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QUESTION 1
In a VPRN the PE device is configured to run which of the following protocols? (Choose three.)
A. MP-BGP for exchanging customer routes with other PEs
B. A routing protocol for exchanging customer routes with the CE
C. MPLS for exchanging labels with other provider core devices
D. MPLS for exchanging labels with the CE devices
E. Targeted LDP for exchanging VPRN labels with other PE devices
F. A label signaling protocol for defining transport tunnels between PE and CE devices

Correct Answer: ABC
QUESTION 2
Choose the answer that best completes the following sentence. The CE device is typically configured with _________________.
A. A single routing protocol for exchanging routes with both the internal customer routers and with the PE
B. MP-BGP to exchange routes with the PE.
C. MPLS and a routing protocol for the exchange of labels and routes with the PE
D. MPLS for exchanging labels with other CE devices
E. A routing protocol for exchanging routes with the internal customer routers and a routing protocol for exchanging routes with the PE

Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 3
Which of the following terms also correctly describes a Layer 3 VPN?(Choose three)
A. VPRN
B. BGP/MPLS VPN
C. VLL
D. VPLS
E. IP-VPN
F. ePipe
Correct Answer: ABE

QUESTION 4
What are the main functions of a Layer 3 VPN? (Choose three).
A. Distributing customer routing information between sites
B. Forwarding customer data packets
C. Providing an integrated billing solution
D. Maintaining separation between distinct customer networks
E. Allowing the implementation of Layer 3 devices in the provider core
Correct Answer: ABD

QUESTION 5
Which of the following statements are true regarding P devices in an MPLS VPRN? (Choose two.)
A. Participate in service provider core routing
B. P devices are not required to be MPLS enabled. MPLS is only required on the PE devices
C. Run a common routing protocol with the CE router
D. Must support MP-BGP
E. Do not have any connections to the CE
F. Must be aware of the VPRNs

Correct Answer: AE
QUESTION 6
What are the two primary problems the service provider must consider when providing traditional Layer 3 VPN services using only a single common routing table in the provider core? (Choose two)
A. Memory exhaustion in the provider core
B. Route leaking between the customer networks
C. CPU utilization for route processing
D. Unwanted packet forwarding between customer networks

Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 7
When a Service Provider offers VPRN services to its customers, which of the following functions are expected to be the responsibility of the Service Provider? (Choose three)
A. Distributing the customer generated labels between sites
B. Distributing the customer routing information between
C. Forwarding the customer originated data packets to the appropriate destination
D. Forwarding the provider originated data packets to the appropriate customer site
E. Providing secure layer 3 routing exchange between sites

Correct Answer: BCE
QUESTION 8
In a traditional layer 3 VPN which of the following will be an issue when there is overlapping address space between two customers? Choose the best answer.
A. There will be increased memory usage on the PE
B. There will be increased CPU utilization on the PE
C. The CE will reject the overlapping prefix
D. The PE will not recognize the prefixes as being different
E. There is no issue with overlapping address space in a traditional Layer 3 VPN
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 9
Complete the following statement. In a VPRN, the label signaled by RSVP-TE is used to ______________.
A. Identify the egress PE in the MPLS domain
B. Signal the egress VPRN ID
C. Identify the ingress PE in the MPLS domain
D. Transport route updates between PEs
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 10
Complete the following statement. In a VPRN, the label signaled by RSVP-TE is used to ______________.
A. Identify the egress PE in the MPLS domain
B. Signal the egress VPRN ID
C. Identify the ingress PE in the MPLS domain
D. Transport route updates between PEs

Correct Answer: A

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QUESTION 1
What is the major benefit of ArcSight Logger?
A. Correlation of raw events
B. Long-term storage of events
C. Storage of connectors
D. Real-time threat detection

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 2
What is CIP an acronym for?
A. Collector Intrusion Package
B. Compliance Insight Package
C. Correlation Incursion Package
D. Component Instruction Package

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 3
What is the primary feature of Connector Appliance?
A. Aggregates events to reduce the quantity sent to the manager
B. Long-term storage of data
C. Used to develop the Network Model
D. Supports bulk operations on all Smart Connectors

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 4
The ArcSight ESM collects, normalizes, aggregates, and filters millions of what?
A. Intrusions
B. Transactions
C. Packets
D. Log events

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 5
Which Arc Sight solution delivers Arc Sight content to add specific compliance or standard requirements such as PCI and Sarbanes-Oxley (SOX)?
A. Compliance Insight Package
B. Arc Sight Resource Collector
C. Arc Sight Update Package
D. Arc Sight Package Bundle

Correct Answer: A

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QUESTION 1
What do you use to list procedure names in a TNS object file?
A. NLD
B. NOFT
C. AR
D. BIND
Correct Answer: D QUESTION 2
A JVM must be started with _______ to enable jdb debugging support.
A. -Xdebug
B. -jdb
C. -Inspect
D. -Debug

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 3
Where can breakpoints be set in jdb? Select TWO.
A. at the first instruction of a method
B. at a verb
C. at a data object
D. at a line number
E. at a statement

Correct Answer: AD QUESTION 4
The compiler option SYNTAX or WSYNTAX _______.
A. creates an executable object file
B. suppresses errors
C. inserts the source in the object
D. checks the source for errors

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 5
What is a valid INSPECT command for debugging SCREEN COBOL?
A. BREAK
B. STEP IN
C. STOP
D. SAVE
Correct Answer: A QUESTION 6
To RESTORE a partitioned SQL table to a different destination, which option is required?
A. PHYSVOL
B. REBUILD
C. MAP NAMES

D. VOL
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 7
What are two advantages specific to a DLL (Dynamic Link Library)? Select TWO.
A. It contains Position Independent Code (PIC).
B. It is loaded during cold load.
C. It is composed of shared code.
D. It can have private data.
E. It can be unloaded from a process.

Correct Answer: AE
QUESTION 8
What can user libraries be used for? Select TWO.
A. to provide source code for compilation
B. to share common compiled procedures
C. to override an operating system procedure
D. to provide an alternate main procedure/program
E. to switch from native to non-native mode

Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 9
The file EXTDECS, CEXTDECS, or COBOLEXT contains the procedure declarations for which routines?
A. user library routines
B. system library routines
C. third-party library routines
D. SQL routines
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 10
The purpose of the CTOEDIT utility is to ______ .
A. convert unstructured files to structured files
B. convert C application code written on the PC to a Guardian edit file
C. convert OSS text files to Guardian text files
D. generate OSS code to be used in Guardian
Correct Answer: C

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QUESTION: 1
What is the purpose of the Data Table in a custom checkpoint?

A. to store output values and formulas
B. to compare headers
C. to access global values
D. to store input objects
Answer: A
QUESTION: 2 In HP QuickTest Professional, what does the Managing Versions feature enable you to do?
A. compare different test results
B. check out only the latest version of an asset
C. compare only the latest two versions of an asset
D. check in only the latest version of an asset

Answer: B
QUESTION: 3 You have developed a functional test in HP QuickTest Professional and want to take advantage of version control in HP Application Lifecycle Management. Which menu option should you use to put your test in HP Application Lifecycle Management?
A. Save As
B. Create Version
C. Check-in
D. Save Test with Resources

Answer: A
QUESTION: 4
What happens when you import data using the DataTable.ImportSheet function?

A. Data is overwritten when column headers in Excel and the data table match.

B. Sheet1 in the Excel file is always imported.
C. Data will be appended to the data table.
D. A new column is added to the data table when column headers in Excel and the data table match.

Answer: A
QUESTION: 5
HP QuickTest Professional 11 enables you record steps from which browser?

A. Chrome
B. Safari
C. Netscape
D. Firefox

Answer: D
QUESTION: 6
Which Web testing capabilities have been added in HP QuickTest Professional 11?
(Select three.)

A. Firefox Document Object Model access
B. Internet Explorer Developer Toolbar support
C. Event Identifiers that enable identification based on events associated to a Web object
D. Javascript code capability that enables Javascript code to be embedded in all loaded browser pages
E. Property Identifiers that enable identification based on properties associated to a Web object
F. Vbscript code capability that enables Vbscript code to run in specific browser pages

Answer: A, C, D
QUESTION: 7
What is created when you select Edit > Action > Split Action?

A. an independent action
B. a new shared object repository
C. an action fork

D. a new test

Answer: A
QUESTION: 8 When inserting a call to a reusable action, which two ways can the tester handle the data resources in that action? (Select two.)
A. Have the new action refer to a read-only copy of the data in the original action.
B. Have the action get an empty set of data resources.
C. Delete the data.
D. Store an editable copy of the data in the new action.
E. Have the new action refer with write permissions to the copy of the data in the original action.

Answer: A , D
QUESTION: 9 An HP QuickTest Professional instructor needs to take a sample test that was built in HP Application Lifecycle Management to an off-site training facility. What is the simplest way to convert that test into a portable format?
A. Use the Export to Portable feature to export the test with its object repository into XML format.
B. Use the Save Test with Resources feature for main test and do the same for the test that contains the called reusable actions.
C. Use the Save Test with Resources feature.
D. Use the Export to Zip feature.

Answer: C

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QUESTION NO: 1
How do you set up a device swap area and ensure it is active at each system startup?
A. Start device swapping using the swapon command on an existing file system mount point.
B. Start device swapping using the swapon command on a logical volume; add an entry to the /etc/fstab file.
C. Start device swapping using the swapon command on a logical volume; add an entry to the /etc/sbtab file.
D. Start device swapping using the swapon command on a logical volume; add an entry to the /etc/vfstab file.
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 2
Which commands can be used to create device files? Select TWO.
A. mkdevice
B. insf
C. fsadm
D. mksf
E. devstart
Answer: B,D
QUESTION NO: 3
What is the purpose of the lost+found directory?
A. allows fsck to recover orphaned files and directories
B. required on JFS file systems for journaling
C. functions as a trash can for the file system
D. a temporary storage for deleted files
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 4
Which command is used to recreate the /stand/system file?
A. system_prep
B. mkkernal
C. vi system
D. frecover
E. sysgen
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 5
Which level is used by fbackup to complete a full backup?
A. 0
B. 1
C. 9
D. F
E. V
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 6
How does root allow an ordinary user to add/remove printers in SAM?
A. not possible
B. edit sam.allow
C. set the UID bit
D. establish a restricted build
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 7 DRAG DROP
Place the steps to install a fibre channel card in the correct order.

Answer:

QUESTION NO: 8
If /tmp is 100% full, which commands are used to determine its volume location and if free space
is available on that disk?
A. bdf, vgdisplay
B. lvdisplay, diskinfo
C. bdf, lvdisplay, pvdisplay
D. vgdisplay, lvdisplay, diskinfo
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 9 DRAG DROP
Order the steps required to perform a complete integrity check of a journaled file system.

Answer: QUESTION NO: 10

During a run-state change from run level 1 to run level 2 , which script would be run last?
A. /sbin/rc2.d/K900nfs.server
B. /sbin/rc2.d/S500inetd
C. /sbin/rc2.d/S430nfs.client
D. /sbin/rc2.d/K200tps.rc
E. /sbin/rc2.d/S620xfs
Answer: E

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QUESTION NO: 1
Which virtualization feature is unique to HP Integrity Servers with VSE versus IBM pSseries servers?
A. resource partitioning within a single OS image
B. sub-processor partitions executing separate OS images
C. single processor partitions executing separate OS images
D. electrically isolated partitions executing separate OS images
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 2
A customer running an Internet store closes their books every night and therefore has an end-of- day processing requirement for extra processor power for one hour.
Which virtualization solution can automatically provide one extra processor for one hour and is available uniquely from HP (versus IBM or SUN UNIX solutions)?
A. Workload Manager to activate iCAP processors
B. PRM to dynamically increase pSet size for one hour
C. Global Workload Manager to activate TiCAP processors for one hour
D. Partition Manager to shift one processor into the needed partition for one hour
Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 3
Which virtualization feature is unique to HP Integrity Servers with VSE versus SUN Solaris servers?
A. resource partitioning within a single OS image
B. secure resource access within a single OS image
C. temporarily activating processors within a single OS image
D. electrically isolated partitions executing separate OS images
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 4

Your company has an installed base of servers with an average utilization of 10% and an average peak utilization of 40%. What is the best solution to implement to improve server utilization and reduce costs?
A. high availability – increasing the number of redundant servers
B. patching – updating every operating system instance to the latest revision
C. server upgrades – replacing old servers with newer, more powerful servers
D. consolidation – stacking multiple applications and/or operating systems on fewer servers
Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 5
What is the HP definition of virtualization?
A. the process of abstracting applications and operating systems from physical resources
B. an approach to IT that pools and shares resources so utilization is optimized and supply automatically meets demand
C. an approach that allows you to run multiple operating systems at the same time on the same server without rebooting or repartitioning your disk
D. the process of presenting a logical grouping or subset of computing resources so that they can be accessed in ways that are different than the physical configuration
Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 6
What are the intelligent control products in the HP Virtual Server Environment? (Select four.)
A. HP VirtualCenter
B. HP Virtualization Engine
C. HP Server Migration Pack
D. HP Integrity Essentials iLO
E. HP Systems Insight Manager
F. HP Integrity Essentials VMotion
G. HP Virtual Machine Management Pack
H. HP Integrity Essentials Capacity Advisor
I. HP Integrity Essentials Virtualization Manager
J. HP Integrity Essentials Global Workload Manager
Answer: E,H,I,J
QUESTION NO: 7

In which server infrastructure can you deploy the HP Virtual Server Environment?
A. HP ProLiant servers
B. HP NonStop servers
C. Unix servers from all vendors
D. HP Integrity and HP 9000 servers
Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 8
Which high availability components are part of the HP Virtual Server Environment? (Select four.)
A. HP Sysplex
B. HP Hyperplex
C. HP Metrocluster
D. HP Serviceguard
E. HP Continentalclusters
F. HP Veritas Cluster Server
G. HP Serviceguard Storage Management Suite
Answer: C,D,E,G

QUESTION NO: 9
HP provides HP Virtual Server Environment Reference Architectures for several key applications; including Oracle Database, SAP, BEA WebLogic, WebSphere, SAS, and others. In which way does the HP Virtual Server Environment Reference Architectures allow you to deploy virtualized environments more quickly?
A. They are turnkey, out of the box virtualization solutions.
B. They are documented, pre-tested, customizable configurations.
C. They include consulting services from HP Consulting and Integration.
D. They include all the product numbers for ordering complete solutions from HP.
Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 10
A customer has several large mission critical workloads, each having different OS tuneables and application patch levels. They want to implement a midrange Integrity server solution and use partitioning to provide the highest levels of isolation. Which VSE approach is best?
A. nPartitions

B. Virtual Partitions
C. Integrity Virtual Machines
D. Process Resource Manager
Answer: A