. Three EVI tunnel interfaces on Switch 1, which will act as the hub. and one EVI tunnel interface each on the other switches
D. One EVI tunnel interface on each EVI edge device–the devices automatically establish GRE tunnels between these interfaces Correct Answer: C
Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 8
Table of Acronyms

Refer to the exhibit.

The switch shown in the exhibit should from a TRILL region. For Switch 1 interface ten1/0/22, what is a valid port link-type and TRILL port type?
A. port link type = access port in any VLAN TRILL port type = TRILL access port
B. port link type = access port in any VLAN TRILL port type = TRILL trunk port
C. port link type = trunk port that permits VLMs 10 and 20 TRILL- port type = TRILL access port
D. port link type = hybrid port with untagged VLANs 10 and 20 TRILL port type = TRILL hybrid port
Correct Answer: C Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

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QUESTION 1
Refer to the exhibit.

The exhibit shows a proposed design for a data center network infrastructure. The exhibit shows two racks
for simplicity. The data center will actually include more racks.

The customer has these key requirements:
The customer can scale any application and easily install new hardware that supports that application
The network supports vMotion for live migration of virtual machine (VMs)

How should the network architect change the proposed design to meet the customer requirements?

A. Replace the rack servers with blade enclosures
B. Add more links between the servers and the access layer
C. Remove routing from the access layer and extend VLANs to multiple racks
D. Add a distribution layer between the access layer and the core

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 2
Refer to the exhibit.

The exhibit shows the topology for an enterprise LAN with an on-site data center. The intelligent Resilient Framework (IRF) group of HP 5500 Series switches supports a group of computers that require very high availability to the data center. Therefore, the customer has requested a backup gigabit fiber link implement Open Shortest Path First (OSPF) in a single area.
Which tasks should the network architect complete to ensure that the HP 5500 IRF group selects the correct path to the data center during normal operation?
A. Change the reference bandwidth on the VLAN 100 interfaces to 20000
B. Set the cost on the VLAN 100 interfaces to 2 Set the cost for the VLAN 101 interfaces to 80
C. Change the reference bandwidth on the VLAN 101 interfaces to 1000
D. Change the VLAN 101 interfaces as silent interfaces
E. Change the reference bandwidth to 80000 on all routing devices

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 3
A customer has Voice IP (VoIP) phones that support Link Layer Discovery Protocol Media Endpoint Discovery (LLDP-MED). The phase need to receive their VLAN ID using this protocol. The network architect is proposing HP 5500-48G-PoE+EI switches. Each user computer connects to the phone, which then connects to the Ethernet jack. LLDP is enabled on the switch. Each Edge port is trunk port that permits VLAN 10 (the user VLAN) and VLAN 20 (the voice VLAN).
Which other setting recommended on the edge port?
A. The voice VLAN is enabled
B. The PVID is set to VLAN 20
C. LLDP Cisco Discovery Protocol (CDP) compliance enabled
D. The LLDP voice VLAN ID is set to 20

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 4
A customer wants a simple solution for deploying virtual services at a branch. Which devices support modules running a VMware ESXi hypervisor? (Select two)
A. HP 2920 Switch Series
B. HP MSR30 Router Series
C. HP 5400 zl Switch Series
D. HP 7500 Switch Series
E. HP VSR1000 Virtual Services Routers

Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 5
What correctly describes one trend that is changing how network architects must design the data center network infrastructure?
A. Applications are drawing on more and more locally stored data, which causes customers to favor blade servers and blade enclosures
B. Applications are considering on single, highly available mainframes, driving the need for 10G connections to the server edge
C. Applications are increasingly virtualized, which requires architects to implement routing at the access layer to segment each rack into its own VLAN
D. Applications are scaling out across multiple servers, increasing communications between servers distributed across the data center

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 6
A network architect is planning an intelligent Resilient Framework (IRF) group. What should the network architect implement to protect against a split IRF group?
A. Distributed Trunking (DT)
B. Virtual Router Redundancy Protocol (VRRP)
C. Multi-Active Detections (MAD)
D. Rapid Ring Protection Protocol (RRPP)

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 7
What is the preferred time for completing racking and labeling of equipment for a new implementation?
A. After the scheduled outage has begun and initial tests have indicated success
B. Before the scheduled outage
C. At any time between the beginning of the scheduled outage and the point of no return
D. At the beginning of the scheduled outage

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 8
A network architect has collected data on link utilization. When analyzing link utilization, what is the general guideline?
A. You upgrade a link that is often used at more than 50 percent utilization
B. You upgrade a link when it reaches 100 percent utilization
C. You upgrade a link if it sometimes peaks at more than 50 percent utilization
D. You upgrade a link when it reaches 25 to 30 percent utilization

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 9
What are information technology Service Management (ITSM) framework, such as the infrastructure Technology Infrastructure Library (ITILv3) and The Open Group Architecture Framework (TOGAF)?
A. They are Internet Engineering Task Force (IETF) standards that provide evolving guidelines and best practices for IT design and management
B. They are high-level approaches that provide recommendations and best practices for IT design management
C. They are industry-wide standards that provide guidelines for enterprise design and management
D. They are Internet Engineering Task Force (IETF) standards that define proper network design

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 10
If a network architect is planning a secure device management policy, why would administrators need to generate SSH keys on network infrastructure devices?
A. To authenticate managers with a more secure method than passwords
B. To encrypt management traffic and also authenticate managers with asymmetric
C. To authenticate managers and assign them privileges according to their identity
D. To encrypt management traffic related to the CLI

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 11
A network architect is planning an update of the server access layer in a data center. Currently, the access layer switches have 10G links to distribution layer switches. In the new solution, HP 5930 Switches act as top of rack (ToR) switches with 40G links to core switches.
Which factor must the network architect consider when designing solution?
A. Whether the data center cabling provides enough fiber strands to the racks to support the 40G links
B. Whether the new switches 40G transceivers are on the chassis front or back, the transceivers must be on the same side as servers air outtakes
C. Whether the servers connecting to the new switches use Ethernet Virtual Bridging (EVB)/Virtual Ethernet Port Aggregate (VEPA), which is not compatible with 40G
D. Whether the servers connecting to the new switches have NICs that support Converged Enhanced Ethernet (CEE)
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 12
Refer to the exhibit.

A network architect has designed the topology shown in the exhibit. The Gigabit links between distribution layer and the core uses OM3 grade multi-mode fiber between 100m and 150m long.
The solution is for an enterprise customer whose employees use mostly HTTP-based applications and has medium utilization needs.
What should the network architect do to resolve a potential issue?
A. Add more bandwidth between each pair of distribution layer switches
B. Add more links between each modular switch at the access layer and its distribution layer switch
C. Replace the modular switches at the access layer with switches that support stacked meshing
D. Remove the distribution layer since it is not needed in this environment

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 13
A customer requires high availability, so the network architect is planning two area border (ABRs) for each non-backbone area in the Open Shortest Path First (OSPF) solution. What ensures a loop-free routing environment that meets the customer needs?
A. All ABRs have at least one interface in area 0, and that interface has an IP address that is outside of the range of any summaries for area 0
B. Each ABR in an area advertises the same summary routes for the area, and each ABR has a null route that matches those summaries
C. Only one ABR advertise a summary route for each area. For areas with multiple ABRs, each area can include two summaries ranges, and each ABR is configured with one of those ranges
D. All ABRs in an area apply consistent path costs for their summary routes
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 14
Refer to the exhibit.

The network architect is planning network addresses for the VLANs shown. The company is using the private 10.0.0.0/8 space. Which guidelines should the network architect follow?
A. Use a/22 subnet for each VLAN to ensure enough IP addresses for each large modular switch
B. Implement the port isolation feature and apply several /30 subnets to each VLAN
C. Use a/25 subnet for each VLAN to conserve the limited IP addressing space
D. Use a /24 subnet for each VLAN for simplicity and scalability

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 15
A company is upgrading a data center network solution in phases. The first phase involves updating the top of rack (ToR) switches in one rack. Other switches will be updated in their phases.
What is one benefit of this approach?
A. It allows the through testing of the solution in real-world circumstances
B. It ensures that the network can be updated without any scheduled downtime
C. It removes the need to conduct connectivity and failover tests during the implementation
D. It removes the need for working with customer change management processes

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 16
Refer to the exhibit.

The exhibit shows how two NICs on a physical server connect to two HP 5820 switches. The server supports eight virtual machines (VMs) with VMware version 5.1. The VMware standard virtual switch is bound to NIC and NIC2. This switch implements source MAC load balancing for the NIC team.
What is the proper configuration for ports 1/0/1 and 2/0/1?
A. Place the ports in a bridge aggregation group that does not use LACP
B. Place the ports in a bridge aggregation group that uses LACP
C. Enable LACP on the individual ports
D. Do not place the ports in a bridge aggregation group

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 17
Refer to the exhibit.

A network architect is proposing this solution to a customer. The customer network manager has a preference for Cisco VLAN Spanning Tree Plus (PVST+) because this protocol provides for fast convergence when a link fails and also provides per-VLAN load-sharing over links.
How would the network architect explain why the solution fits these requirements?
A. The MSTP component of the solution fulfills the same needs as PVST+ MSTP simply balances traffic per instance rather than per-VLAN
B. The redundant links between the switches are protected by MSTP and the built-in loop guard on HP-3800 switches. MSTP provides load-sharing and loop guard provides resiliency
C. The solution as shown provides the same load-sharing benefits as PVST+. To achieve the same resiliency benefits, the architect can add smart link to the meshed stack
D. The link aggregation between tiers provide even better resiliency and load-sharing than PVST+ while MSTP protects against accidental loops

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 18
A network architect is explaining the differences between deploying two switches in an HP Intelligent Resiliency Framework (IRF) virtual switch and deploying two switches that implement standard Virtual Routing Redundancy Protocol (VRRP). Which statement correctly describes an advantage of IRF?
A. IRF failover occurs in 3 to 4 seconds, whereas VRPF failover occurs in 10 or more seconds
B. Unlike VRRP, which requires as least two addresses to be listed. Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) scopes list a single IP address for the default gateway
C. The IRF virtual switch runs a separate routing in each member, which enhances the redundancy and reliability of the overall solution
D. Multiple IRF members can actively route traffic for the same subnet and use the same IP address and routing control plane

Correct Answer: D

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