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Click the Task button. Place the commands next to the functions they perform.

Answer: Question No : 31

Which statement is true about the difference between a process and a thread?
A. A process and a thread are the same, there is no major difference.
B. A thread is another name for the child of a system-related process.
C. A thread must have two processes to be able to run on multiple CPU cores.
D. A multi-threaded process can run on multiple CPU cores.
Answer: D
Question No : 32
While troubleshooting a network printing problem, you notice that the printer service is not listening for requests. Which file should you check to make sure the printer service is not missing or commented out?
A. /etc/default/printer.conf
B. /etc/inetd.conf
C. /etc/hosts
D. /etc/networks
Answer: B
Question No : 33 DRAG DROP
Click the Task button. Place each network configuration file next to its description.

Answer: Question No : 34

As the system administrator you need to add a default route to the routing table. Which command should you use?
A. route add network 1
B. route add net 1
C. route add host 1
D. route add default 1
Answer: D
Question No : 35
NTP should be configured and activated on all servers running HP-UX 11i v3 to enable which function?
A. network transport protocol
B. network tuning to maximize performance
C. synchronized time between servers
D. network transactions processing
Answer: C
Question No : 36
Which HP-UX command can be used to verify a network interface card (NIC) is enabled?
A. ping
B. nwmgr
C. arp
D. nslookup
Answer: B
Question No : 37
Which tool is used to verify CIFS operation?
A. cifsadmin
B. smbclient
C. testparm
D. cifsdadm
Answer: B
Question No : 38
What do you use to list clients that have mounted exported file systems? (Select two.)
A. showmount -a
B. more /etc/mounts
C. mount -v
D. more /etc/rmtab
E. more /etc/nfstab
Answer: A,D
Question No : 39
Which file contains configuration parameters that can be used to enable or disable AutoFS on an HP-UX 11i v3 system?
A. /etc/nfsconf
B. /etc/automount.conf
C. /etc/netconf
D. /etc/rc.config.d/nfsconf
Answer: D
Question No : 40
How is IP multiplexing implemented on an HP-UX host?
A. by binding the same IP address to multiple network interfaces
B. by binding more than one IP address to a single network interface
C. by binding more than one MAC address to a single network interface
D. by increasing throughput on the network interface
Answer: B
Explanation: Question No : 41
When troubleshooting a disk problem, which HP-UX 11i v3 command correlates a LUN’s device special file (DSF) with its hardware path?
A. scsiutil
B. iofind
C. scsimgr
D. ioinit
Answer: C
Question No : 42
What does the command ch_rc do?
A. changes the chroot to the current directory
B. lists, adds or modifies parameters of /etc/rc.config.d
C. alters the permissions of root directory
D. sets the default values to the content of /etc/rc.config.d
Answer: B
Question No : 43
If your organization’s security policy prohibits web service on production servers, you can disable the HP System Management Homepage (SMH) web interface entirely with which commands or actions? (Select two.)
A. smhstartconfig -a off -b off
B. /sbin/init.d/hpsmh stop and vi /etc/rc.config.d/hpsmh
C. /sbin/init.d/smhconfig stop
D. smhconfig -a off -b off
Answer: A,B Explanation:
Question No : 44
Which command is used to list device file details?
A. lsdev
B. insf -e
C. lssf <special file>
D. lsf -a
Answer: C
Question No : 45
Which statement is true about dynamically disabling swap devices in an HP-UX 11i v3 system?
A. You use swapoff /dev/vg01/swapvol.
B. You are able to do this in VxFS v4 or later.
C. You cannot disable them dynamically.
D. You use swapon -d /dev/vg01/swapvol.
Answer: A
Question No : 46
Which directory keeps a backup of the kernel configuration that was created during the last OS install?
A. /stand/nextboot/
B. /stand/last_install/
C. /stand/newconfig/
D. /stand/backup/
Answer: B
Question No : 47
Which steps are necessary to use /etc/shadow on a server running HP-UX 11i v3?
A. Install the ShadowPassword product; run /usr/sbin/pwck; run /usr/sbin/pwconv.
B. Run /usr/sbin/pwck; run /usr/sbin/pwconv; restart pwgrd.
C. Run /usr/sbin/pwck; run /usr/sbin/pwconv.
D. Run /usr/sbin/pwck; run /usr/sbin/pwconv; convert to trusted system using SAM.
Answer: C
Question No : 48 DRAG DROP
Click the Task button. Match each backup/archive tool with its operation.

Answer: Question No : 49

The following message is displayed while attempting to unmount the /data file system: # umount /data umount: cannot unmount /data : Device busy Which command is used to determine which user is causing the file system to be busy?
A. bdf /data
B. fuser -cu /data
C. showmount /data
D. who /data
Answer: B
Question No : 50
What is the path of the EFI operating system loader for HP-UX boot disks?
Answer: A
Explanation: Question No : 51
Which command is used to determine which versions of LVM are supported on your system?
A. lvmadm -t
B. lvcreate -L
C. lvmadm -v
D. lvcreate -l
Answer: A
Question No : 52
What happens when HP SIM is used to launch a tool?
A. Authorizations are configured in HP SIM.
Users are authenticated using PAM on the HP SIM server.

B. Authorizations are configured in HP SIM.
Users are authenticated using the internal user database of HP SIM.

C. Authorizations are configured in Select Access.
Users are authenticated using the internal user database of HP SIM.

D. Authorizations are derived from operating system login account permissions.
Users are authenticated using PAM on the HP SIM server.

Answer: A
Question No : 53
What can an administrator do to optimize the performance of an existing JFS file system?
A. change mount options
B. change syslog.log size
C. increase SWAP size
D. increase the number of logical volumes
Answer: A
Question No : 54
What are parts of the Agile View FC LUN hardware path address? (Select three.)
A. root node
C. bus address
D. port name

F. LUN address
Answer: A,C,E
Question No : 55
If the HP-UX System Management Homepage (SMH) daemon is not running, which command will start it?
A. smh startup
B. hpsmh autostart
C. hpsmh start
D. smh start
Answer: B
Explanation: Question No : 56
Which commands can be used to interrupt a running process?
A. <ctrl-z>, <ctrl-c>, bg, and kill
B. <ctrl-z>, <ctrl-c>, fg, and kill
C. <ctrl-z>, <ctrl-c>, <ctrl-\>, fg, bg, nohup and kill
D. <ctrl-z>, <ctrl-c>, <ctrl-\>, and kill
Answer: D

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Which statement is true about configuring users for OMi? (Select three.)
A. They can assume either an administrator’s or an operator’s role, but not both.
B. There needs to be a corresponding user on the OS level.
C. They are separate from other HP BSM modules’ users.
D. Capabilities on the group level are merged with the individual ones.
E. Single-sign-on configurations in the HP BSM platform will be honored.
F. You can export/import them to exchange with other OMi servers.

Correct Answer: DEF
How can an OMi user access graphical details of historical load characteristics related to an event?
A. Select Admin > Operations Management > Service Perspective, and then select the event of interest. In the Actions panel, select the Show Performance Graph item in the list.
B. Select Applications > Operations Management > Event Perspective, and then select the event of interest. In the Actions panel, select the Show Performance Graph item in the list.
C. Select Applications > Operations Management > Service Perspective, and then select the event of interest. In the Actions panel, select the Show Performance Graph item in the list.
D. Select Applications > Operations Management > Performance Perspective, and then select the event of interest. In the Actions panel, select the Show Performance Graph item in the list.

Correct Answer: B
When defining a tool, what is a type of run-time parameter that can be inserted into a command?
A. CI Attributes
B. Event Settings
C. HP BSM Host
D. Management Server Attributes
Correct Answer: A
What is the primary reason for associating a tool with a category?
A. to aid in report creation
B. to assign tools to CI types
C. to control access to tools
D. to sort the list of tools in the operator interface
Correct Answer: C
What is a key benefit of OMi?
A. frees up operator time by passing incidents across to subject matter experts
B. pinpoints who fixed incidents
C. frees up subject matter experts by de-skilling diagnosis of incidents
D. shows how quickly incidents were fixed

Correct Answer: C
What is a key benefit of TBEC?
A. to identify the affected CIs
B. to identify the servers from which the message came
C. to give the status of affected CIs
D. to enable the identification of root cause events

Correct Answer: D
How does OMi, in ITIL terminology, provide the highest value?
A. as an incident correlator
B. as an incident consolidator
C. as an integration between the CMDB and incidents
D. as an Operations Bridge

Correct Answer: D
For most executives, what is the primary financial driver for investing in OMi?
A. to enable first line IT operations staff to resolve a larger percentage of technical issues
B. to enable first line IT operations staff to quickly and seamlessly escalate to the more experienced subject matter experts
C. to enable experienced subject matter experts to access event information and tools
D. to enable IT managers to easily determine the effectiveness of each IT operations team member

Correct Answer: A
What does OMi in the HP BSM Platform provide?
A. bottom up analysis from agentry
B. bottom up analysis from Operations Manager
C. the link between bottom up and top down analyses
D. top down analysis of service information

Correct Answer: C
In a comprehensive HP BSM deployment, OMi is required to provide which functionality to the BSM solution set?
A. consolidated view of events received from a wide variety of sources in the IT environment
B. Top View graphical display of business services and underlying CIs, color-coded based on KPI status
C. the capability to alert business service owners of performance and threshold breaches
D. Impact Analysis, based on interdependencies between CIs and preconfigured impact rules
Correct Answer: A QUESTION 32
Which statement is true about the Health Indicator?
A. It provides detailed information about the health of the HP BSM server.
B. It provides the connection between events and KPIs.
C. It is reset upon closure of an event.
D. It is synchronized with the domain manager.

Correct Answer: B
An HP BSM installation already has an Event Management license deployed. Which additional license is required in order to include a system managed by a third-party (non-HP) management solution, where events are consolidated in OMi?
A. Target Connector license
B. Topology-Based Event Correlation license
C. No additional license is required
D. Operations Manager license

Correct Answer: A
Which panels used by operators to search, select, analyze, and resolve events does the OMi user interface provide by default? (Select three.)
A. Health Perspective
B. Event Perspective
C. System Availability Management
D. Key Indicator Perspective
E. Performance Perspective
F. Service Level Management Perspective

Correct Answer: ABE
Why is a Global ID used?
A. to allow CIs to be mapped to models in the CMDB
B. to identify the system uniquely
C. to identify the CI uniquely across the BTO portfolio
D. to identify the source of Operations Manager messages
Correct Answer: C
Which statement is true about Event Type Indicator (ETI) values used in TBEC rules?
A. ETIs are not used in TBEC rules.
B. The name and value of the ETI must match those specified in the TBEC rule.
C. The name of the ETI must match the one specified in the TBEC rule.
D. The value of the ETI must match one of the values specified in the TBEC rule.
Correct Answer: B
An event that has been identified as a “cause” event is closed by an operator, and all of the associated

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Which tools can be used to perform the initial server configuration on a ProLiant ML 300-series server on which you will install SUSE Linux Enterprise Server 11? (Select two.)
A. Insight Control Advisor
B. ROM-Based Setup Utility
C. Extensible Firmware Interface
D. HP Smart Setup
E. Option ROM Configuration for Arrays
Answer: B,E Explanation:
Click the Task button. Your customer requires an application for health monitoring of a ProLiant server. His internal policies, prevent him from using SNMP. Click on the option that you must check during assisted installation from the SmartStart CD.

You finished an installation of Windows Server 2008 on a ProLiant server, but you notice in device manager that some devices are not installed properly and the HP System Management Homepage (SMH) is not available. How can these issues be resolved?
A. Assign a different IRQ for each of the devices using the ROM-Based Setup Utility.
B. Restore the operating system to the latest checkpoint using the System Recovery feature.
C. Enable missing devices in the ROM-Based Setup Utility and change firewall settings to enable communication with the SMH on port 2381.
D. Install the latest ProLiant Support Pack for Windows Server 2008.
Answer: D Explanation:
When preparing a Scope of Work to assess RAID requirements, which factor is the most critical to properly sizing the solution?
A. disaster tolerance

B. cache size
C. mirror sizing
D. disk stripe size
Answer: A Explanation:
Which action is recommended when accessing Version Control Repository Manager (VCRM) from Version Control Agent (VCA)?
A. use Built in VCRM user account
B. use Administrator account
C. modify existing account VCA Operator
D. create a separate account for VCRM with administrator rights and use this account
Answer: D Explanation:
Which statements are correct regarding ProLiant 100-Series servers? (Select two.)
A. They use the Rom-Based Setup Utility (RBSU).
B. They support the Intelligent Platform Management Interface (IPMI).
C. They can have Lights-Out 100 or Lights-Out 100i for remote management.
D. They ship with HP Insight Foundation Suite for ProLiants.
E. They use Trusted Platform Modules for setup.
Answer: B,C Explanation:
Which common industry standard technology is used to monitor servers, storage and network devices?

A. Simple Environment Management Protocol (SEMP)
B. Automatic Server Recovery (ASR)
C. Intelligent Platform Management Interface (IPMI)
D. Internet Control Message Protocol (ICMP)
Answer: C Explanation:
What provides a consolidated view of HP server system health?
A. Array Diagnostic Utility (ADU)
B. SmartStart CD
C. ROM-Based Setup Utility (RBSU)
D. System Management Homepage (SMH)
Answer: D Explanation:
What is used to access the Integrated Management Log?
A. Easy Set-up CD
B. Event Viewer
C. Insight Diagnostics
D. Firmware Maintenance CD
Answer: C Explanation:
Which HP server series provides Watchdog Timer?
A. 100 Series
B. 300 Series C. 500 Series

D. 700 Series
Answer: A Explanation:
Which features do Serial Attached SCSI and Fiber Channel have in common? (Select two.)
A. dual port hard drive interface
B. support for up to 15 meters external cable length
C. half duplex data transfer
D. compatible frame format
E. the number of supported devices
Answer: A,D Explanation:
What is needed to install storage controller drivers during a Windows operating system installation from a CD using virtual floppy in a ProLiant SL170z G6 Server?
A. iLO firmware update .bin file
B. SmartStart version 8.30 or higher
C. LO100i Advance Pack
D. iLO 2 Advance Pack
Answer: C Explanation:
Which storage solution offers a highly available configuration and 24×7 software support?
A. EVA4400
B. MSA2000

C. LH P4000
D. X3000
Answer: A Explanation:
A customer complains about bad performance on their DL380 G6 ESX Server. What can be done in the RBSU to improve performance?
A. enable memory mirroring
B. disable cores
C. enable Intel virtualization
D. disable VT-d2 technology
Answer: C Explanation:
What is the result of having RAID levels with stripe sizes that are too large?
A. many cross-stripe transfers (split I/Os) and reduced performance
B. poor load balancing across drives
C. higher file fragmentation rate
D. fewer cross-stripe transfers (split I/Os) and increased performance
Answer: B Explanation:
What can be used to determine the cause of poor performance issues?
Answer: B Explanation:
Your customer has ProLiant servers with redundant power supplies. He wants a high availability redundant UPS solution. What should you advise him to buy?
A. one UPS equipped with the optional UPS Management Card
B. two UPSs, both equipped with the optional UPS Management Card
C. two UPSs, both equipped with an optional Extended Runtime Module
D. one UPS with an optional Extended Runtime Module
Answer: B Explanation:
Which HP utility provides a simplified view of HP web-enabled management agents?
A. HP Insight Diagnostics Online Edition
B. Intelligent Platform Management Interface (IPMI) Event Log
C. HP System Management Homepage
D. Integrated Management Log
Answer: C Explanation:
Which troubleshooting step are you currently performing when replacing parts?
A. evaluate the data
B. check if problem is resolved
C. develop the action plan
D. execute the action plan

Answer: D Explanation:
Which step of the HP Troubleshooting Methodology includes documenting the results of each attempt to resolve a problem?
A. implement preventive measures
B. determine whether the problem is solved
C. execute the action plan
D. develop the action plan
Answer: C Explanation:
Which service offering provides the customer with two-hour response time for software issues and four-hour on-site response commitment for hardware issue resolution?
A. 4-Hour 24×7 Same Day
B. Proactive 24
C. 4-Hour Same Business Day
D. HP Support Plus
Answer: B Explanation:
What do you recommend to a customer once you have fixed the issue and verified the solution? (Select two.)
A. Implement a new set of procedures, software, and administrative maintenance to attain a higher level of availability.
B. Uninstall HP software from servers to prepare them for production.
C. List the order of people or groups to contact and the information needed by each.

D. Add fault-tolerant elements to critical subsystems.
E. Configure HP Insight Service agents to be notified when the problem reoccurs.
Answer: A,D Explanation:
Which preventive measure should you recommend to a customer to provide proactive notification of critical updates and product changes for ProLiant servers?
A. HP IT Resource Center
B. Online Agent Reference Set
C. Subscriber’s Choice
D. Version Control Repository Manager
Answer: C Explanation:
Which technologies are features of Advanced Memory Protection of Intel CPUs utilized in HP ProLiant G6 Servers? (Select three.)
A. memory mirroring
B. RAID memory
C. Lockstep Support
D. interleaved memory
E. Advanced ECC
Answer: A,C,E Explanation:
What are characteristics of Care Pack Services? (Select two.)
A. pre-failure notification

B. can be purchased with the server
C. can be purchased during warranty period
D. parts and labor support
Answer: B,C Explanation:
When implementing an offsite backup storage plan, which backup solution should be considered when requirements call for remote mirror operations with access to the primary server?
A. cold site
B. mirrored site
C. hot site
D. warm site
Answer: C Explanation:
How many simultaneous threads can a fully populated dual socket, six core AMD-based server execute?
A. 2 threads
B. 6 threads
C. 12 threads
D. 24 threads
Answer: C Explanation:
What can be used to verify system ROM family and version using the online method? (Select two.)
A. Array Configuration Utility

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A company is migrating three applications currently running on three separate HP-UX Integrity servers. The plan is to migrate them into a Superdome 2 Serv. three applications are business critical, and the main focus is the uptime, as any interruptions cause financial losses.
Which HP-UX virtualization technology provides the best solution?
A. Create a single nPar.
B. Create three nPars.
C. Create three vPars
D. Create three Integrity Virtual Machines
Correct Answer: C

Which functionalities does AutoFS provide? (Select three.)
A. may be configured to modify NFS filesystem permissions when needed
B. may be configured to provide load balancing across multiple NFS servers
C. automatically exports filesystems on the NFS server when needed
D. automatically unmounts NFS filesystems that are no longer being accessed
E. automatically updates /etc/fstab on NFS clients when needed
F. automatically mounts NFS filesystems when needed
Correct Answer: ACE

Which methods allow you to install an Integrity server using an Ignite-UX server on a different subnet? (Select two)
A. Use the dbprofileEFI command
B. Use the ifconfigEFI command.
C. Use the loadfile command
D. Use a boot helper system
E. Use the lanboot command
Correct Answer: BE

A customer has a version 6 2 Integrity VM, and they convert this guest to a vPar using the following command:

The hpvmmodify command completes successfully. When they attempt to boot the guest in vPar mode, they get the following output

What ate the possible reasons the vPar failed to boot? (Select two)
A. TheVM guest was running a version of HP-UX 1li v3 prior 10 the September 2011 update release, which is not a supported vPar OS
B. The VM guest did not have the required vPar guest kit installed and therefore cannot run in vPar mode
C. The VM guest was running HP-UX 11i v2 which is not a supported vPar OS
D. The VM guest was not configured with sufficient memory to run as a vPar guest
E. The VM guest was running a version of HP-UX 11i v3 prior to the September 2012 update release, which is not a supported vPar OS
Correct Answer: BD

Which tool can be used to modify nPar configurations?
A. HP System Insight Manager (HP SIM)
B. HP System Management Homepage (HP SMH)
C. iLO Monarch Management Processor
D. Domain Management Processor
Correct Answer: B
Which statement about auditing Standard Mode Security Extensions (SMSE) is correct?
A. SMSE uses an external daemon to maintain the audit logs.
B. SMSE Audit log files can be read by the users of the SMSE-Administrator Group “smeadm”.
C. SMSE auditing is available on HP-UX 11i v1, HP-UX 11i v2, and HP-UX lit v3.
D. SMSE auditing is compatible with NIS and LDAP.
Correct Answer: C
How do you boot a firmware-based vPar over the network on the HP Integrity Superdorne 2 server?
A. Use the vparboot command from the Virtualization Services Platform (VSP), and run the vparconsole command. Use the CO command to getfor console. Then use the lanbootEFI command.
B. Use the vparconsole command to connect to the vPaiiLO, and use the PC command to power on the vPar Use the Co command to get to the console use the lanbootEFI command.
C. Login to the Superdome 2QA, and use the vparboot command. Use the COcommand to connect to the console. Then use the lanbootEFI console
D. Login to another vPar on the same nPar. Use the vparboot-I <ignite server IP> command to lanboot the vPar.
Correct Answer: D

Which tools can be used to manage nPars on a Superdome 2 server? (Select two)
A. Insight Control Environment
B. Onboard Administrator GUI
C. Virtual Server Management
D. Onboard Administrator CLI
Correct Answer: BD

A customer needs a partitioning solution that provides dedicated resources and electrical isolation. Which HP solution should the customer use?
A. vPars
B. Integrity VM
C. HP Containers
D. nPars
Correct Answer: D
Refer to the exhibit

Which configuration produces the output?

A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 11
The HP-UX 11i v3 mass storage stack has different load balancing policies available. Which policy is the default?
A. preferred_path
B. closest _ path
C. least_cmd_load
D. round robin

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 12
What are the customer benefits of the HP-UX Operating Environments (e.g. VSE-OE, HA-OE. DC-OE), as compared lo ordering the same software separately? (Select three)
A. Reduced purchasing cost for customer
B. Reduced amount of codewords required to manage software
C. Performance of HP applications tuned with the HP-UX OS
D. Reduced amount of disk space used for OS and HP applications
E. Reduced new-system sales quote and configuration complexity
F. reduced number of service contracts

Correct Answer: ACF QUESTION 13
Which HP-UX tool can be used to get detailed low level metrics of code running on Itanium processors?
A. prospect
B. caliper
C. sar
D. Isof

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 14
A customer is moving to an Integrity platform but has legacy PA-RISC applications that cannot be recompiled on Integrity. Which type of container can provide binary emulation environment for the customer’s applications?
A. PA RISC Container
B. System Container
C. HP 9000 Container
D. Workload Container

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 15
Which command can you use to display all network interfaces including interface link state interface type, and driver type?
A. nwmgr
B. ioscankfnClan
C. netstat -an
D. lanscan

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 16
Which tools can be used to create a user account? (Select two.)
A. System Management Homepage (HP SMH)
B. addusr command
C. useradca command
D. setuid command
E. mxuser command

Correct Answer: AD QUESTION 17
Which command will register the directory /tools as a software depot?
A. swagentd -d /tools
B. swinstall — 1 bundle /tools
C. make_ depots -d /tools
D. swreg –1 depot /tools

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 18
What is the full POS1X shell path?
A. /usr/bin/bash
B. /usr/local/bin/sh
C. /usr/bin/sh
D. /usr/bin/csh

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 19
A customer is using PRM in Fair Share Scheduler mode to allocate CPU resources among several and applications. Users are complaining about poor application performance, and you think PRM is capping the CPU utilization for their application. You use Glance to examine the WAIT TVFNTS for the applicationprocess.
What do you look for in Glance to confirm that PRM is capping the CPU utilization for the application?
A. The primary wait event is “System”.
B. The primary wait event is “IPC”
C. The primary wait event is “Priority”.
D. The primary wait event is “Scheduler”

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 20
What is the unique partitioning feature of nPars?
A. I/O sharing in cell-based servers
B. Electrical isolation from other partitions
C. VM isolation in blade-based servers
D. Storage sharing in blade-based servers
Correct Answer: B

Which command starts the auditing capabilities of HP Standard Mode Security Extensions (SMSE)?
A. /sbin/init .d/securemode start
B. /sbin/init .d/trustsys start
C. /sbin/init .d/auditing start
D. /sbin/init.d/hpsmse start
Correct Answer: C

Which components form part of the HP-UX OS kernel? (Select three.)
B. Power Module
C. EFl
D. Scheduler
E. Process Table
Correct Answer: ACF

A system administrator needs to add a LAN interface to the running Integrity VM v6.2 guest “vml”. The administrator runs the command:

Which action is necessary for the new interface to be usable?
A. Log into vm1 and run the command ioscan.
B. Restart the virtual switch local net
C. Restart vm1
D. No action is needed

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 24
Given the output below, what is indicated by the line starting with “memory”?

A. Memory pages already used for paging needs
B. Amount of memory reserved by the kernel for its own internal use
C. Amount of memory calculated for pseudo-swap
D. Memory allocated by the kernel for possible future paging needs
Correct Answer: D

A customer wants a partitioning solution that has the ability to move running workloads to eliminate downtime and increase flexibility, especially for proactive maintenance and workload balancing. Which solutions provide this capability? (Select two)
A. nPars
B. vPars v5
C. Integrity VM v6
D. Integrity VM v4
E. vPars v6
Correct Answer: BE

A customer wants to run some jobs periodically on a database inside ot HK-UA integrity virtual machines.
At which level does the administrator need to assign rights to allow the user account to create and execute cron jobs?
A. at the HP-UX OS level on the HP-UX Integrity VM only
B. at the database level and at the HP-UX Integrity VM HP-UX OS level
C. at the database level and at the HP-UX Integrity Host OS level
D. at the HP-UX OS level on the HP-UX Integrity Host only
Correct Answer: A

A server is running in nPars mode. Which command should be used to change the system to vPars mode (vPars v5)?
A. parmodify
B. vparreset
C. vparenv
D. vparboot
Correct Answer: D

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Which action is required at the guest operating system level to enable it to run on a virtual machine?
A. A key code must be loaded into the registry and validated by VMware.
B. The VMware driver must be loaded for full network support.
C. No action is required because VMware is transparent to the operating system.
D. A VMware license must be loaded on each guest.
Correct Answer: C
What can be used by a QoS policy to classify traffic? (Select two.)
A. packet size
B. egress port
C. TCP port number
D. TCP window size
Correct Answer: CE
Which advantages do ACLs offer? (Select two.)
A. fewer necessary support staff
B. increased network security
C. smaller broadcast domain
D. reduced network complexity
E. improved network performance
Correct Answer: BE QUESTION 24
How many World Wide Names (WWNs) does Virtual Connect Manager make available?
A. 64 total available WWNs
B. 64 ranges for a total of 128 WWNs
C. 64 ranges for a total of 1024 WWNs
D. 128 ranges of 64 WWNS Correct Answer: C QUESTION 25
Click the Exhibit button.

Identify the port type shown in the blue outlined area.
A. fiber
C. RJ-45
D. dedicated

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 26
A device with a non-compliant 802.1Q network adapter (NIC) is plugged into which type of switch port?
A. workstation
B. untagged
C. trunk
D. tagged Correct Answer: B QUESTION 27
What best describes the functionality of the Virtual Connect Ethernet module?
A. Layer 2 switch
B. Layer 3 switch
C. pass-thru module
D. Ethernet port aggregator

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 28
Click the Exhibit button.

What does the illustration reveal about the hardware configuration of the HP Integrity BL860c server blade? (Select two.)
A. The LOM is not a Flex-10 module.
B. The Flex-10 interface is in mezzanine Slot 2.
C. Ports 5 and 6 are preferred for connectivity.
D. Ports 7 through 12 are defective.
E. VLANs A and B are incorrectly configured.
What is the advantage of using Virtual Connect Flex-10 technology in a VMware environment?
A. It becomes tightly linked with VMware for better management through vCenter.
B. It eliminates the limit on NIC connections imposed by default on each VMware server.
C. It enables full VLAN support in VMware including multiple tagging functionality.
D. It allows bandwidth to be allocated as necessary to each VMware service or application.

Correct Answer: D
What are valid reasons for creating trunk links between switches? (Select three.)
A. Standby link capabilities are available with dynamic trunks.
B. A greater number of VLANs can be supported.
C. Capacity is maximized by increasing the number of links available for data flow.
D. Guaranteed load balancing prevents unbalanced traffic load across links.
E. There is improved availability because of the lower risk of link failure.
F. The overall error count on the switch is decreased.

Correct Answer: ACE
Click the Exhibit button.

What is the status of the Windows Server 2008 NICs under View Network Connections with the server profile configuration shown in the exhibit?
A. Only the NICs represented by Ports 1 and 2 will be shown.
B. All the NICs will display as connected.
C. All the NICs will display as disconnected.
D. Two NICs will display as connected and six will display as disconnected.

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 32
What is the default global parameter setting for how Virtual Connect handles VLANs?
A. Native VLANs Tag mode
B. Tunnel VLANs Tag mode
C. Enable VLANs Tag mode
D. Map VLANs Tag mode Correct Answer: D QUESTION 33
What does a priority value of 101110 denote?
A. VLAN scheduling
B. Stacked QoS
C. Layer 2 QoS
D. Layer 3 QoS

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 34
When a Flex-10 server adapter is deployed in a Virtual Connect Flex-10 environment, how are the FlexNICs recognized by the operating system?
A. as individual 10GbE NICs, until the correct driver is loaded by the operating system at boot time
B. as individual NICs, after the correct license key has been loaded and verified by the Onboard Administrator
C. as individual 1GbE NICs, until the correct driver is loaded by the operating system at boot time
D. transparently, because the server ROM recognizes each FlexNIC as an individual NIC with its own driver Correct Answer: D QUESTION 35
How many BladeSystem c7000 enclosures are supported in a single Virtual Connect domain?
B. 4
C. 8
D. 16

Correct Answer: B
Which management interface provides the administrator with the most control over switch parameters and monitoring functions?
B. Web browser
C. Menu

Correct Answer: D
You are creating a connection between multiple server blades and an external switch on a single VLAN. All traffic from the servers is tagged. What must you create within Virtual Connect if it is globally set for VLAN Tunnel mode?
A. simple vNET with Tunnel mode option enabled
B. Shared Uplink Set
C. simple vNET with Tunnel mode option disabled
D. untagged uplink trunk

Correct Answer: A
Where are broadcasts flooded in Layer 2 switches?
A. to only those nodes in the same subnet as the originating node
B. through all ports except the port the broadcast came in on
C. through all ports in the same VLAN except the port it came in on
D. through all ports and all VLANs on the switch

Correct Answer: C
Which tasks are only used for defining a Shared Uplink Set for Virtual Connect Ethernet? (Select three.)
A. Optionally set native VLAN.
B. Define server profile.
C. Assign one or multiple networks per server NIC.
D. Assign only one network per server NIC.
E. Select unassigned uplinks.
F. Specify VLAN names/IDs.

Correct Answer: ACF
What is required for a Layer 3 switch to route between directly connected VLANs? (Select two.)
A. IP routing must be globally enabled on the switch.
B. Dynamic Layer 3 routing protocol must be enabled and configured.
C. There must be multi-netted IP addresses on all VLAN interfaces on the switch.
D. An IP address must be configured for each VLAN that will be forwarded.
E. A DHCP helper address must be defined on each participating VLAN.
Correct Answer: AD
In an IP subnet without VLANs, each subnet terminates at the interface. How are IP subnets with VLANs different?
A. VLAN IP subnets terminate at each port.
B. VLAN IP interfaces are more easily multi-netted with VLANs.
C. VLAN IP subnets allow for greater control with ACLs.
D. VLAN IP subnets are logically separated from the router.
Correct Answer: D
What is the function of the active member of a dynamic LACP trunk?
A. determines the trunk link used for each given Layer 2 node-to-node conversation
B. requests dynamic port utilization from the receiving node to the sending node to form the LACP trunk
C. listens for BPDUs and forms a dynamic trunk when a MAC address of the same partner is heard on multiple ports
D. sends BPDUs and forms a dynamic trunk if a partner hears its MAC address on multiple ports
Correct Answer: D
What is a limitation of the VMware vNetwork standard switch?
A. Tagged VLANs are not supported in a virtual switch.
B. MAC forwarding tables are not implemented in a virtual switch.
C. Virtual machines cannot communicate through the virtual switch.
D. Spanning tree is not supported in a virtual switch.

Correct Answer: D
Which Virtual Connect tagging mode is limited to 320 VLANs per Virtual Connect Ethernet module?
A. Tunnel VLAN Tags
B. Tagged VLAN
C. Map VLAN Tags
D. Transparent VLAN Tags

Correct Answer: C
On which criterion do standard ACLs provide security?
A. range of destination IP addresses
B. range of source IP addresses
C. IP precedence
D. ICMP and IGMP message types

Correct Answer: B
Which parameters are part of a Bridge Protocol Data Unit (BPDU) transmission? (Select two.)
A. Switch Port ID
B. Port Duplex ID
C. Switch MAC address
D. Port POE parameters
E. Management IP address

Correct Answer: AC
Click the Exhibit button.

You have connected the cables as shown in the exhibit: What is the result of this configuration?
A. Switch 1, Ports 1, 3, 5, and 8 can communicate with all ports in Switch 2, except Port 8.
B. Connections between Switches 1 and 2 will cause a Layer 2 loop.
C. No VLAN 10 ports can communicate without a router or Layer 3 switch.
D. In Switch 1, only Ports 2, 7, and 8 can communicate together. Correct Answer: B QUESTION 48
Which advantage does Flex-10 technology provide?
A. increased Layer 2 switch port count
B. increased CPU performance
C. decreased number of interconnect modules
D. increased dynamic management functionality

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 49
Which status describes a virtual router interface?
A. It is only considered up if the state of the physical port is up.
B. It is always up and not directly associated with a physical port.
C. It is considered up if at least one VLAN’s port’s members is up.
D. It is only considered up if the status of the interface protocol is also up.

Correct Answer: C
Which topologies are in a typical enterprise network? (Select three.)
A. access
B. user
C. web
D. distribution
E. core
F. server

Correct Answer: ADE
What is the purpose of a RADIUS server for switch management?
A. log file storage and consolidation
B. storage of configuration files and software images
C. central user database
D. SNMP management application server

Correct Answer: C
Which OSI model layer uses frames? (Select two.)
A. Layer 2
B. Network
C. Layer 4
D. Session
E. Data Link

Correct Answer: AE
What are advantages of using Layer 3 to connect from the access layer to the core? (Select three.)
A. flatter network with fewer hops
B. equal cost balancing on all links with OSPF
C. extended broadcast domains
D. loop control using spanning tree
E. VRRP configuration not required
F. no link blocking involved
Correct Answer: BEF
Click the Exhibit button.

What will be the status of Trunk 1 and Trunk 2 in the exhibit?
A. One trunk will be in an active state and the other will be in a standby state.
B. Both trunks will be in an active state.
C. Both trunks will be in a standby state because the VLANs are duplicated in the switches.
D. Both trunks will be in a standby state because the VLANs are duplicated in Virtual Connect.
How can MSTP be configured to ensure that VLANs are not orphaned?
A. Ensure that the switches with the lowest MAC addresses are directly connected.
B. Allow the assignment of VLAN priorities on each individual interface to influence traffic flow.
C. Define the appropriate MSTP region version number in each switch’s configuration file
D. Allow the VLANs to be divided across multiple instances, each with unique root bridges and paths.

Correct Answer: D
At which OSI model layer does a router work?
A. Session
B. Transport
C. Application
D. Network

Correct Answer: D
Which protocols are industry-standard switch protocols? (Select two.)

Correct Answer: AD
What must you define when configuring Virtual Connect Ethernet for a server blade that can support tagged Ethernet frames in VLANs 20, 30, 50, and 60?
A. a vNet in Map VLAN tags mode
B. a vNet in Tunnel VLAN tags mode
C. a Shared Uplink Set in Map VLAN tags mode
D. a Shared Uplink Set in Tunnel VLAN tags mode

Correct Answer: C
How does a simple vNet handle VLAN tags in Map mode?
A. accepts only untagged frames from the servers or the switch
B. accepts only tagged frames from the servers and only untagged frames from the switch
C. accepts tagged or untagged frames from the switch and only untagged frames from the servers
D. accepts tagged or untagged frames from the servers or the switch
Correct Answer: A
Which features differentiate Virtual Connect Ethernet interconnect modules from switches? (Select three.)
A. All changes affect the network.
B. They are managed with the servers.
C. They are part of the server system.
D. They are part of the infrastructure network.
E. Any changes are transparent to the network.
F. They are part of the LAN network.
Correct Answer: BCE
Which command do you use to view information about the status and configuration of HP Integrity virtual machines?
A. hpvmconfig
B. hpvmstatus
C. hpvm -status
D. vmstatus
Correct Answer: B

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What is the default login directory when accessing the Global Shell?
A. /home
B. /home/user-name
C. /
D. /export/home/user-name

Correct Answer: B
Which utility enables you to log on to managed servers and run native commands from within a Global Shell session?
A. rlogin
D. telnet
Correct Answer: B
Which ROSH syntax is used to copy a script to a managed server and run it?
A. rosh -n server-name -l user-name command-name
B. rosh -n server-name -l user-name -s file-name
C. rosh -n server-name -l user-name -c file-name
D. rosh -n server-name -l user-name –run file-name
Correct Answer: B
What is one of the ways HP Server Automation secures communications between components?
A. TCP Wrappers
C. IPsec
D. X.503 certificates
Correct Answer: B QUESTION 25
How long are Server Automation security certificates valid, by default?
A. 6 months
B. 1 year
C. 5 years
D. 10 years

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 26
Server Authentication enforces a very granular system of role-based access controls. Which parameter can security administrators use to set up authorization?
A. users
B. customer administrators
C. facility
D. Security policy

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 27
In HP Server Automation, how long is the audit trail stored by default?
A. 1 month
B. 6 months
C. 1 year
D. 2 years

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 28
Which external authentication source does HP Server Automation support?
A. SmartCard
B. Kerberos

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 29
Which set of rules (which may contain individual hecks? expresses the desired state of a managed server configuration objects (for example,Which set of rules (which may contain individual ?hecks? expresses the desired state of a managed server? configuration objects (for example, a server file system directory structure or files, a server Windows Registry, or application configuration)?a server? file system directory structure or files, a server? Windows Registry, or application configuration)?
A. Snapshot
B. Audit
C. Compliance policy
D. Compliance scan

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 30
A snapshot specification can capture the state of the configuration on a server known to have a good configuration (a golden server). This can be used to compare against other target servers. How is this

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Which actions can you take using the My Changes/Checkouts window? (Select two.)
A. check in changes
B. create snapshots
C. abandon changes
D. check out changes
E. revert changes
Answer: A,C
A version number is listed as 7.5 in the Flow History window. What does this indicate?
A. The flow was created in version 7.5 of Operations Orchestration.
B. The flow has been saved 7 times and restored 5 times.
C. The flow has been checked into Central 7 times by 5 different flow authors.
D. The flow was checked into Central 7 times and saved 5 times in Studio since the last check in.
Answer: D

Where is the default directory for the shared public repository for a Windows installation?
A. C:\Program Files\Hewlett-Packard\Operations Orchestration\Central\rcrepo
B. C:\Program Files\Hewlett-Packard\Operations Orchestration\Central\pubrepo
C. C:\Program Files\Hewlett-Packard\Operations Orchestration\Studio\pubrepo
D. C:\Program Files\Hewlett-Packard\Operations Orchestration\Studio\sharerepo
Answer: A

Where is documentation stored that is generated from folders in the Studio Library?
A. Central Documentation tab.
B. a directory that you specify on your file system
C. in the Central/docs directory
D. It is deployed to the Remote Action Server.
Answer: B

How do you invoke the object history window?
A. Click the Repositorypull down menu and click Show History.
B. Double-click a flow and then click the Show History tab.
C. Right-click an object, point to Repository and click Show History.
D. Click the Tools pull down menu bar and click Show History.
Answer: C QUESTION NO: 26

What is used to add a new repository?
A. Repository tab in Central
B. Tools menu item in Studio
C. Administration tab in Central
D. Repository menu item in Studio
Answer: D

How do you access the Flow Variable panel?
A. View menu in Studio
B. Current Runs tab in Central
C. Flow Library tab in Central
D. Authoring pane in Studio
Answer: D

What do the Step Into, Step Over, and Step Out icons impact in the debugger? (Select two.)
A. operations
B. response overrides
C. steps
D. closing the debugging session
E. sub-flows
Answer: C,E

By default, where does the Web Services Wizard create a WSDL operation?
A. Library-> Wizards
B. Library-> WSDL
C. Library-> My Ops Flows
D. Library-> Operations

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Which feature allows SAN switches to accept multiple WWPN registrations on a single port?
B. ISL Tracking

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 22
Which BYOD services are provided by HP Intelligent Management Center? (Select two)
A. End user compression
B. Storage federation
C. Routing optimization
D. Device compliance
E. User authentication

Correct Answer: DE QUESTION 23
When designing a solution, what defines the maximum tolerable amount of data loss from an IT service due to a major incident?

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 24
Which HP 3PAR StoreServ tool can be used to collect detailed server configuration information such as the OS type and version, WWN of HBAs, the iSCSI name and host multipathing information over a secure communication channel?
A. Recovery Manager
B. Web Services API
C. System Reporter
D. Host Explorer

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 25
Which improvement to the standard features of HP StoreEasy Storage enables deduplication of data?
A. HP StoreOnce software
B. HP Smart Array Advanced Pack 2.0
C. HP Data Protector software
D. Microsoft Windows Storage Server 2012

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 26
What enables HP StoreEasy Storage to replicate only changed file blocks instead of the entire file?
A. File Screening Management
B. Cyclical Redundancy Check
C. File Classification Infrastructure
D. Remote Differential Compression

Correct Answer: D
A global engineering company’s IT manager needs to give offshore contractors access to specific corporate data and applications. Permission is required to access the network anytime from anywhere on almost every device. Which management solution can authenticate network access and determine if the endpoints are compliant with the security policies of this company?
A. Wireless Services Manager
B. User Access Management
C. HP Peer Motion
D. Virtual network Manager

Correct Answer: B
Which features are key benefits of the HP 3PARStoreServ architecture? (Select two)
A. Fully meshed cluster architecture
B. Network RAID High Availability
C. Secure retention of storage volumes
D. Built-in deduplication technology
E. Built on industry-standard HP ProLiant technology

Correct Answer: AC
What needs to be considered when sizing a solution which will utilize HP 3PAR Snapshots?
A. Additional host ports will be required
B. Snapshots need to be written at 64k blocks
C. Backend IOs will increase
D. To ensure performance, additional system cache is used.
Correct Answer: D
Which attributes can be specified in an HP Virtual Connect Server Profile? (Select two)
A. iSCSl Initiator Name
B. Boot Parameters
C. Fibre Channel zoning
D. MAC and WWN addresses
E. Server Hostname
Correct Answer: BD
Which HP tool provides contract and warranty management?

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You are tuning a customer HP StoreOnce Backup System and notice they are running backups 20 hours a day. As a result, backup jobs are running during the same time as replication jobs. What can you do to limit the available bandwidth and not saturate the link with replication traffic?
A. Enable multiplexing and set concurrency to 1.
B. Enable concurrency control.
C. Map multiple source libraries into a single target library.
D. Enable compression.

Correct Answer: B Explanation
Hewlett-Packard StoreOnce B6000 Configuration Manual Page 40: “7. The use of “concurrency control” is not necessary if replication is run at separate times from
backups and housekeeping. However, if the customer wants to run replication at the same time as backups or housekeeping, they can use concurrency control to
limit the available bandwidth so as not to saturate the link with replication traffic”
Your customer is migrating to VMware vSphere 5. Your solution includes HP 3PAR StoreServ Storage with licenses for Remote Copy and sub-LUN tiering. The customer is interested in implementing VMware Storage I/O Control and asks if there are any interoperability concerns with your solution.
How does the inclusion of VMware Storage I/O Control impact your solution?
A. VMware Storage I/O Control integrates into the proposed solution with no changes.
B. HP 3PAR Application Software Suite for VMware must be added to the solution
C. HP 3PAR Adaptive Optimization cannot be used in the solution.
D. VMware Adaptive Queue Depth Throttling must be enabled.

Correct Answer: A Explanation
A customer with a B-Series fabric needs to establish FC-IP connectivity between their primary data center fabric and DR data center fabric to enable replication. However, they are concerned that fabric instability issues in the DR fabric will cause issues in their production fabric.
Which HP storage solution should you recommend?
A. HP C-Series MDS 9222i Multiservice Modular Fabric Switch
B. HP 1606 Extension SAN Switch
C. HP SN6000 FC Switch
D. HP MPX200 Multifunction Routed

Correct Answer: D Explanation
A customer has an environment spanning two data centers in a campus environment. The primary storage is an HP 3PAR StoreServ 10400 Storage System. Data is replicated between sites with an RPO of zero. The customer is questioning whether they have adequate protection. You suggest creating a DR site and actively replicate the data to it.
What are the implications of adding the third data center to the data network?
A. 10GbE links are needed to interconnect the HP StoreServ 3PAR arrays.
B. The data network must support Converged Enhanced Ethernet.
C. The data network must support OpenStack.
D. A dedicated subnet must be added to interconnect the 3PAR arrays.

Correct Answer: D Explanation
You are performing a demo of an HP StoreOnce 2620i Backup System solution in combination with HP Data Protector. All best practice guidelines for the VTL and
Data Protector have been adhered to. However, you receive the following error when formatting a cartridge in a previously-created VTL.
[Normal] From: [email protected] “Drive_Demo” Time: 4/23/2013 10:26:09 PM Tape0:0:0:0C
Initializing new medium: “[4E94F289] 4E94F289”
[Major] From: [email protected] “Drive_Demo” Time: 4/23/2013 10:26:10 PM [90:51] Tape0:0:0:0C
Cannot write to device ([87] Wrong parameter.)
[Major] From: [email protected] “Drive_Demo” Time: 4/23/2013 10:26:10 PM Initialization of medium failed.
[Normal] From [email protected] “Drive_Demo” Time: 4/23/2013 10:26:14 PM Ejecting medium Tape0:0:0:0C”.

What must you do to perform a successful demo?

A. Add an iSNS-Server in the media Server iSCSI configuration, and restart the iSCSI service.
B. Disable “Automatically discover changed SCSI address” for the VTL drives, and rescan the library.
C. Disable “SCSI Reserve /Release (drive)” for all of the drives and robotics in the environment and rescan the library.
D. Change the maximum transfer length of the iSCSI initiator in regedit, and restart the media server.

Correct Answer: C Explanation
Your customer wants to replicate backup data from branch offices to a primary data center where an HP StoreOnce 4430 Backup System using HP StoreOnce Catalyst is located. The main backup application is HP Data Protector 7.01. The file and application servers have Windows 2003, Windows 2008, and SUSE Linux 9 and 10 installed. The file and application servers are a mixture of 32 and 64 bit Windows and Linux operating systems. As a long-term strategy, the customer wants to migrate all services to the primary data center. No additional hardware can be purchased for the branch offices, and complexity should be minimized.
Which deduplication type is optimal for this customer?
A. Source-side
B. Application-side
C. Target-side
D. Server-side

Correct Answer: D Explanation
Target-side NOT: “Target-side Deduplication can be used for conventional B2D environments where full bandwidth links are used between the media server and
the Deduplicated Data Store.” Application-side NOT exist.

Source-side NOT: Limited agents for OS to use Source-side. 32bits not compatible. “Note that the backed up system must support deduplication (64-bit Windows
systems or 64-bit Linux systems only, for details, see the support matrices).”

Server-side: “Note that the Media Agent client must support deduplication (64-bit Windows systems or 64-bit Linux systems only, for details, see the support
matrices). Server-side deduplication enables you to deduplicate data from clients on which deduplication is not supported locally.”

You are designing a storage solution for a customer concerned about storage availability during code upgrades. Which HP 3PAR Port Persistence node identity handles host I/O requests, thus providing greater resiliency during code upgrades?
A. Guest
B. Master
C. Slave
D. Native

Correct Answer: A Explanation
Explanation: Persistent Ports This is a really cool feature as well – it gives the ability to provide redundant connectivity to multiple controllers on a 3PAR array without having to have host-based multipathing software. How is this possible? Basically it is NPIV for the array. Peer controllers can assume the world wide names for the ports on their partner controller.
If a controller goes down, it’s peer assumes the identities of that controller’s ports, instantaneously providing connectivity for hosts that were (not directly) connected to the ports on the downed controller. This eliminates pauses for MPIO software to detect faults and fail over, and generally makes life a better place.
The customer has two HP 3PAR StoreServ 7000 Storage systems split between two data centers. Used capacity of each storage system is 10 TB of data. The replication between data centers is performed via Ethernet/IP, and the replication technology used will be asynchronous. The maximum RPO is 30 minutes, and the daily change rate of the customer data is a maximum of 0.5%, which is created evenly throughout the day.
What is the required minimum bandwidth between the data centers for replication?
A. 40 Mb half-duplex
B. 20 Mb full-duplex
C. 5 Mb half-duplex
D. 10 Mb full-duplex

Correct Answer: D Explanation
10TB * 0.5% / (3600 * 24 / 0.5) = 0.303 MB/s = 3 Mbps per datacenter (full duplex!!!).

A customer asks you to architect a new SAN fabric infrastructure comprised of redundant fabrics for a test/dev server environment. They need to provide selective connectivity for array-based snapshots from disk arrays hosted on the existing Cisco MDS 9506 Multilayer director-based production fabric, to hosts on the test/ dev fabric. A customer requirement is to utilize a different vendor for the test/dev fabric. Which SAN technology enables the test/dev SAN fabric to maintain interoperability between the two fabrics and meet the stated requirements?
A. HP B-Series with Transparent Router (TR)
B. HP H-Series with Transparent Router (TR)
C. HP B Series with Inter-VSAN Routing (iVR)
D. HP H-Series with Inter-Fabric Routing (IFR)

Correct Answer: B Explanation
During an HP customer assessment workshop, the Alinean report shown in the exhibit is created. Which cost saving should you highlight in your presentation when positioning the value of HP 3PAR StoreServ Thin Technologies?

A. Planned downtime
B. Unplanned downtime
C. Application integration
D. Power and cooling

Correct Answer: A Explanation
Which HP 3PAR StoreServ feature improves storage array resiliency?
A. Persistence Ports
B. Virtual Lock
C. Virtual Copy
D. Virtual Domains Correct Answer: A

Explanation Explanation/Reference:
“To provide greater resiliency and to avoid dependency on host multi-pathing software, HP 3PAR StoreServ has introduced a new feature called Persistent Ports.”

-in HP 3PAR High Availability
You need to ensure data integrity on physical disks within the proposed HP 3PAR StoreServ Storage array. Which HP 3PAR StoreServ Storage component calculates the value of the disk T10 Data Integrity Feature (DIF)?
A. HP Service Processor
B. HP InServ Controllers CPUs
C. Controller Cache Algorithm
D. HP 3PAR Gen4 ASIC Correct Answer: D

Explanation Explanation/Reference:

In “The HP 3PAR Architecture”
A customer has an environment that spans two data centers in a campus environment. The primary storage is HP 3PAR 10400, and data is replicated between sites with an RPO of zero.
Recent bad weather has caused flooding near the customer site and the customer is questioning whether they have adequate protection. You suggest creating a data center at a remote location and actively replicating the data to it. The customer is concerned that the remote link to the third site will have insufficient bandwidth and will create a local replication bottleneck.
Which statement addresses the customer concerns?
A. Synchronous Long Distance will schedule data replication outside high latency periods autonomic array
B. Data is transmitted in a continuous stream with write order being handled by the target array.
C. Remote Copy uses multiple connections over the same link from multiple volumes.
D. Over provisioning of the remote link will ensure enough bandwidth is always available for replication. Correct Answer: D

Explanation Explanation/Reference:
You are discussing cost reduction quality management, and business growth with a client. According to industry best practices, which CxO are you meeting with?

D. CEO Correct Answer: A
Explanation Explanation/Reference:
Your customer wants to upgrade their existing HP 3PAR S-Class array. A competitor has suggested a non-HP storage array. Your conversation with the customer focuses on the notable architectural enhancements within the new generation of HP 3PAR StoreServ 7400 platforms.
Which enhancements should you focus on? (Select two.)
A. The tightly coupled cache-coherent clustering is built into the Gen4 ASIC.
B. The 64-bit OS enables scalable headroom for performance and capacity.
C. Logical Disk regions have increased from 256 MB and are now 1 GB in size.
D. Write cache mirroring is now implemented N+N across the 7×00 controllers.
E. New HP StoreServ 7×00 now supports 16Gb Fibre Channel speeds.

Correct Answer: BD Explanation Explanation/Reference:
Your client wants to replace their aging storage and server infrastructures with the latest technology available to run their online transaction processing and Oracle data warehouse applications. The client data warehouse holds a minimum of 2 years of trading and market data for reporting, trending, and regulatory functions. The current storage system is an HP 3PAR F400 that has been operational for almost 4 years without any downtime. The client needs 150 TB of raw capacity. Which proposed solution follows the configuration best practices and future proofing?
A. HP 3PAR StoreServ 7400-4 with SSD and NL drives
B. HP 3PAR StoreServ 7200 with 15k SAS and NL drives
C. HP 3PAR StoreServ 7200 with SSD and NL drives
D. HP 3PAR StoreServ 7400-4 with 15k SAS and NL drives Correct Answer: A

Explanation Explanation/Reference:
A customer running an enterprise database has heavy bandwidth traffic on their WAN link that they have isolated to HP 3PAR StoreServ Remote Copy replication between their primary and DR site. They are not concerned with the RTO but would like to improve the RPO.
Which recommendation should you make to decrease their WAN link traffic?
A. Use synchronous mode replication for the entire database.
B. Create more Remote Copy volume groups.
C. Replicate just the database logs.
D. Use synchronous long distance mode for the entire database.

Correct Answer: C Explanation Explanation/Reference:
Refer to the exhibit.

The central IT department of a local city government has data centers in two buildings, which are several kilometers apart and are connected by long wave SFPs. They have implemented two HP 6400 Enterprise Virtual Arrays with synchronous HP Continuous Access EVA zoned for a 6- logical-fabric solution. They are using redundant HP StorageWorks 4/32 SAN Switches at each site.
Central IT recently expanded to include more city departments and added 45 more servers and 23 TB of additional data into their solution However the users are reporting poor application performance.
Which Tool will enable the IT department to gather information about the DR tunnel in the environment?
A. HP DataCenter Fabric Manager
B. HP B-Series SAN
C. HP Command View EVA EVAperf
D. HP Intelligent Infrastructure Analyzer Software

Correct Answer: D Explanation Explanation/Reference:
While discussing a remote replication solution consisting of two HP 3PAR StoreServ arrays, the customer asks you about performance penalties when implementing synchronous replication to a second HP 3PAR StoreServ array.
How should you respond?
A. Synchronous replication affects write performance on the source array.
B. Synchronous replication affects both read and write performance on the source array.
C. Synchronous replication affects read performance on the source array.
D. Synchronous remote replication does not affect performance on the source array. Correct Answer: A

Explanation Explanation/Reference:

A client wants to deploy a new HP 3PAR 7400 storage environment. They want to utilize additional features of the array to optimize their backup and data restore capabilities.
Which HP 3PAR software suite should you recommend?
A. Replication
B. Thin
C. System Tuner
D. Security

Correct Answer: B Explanation
In addition to being able to wide-stripe data over many physical disks, what is another unique feature of an HP 3PAR StoreServ compared to competitor block-based arrays?
A. Custom ASIC-enabled Thin Provisioning
B. Asynchronous remote replication
C. Controller functions based on a software implementation of RAID
D. Block storage functions facilitated by software emulation

Correct Answer: A Explanation
Hardware-assisted HP 3PAR Thin Technologies enable customers to reduce capacity requirements by 50 percent.” in HP 3PAR Battlecards

Refer to the exhibit: You are presenting a converged infrastructure proposal to the director of IT and the infrastructure administration team. The configuration is to refresh the infrastructure at a wholly-owned subsidiary company.

They plan to have a SQL standby server in their main data center for recovery. The director informs you that the subsidiary IT staff has been laid off and that the configuration needs to be as easy to manage as possible because it will be done remotely.
What should you do to improve the proposal TCO?
A. Add an HP StoreEasy 3000 Gateway
B. Recommend an HP Flat SAN
C. Change HP 3PAR StoreServ 7400 to StoreVirtual 4530
D. Fibre Channel connect the HP StoreOnce 4420 Correct Answer: B

Explanation Explanation/Reference:

HP Virtual Connect for 3PAR with Flat SAN technology To address this problem HP announces HP Virtual Connect for 3PAR with Flat SAN technology. The industry’s first direct connection to fibre channel-based storage that doesn’t require dedicated switches, enabling a simplified architecture with best-in-class storage, servers and network innovations — BladeSystem, Virtual Connect and 3PAR.
Customer benefits include:
-Single layer Fibre Channel storage network – Eliminate SAN switches and HBAs
-Massive simplification of your fabric management
-2.5x faster Fibre Channel storage provisioning
-Automated zoning capabilities to set up zones with one-click vs. hours
-Up to 55% less latency by removing SAN fabric layer
A retail customer has primary data centers, distribution centers, and retail stores. The retail locations are smaller sites that have less than 2 TB of data that need to be highly available. Each location is consolidating between six and twelve physical servers into a virtual cluster running on two HP ProLiant DL380 Gen8 servers.
The customer needs a low-cost storage solution that they can use at each retail location and can scale using similar technology for the distribution centers. The solution also needs to integrate with VMware and provide future replication with no additional cost.
Which HP Storage solution should you recommend?
B. HP 3PAR StoreServ
C. HP StoreVirtual

Correct Answer: D Explanation
A large regional telecommunications company specializing in mobile services has experienced rapid growth.
They currently have 149 million subscribers in 11 markets, including 4 million subscribers locally. The year-onyear data growth between 2003 and 2012 was approximately 15%. The projected growth far 2013 and the next several years is 30% annually.
The proposed mission critical solution needs to work with the existing application modules and deliver a minimum data transfer rate of 6 5 TB per hour and a capacity of 120 TB. Financially, the solution has to offer low Total Cost of Ownership (TCO) over the next 5 years, and solution capacity has to accommodate the performance and growth model.
Which mission critical backup solution and support level should you propose? (Select two.)
A. HP StoreOnce 4430 with two upgrade kits
B. HP StoreOnce B6200 with three 48TB expansion kits
C. HP 6-hour call-to-repair support
D. HP same-day hardware support
E. HP 24/7 4-hour response support

Correct Answer: BE Explanation
You propose a solution to a VMware customer. The solution consists of two HP 3PAR StoreServ Storage systems, one for each data center that the customer currently operates. The customer requires that the solution be capable of making a transparent failover between the primary and secondary data center even in the case of a complete data center failure.
Which HP 3PAR licenses should be included in the proposal? (Select two.)
A. Peer Persistence
B. Remote Optimization
C. Remote Copy
D. Peer Motion
E. Virtual Copy

Correct Answer: AC Explanation
Explanation: Peer Persistence http://www8.hp.com/us/en/products/storage-software/product-detail.html? oid=5335710#!tab=features Remote Copy http://www8.hp.com/us/en/products/storage-software/product-detail.html? oid=5044771#!tab=features
You are designing a new storage solution for a customer that must have the ability to reserve areas of cache memory for frequently accessed data for specific host LUNS. Which HP Storage system should you recommend to meet the customer requirements?
A. HP XP P9500
B. HP EVA P6550
C. HP 3PAR StoreServ 10000
D. HP StoreVirtual 4530

Correct Answer: C Explanation
Explanation: HP XP P9000 Cache LUN (also known as Cache Residency) Overview HP XP P9000 Cache LUN lets you reserve areas of memory cache on your HP XP P9500 Storage to store frequently accessed information. It improves file access times and enables faster data transfers. Assigning information to on-board cache speeds up access to your data because cache-resident data is available at host data transfer speeds for both read and write operations. XP P9000 Cache LUN redirects I/O requests from the XP P9500 drives to data locked in the array’s cache. It is transparent, it is simple to implement, and the performance gains it delivers are immediate. Models Included with HP XP P9000 Array Manager – see section for more information Product Highlights XP P9500 Storage Firmware based Lock data in cache memory Flexible user configuration Scalable Licensing See Capacity-Licensed XP P9000 Software section

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A customer is preparing to migrate data between their data centers. They need to perform deduplicalion at the data creation point and eliminate the need for specialized deduplication hardware in their data centers. How does HP StoreOnce Catalyst enable the customer to achieve this goal?
A. by performing source-side deduplication
B. by performing switch-side deduplication
C. by performing server-side deduplication
D. by performing target-side deduplication
Answer: A Explanation: By enabling source-side deduplication (Dedupe 2.0), HP has the advantage of performing deduplication at the data creation point. Source-side deduplication eliminates the need for specialist deduplication hardware at remote and branch office sites. StoreOnce Catalyst allows customers to align backup with data protection needs, such as minimizing bandwidth utilization when moving data between sites or data centers.
Reference: Dedupe 2.0: What HP Has In Store(Once)

A customer is planning to migrate a database to a new site. They need to create an extended SAN in a single fabric namespace by using a dedicated link over a distance of 200 km.
Which network protocol should they use to achieve this goal?
B. iFC
Answer: A Explanation: FCIP connects Fibre Channel fabrics over IP-based networks to form a unified SAN in a single fabric. FCIP relies on IP-based network services to provide connectivity between fabrics over LANs, MANs, or WANs.
Note: HP SAN extension technologies include:

(greater than 10 km to 20,000 km)
(greater than 35 km to 100–500 km)
Fibre Channel using long-wave transceivers
(10 km–35 km)
A customer is extending a SAN by using wavelength division multiplexing (WDM) to migrate their master database to a new data center. They need to ensure that there is adequate line speed to perform the migration in the event of a primary path failure.
What should the customer do to achieve this goal?
A. Ensure that all SAN devices use the same Fibre Channel speed.
B. Ensure that all SAN switches have the same core PID number.
C. Ensure that there are separate WDM paths for transmitting and receiving packets
D. Ensure that a secondary path with sufficient buffer-to-buffer credits is available
Answer: D Explanation: WDM devices extend the distance between two FICON directors. The devices are transparent to the directors and do not count as an additional hop. To accommodate WDM devices, you must have enough Fibre Channel BB_credits to maintain line-speed performance. WDM supports Fibre Channel speeds of 10 Gb/s, 8 Gb/s, 4 Gb/s, 2 Gb/s, and 1 Gb/s. When planning for SAN extension, BB_credits are an important consideration in WDM network configurations. Typical WDM implementations for storage replication include a primary and secondary path. You must have enough BB_credits to cover the distances for both the primary path and secondary path so that performance is not affected if the primary path fails.
Reference: HP Mainframe Connectivity Design Guide

A customer plans to migrate data from a third-party storage system to an HP 3PAR solution. The customer has leased data center space. Which HP 3PAR Storage solution must be integrated into an HP 3PAR rack?
A. HP 3PAR StoreServ 10800
B. HP 3PAR StoreServ 10400
C. HP 3PAR StoreServ F200
D. HP 3PAR StoreServ 7400

Answer: A Explanation:
A company needs to migrate from a third-party storage system to an environment that can grow by scaling out. The solution must also allow use of a server for downloading upgrades.
Which solution meets the company’s requirements?
A. HP 3PAR StoreServ 7000
B. HP StoreOnce 6200
C. HP StoreVirtual 4000
D. HP 3PAR StoreServ 10000
Answer: C Explanation:

A storage administrator needs to perform a gradual migration of large backup volumes and jobs to a remote D2D system over time. Because this data is being replicated for the first time, the administrator needs to populate the target device with all the relevant hash codes.
Which method should the administrator use to achieve this goal?

A. using co-location
B. using removable media
C. seeding data over the WAN link
D. setting initializer to migration
Answer: C Explanation: * prior to being able to replicate only unique data between source and target D2D, we must first ensure that each site has the same hash codes or “bulk data” loaded on it – this can be thought of as the reference data against which future backups are compared to see if the hash codes exist already on either source or target. The process of getting the same bulk data or reference data loaded on the D2D source and D2D target is known as “seeding”.
* Seeding is generally is a one-time operation which must take place before steady-state, low bandwidth replication can commence. Seeding can take place in a number of ways: / Over the WAN link – although this can take some time for large volumes of data / Using co-location where two devices are physically in the same location and can use a GbE replication link for seeding. After seeding is complete, one unit is physically shipped to its permanent destination. / Using a form of removable media (physical tape or portable USB disks) to “ship data” between sites.

A small-business customer needs to implement a high IOPS storage system for an application that uses approximately 7 TB of space. Because the customer does not expect a large amount of data growth in the next few years, they need to minimize costs.
Which storage system should the customer implement?
A. HP 3PAR StoreServ 7400
B. HP 3PAR StoreServ 10000
C. HP 3PAR StoreServ F200
D. HP 3PAR StoreServ 7200
Answer: D Explanation:

A customer wants a new HP 3PAR StoreServ 7200 Storage System to maximize storage performance. What should the customer implement?
A. quad controllers
B. Adaptive Optimization
C. 120 SSDs
D. Dynamic Optimization
Answer: B
Explanation: The HP 3PAR Adaptive Optimization (AO) software takes optimization a step further
into sub-LUN tiering. AO migrates sub-LUN data across CPGs based on user-defined policies.
Two or three CPG tiers can be specified per policy; all volumes
inside a CPG are subject of an AO policy. AO policies usually operate on an FC and NL tier or on
an SSD, FC, and NL tier.

This tool can improve system response and reduce disk acquisition cost by
storing frequently accessed data in the faster tier while moving infrequently accessed data to the
slower and cheaper slower tier.


Not D: Related to online migration:
P 3PAR’s Dynamic Optimization (DO) software offers the functionality of EVA’s Dynamic LUN
Migration: volumes are migrated online to another CPG with a different RAID level, set size, drive
media type , etc.
Your customer has an existing HP StoreServ 7400 with four controllers. The array has only SSD drives installed. What should you consider when sizing a solution which includes Adaptive Optimization?
A. Ensure that 3% of the capacity and 30% of the performance can be delivered by the SAS disks.
B. Include SAS 10/15K disks in the configuration.
C. Add SSDs or nearline disks to a single node pair.
D. Size the nearline tier for 30% of the performance requirement.
Answer: B Explanation:
SAS stands for Serial Attached SCSI. Basically, a SAS drive utilizes the same form factor as a SATA drive but has several high performance advantages. First of all, there’s the platter speed. While typical SATA drives operate at 7200RPM, a SAS drive operates at 10K or 15K. Although the platter speed is double that of SATA, the MTBF (Mean Time Before Failure) remains at the industry standard of 1.2 million hours.

Make sure to define tier 0 to be on a higher performance level than tier 1, which in turn should be higher performance than tier 2. For example, you may choose RAID 1 with SSDs for tier 0, RAID 5 with FC drives for tier 1 and RAID 6 with NL or SATA drives for tier 2.

Best practices encourage you to begin your Adaptive Optimization configurations with your application CPG starting with tier 1. For example, tier 1 could be CPG using your FC or SAS physical disks. This allows you to add both higher and lower tier capabilities at a later date. If you don’t have higher or lower tier, you can add either or both at a later date by using a new CPG, such as tier 0 using SSDs or tier 2 using NL. Or, you could have CPG tiers with RAID 1 or RAID 5 and RAID 6. The main point is that you should begin with middle CPG tier 1 when configuring Adaptive Optimization with your application.

Example: HP 3PAR Adaptive Optimization moved ~33 percent of the IOPS workload to the SSD drives even though that involved moving only 1 percent of the space. Performance improved in two ways: the 33 percent of the IOPS that were serviced by SSD drives got very good latencies (~2 ms), and the latencies for the NL drives also improved (from ~40 ms to ~15 ms). Moreover, the investment in the 16 SSD drives permitted them to add even more NL drives in the future, because the SSD drives have both space and performance headroom remaining.
Reference; Adaptive Optimization for HP 3PAR StoreServ Storage

A company needs a storage solution that provides four host bus adapter (HBA) slots and 64 GB of cache. Which HP storage solution meets these requirements?
A. HP 3PAR StoreServ 7400
B. HP StoreOnce 6200
C. HP 3PAR StoreServ 7200

D. HP StoreVirtual 4000
Answer: A Explanation: HP 3PAR StoreServ 7400 4-node base with two 2U enclosures, four controller nodes, 64 GB cache, eight 8Gb/sec FC ports, four adapter slots, and 48 SFF drive bays.

Not C: 3PAR StoreServ 7200 only has 32 GB cache.

A storage administrator needs highly available connectivity from a Microsoft Windows host to an iSCSI storage array. The administrator needs to ensure that the data is still available in the event of a network port failure. What must the administrator enable on the Windows host?
B. NIC teaming
C. storage cluster services
D. ISCSI initiator failover
Answer: A Explanation:

In which HP rack is the factory Integration of an HP StoreServ 7000 supported?
A. HP 5642 rack
B. HP G3 rack
C. HP 10000 rack
D. HPV142 rack

Answer: B Explanation: QUESTION NO: 13
You are meeting with a customer that has a small business with an unpredictable workload in a virtualized environment. Which product family from the HP array portfolio do you lead your discussion with?
A. P2000
B. P4000
C. X3000
D. P6000
Answer: B Explanation:

A customer needs to replicate data from a remote location to an HP StoreOnce B6200 Backup.
What should the customer consider when planning the replication?
A. The HP D2D sizing tool should be used to size link speed and understand concurrency restraints.
B. Concurrency control should be used if the replication is not run at the same times as backups and housekeeping jobs.
C. Separate replication jobs should be created for each data type.
D. Backups and housekeeping jobs should be run in the replication window.
Answer: A Explanation: The replication best practices that apply to HP StoreOnce D2D Backup Systems are equally as valid for the HP B6200 StoreOnce Backup System.
Best practices include:
* Use the Sizing tool to size replication link speed and understand replication concurrency restraints.
Reference; HP B6200 Backup System, Recommended Configuration Guidelines

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