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How can a tagged packet be processed for QoS when it is received on an inbound interface? (Select three.)
A. The marked priority level can be changed to enforce predetermined classification levels.
B. The packet can be scheduled for a queue based on the marked 802.1p priority level.
C. The packet can be moved to a more secure VLAN and its priority remarked.
D. The packet can be scheduled for a queue based on a preset policy.
E. The packet can be discarded or rerouted if it does not match a set policy.
F. The packet can be prevented switch traversal for a predetermined penalty period.
Correct Answer: ABD
QUESTION 2
What are Virtual Connect Enterprise Manager features? (Select three.)
A. is licensed per enclosure
B. is licensed with the Virtual Connect Ethernet module
C. is embedded on the Virtual Connect Ethernet module
D. can administer up to 256,000 network addresses
E. can manage a single domain of up to four enclosures
F. can administer up to 16,000 servers

Correct Answer: ADF
QUESTION 3
Which is a unique feature of a virtual switch?
A. port mirroring for packet analysis
B. VLAN segmentation at the port level
C. no packet forwarding (routing) between VLANs
D. maximum of 1016 ports per switch

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 4
What is considered a Virtual Connect domain in Virtual Connect Enterprise Manager?
A. a maximum of 1,000 enclosures
B. a maximum of 16,000 servers
C. from 1 to 4 enclosures
D. 250 Virtual Connect Manager domains

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 5
Which industry-standard protocols are supported on Virtual Connect Ethernet uplinks? (Select three.)
A. IEEE 802.1 AX (802.3ad) Link Layer Discovery Protocol (LLDP)
B. IEEE 802.1w-2001 Rapid Spanning Tree (RSTP)
C. IEEE 802.1p Quality of Service (QoS)
D. IEEE 802.1 AX (802.3ad) Link Aggregation Protocol
E. IEEE 802.1Q VLAN tagging
F. IEEE 802.3af-2003 Power over Ethernet (PoE)
Correct Answer: ADE

QUESTION 6
Which tasks are used to define a vNet for Virtual Connect Ethernet? (Select three.)
A. Assign only one network per server NIC.
B. Assign one or multiple networks per server NIC.
C. Optionally set the native VLAN.
D. Define the server profile.
E. Specify VLAN names/IDs.
F. Select unassigned uplinks.
Correct Answer: ADF
QUESTION 7
Which spanning tree protocol is the most appropriate in a VLAN-aware, non-proprietary network implementation?
A. RSTP
B. PVST+
C. MSTP
D. STP
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 8
The IEEE 802.1AX (802.3ad) Link Aggregation Control Protocol is a Layer 2 protocol. What is its function?
A. dynamically identifies link speeds regardless of media type B. forms port trunks consisting of two or more uplink ports
C. identifies the VLAN to which frames transmitted on a link or port trunk belong
D. advertises information that describes and identifies devices

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 9
What is used to achieve Fibre Channel data transfer?
A. channel mesh
B. packets
C. tunnels
D. frames

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 10
What does N_Port ID virtualization do?
A. provides an abstraction layer between the server HBAs and the SAN
B. provides interoperability among third-party SAN device manufacturers
C. provides connectivity between the Virtual Connect module and the Onboard Administrator
D. enables a single HBA port to register multiple, unique WWNs within a fabric

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 11
What is considered a trunk in a Cisco switching environment?
A. aggregated switch links
B. tagged VLAN port (802.1Q)
C. tagged VLAN port plus link aggregation
D. Shared Uplink Set plus Connection Mode Auto

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 12
In a switching environment with redundant links, which technology is required for proper operation?
A. VLANs
B. Cisco vPC
C. loop prevention
D. dynamic routing

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 13
What are valid FlexNIC bandwidth selections? (Select three.)
A. Preferred
B. Assigned
C. Static
D. Custom
E. Dynamic
F. Auto

Correct Answer: ADF
QUESTION 14
You are configuring Virtual Connect Flex-10 10Gb Ethernet modules with Flex-10 server adapters. What is an important network design consideration?
A. The Virtual Connect Flex-10 10Gb Ethernet module does not enforce VLAN isolation between FlexNICs of the same server LAN on Motherboard (LOM).
B. If the Flex-10 server adapters are implemented as mezzanine cards, the Virtual Connect Flex-10 10Gb Ethernet module requires all FlexNICs be configured for the same speed.
C. The Virtual Connect Manager will enforce physical port isolation by not allowing FlexNICs of the same server port to connect to the same Virtual Connect network.
D. LACP trunking is not allowed between Virtual Connect uplink ports and infrastructure switch ports located on different modules, even if within the same physical switch.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 15
On a Cisco switch, what does the portfast setting do?
A. eliminates auto-negotiation delays with 10GbE ports
B. ensures the link is at maximum speed regardless of configuration
C. causes BPDUs to be blocked if sensed
D. eliminates delays inherent in RSTP/MSTP synchronization
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 16
What does trunk refer to in industry-standard terminology?
A. aggregated switch links
B. tagged VLAN port (802.1Q)
C. tagged VLAN port plus link aggregation
D. Shared Uplink Set plus Connection Mode Auto

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 17
Which statements are true about port VLAN memberships? (Select three.)
A. A port can be an untagged member of multiple VLANs.
B. A port must be a member of at least one VLAN.
C. A port must be a tagged member of only one VLAN.
D. A port can be an untagged member of only one VLAN.
E. A port can be a tagged member of multiple VLANs.
F. A port can be a tagged member of one VLAN and an untagged member of multiple VLANs.

Correct Answer: BDE
QUESTION 18
What are the requirements for link aggregation using LACP? (Select three.)
A. Links must have the same tagged VLANs assigned.
B. Links must be the same speed.
C. Links must use the same media type.
D. Links must share a boundary.
E. Links must be full-duplex.
F. Links must be fiber connections.

Correct Answer: BDE
QUESTION 19
What are valid reasons for implementing VLANs? (Select two.)
A. to segregate traffic by resource or application needs
B. to provide enhanced name resolution
C. to reduce subnet cost options
D. to minimize the effect of broadcast traffic on hosts
E. to support multipathing

Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 20
Which port is the lowest-cost path to the spanning tree root bridge?
A. root port
B. defined root port
C. designated port
D. forwarding port

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 21
Which action is required at the guest operating system level to enable it to run on a virtual machine?
A. A key code must be loaded into the registry and validated by VMware.
B. The VMware driver must be loaded for full network support.
C. No action is required because VMware is transparent to the operating system.
D. A VMware license must be loaded on each guest.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 22
What can be used by a QoS policy to classify traffic? (Select two.)
A. packet size
B. egress port
C. TCP port number
D. TCP window size
E. VLAN ID
Correct Answer: CE
QUESTION 23
Which advantages do ACLs offer? (Select two.)
A. fewer necessary support staff
B. increased network security
C. smaller broadcast domain
D. reduced network complexity
E. improved network performance
Correct Answer: BE QUESTION 24
How many World Wide Names (WWNs) does Virtual Connect Manager make available?
A. 64 total available WWNs
B. 64 ranges for a total of 128 WWNs
C. 64 ranges for a total of 1024 WWNs
D. 128 ranges of 64 WWNS Correct Answer: C QUESTION 25
Click the Exhibit button.

Identify the port type shown in the blue outlined area.
A. fiber
B. SFP+
C. RJ-45
D. dedicated

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 26
A device with a non-compliant 802.1Q network adapter (NIC) is plugged into which type of switch port?
A. workstation
B. untagged
C. trunk
D. tagged Correct Answer: B QUESTION 27
What best describes the functionality of the Virtual Connect Ethernet module?
A. Layer 2 switch
B. Layer 3 switch
C. pass-thru module
D. Ethernet port aggregator

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 28
Click the Exhibit button.

What does the illustration reveal about the hardware configuration of the HP Integrity BL860c server blade? (Select two.)
A. The LOM is not a Flex-10 module.
B. The Flex-10 interface is in mezzanine Slot 2.
C. Ports 5 and 6 are preferred for connectivity.
D. Ports 7 through 12 are defective.
E. VLANs A and B are incorrectly configured.
QUESTION 29
What is the advantage of using Virtual Connect Flex-10 technology in a VMware environment?
A. It becomes tightly linked with VMware for better management through vCenter.
B. It eliminates the limit on NIC connections imposed by default on each VMware server.
C. It enables full VLAN support in VMware including multiple tagging functionality.
D. It allows bandwidth to be allocated as necessary to each VMware service or application.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 30
What are valid reasons for creating trunk links between switches? (Select three.)
A. Standby link capabilities are available with dynamic trunks.
B. A greater number of VLANs can be supported.
C. Capacity is maximized by increasing the number of links available for data flow.
D. Guaranteed load balancing prevents unbalanced traffic load across links.
E. There is improved availability because of the lower risk of link failure.
F. The overall error count on the switch is decreased.

Correct Answer: ACE
QUESTION 31
Click the Exhibit button.

What is the status of the Windows Server 2008 NICs under View Network Connections with the server profile configuration shown in the exhibit?
A. Only the NICs represented by Ports 1 and 2 will be shown.
B. All the NICs will display as connected.
C. All the NICs will display as disconnected.
D. Two NICs will display as connected and six will display as disconnected.

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 32
What is the default global parameter setting for how Virtual Connect handles VLANs?
A. Native VLANs Tag mode
B. Tunnel VLANs Tag mode
C. Enable VLANs Tag mode
D. Map VLANs Tag mode Correct Answer: D QUESTION 33
What does a priority value of 101110 denote?
A. VLAN scheduling
B. Stacked QoS
C. Layer 2 QoS
D. Layer 3 QoS

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 34
When a Flex-10 server adapter is deployed in a Virtual Connect Flex-10 environment, how are the FlexNICs recognized by the operating system?
A. as individual 10GbE NICs, until the correct driver is loaded by the operating system at boot time
B. as individual NICs, after the correct license key has been loaded and verified by the Onboard Administrator
C. as individual 1GbE NICs, until the correct driver is loaded by the operating system at boot time
D. transparently, because the server ROM recognizes each FlexNIC as an individual NIC with its own driver Correct Answer: D QUESTION 35
How many BladeSystem c7000 enclosures are supported in a single Virtual Connect domain?
B. 4
C. 8
D. 16

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 36
Which management interface provides the administrator with the most control over switch parameters and monitoring functions?
A. SNMP
B. Web browser
C. Menu
D. CLI

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 37
You are creating a connection between multiple server blades and an external switch on a single VLAN. All traffic from the servers is tagged. What must you create within Virtual Connect if it is globally set for VLAN Tunnel mode?
A. simple vNET with Tunnel mode option enabled
B. Shared Uplink Set
C. simple vNET with Tunnel mode option disabled
D. untagged uplink trunk

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 38
Where are broadcasts flooded in Layer 2 switches?
A. to only those nodes in the same subnet as the originating node
B. through all ports except the port the broadcast came in on
C. through all ports in the same VLAN except the port it came in on
D. through all ports and all VLANs on the switch

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 39
Which tasks are only used for defining a Shared Uplink Set for Virtual Connect Ethernet? (Select three.)
A. Optionally set native VLAN.
B. Define server profile.
C. Assign one or multiple networks per server NIC.
D. Assign only one network per server NIC.
E. Select unassigned uplinks.
F. Specify VLAN names/IDs.

Correct Answer: ACF
QUESTION 40
What is required for a Layer 3 switch to route between directly connected VLANs? (Select two.)
A. IP routing must be globally enabled on the switch.
B. Dynamic Layer 3 routing protocol must be enabled and configured.
C. There must be multi-netted IP addresses on all VLAN interfaces on the switch.
D. An IP address must be configured for each VLAN that will be forwarded.
E. A DHCP helper address must be defined on each participating VLAN.
Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 41
In an IP subnet without VLANs, each subnet terminates at the interface. How are IP subnets with VLANs different?
A. VLAN IP subnets terminate at each port.
B. VLAN IP interfaces are more easily multi-netted with VLANs.
C. VLAN IP subnets allow for greater control with ACLs.
D. VLAN IP subnets are logically separated from the router.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 42
What is the function of the active member of a dynamic LACP trunk?
A. determines the trunk link used for each given Layer 2 node-to-node conversation
B. requests dynamic port utilization from the receiving node to the sending node to form the LACP trunk
C. listens for BPDUs and forms a dynamic trunk when a MAC address of the same partner is heard on multiple ports
D. sends BPDUs and forms a dynamic trunk if a partner hears its MAC address on multiple ports
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 43
What is a limitation of the VMware vNetwork standard switch?
A. Tagged VLANs are not supported in a virtual switch.
B. MAC forwarding tables are not implemented in a virtual switch.
C. Virtual machines cannot communicate through the virtual switch.
D. Spanning tree is not supported in a virtual switch.

Correct Answer: D

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