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Exam Code: 300-370
Exam Name: Troubleshooting Cisco Wireless Enterprise Networks
Updated: Aug 16, 2017
Q&As: 60

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 300-370 dumps

Pass4isture Latest and Most Accurate Cisco 300-370 Dumps Exam Q&As:

Topic 1, Volume A
QUESTION NO: 1
Which of the following is NOT an example of Self-Help capabilities?
A. Requirement to always call the service desk for service requests
B. Menu-driven range of self help and service requests
C. Web front-end
D. A direct interface into the back end process handling software
300-370 exam Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 2
What is a RACI model used for?
A. Defining roles and responsibilities
B. Monitoring services
C. Performance analysis
D. Recording Configuration Items
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 3
Which of the following statements is INCORRECT?
A. The SKMS is part of the Configuration Management System (CMS)
B. The SKMS can include data on the performance of the organization
C. The Service Knowledge Management System (SKMS) includes Configuration Management
Databases (CMDB)
D. The SKMS can include user skill levels
300-370 dumps Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 4
The group that authorizes changes that must be installed faster than the normal process is called
the?
A. Emergency CAB (ECAB)
B. Urgent Change Authority (UCA)
C. Urgent Change Board (UCB)
D. CAB Emergency Committee (CAB/EC)
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 5
In which core publication can you find detailed descriptions of Service Level Management,
Availability Management, Supplier Management and IT Service Continuity Management?
A. Service Transition
B. Service Design
C. Service Strategy
D. Service Operation
300-370 pdf Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 6
Which of these statements about Service Desk staff is CORRECT?
A. Service Desk staff should be recruited from people who have high levels of technical skill
tominimize the cost of training them
B. The Service Desk can often be used as a stepping stone for staff to move into other more
technical or supervisory roles
C. The Service Desk should try to have a high level of staff turnover as the training requirements
are low and this helps to minimize salaries
D. Service Desk staff should be discouraged from applying for other roles as it is more cost
effective to keep them in the role where they have been trained
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 7
Which of the following statements is INCORRECT?
A. The Service Knowledge Management System (SKMS) includes Configuration Management
Databases (CMDB)
B. The SKMS is part of the Configuration Management System (CMS)
C. The SKMS can include data on the performance of the organization
D. The SKMS can include user skill levels
300-370 vce Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 8
Service Assets are used to create value. Which of the following are the MAJOR types of Service
Asset?
A. Services and Infrastructure
B. Applications and Infrastructure
C. Resources and Capabilities
D. Utility and Warranty
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 9
Which of the following is NOT one of the five individual aspects of Service Design?
A. The design of the Service Portfolio, including the Service Catalogue
B. The design of Market Spaces
C. The design of new or changed services
D. The design of the technology architecture and management systems
300-370 exam Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 10
Which of the following is NOT the responsibility of the Service Catalogue Manager?
A. Ensuring that all operational services are recorded in the Service Catalogue
B. Ensuring that information in the Service Catalogue is accurate
C. Ensuring that information in the Service Catalogue is consistent with information in the Service
Portfolio
D. Ensuring that information within the Service Pipeline is accurate
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 11
Which role would you MOST expect to be involved in the management of Underpinning
Contracts?
A. Service Catalogue Manager
B. IT Designer/Architect
C. Process Manager
D. Supplier Manager
300-370 dumps Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 12
Which is the correct combination of Service Management terms across the Lifecycle?
A. 1A, 2B, 3C, 4D
B. 1C, 2D, 3A, 4B
C. 1C, 2B, 3A, 4D
D. 1B, 2C, 3D, 4A
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 13
A plan for managing the end of a supplier contract should be created when?
A. The contract is being negotiated
B. The contract is about to be ended
C. The Supplier Manager decides that there is a risk the contract might need to end soon
D. The contract has been agreed
300-370 pdf Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 14
Which of the following sentences BEST describes a Standard Change?
A. A change to the service provider’s established policies and guidelines
B. A pre-authorized change that has an accepted and established procedure
C. A change that is made as the result of an audit
D. A change that correctly follows the required change process
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 15
The BEST description of the purpose of Service Operation is?
A. To decide how IT will engage with suppliers during the Service Management Lifecycle
B. To proactively prevent all outages to IT Services
C. To deliver and support IT Services at agreed levels to business users and customers
D. To design and build processes that will meet business needs
300-370 vce Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 16
Which of the following module would be MOST useful in helping to define an organizational
structure?
A. RACI model
B. Service Model
C. Continual Service improvement (CSI) model.
D. The Deming Cycle
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 17
Which of these statements about Service Desk staff is CORRECT?
A. Service Desk staff should be recruited from people who have high levels of technical skill
tominimize the cost of training them
B. Service Desk staff should be discouraged from applying for other roles as it is more cost
effective to keep them in the role where they have been trained
C. The Service Desk can often be used as a stepping stone for staff to move into other more
technical or supervisory roles
D. The Service Desk should try to have a high level of staff turnover as the training requirements
are low and this helps to minimize salaries
300-370 exam Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 18

Which of the following questions does Service Strategy help answer with its guidance?
1. How do we prioritize investments across a portfolio?
2. What services to offer and to whom?
3. What are the Patterns of Business Activity (PBA)?
A. 3 only
B. 1 only
C. 2 only
D. All of the above
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 19
Effective release and deployment management enables the service provider to add value to the
business by?
A. Ensuring that all assets are accounted for
B. Ensures that the fastest servers are purchased
C. Delivering change, faster and at optimum cost and minimized risk
D. Verifying the accuracy of all items in the configuration management database
300-370 dumps Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 20
How many times should each stage of the Plan, Do, Check, Act (PDCA) cycle be visited?
A. Each stage should be carried out once in the order Plan-Do-Check-Act
B. There should be a single Plan,then the Do-Check-Act cycle should be repeated multiple times
to implement Continual Improvement
C. There should be a single Plan and Do,then Check and Act should be carried out multiple times
to implement Continual Improvement
D. The entire cycle should be repeated multiple times to implement Continual Improvement
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 21
Within the Continual Service Improvement (CSI) 7 step improvement process, data needs to be
gathered and analyzed from which other area of the lifecycle in order to answer the question “Did
we get there?”?
A. Service Strategy
B. Service Design
C. Service Operation
D. Service Transition
300-370 pdf Answer: C

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QUESTION 1
Which three options are benefits of U-APSD? (Choose three.)
A. synchronization of the transmission and reception of voice frames
B. bandwidth reservation
C. optimized power-save mode periods
D. increased call capacity
E. priority bandwidth and polling
Correct Answer: ACD
QUESTION 2
Which two options allow a Cisco Unified Wireless IP Phone 7925G to conserve its battery? (Choose two.)
A. PS-Poll
B. S-APSD
C. U-APSD
D. 802.11h
E. 802.11r

Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 3
Which statement describes the benefit of WMM U-APSD over legacy 802.11 power-save mode?
A. Client can burst data without standard interframe spacing.
B. Client can burst data without ACKs.
C. Client no longer sends null frame to notify of sleep mode.
D. Client sleep mode is scheduled by AP to reduce jitter.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 4
Which two items enable WMM to expedite frames from respective traffic categories? (Choose two.)
Consistent CWmin and CWmax values Dynamic CWmin and CWmax values
A. AIFS
B. SIFS
C. PIFS
D. DIFS
E. U-APSD
F. PS-Poll
Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 5
When a VoWLAN client is in the range of two cells, which two statements describe how the client makes a decision about which cell is the best to associate with? (Choose two.)
A. The client will associate with the cell with the highest RSSI value.
B. The client will associate with the cell with the lowest SNR value.
C. The client will associate with the cell broadcasting the highest 802.11e value.
D. The client will associate with the cell broadcasting the highest TSPEC value.
E. The client will associate with the cell broadcasting the lowest mandatory date rate.
F. The client will associate with the cell broadcasting the highest data rate.
G. The client will associate with the first cell that advertises U-APSD.

Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 6
The AP has been properly configured for a VoWLAN survey. The RF environment contains a noise of -87 to -90 dBm. What would be the target value for the cell edge reading?
A. -55 dBm
B. -60 dBm
C. -62 dBm
D. -67 dBm
E. -70 dBm
F. -73 dBm

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 7
What is the recommended minimum speed at the edge of the cells in an 802.11g network for a good Cisco VoWLAN deployment?
A. 11 Mb/s
B. 12 Mb/s
C. 18 Mb/s
D. 36 Mb/s
E. 54 Mb/s

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 8
Which three statements are true about load-based Call Admission Control? (Choose three.)
A. grants a VoWLAN client-initiated call based on the number of active clients associated to the AP
B. grants a VoWLAN client-initiated call based on channel bandwidth capacity
C. uses the 802.11i specifications
D. uses ADDTS action frames
E. requires a WMM-enabled client

Correct Answer: BDE
QUESTION 9
Using proper VoWLAN design practice, what would be a reasonable total number of calls for a properly designed 802.11g cell to ensure call quality?
A. 4
B. 7
C. 14
D. 20
E. 25
F. 27
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 10
Using proper VoWLAN design practice, what would be a reasonable total number of calls for a properly designed 802.11a cell to ensure call quality?
A. 4
B. 7
C. 14
D. 20

E. 25
F. 27
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 11
A VoWLAN site survey was performed and equipment installed based on recommended design guidelines. Which two statements describe reasons to perform a post-deployment survey? (Choose two.)
A. There is insufficient information about the number of people in the area when the survey is performed.
B. There is insufficient information by AirMagnet VoFi Analyzer.
C. There are elevator shafts.
D. There are roaming pathways.
E. There are changes in temperature in the indoor environment.

Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 12
Which attribute does the VoWLAN Readiness Tool of WCS v7.0 use to predict acceptable conditions?
A. SNR
B. RSSI
C. PER
D. WMM
E. QBSS
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 13
You are deploying a combination of Cisco Unified Wireless IP Phones 7921G and 7925G at your branch offices in a centralized call processing environment that requires high availability at branch locations. Which three components need to be verified before the wireless IP phones can be deployed? (Choose three.)
A. Sufficient SRST license support at each branch location
B. Support for local voice mail
C. Branch gateways support MoH
D. Properly configured QoS over the IP WAN links
E. Support for single number reach
F. Support for E.164 dialing
G. Sufficient IP phone licenses in the Cisco Unified Communications Manager cluster

Correct Answer: ADG
QUESTION 14
You have recently added Cisco Unified Wireless IP Phones 7921G and 7925G to your branch office. The new wireless and wired IP phones are experiencing poor call quality when receiving calls across the IP WAN from the remote HQ. What is the most likely issue?
A. The Cisco Unified Communications Manager bandwidth for the IP WAN link is not properly configured and is allowing more calls than the link can accommodate.
B. The Cisco Unified Communications Manager bandwidth settings have not been increased to support the new wireless IP phones.
C. The Cisco Unified Communications Manager bandwidth is set too low, resulting in poor call quality.
D. The Cisco Unified Communications Manager gatekeeper-controlled CAC has been set too low, resulting in poor call quality.

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 15
Your Cisco Unified Wireless IP Phones 7921G and 7925G are associated with the VoWLAN at your branch office. When they attempt to place a call, the call fails to go through and you receive a fast busy tone. What is the issue?
A. The wireless phones failed to register with the Cisco Unified Communications Manager cluster.
B. The Cisco Unified Communications Manager cluster invoked CAC to preserve IP WAN voice bandwidth.
C. The local gateway rejected the call because of high IP WAN utilization.
D. Automatic alternate routing has been invoked.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 16
Which two Cisco components are required to extend an existing VoWLAN to dual-mode wireless phones? (Choose two.)
A. An LDAP server for the WLAN
B. Cisco Unified Mobile Communicator
C. Cisco Unified Mobility Advantage client
D. Cisco Unified Mobility Advantage
E. Cisco Unified Communications Manager
F. A RADIUS server for the WLAN

Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 17
A web browser is opened to a new Cisco Unified Wireless IP Phone 7921G or 7925G connected to a windows computer via USB. Which statement describes the ability to read and write configuration parameters to prime the phone for its first VoWLAN association and its association to a Cisco Unified Communications Manager?
A. Phones are always read-only.
B. Phones are read-only and require user to be authenticated as administrator for write access.
C. Phone read/write access depends on the firmware version.
D. Phone depends on Cisco Unified Communications Manager configuration.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 18
Which DHCP option is used by Vocera badges to reach a Cisco Unified Communications Manager?
A. Set the option to 66.
B. Set the option to 43.
C. Set the option to 150.
D. No option is required.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 19
When a Vocera badge performs a broadcast call in a properly configured VoWLAN using WLC v7.0, which two choices indicate how the QoS is marked? (Choose two.)
A. Upstream marked as Best Effort.
B. Upstream marked as ToS CS4.
C. Upstream marked as DSCP EF.
D. Downstream marked as DSCP EF.
E. Downstream marked as Best Effort.
F. Downstream marked as Silver.

Correct Answer: CE
QUESTION 20
When designing the coverage area for high call capacity, what two actions should you take with data rates and channels? (Choose two.)
A. Avoid channels with high AP co-channel interference.
B. Use channels with high AP co-channel interference to avoid channel roaming.
C. Set the 2.4-GHz data rate of 5.5 Mb/s to required.
D. Use 5-GHz channels when possible.
E. Use 2.4-GHz channels when possible.

Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 21
Which two pieces of information from the Cisco WLC v7.0 GUI does Monitor > Clients provide about a VoWLAN client? (Choose two.)
A. RSSI at current AP
B. WMM state
C. current MOS
D. current RF channel
E. current data rate

Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 22
What are two benefits that result from Cisco WLC configuration of DCA for 5-GHz VoWLAN deployments? (Choose two.)
A. Avoid channels that are affected by a microwave oven
B. Manually remove channels that are not supported by VoWLAN clients
C. Avoid 802.11n 40-MHz channels
D. Avoid nearby radar
E. Adjust RRM power thresholds
Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 23
What is the best practice for configuring data rates for an 802.11a VoWLAN deployment?
A. Configure mandatory data rates of 9 and 54 Mb/s. Disable data rates below 6 Mb/s and all other data rates as supported.
B. Configure a mandatory data rate of 6 Mb/s. Disable data rates below 6 Mb/s and configure all other data rates as supported.
C. Configure a mandatory data rate of 54 Mb/s. Disable data rates below 36 Mb/s and configure all other data rates as supported.
D. Configure a mandatory data rate of 12 Mb/s. Disable data rates below 12 Mb/s and all other data rates as supported.

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 24
What is the best practice for configuring data rates for an 802.11b VoWLAN deployment?
A. Configure mandatory data rates of 11 and 54 Mb/s. Disable data rates below 6 Mb/s and all other data rates as supported.
B. Configure a mandatory data rate of 6 Mb/s. Disable data rates below 6 Mb/s and configure all other data rates as supported.
C. Configure a mandatory data rate of 11 Mb/s. Disable data rates below 11 Mb/s and all other data rates as supported.
D. Configure a mandatory data rate of 12 Mb/s. Disable data rates below 12 Mb/s and all other data rates as supported.

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 25
What is the best practice for setting the WLC v7.0 use of WLAN QoS settings to support SIP phones on a VoWLAN?
A. Configure SIP with static CAC only with SIP call snooping.
B. Configure SIP with static CAC only without SIP call snooping.
C. Configure SIP with load-based CAC only with SIP call snooping.
D. Configure SIP with load-based CAC only without SIP call snooping.
E. Configure SIP with load-based CAC and TSPEC only with SIP call snooping.

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 26
Which three call information items does AirMagnet VoFi Analyzer provide? (Choose three.)
A. the codec used by the calling phone
B. approximate length of the call in minutes
C. MOS values throughout the duration of the call
D. 802.11e access category overruns
E. co-channel interference percentage during the call

Correct Answer: ABC QUESTION 27
Which WCS tool will be especially helpful to ensure that all VoWLAN configurations are consistent across all controllers?
A. Inspect VoWLAN Readiness
B. Traffic Stream Metrics
C. Voice Audit Report
D. Voice Diagnostic
E. Monitor Client Detail

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 28
What are the benefits from enabling TSM for a VoWLAN using a WLC v7.0?
A. provides packet loss and latency covering the end-to-end voice path on all links
B. provides packet loss and latency covering the end-to-end voice path on all links and additional parameters on the VoWLAN segment
C. provides packet loss covering the end-to-end voice path on all links and additional parameters on VoWLAN segment
D. provides packet loss, latency, and additional parameters on VoWLAN call segment

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 29
Refer to the exhibit.

Which two statements describe information that you can derive from the WCS v7.0 output from the Monitor Client Detail? (Choose two.)
A. Comparing the RSSI and SNR can provide specific information on where the client has roamed and if there is a problem with one or more AP configurations.
B. Comparing the information to the location of the client can provide the first hint of voice- related issues.
C. If the parameters are consistently good, then voice-related issues being reported by users are probably not related to RF parameters.
D. Comparing the RSSI and SNR can provide specific information on QoS performance in the VoWLAN.
E. Comparing the RSSI and SNR can provide specific information on the relative distance of the client from the AP during a call.

Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 30
A downstream packet containing a DSCP value arrives at the WLC Ethernet interface from the wired source network. The WLC is configured for QoS WLAN 802.1p mapping. How does the WLC treat the CAPWAP QoS marking when leaving the controller interface for the respective AP and final wireless client destination?
A. No outer CAPWAP or inner QoS tagging is applied.
B. No outer CAPWAP QoS tag is applied, but the original DSCP is maintained inside CAPWAP.
C. The outer CAPWAP CoS is marked and capped while the inner DSCP maintains the original marking.
D. The outer CAPWAP DHCP is marked and capped without any inner DSCP value.

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 31
Refer to the exhibit.

Voice signaling traffic is being sent upstream using a WLAN configured for bronze QoS. Assume that Layer 3 switches between the controller and the AP use the default and recommended CoS-to-DSCP and DSCP-to-CoS maps. What CAPWAP QoS markings are used in the header at location 1?
A. DSCP CS1
B. CoS 1
C. DSCP 46 and CoS 5
D. CoS 3
E. DSCP CS1 and CoS 1

F. DSCP 46
G. DSCP AF31
H. DSCP AF31 and CoS 3
Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 32
Refer to the exhibit.

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