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QUESTION 1
A consultant has been hired to architect a hybrid cloud solution for a client. The consultant decides to build two clouds: one for development and one for production. Which product can move workloads from the development cloud to the cloud?
A. vFabiic Suite
B. vCioud Connector
C. vCenter Server
D. vRealize Operations

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 2
An organization is evaluating to a hybrid cloud infrastructure. They already manage an onsite vsphere environment and want to better understand the benefits of migrating data to vcloud air.
What would be a compelling reason for the client to migrate to a hybrid cloud solution?
A. They will be able to use storage clusters and Storage Distributed Resource Scheduling.
B. They will be able to more easily optimize the provisioning and performance of their virtualized workloads.
C. They will be able to place their mission-critical virtual machines under Fault Tolerance rotection.
D. vRealize Automation will allow them to leverage vSphere Distributed Switches.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 3
An administrator for a regional service provider has a predominately mobile client base. Which statement represents an availability challenge that this administrator might face?
A. The clientswant to work on business problems instead of worrying about always been”hands on” with their virtual workloads.
B. The clients need connectivity and flexibility without being required to host their own internal VPN services.
C. The clientshave workloads in your data center and want to migrate to hosting providers in different geographical areas.
D. Theclients need the ability to quickly deploy preconfigured workloads on demand.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 4
An administrator is examining a data center to validate that it is operating as efficiently as possible.Which option represents an Efficiency challenge the administrator might face?
A. Needing to easily roll back changes to workloads during testing and development.
B. Wanting to provide multi-tenant access to cloud resources without compromising security.
C. Needing semi-isolated and autonomous environments for the application development teams.
D. Wanting to align IT costs with corporate models by classifying IT as an operating expense.

Correct Answer: C

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QUESTION 1
ho.sh is an executable shell script. You executed the following command that leads to an error:
$ strace -o /tmp/ho.out ./ho.sh strace: exec: Permission denied What could you do to execute the command successfully in the next attempt?
A. Provide the shell reference with the command.
B. Remove the shell reference present inside the shell script.
C. Execute the command as the root operating system user.
D. The extension for the output file should be changed to .log.

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 2
You executed the following command on a Linux machine:
$ cat /proc/slabinfo | grep kio kioctx 270 270 128 9 9 1 : 252 126 kiocb 66080 66080 96 1652 1652 1 : 252 126 kiobuf 236 236 64 4 4 1 : 252 126
Which statement describes the purpose of executing the command?
A. To check the virtual memory usage in the Linux system
B. To compare the I/O statistics of different channels in the system
C. To check whether the asynchronous I/O is working in the Linux system
D. To check whether multiple data bus adapters are being used in the Linux system
E. To check whether the shared memory file system is being used in the Linux system

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 3
Which statement correctly describes the swap cache in the Linux memory model?
A. It is an area in the swap file that maintains the number of page ins and page outs for every process.
B. It contains the page entry table to record the addresses of in-memory pages that are not swapped out at all.
C. It is an area in the RAM that is used to record the number of swap in and swap out operation for every page.
D. It is an area in the RAM that tracks the pages that are swapped out and have not been modified since they were swapped out.

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 4
Which statement correctly describes the functionality of OS Watcher (OSW)?
A. It is a utility that gathers information about the database server and network in HTML format.
B. It is a collection of scripts that collects and archives the operating system (OS) and network metrics.
C. It is a utility that is used to prepare the setup before collecting information using the rda.sh -v command.
D. It is a Linux command that records and archives system calls triggered by processes as well as signals received by the processes.

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 5
Examine the content of the /proc/sys/kernel/tainted file on your Linux machine:
[[email protected] root]# cat /proc/sys/kernel/tainted 1
What will happen when you install Oracle Database 10g on this machine?

A. Installation will fail because of the tainted kernel.
B. Installation will be successful, but Oracle will not provide support for the database product.
C. Installation will be successful. Oracle will provide support for the database product but not for the operating system (OS).
D. Installation will be successful and Oracle will provide support for the database product as well as the OS.
E. Successful installation and Oracle support for database product as well as Linux OS will depend on the module tainting the kernel.

Correct Answer: E QUESTION 6
View the Exhibit and examine the highlighted entry.

You added a call to the oraenv script in a user’s login script. Which two statements are true about this entry? (Choose two.)
A. The entry will run the oraenv script in the current shell.
B. The entry will prompt the user for ORACLE_SID that the user wants to set.
C. The entry will call another script orainst to verify Oracle environment variables.
D. The entry will set up the ORACLE_HOME environment variable without prompting the user.

Correct Answer: AB QUESTION 7
You have the following operating system (OS) groups:
1)dba This is the OSDBA group.
2)oper This is the OSOPER group.
3)oinstall This is the owner of Oracle software.
Which groups do you need to assign to an OS user to enable that user to connect as “I as sysdba”?

A. Only 1
B. 1,2, and 3
C. 1 and 2; 3 not required
D. 2 and 3; 1 not required
E. 1 and 3; 2 not required

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 8
In an online transaction processing (OLTP) database, a large number of concurrent users are performing small transactions on a specific schema. You observe the statistics and find that total_waits for buffer busy event is increasing significantly. You are in the process of creating another OLTP database with similar workload. What would you do to avoid the wait event in the new database?
A. Consider setting a larger value for DB_BLOCK_SIZE for the database.
B. Consider setting a smaller value for DB_BLOCK_SIZE for the database.
C. Consider setting a larger value for the DB_CACHE_SIZE parameter for the database.
D. Consider using the DB_BLOCK_BUFFERS parameter instead of the DB_CACHE_SIZE parameter for the database.

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 9
You modified the Linux memory map and lowered mapped base for Oracle shared libraries to increase the System Global Area (SGA) size. Which three statements are true in this scenario? (Choose three.)
A. You cannot use the extended buffer cache feature.
B. You cannot use the Oracle Enterprise Manager (OEM) console.
C. All the components of SGA can make use of the additional memory allocated to SGA.
D. The database will not support dynamic SGA and multiple data block sizes.
E. You may need to retune the SORT_AREA_SIZE parameter because less virtual memory remains available for Program Global Area (PGA).
F. You must ensure that every Linux shell that spawns an Oracle process must have the same lowered mapped base as that for the Oracle shared libraries.

Correct Answer: CEF QUESTION 10
Following are the parameters set in your Oracle database instance:
USE_INDIRECT_DATA_BUFFERS=true DB_BLOCK_SIZE=8192 DB_BLOCK_BUFFERS=1048576 SHARED_POOL_SIZE=2831155200 You executed the following command: $ Is -al /dev/shm
total 120
drwxr-xr-x 1 oracle dba 0 Nov 20 16:29 . drwxr-xr-x 22 root root 118784 Nov 20 16:25 .. -rw-r—1 oracle dba 8589934592 Nov 20 16:30 ora_orcl_458754
Which statement is correct in this scenario?
A. The SGA is available in the shared memory file system.
B. The shared pool is available in the shared memory file system.
C. The database buffer cache is available in the shared memory file system.
D. Every oracle process can have virtual address space more than 4 GB. Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 11
You have an Oracle Database 10g installation on a Linux machine. The OS user, oracle, is the owner of the Oracle software. oracle is a member of osdba, osoper, and oinstall OS groups. You created another user on the OS and you want this user to access the database as “/ as sysdba”.
Which step would you perform to accomplish this task?
A. Assign the osdba group to the user.
B. Set the OS_AUTHENT_PREFIX parameter to “”.
C. Set the REMOTE_OS_AUTHENT parameter to TRUE.
D. Set the REMOTE_LOGIN_PASSWORDFILE parameter to none.

Correct Answer: A

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QUESTION 1
Report run start time, output format for report results, email distribution for report results, and report filters are all examples of what?
A. report parameters
B. report formats
C. report data sources
D. report attributes

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 2
Which host user should own the .tararchive from which the ArcSight ESM Suite bin file containing ESM components, and installation and configuration wizards is extracted?
A. any user with admin group privilege
B. root user
C. arcsight user
D. archive user

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 3
Which pairs of resources can be displayed in the ArcSight Web interface? (Select two.)
A. Search Filters and Saved Searches
B. Queries and Cases
C. Reports and Dashboards
D. Notifications and Active Channels
E. Knowledge Base articles and Templates

Correct Answer: CE
QUESTION 4
During your ESM installation and configuration, none of the Foundation Packages were selected in the Configuration Wizard. What should you do to install the Foundation Packages?
A. Manually upload the Foundation Packages to ESM using .arb files exported from another ESM instance
B. Reapply the ESM product license from Arc Sight Command Center to install the the Foundation Packages
C. Rerun the Configuration Wizard using Manager setup and select the Foundation Packages to install
D. Install the Foundation Packages from the ArcSight Console Resource Navigator right-click menus
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 5
What are functions of Query-Viewers? (Select two.)
A. displaying the Boolean logic and conditions linkage behind filters ana rules criteria
B. providing a baseline analysis of events against which future queries can be compared
C. determining which devices are off-line at any given point in time by querying their status
D. providing a quick way to run SQL queries and identify trends without running reports
E. presenting detailed comparisons of report elements, not possible with reporting tools
Correct Answer: BD QUESTION 6
By default, which TCP/IP port is used by ArcSight Command Center to communicate with a web browser client?
A. 1521
B. 9443
C. 8443
D. 443

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 7
Which four basic Event Search elements affect what is displayed in the Search results?
A. filter, constraints, time range, and field set
B. filter, constraints, time range, and row limit
C. filter, time range, variables, and field set
D. filter, time range, time zone, and field set

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 8
Which access type is provided with ESM Access Control Lists?
A. Specific User read and write access to specific Resource Groups
B. Specific User Group read and write access to a specific Resource
C. Specific User Group read and write access to specific Resource Groups
D. Specific User read and write access to a specific Resource

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 9
Which statements are true about results in Query Viewers? (Select two.)
A. Results can be displayed as tables or charts, and added to Dashboards
B. Results can be used in event searches.
C. Results can be used to generate reports.
D. Results can be used as event filters.
E. Results can be forwarded as notifications.

Correct Answer: AC QUESTION 10
What is the procedure to reset all ArcSight Console preferences back to default?
A. In “console.properties” file, locate and edit the line: set default=true.
B. Copy the “console.defaults.properties” file to overwrite the “console.properties” file.
C. Stop the Console, delete or rename the user.ast file, and restart the Console.
D. In the File menu, click on Preferences, and select “Set to Default”.

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 11
Which processes occur in the first phase of the event lifecycle? (Select two.)
A. evaluating event data
B. applying event categories
C. applying hashing to event data
D. correlating event data
E. normalizing event data

Correct Answer: BE

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QUESTION 1
Configuring a room on the Resource Manager or Converged Management Application (CMA) allows you to do which two of these?
A. Schedule a conference by picking a room by name
B. Associate an endpoint to a room instead of a user
C. Integrate into Active Directory
D. Dial the room from the Guest Book

Correct Answer: AB QUESTION 2
Which Virtualization Manager (DMA) function ensures resources are available in the event of a failure somewhere in the network?
A. Scalability
B. Virtualization
C. Resiliency
D. Redundancy

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 3
Which Virtualization Manager (DMA) function refers to the ease with which a solution can be expanded to meet further demand?
A. Virtualization
B. Scalability
C. Redundancy
D. Resiliency

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 4
What is the file type used by the HDX endpoint when performing a software update?
A. .pup
B. .exe
C. .bin
D. .iso

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 5
Select three RSS options which are available using activation keys:
A. HD live streaming
B. Encryption
C. 1080P
D. Multicast

Correct Answer: ABD QUESTION 6
Successfully entering and authenticating provisioning server settings during HDX setup allows what?
A. Dynamic Management Mode
B. Automatic name configuration
C. Automatic gatekeeper configuration
D. Dynamic name adjustment

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 7
Which RMX function allows you to schedule future conferences?
A. There is no such function
B. Calendaring
C. Scheduling
D. Reservations

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 8
Which of the following is the name that registers RMX conferences, meeting rooms and entry queues in any gatekeeper or SIP server?
A. Display name
B. Routing name
C. E.164 alias
D. H.323 name

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 9
You are trying to schedule a conference on the CMA but when you log in with your administrator account you can’t see the Scheduling menu. What is wrong?
A. Lack of Operator privileges in your User account
B. Lack of Scheduler privileges in your User account
C. Lack of Auditor privileges in your User account
D. Lack of Administrator privileges in your User account

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 10
Which Virtualization Manager (DMA) function refers to the ability to recover quickly from an interrupting event?
A. Scalability
B. Redundancy
C. Virtualization
D. Resiliency

Correct Answer: D

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QUESTION 1
In a VPRN the PE device is configured to run which of the following protocols? (Choose three.)
A. MP-BGP for exchanging customer routes with other PEs
B. A routing protocol for exchanging customer routes with the CE
C. MPLS for exchanging labels with other provider core devices
D. MPLS for exchanging labels with the CE devices
E. Targeted LDP for exchanging VPRN labels with other PE devices
F. A label signaling protocol for defining transport tunnels between PE and CE devices

Correct Answer: ABC
QUESTION 2
Choose the answer that best completes the following sentence. The CE device is typically configured with _________________.
A. A single routing protocol for exchanging routes with both the internal customer routers and with the PE
B. MP-BGP to exchange routes with the PE.
C. MPLS and a routing protocol for the exchange of labels and routes with the PE
D. MPLS for exchanging labels with other CE devices
E. A routing protocol for exchanging routes with the internal customer routers and a routing protocol for exchanging routes with the PE

Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 3
Which of the following terms also correctly describes a Layer 3 VPN?(Choose three)
A. VPRN
B. BGP/MPLS VPN
C. VLL
D. VPLS
E. IP-VPN
F. ePipe
Correct Answer: ABE

QUESTION 4
What are the main functions of a Layer 3 VPN? (Choose three).
A. Distributing customer routing information between sites
B. Forwarding customer data packets
C. Providing an integrated billing solution
D. Maintaining separation between distinct customer networks
E. Allowing the implementation of Layer 3 devices in the provider core
Correct Answer: ABD

QUESTION 5
Which of the following statements are true regarding P devices in an MPLS VPRN? (Choose two.)
A. Participate in service provider core routing
B. P devices are not required to be MPLS enabled. MPLS is only required on the PE devices
C. Run a common routing protocol with the CE router
D. Must support MP-BGP
E. Do not have any connections to the CE
F. Must be aware of the VPRNs

Correct Answer: AE
QUESTION 6
What are the two primary problems the service provider must consider when providing traditional Layer 3 VPN services using only a single common routing table in the provider core? (Choose two)
A. Memory exhaustion in the provider core
B. Route leaking between the customer networks
C. CPU utilization for route processing
D. Unwanted packet forwarding between customer networks

Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 7
When a Service Provider offers VPRN services to its customers, which of the following functions are expected to be the responsibility of the Service Provider? (Choose three)
A. Distributing the customer generated labels between sites
B. Distributing the customer routing information between
C. Forwarding the customer originated data packets to the appropriate destination
D. Forwarding the provider originated data packets to the appropriate customer site
E. Providing secure layer 3 routing exchange between sites

Correct Answer: BCE
QUESTION 8
In a traditional layer 3 VPN which of the following will be an issue when there is overlapping address space between two customers? Choose the best answer.
A. There will be increased memory usage on the PE
B. There will be increased CPU utilization on the PE
C. The CE will reject the overlapping prefix
D. The PE will not recognize the prefixes as being different
E. There is no issue with overlapping address space in a traditional Layer 3 VPN
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 9
Complete the following statement. In a VPRN, the label signaled by RSVP-TE is used to ______________.
A. Identify the egress PE in the MPLS domain
B. Signal the egress VPRN ID
C. Identify the ingress PE in the MPLS domain
D. Transport route updates between PEs
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 10
Complete the following statement. In a VPRN, the label signaled by RSVP-TE is used to ______________.
A. Identify the egress PE in the MPLS domain
B. Signal the egress VPRN ID
C. Identify the ingress PE in the MPLS domain
D. Transport route updates between PEs

Correct Answer: A

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QUESTION 1
What is the major benefit of ArcSight Logger?
A. Correlation of raw events
B. Long-term storage of events
C. Storage of connectors
D. Real-time threat detection

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 2
What is CIP an acronym for?
A. Collector Intrusion Package
B. Compliance Insight Package
C. Correlation Incursion Package
D. Component Instruction Package

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 3
What is the primary feature of Connector Appliance?
A. Aggregates events to reduce the quantity sent to the manager
B. Long-term storage of data
C. Used to develop the Network Model
D. Supports bulk operations on all Smart Connectors

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 4
The ArcSight ESM collects, normalizes, aggregates, and filters millions of what?
A. Intrusions
B. Transactions
C. Packets
D. Log events

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 5
Which Arc Sight solution delivers Arc Sight content to add specific compliance or standard requirements such as PCI and Sarbanes-Oxley (SOX)?
A. Compliance Insight Package
B. Arc Sight Resource Collector
C. Arc Sight Update Package
D. Arc Sight Package Bundle

Correct Answer: A

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QUESTION 1
What do you use to list procedure names in a TNS object file?
A. NLD
B. NOFT
C. AR
D. BIND
Correct Answer: D QUESTION 2
A JVM must be started with _______ to enable jdb debugging support.
A. -Xdebug
B. -jdb
C. -Inspect
D. -Debug

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 3
Where can breakpoints be set in jdb? Select TWO.
A. at the first instruction of a method
B. at a verb
C. at a data object
D. at a line number
E. at a statement

Correct Answer: AD QUESTION 4
The compiler option SYNTAX or WSYNTAX _______.
A. creates an executable object file
B. suppresses errors
C. inserts the source in the object
D. checks the source for errors

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 5
What is a valid INSPECT command for debugging SCREEN COBOL?
A. BREAK
B. STEP IN
C. STOP
D. SAVE
Correct Answer: A QUESTION 6
To RESTORE a partitioned SQL table to a different destination, which option is required?
A. PHYSVOL
B. REBUILD
C. MAP NAMES

D. VOL
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 7
What are two advantages specific to a DLL (Dynamic Link Library)? Select TWO.
A. It contains Position Independent Code (PIC).
B. It is loaded during cold load.
C. It is composed of shared code.
D. It can have private data.
E. It can be unloaded from a process.

Correct Answer: AE
QUESTION 8
What can user libraries be used for? Select TWO.
A. to provide source code for compilation
B. to share common compiled procedures
C. to override an operating system procedure
D. to provide an alternate main procedure/program
E. to switch from native to non-native mode

Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 9
The file EXTDECS, CEXTDECS, or COBOLEXT contains the procedure declarations for which routines?
A. user library routines
B. system library routines
C. third-party library routines
D. SQL routines
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 10
The purpose of the CTOEDIT utility is to ______ .
A. convert unstructured files to structured files
B. convert C application code written on the PC to a Guardian edit file
C. convert OSS text files to Guardian text files
D. generate OSS code to be used in Guardian
Correct Answer: C

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QUESTION: 1
What is the purpose of the Data Table in a custom checkpoint?

A. to store output values and formulas
B. to compare headers
C. to access global values
D. to store input objects
Answer: A
QUESTION: 2 In HP QuickTest Professional, what does the Managing Versions feature enable you to do?
A. compare different test results
B. check out only the latest version of an asset
C. compare only the latest two versions of an asset
D. check in only the latest version of an asset

Answer: B
QUESTION: 3 You have developed a functional test in HP QuickTest Professional and want to take advantage of version control in HP Application Lifecycle Management. Which menu option should you use to put your test in HP Application Lifecycle Management?
A. Save As
B. Create Version
C. Check-in
D. Save Test with Resources

Answer: A
QUESTION: 4
What happens when you import data using the DataTable.ImportSheet function?

A. Data is overwritten when column headers in Excel and the data table match.

B. Sheet1 in the Excel file is always imported.
C. Data will be appended to the data table.
D. A new column is added to the data table when column headers in Excel and the data table match.

Answer: A
QUESTION: 5
HP QuickTest Professional 11 enables you record steps from which browser?

A. Chrome
B. Safari
C. Netscape
D. Firefox

Answer: D
QUESTION: 6
Which Web testing capabilities have been added in HP QuickTest Professional 11?
(Select three.)

A. Firefox Document Object Model access
B. Internet Explorer Developer Toolbar support
C. Event Identifiers that enable identification based on events associated to a Web object
D. Javascript code capability that enables Javascript code to be embedded in all loaded browser pages
E. Property Identifiers that enable identification based on properties associated to a Web object
F. Vbscript code capability that enables Vbscript code to run in specific browser pages

Answer: A, C, D
QUESTION: 7
What is created when you select Edit > Action > Split Action?

A. an independent action
B. a new shared object repository
C. an action fork

D. a new test

Answer: A
QUESTION: 8 When inserting a call to a reusable action, which two ways can the tester handle the data resources in that action? (Select two.)
A. Have the new action refer to a read-only copy of the data in the original action.
B. Have the action get an empty set of data resources.
C. Delete the data.
D. Store an editable copy of the data in the new action.
E. Have the new action refer with write permissions to the copy of the data in the original action.

Answer: A , D
QUESTION: 9 An HP QuickTest Professional instructor needs to take a sample test that was built in HP Application Lifecycle Management to an off-site training facility. What is the simplest way to convert that test into a portable format?
A. Use the Export to Portable feature to export the test with its object repository into XML format.
B. Use the Save Test with Resources feature for main test and do the same for the test that contains the called reusable actions.
C. Use the Save Test with Resources feature.
D. Use the Export to Zip feature.

Answer: C

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QUESTION NO: 1
How do you set up a device swap area and ensure it is active at each system startup?
A. Start device swapping using the swapon command on an existing file system mount point.
B. Start device swapping using the swapon command on a logical volume; add an entry to the /etc/fstab file.
C. Start device swapping using the swapon command on a logical volume; add an entry to the /etc/sbtab file.
D. Start device swapping using the swapon command on a logical volume; add an entry to the /etc/vfstab file.
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 2
Which commands can be used to create device files? Select TWO.
A. mkdevice
B. insf
C. fsadm
D. mksf
E. devstart
Answer: B,D
QUESTION NO: 3
What is the purpose of the lost+found directory?
A. allows fsck to recover orphaned files and directories
B. required on JFS file systems for journaling
C. functions as a trash can for the file system
D. a temporary storage for deleted files
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 4
Which command is used to recreate the /stand/system file?
A. system_prep
B. mkkernal
C. vi system
D. frecover
E. sysgen
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 5
Which level is used by fbackup to complete a full backup?
A. 0
B. 1
C. 9
D. F
E. V
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 6
How does root allow an ordinary user to add/remove printers in SAM?
A. not possible
B. edit sam.allow
C. set the UID bit
D. establish a restricted build
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 7 DRAG DROP
Place the steps to install a fibre channel card in the correct order.

Answer:

QUESTION NO: 8
If /tmp is 100% full, which commands are used to determine its volume location and if free space
is available on that disk?
A. bdf, vgdisplay
B. lvdisplay, diskinfo
C. bdf, lvdisplay, pvdisplay
D. vgdisplay, lvdisplay, diskinfo
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 9 DRAG DROP
Order the steps required to perform a complete integrity check of a journaled file system.

Answer: QUESTION NO: 10

During a run-state change from run level 1 to run level 2 , which script would be run last?
A. /sbin/rc2.d/K900nfs.server
B. /sbin/rc2.d/S500inetd
C. /sbin/rc2.d/S430nfs.client
D. /sbin/rc2.d/K200tps.rc
E. /sbin/rc2.d/S620xfs
Answer: E

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QUESTION NO: 1
Which virtualization feature is unique to HP Integrity Servers with VSE versus IBM pSseries servers?
A. resource partitioning within a single OS image
B. sub-processor partitions executing separate OS images
C. single processor partitions executing separate OS images
D. electrically isolated partitions executing separate OS images
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 2
A customer running an Internet store closes their books every night and therefore has an end-of- day processing requirement for extra processor power for one hour.
Which virtualization solution can automatically provide one extra processor for one hour and is available uniquely from HP (versus IBM or SUN UNIX solutions)?
A. Workload Manager to activate iCAP processors
B. PRM to dynamically increase pSet size for one hour
C. Global Workload Manager to activate TiCAP processors for one hour
D. Partition Manager to shift one processor into the needed partition for one hour
Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 3
Which virtualization feature is unique to HP Integrity Servers with VSE versus SUN Solaris servers?
A. resource partitioning within a single OS image
B. secure resource access within a single OS image
C. temporarily activating processors within a single OS image
D. electrically isolated partitions executing separate OS images
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 4

Your company has an installed base of servers with an average utilization of 10% and an average peak utilization of 40%. What is the best solution to implement to improve server utilization and reduce costs?
A. high availability – increasing the number of redundant servers
B. patching – updating every operating system instance to the latest revision
C. server upgrades – replacing old servers with newer, more powerful servers
D. consolidation – stacking multiple applications and/or operating systems on fewer servers
Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 5
What is the HP definition of virtualization?
A. the process of abstracting applications and operating systems from physical resources
B. an approach to IT that pools and shares resources so utilization is optimized and supply automatically meets demand
C. an approach that allows you to run multiple operating systems at the same time on the same server without rebooting or repartitioning your disk
D. the process of presenting a logical grouping or subset of computing resources so that they can be accessed in ways that are different than the physical configuration
Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 6
What are the intelligent control products in the HP Virtual Server Environment? (Select four.)
A. HP VirtualCenter
B. HP Virtualization Engine
C. HP Server Migration Pack
D. HP Integrity Essentials iLO
E. HP Systems Insight Manager
F. HP Integrity Essentials VMotion
G. HP Virtual Machine Management Pack
H. HP Integrity Essentials Capacity Advisor
I. HP Integrity Essentials Virtualization Manager
J. HP Integrity Essentials Global Workload Manager
Answer: E,H,I,J
QUESTION NO: 7

In which server infrastructure can you deploy the HP Virtual Server Environment?
A. HP ProLiant servers
B. HP NonStop servers
C. Unix servers from all vendors
D. HP Integrity and HP 9000 servers
Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 8
Which high availability components are part of the HP Virtual Server Environment? (Select four.)
A. HP Sysplex
B. HP Hyperplex
C. HP Metrocluster
D. HP Serviceguard
E. HP Continentalclusters
F. HP Veritas Cluster Server
G. HP Serviceguard Storage Management Suite
Answer: C,D,E,G

QUESTION NO: 9
HP provides HP Virtual Server Environment Reference Architectures for several key applications; including Oracle Database, SAP, BEA WebLogic, WebSphere, SAS, and others. In which way does the HP Virtual Server Environment Reference Architectures allow you to deploy virtualized environments more quickly?
A. They are turnkey, out of the box virtualization solutions.
B. They are documented, pre-tested, customizable configurations.
C. They include consulting services from HP Consulting and Integration.
D. They include all the product numbers for ordering complete solutions from HP.
Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 10
A customer has several large mission critical workloads, each having different OS tuneables and application patch levels. They want to implement a midrange Integrity server solution and use partitioning to provide the highest levels of isolation. Which VSE approach is best?
A. nPartitions

B. Virtual Partitions
C. Integrity Virtual Machines
D. Process Resource Manager
Answer: A