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QUESTION 1
Which statement about CDB architecture is true?
A. Oracle-supplied metadata resides only in the root container.
B. A seed PDB can sometimes be opened for particular operations.
C. Multiple PDBs with the same name can reside in the same CDB.
D. A CDB can have an infinite number of PDBs.
E. You can create common users in PDBs.

Correct Answer: A Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Reference: http://docs.oracle.com/cd/E16655_01/server.121/e17633/cdbovrvw.htm#CNCPT89235

QUESTION 2
As part of your Oracle Database 12c post-installation tasks, you run these commands:
Cd $ORACLE_HOME/bin srvctl stop database -d myDb chopt enable dm srvctl start database -d myDb
What does this do?
A. It enables the Oracle Data Mining option in your Oracle binary files.
B. It creates the Fast Recovery Area disk group.
C. It generates Client Static Library.
D. It configures one of the Oracle user accounts.
E. It configures Oracle Net Services.
F. It configures Oracle Messaging Gateway.

Correct Answer: A Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Reference: http://docs.oracle.com/cd/E16655_01/install.121/e17889/postinst.htm#RILIN1049 (see 4.4)
QUESTION 3
Exhibit below:

Which three statements are true about terminating a session?
A. Without any error, you can terminate the active session by executing: SQL> ALTER SYSTEM KILL SESSION ‘7, 15′;
B. You can terminate the active session by executing: SQL> ALTER SYSTEM KILL SESSION “7, 15′; But you also get the error message: ORA-00028: your session has been killed C. You cannot terminate the active session. You have to wait until that session becomes inactive.
D. Without any error, you can terminate the inactive session by executing: SQL> ALTER SYSTEM KILL SESSION ’12, 63’;
E. When an inactive session is killed, the status of that session remains visible in VSSESSION with status KILLED. The rowf the terminated session is removed from VSSESSION after the user attempts to use the session again.
F. You cannot terminate the inactive session. You have to wait until that session becomes active again.

Correct Answer: BDE Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
B (not A, Not C):
* You terminate a current session using the SQL statement ALTER SYSTEM KILL SESSION. The following statement terminates the session whose system identifier is 7 and serial number is
15:
* Terminating an Active Session If a user session is processing a transaction (ACTIVE status) when you terminate the session, the transaction is rolled back and the user immediately receives the following message:
ORA-00028: your session has been killed
ALTER SYSTEM KILL SESSION ‘7,15’;
E (not F): Terminating an Inactive Session
If the session is not making a SQL call to Oracle Database (is INACTIVE) when it is terminated, the ORA-00028 message is not returned immediately. The message is not returned until the user subsequently attempts to use the terminated session.
When an inactive session has been terminated, the STATUS of the session in the V$SESSION view is KILLED. The row for the terminated session is removed from V$SESSION after the user attempts to use the session again and receives the ORA-00028 message.
Reference: Oracle Database Administrator’s Guide, Terminating Sessions URL: http://docs.oracle.com/cd/ B28359_01/server.111/b28310/manproc008.htm#ADMIN11192

QUESTION 4
Which two statements are true about shared server sessions?
A. No Program Global Area (PGA) is allocated for shared server processes.
B. User Global Area is stored in System Global Area (SGA).
C. Shared SQL Area is allocated from Program Global Area (PGA).
D. Private SQL Area is allocated from Library Cache.
E. Large Pool is used for SQL work areas.

Correct Answer: AD Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
A: The PGA is memory specific to an operating process or thread that is not shared by other processes or threads on the system. Because the PGA is process-specific, it is never allocated in the SGA.
The PGA is a memory heap that contains session-dependent variables required by a dedicated or shared server process. The server process allocates memory structures that it requires in the PGA.
D: The library cache is a shared pool memory structure that stores executable SQL and PL/SQL code. This cache contains the shared SQL and PL/SQL areas and control structures such as locks and library cache handles. In a shared server architecture, the library cache also contains private SQL areas.
Incorrect:
Not B: The SGA is a read/write memory area that, along with the Oracle background processes, form a

database instance. All server processes that execute on behalf of users can read information in the instance SGA. Several processes write to the SGA during database operation. not C: A private SQL area (PGA) holds information about a parsed SQL statement and other session-specific information for processing. When a server process executes SQL or PL/SQL code, the process uses the private SQL area to store bind variable values, query execution state information, and query execution work areas.
Reference: Oracle Database Concepts, 12c, Memory Architecture

QUESTION 5
Which targets can be managed by using Enterprise Manager Cloud Control?
A. Hosts and databases
B. Hosts, databases, and application servers
C. Application servers and web applications
D. Databases, Oracle Management Server (OMS), and Oracle Management Repository (OMR)
E. Databases, application servers, and web applications
F. Hosts, databases, application servers, web applications, OMS, and OMR

Correct Answer: A Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Reference: http://www.oracle.com/technetwork/oem/framework-infra/wp-em12c-security-best- practicesv2-1493383.pdf (page 3, second bulleted point, last couple of sentences)
QUESTION 6
Which two statements are true regarding SQL*Plus?
A. It has commands for performing database administration operations.
B. It can be used in interactive but not batch mode for SQL commands.
C. It has to be installed separately after the Oracle Database 12c installation.
D. Operating system commands can be executed from the SQL*Plus command prompt.

Correct Answer: AC Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
C: how to start SQL*Plus:
1- Make sure that SQL*Plus has been installed on your computer.

2.
Log on to the operating system (if required).
3.
Enter the command, SQLPLUS, and press Return.
Etc.

Not B: In SQL*Plus command-line, the use of an external editor in combination with the @, @@ or START commands is an effective method of creating and executing generic scripts. You can write scripts which contain SQL*Plus, SQL and PL/SQL commands, which you can retrieve and edit. This is especially useful for storing complex commands or frequently used reports.
Reference: http://docs.oracle.com/cd/B14117_01/server.101/b12170/qstart.htm
QUESTION 7
Which two statements about the Process Monitor (PMON) process are true?
A. PMON performs process recovery when a client process fails.
B. During instance startup, PMON takes care of instance recovery.
C. PMON performs listener registration.
D. PMON restarts background and dispatcher processes when they fail.
E. PMON resolves failures of distributed transactions.

Correct Answer: AC Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 8
Which statement is true about loading data by using the conventional path of SQL*Loader?
A. Redo is not generated while performing conventional path loads.
B. Only PRIMARY KEY, UNIQUE KEY, and NOT NULL constraints are checked,
C. No exclusive locks are acquired when the conventional path loads are performed.
D. Instead of performing transactions, SQL*Loader directly writes data blocks to the data files.
E. INSERT triggers are disabled before the conventional path load and re-enabled at the end of the load. Correct Answer: B

Explanation Explanation/Reference:
Reference: http://docs.oracle.com/cd/A57673_01/DOC/server/doc/SUT73/ch8.htm#data %20paths (see direct loads, integrity constraints, and triggers)
QUESTION 9
Identify three key properties of a transaction in Oracle Database 12c.
A. durability
B. consistency
C. concurrency
D. isolation
E. scalability
F. manageability Correct Answer: ABD

Explanation Explanation/Reference:
Reference: http://docs.oracle.com/cd/E16655_01/server.121/e17633/transact.htm#CNCPT016
QUESTION 10
Which type of file system is NOT valid for storing data files, online redo log files, and control files for a pluggable database?
A. Automatic Storage Management (ASM)
B. OS file system
C. logical volume (LVM)
D. clustered file system
E. RAW Correct Answer: E

Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 11
Which two statements about ADDM are true?
A. Real-Time ADDM uses AWR snapshots of the last 10 minutes.
B. Real-Time ADDM uses ASH recent activity from SGA data.
C. Real-Time ADDM analyzes performance in a completely different fashion than regular ADDM.
D. Regular ADDM uses AWR snapshots that are not yet purged.

Correct Answer: CD Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
C: Real-Time ADDM provides an innovative way to analyze problems in unresponsive or hung databases. Using a normal and a diagnostic mode connection Real-Time ADDM runs through a set of predefined criteria to analyze the current performance and helps the DBA to resolve deadlocks, hangs, shared pool contentions and many other exception situations that today forces the administrator to bounce their databases, causing significant loss of revenue. Real-Time ADDM is the only tool available in the market today that can log into a hung database, analyze the problem and recommend a resolution
Note: Real-Time ADDM is an innovative way to analyze problems in extremely slow or unresponsive databases, which would have traditionally required a database restart. Real-Time ADDM can help resolve issues such as deadlocks, hangs, and shared pool contentions, as well as many other exception situations, without resorting to a restart of the database.
D: ADDM builds upon the data captured in AWR.
QUESTION 12
Which two items are key for maintaining data consistency in Oracle Database 12c?
A. undo data
B. isolation level
C. lock mechanism
D. serializability

Correct Answer: C Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Reference: http://docs.oracle.com/cd/E11882_01/server.112/e25789/consist.htm#CNCPT88969 (overview of the oracle database locking mechanism)
QUESTION 13
You are about to install Oracle Database 12c Enterprise Edition. Which statement is true?
A. You should not install the Oracle Database software into an existing Oracle home from a different release.
B. A multitenant container database (CDB) can have several pluggable databases (PDBs) with different character sets.
C. Oracle recommends that you back up the root. sh script after you complete the installation.
D. Cloning an Oracle home is useful if you are performing multiple Oracle Database Installations.
E. You can stop existing Oracle processes, including the listener and the database running in the Oracle home, before the database software installation.
Correct Answer: B Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 14
Which logical storage relationship is correct?
A. Tablespace< Segment < Extent < Oracle Datablock
B. B) Segment < Extent < Oracle Datablock<Tablespace
C. Tablespace< Extent < Segment < Oracle Datablock
D. Data File <Tablespace< Segment < Extent < Oracle Datablock

Correct Answer: A Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Reference: http://www.dummies.com/how-to/content/basics-of-logical-structures-in-oracle- 12c.html
QUESTION 15
Which two statements about multitenant architecture are true?
A. Multiple PDBs on a single server need multiple database instances and multiple sets of database files.
B. Although consolidated into a single physical database, PDBs mimic the behavior of non- CDBs.
C. A PDB administrator can use Oracle Flashback or point-in-time recovery to retrieve lost data from a PDB, only by shutting down all the PDBs from the CDB.
D. It is easier to collect performance metrics for many databases in a CDB than individual non- CDB databases.
E. It takes more time to apply a patch to one CDB that holds hundreds of PDBs than to hundreds of non-CDB databases.

Correct Answer: BD Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
B: A PDB is a portable collection of schemas, schema objects, and nonschema objects that appears to an Oracle Net client as a non-CDB. All Oracle databases before Oracle Database 12c were non-CDBs.
D: Ease of performance tuning
It is easier to collect performance metrics for a single database than for multiple databases. It is easier to size one SGA than 100 SGAs.
Reference: Benefits of the Multitenant Architecture for Database Consolidation URL: http:// docs.oracle.com/cd/E16655_01/server.121/e17633/cdbovrvw.htm#CNCPT89239
QUESTION 16
Which three statements represent the benefits of multitenant architecture for database consolidation?
A. You can unplug a PDB from a development CDB and plug it into a production CDB, which allows for easier and more rapid movement of data and code.
B. You can consolidate shared database memory by combining multiple PDBs in a single CDB.
C. Patching individual PDBs requires the same amount of time as patching individual databases.
D. Consolidating separate databases into a single CDB requires the same amount of storage allocation.
E. In multitenant architecture, a PDB behaves the same as a non-CDB as seen from a client connecting with Oracle Net. No client modification is required.

Correct Answer: ADE Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
A: By design, you can quickly plug a PDB into a CDB, unplug the PDB from the CDB, and then plug this
PDB into a different CDB. The implementation technique for plugging and unplugging is similar to the
transportable tablespace technique.

D: The process of consolidating data from multiple databases into one database on one computer is
known as database consolidation. Starting in Oracle Database 12c, the Oracle Multitenant option enables
you to consolidate data and code without altering existing schemas or applications.
By consolidating hardware and sharing database memory and files, you reduce costs for hardware,
storage, availability, and labor. For example, 100 PDBs on a single server share one database instance
and one set of database files, thereby requiring less hardware and fewer personnel.

E: A PDB is a portable collection of schemas, schema objects, and nonschema objects that appears to an Oracle Net client as a non-CDB. All Oracle databases before Oracle Database 12c were non-CDBs.
Reference: Benefits of the Multitenant Architecture for Database Consolidation URL: http:// docs.oracle.com/cd/E16655_01/server.121/e17633/cdbovrvw.htm#CNCPT89239
QUESTION 17
Which statement about the Oracle Advanced Security Data Redaction feature is true?
A. It transparently encrypts data at rest in Oracle databases.
B. It securely manages encryption keys.
C. It protects against theft or loss of disks and backups.
D. It prevents OS users from inspecting tablespace files.
E. It limits the exposure of sensitive data in applications.
F. It alters data in caches, buffers, and persistent storage.
G. It impacts operational activities such as backup & restore, upgrade & patch, and replication.

Correct Answer: E Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Redacting Sensitive Data for Display Data Redaction provides selective, on-the-fly redaction of sensitive data in query results prior to display by applications so that unauthorized users cannot view the sensitive data. It enables consistent redaction of database columns across application modules accessing the same data. Data Redaction minimizes changes to applications because it does not alter actual data in internal database buffers, caches, or storage, and it preserves the original data type and formatting when transformed data is returned to the application. Data Redaction has no impact on database operational activities such as backup and restore, upgrade and patch, and high availability clusters.
Reference: Oracle Advanced Security, 12c, Oracle Data Sheet
QUESTION 18
Which three statements about Automatic Database Diagnostic Monitor (ADDM) are true?
A. It requires the database to be open.
B. It analyzes the performance of specified objects.
C. It implements all recommendations automatically.
D. It recommends solutions and quantifies expected benefits.
E. It retains snapshots in the SYSAUX tablespace until the database is restarted.
F. It analyzes the snapshots stored in the Automatic Workload Repository (AWR).

Correct Answer: BDF Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Reference: http://docs.oracle.com/cd/B19306_01/server.102/b14211/diagnsis.htm
QUESTION 19
Which is the default port number for Database Express?
A. 7801
B. 5500
C. 2243
D. 1521
E. 22

Correct Answer: D Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Reference: http://docs.oracle.com/cd/B25329_01/doc/install.102/b25143.pdf (page 4, first bulleted point)
QUESTION 20
Your customer is looking for a solution to address these downtime needs:
-Online addition and removal of disks should automatically rebalance data across new storage configurations while storage, database, and applications remain online.
-Dynamically add or remove clustered nodes without disrupting the database or applications.
-Automate the sizing and distribution of shared memory.
-Add a column with a default value without disrupting the database or applications.
-Perform rolling patch upgrades.
Which four would you recommend to address those needs?
A. Automatic Storage Management (ASM)
B. Online Data and Application change
C. Global Data Services (GDS)
D. Real Application Clusters (RAC)
E. Oracle Streams
F. Online Table Redefinition
G. Oracle Database Vault

Correct Answer: ACDE Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 21
Your database instance is down because there was a user-initiated shutdown. Which option represents
the actions performed, in the correct order, if you start up the instance?

a – The control file is read.
b – Memory is allocated.
c – Background processes pre started.
d -The initialization parameter file is read,
e- Redo log files and data files are opened.

A. b, c, a
B. d, a, e
C. a, e, d, b
D. d, b, c, a, e
E. c, b, d, a, e
Correct Answer: E Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 22
Which three components are always part of System Global Area?
A. Database Buffer Cache
B. Undo Log Buffer
C. Shared Pool
D. Small Pool
E. Java Pool
F. Private SQL Area Correct Answer: ACE

Explanation Explanation/Reference:
Reference: http://docs.oracle.com/cd/E11882_01/server.112/e40540/memory.htm#CNCPT802
QUESTION 23
Which two statements about Database Express are true?
A. It uses internal infrastructure components, such as XDB and SQL*Net.
B. It can perform actions outside the database.
C. It has background tasks and processes that periodically collect information via FTP.
D. It has two new features: Performance Hub and Composite Active Reports.
E. It is not supported on Standard Edition (SE) and Express Edition (XE). Correct Answer: AD

Explanation Explanation/Reference:
Reference: http://www.oracle.com/technetwork/database/manageability/emx-intro-1970113.html
QUESTION 24
Which three operations can the PUBLIC user with the SYSOPER privilege perform?
A. STARTUP
B. SHUTDOWN
C. CREATE DATABASE
D. DROP DATABASE
E. ALTER DATABASE RECOVER Correct Answer: ABE

Explanation Explanation/Reference:
Reference: http://docs.oracle.com/cd/B28359_01/server.111/b28310/dba006.htm#ADMIN11049
QUESTION 25
To revoke unnecessary and unused privileges, you can use Privilege Analysis. Which sequence should
you follow?

1 -Start the analysis.
2 – Set up the analysis policy type (database, role, context).
3 – Generate the results.
4 -View the results in DBA_USED_PRIVSand DBA_UNUSED_PRJVS.
5 – Stop the analysis.

A. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5
B. 2, 1, 5, 3, 4
C. 5, 1, 2, 3, 4
D. 2, 3, I, 5, 4
E. 1, 2, 4, 5, 2 Correct Answer: A

Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 26
Which command do you use to create a local role while you are connected as the local user?
A. create local role l_hr;
B. create role c##_hr container=current;
C. create role l_hr container=current;
D. create role l_hr container=all; Correct Answer: C

Explanation Explanation/Reference:
You can include CONTAINER=CURRENT in the CREATE ROLE statement to specify the role as a local role.
Reference: Oracle Database Security Guide , Creating a Local Role
QUESTION 27
YOU want to move all objects of the CONSULTANT user from the test database to theDB- USER schema of the production database. Which option of IMPDP would you use to accomplish this task?
A. FULL
B. SCHEMAS
C. TRANSFORM
D. REMAP_SCHEMA
E. REMAP_TABLESPACE Correct Answer: D

Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 28
For which database operation do you need the database to be in MOUNT state?
A. renaming the control files
B. re-creating the control files
C. dropping a user in your database
D. dropping a tablespace in your database
E. configuring the database instance to operate in ARCHIVELOG or NOARCHIVELOG mode Correct Answer: E

Explanation Explanation/Reference:
To enable or disable archiving, the database must be mounted but not open.

Note: See step 5 below.
Changing the Database Archiving Mode
To change the archiving mode of the database, use the ALTER DATABASE statement with the

ARCHIVELOG or NOARCHIVELOG clause. To change the archiving mode, you must be connected to the
database with administrator privileges (AS SYSDBA).
The following steps switch the database archiving mode from NOARCHIVELOG to ARCHIVELOG:
1.Shut down the database instance

2.Back up the database.
3.Edit the initialization parameter file to include the initialization parameters that specify the destinations for
the archived redo log files
4.Start a new instance and mount, but do not open, the database.

STARTUP MOUNT
To enable or disable archiving, the database must be mounted but not open.

5.Change the database archiving mode. Then open the database for normal operations.
ALTER DATABASE ARCHIVELOG;
ALTER DATABASE OPEN;

6.Shut down the database.
SHUTDOWN IMMEDIATE

7.Back up the database.

QUESTION 29
Examine the table:
Table name: PRODUCTS Schema: SCOTT Tablespace: USERS Organization: Standard (Heap Organized)
This table contains 20 rows. In the data that has been entered, the PROD_ID column contains only single-digit values, PROD_NAME has a maximum of five characters, and PROD_RATE has four-digit values for all rows.
Which two statements are true regarding the modifications that can be performed to the structure of the PRODUCTS table?
A. PROD_NAME size can be increased from five to 10 characters.
B. PROD_ID can be changed from CHAR to NUMBER data type.
C. PROD_RATE size can be changed from NUMBER(4) to NUMBER(6, 2).
D. New columns can be added only if they have a NOT NULL constraint.
E. None of the existing columns can be dropped because they contain data.

Correct Answer: AC Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 30
A DBA informs you that an Oracle instance has started. What does this imply?
A. Users can access the data in the database.
B. Only SGA has been allocated for the database.
C. Only background and user processes are running.
D. Memory areas have been allocated and background processes have been started.
Correct Answer: D Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 31
Real-Time ADDM detects a high-load performance issue within the database. Which condition triggered it?
A. The average active sessions were more than three times the number of CPU cores.
B. Active sessions were more than 10% of total load and CPU utilization was more than 50%.
C. Memory allocations were more than 95% of physical memory.
D. Hung sessions were more than 10% of total sessions.
E. A deadlock was detected.
F. The session limit was close to 100%.

Correct Answer: A Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Reference: http://docs.oracle.com/cd/E16655_01/server.121/e15857/pfgrf_diag.htm#TGDBA95369 (table 7-1)

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