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Question No : 1
Which statement is true?
A. The UML is a development process for software intensive systems.
B. The UML is a process-dependent language used for visualizing software artifacts.
C. The UML is a modeling language for software blueprints.
D. The UML is a visual programming language.

Answer: C
Question No : 2
In which three ways does a structured class differ from a traditional class? (Choose three.)
A. It clearly defines the class boundary via an encapsulation shell.
B. It brings public interfaces into the class via ports.
C. It shows the role that the class plays.
D. It defines messages between itself and other classes.

Answer: A,B,C
Question No : 3
Which is a characteristic of a structured class?
A. must have one interface for each role it plays
B. can play only one role, no matter how many objects transact with it
C. can play multiple roles that vary on the objects that interact with it
D. is limited to one role, but can have multiple interfaces

Answer: C
Question No : 4
Which statement is true about an iterative development process?
A. Testing and integration take place in every iteration.
B. An iteration focuses on partial completion of selected use-case realizations.
C. It encourages user feedback in later iterations.
D. It is based on functional decomposition of a system.

Answer: A
Question No : 5
Which two statements are true about interfaces? (Choose two.)
A. The interface should have a clear purpose.
B. A single interface should include as many possible methods, if not all methods, that may be shared by objects that implement the interface.
C. An interface should be used to restrict which methods are exposed to a client.
D. Classes may have multiple interfaces depending on the purpose of each interface it implements.

Answer: A,D
Question No : 6
What is the focus of analysis?
A. translating functional requirements into code
B. translating requirements into a system design
C. translating real-world concepts into solution-oriented objects
D. translating functional requirements into software concepts

Answer: D
Question No : 7
Why is encapsulation important? (Choose two.)
A. It describes the relationship between two subclasses.
B. It places operations and attributes in the same object.
C. It allows other objects to change private operations and attributes of an object.
D. It prevents other objects from directly changing the attributes of an object.

Answer: B,D Question No : 8
What are analysis classes?
A. early conjectures on the composition of the system that usually change over time, rarely surviving intact into Implementation
B. incomplete classes that require a programmer to formalize operation signatures and attribute types before they can be implemented
C. the classes inside a systems Business Object or Domain Model, in UML form
D. a prototype of a systems user interface, developed during the Analysis Phase, which allows users to define the systems look and feel

Answer: A
Question No : 9
An architect looks at two classes. The first class has the following operations:
getName(),getSize(),getTotal(), and findAverage(). The second class has the following
operations:
getName(),getSize(), findAverage(), findMinimum(), and findMaximum(). The two classes

share
the same superclass. Which operations are most likely contained in the superclass?

A. getName(), getSize(), and findAverage()
B. findMaximum(), findMinimum(), getSize(), and getTotal()
C. getName(), findAverage(), and findMaximum()
D. getName(), getSize(), getTotal(), and findAverage()

Answer: A
Question No : 10
An architect is responsible for creating an Analysis Model for a system.
Which area of focus is essential for the creation of this model?
A. hardware on which the system will be deployed
B. behavior of the objects that comprise the system
C. evolution of analysis classes into design classes
D. performance requirements of the system

Answer: B
Question No : 11
What does a required interface do?
A. exposes services to anonymous requestors
B. uses the services that a classifier requires to request from anonymous providers
C. declares the services that a classifier offers to provide anonymous requestors
D. exposes methods that the requestor must use

Answer: B
Question No : 12
In a sequence diagram, each interaction on the diagram maps to _____.
A. a choice point on a state diagram
B. the transition on a state diagram
C. a state on the diagram
D. the initial state

Answer: B
Question No : 13
Which two QUESTION NO:s does the use of multiplicity on relationships allow you to answer? (Choose
two.)
A. Is the relationship mandatory or optional?
B. How many links can an object of one type maintain with objects of another type?
C. Is an object of a given type permitted to interact with objects of another type?
D. Is the relationship between objects permanent or temporary?

Answer: A,B
Question No : 14
What are two important considerations when diagramming state? (Choose two.)
A. Any time a message is received; there may be a change of state.
B. Any time a message is received; there must be a change of state.
C. Whenever there is a change of state, there is a transition.
D. Changing state may not change transition.

Answer: A,C
Question No : 15
Which statement is true about circular dependencies?
A. They do not matter.
B. They are prohibited.
C. They must be avoided.
D. When there are more than two packages, they are irrelevant.

Answer: C
Question No : 16
What is the purpose of Architectural Analysis?
A. to detail the design of the system
B. to review the architecture of the system
C. to define a candidate architecture for the system
D. to define the layers of the architecture

Answer: C Question No : 17
When the interfaces between two classes have been defined from a sequence diagram, the ports
are defined by the _____.
A. interface
B. operations the class performs
C. user of the system
D. attributes passed in the sequence diagram

Answer: A
Question No : 18
Which statement is true about attributes?
A. They cannot change once the object is instantiated.
B. They change value from object to object of the same class.
C. They can only be primitives.
D. They are required for every class.

Answer: B
Question No : 19
What are the three purposes of Analysis and Design? (Choose three.)
A. to provide an organizational context for the system
B. to transform the requirements into a design of the to-be system
C. to evolve a robust architecture for the system
D. to scope the system to be built and describe what it must do
E. to adapt the design to match the implementation environment
Answer: B,C,E

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QUESTION 21
Additional subsystems can be discovered during Use Case Design by noting _____.
A. common subflows between objects on several sequence diagrams
B. similar objects on several sequence diagrams
C. a consistent series of state transitions for multiple classes involved in a use-case realization
D. the same design classes involved in more than one use-case realization

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 22
Which activities are performed during Use Case Design?
A. converting analysis classes into design classes and design subsystems
B. describing persistence-related behavior
C. describing object interactions that implement interface operations
D. simplifying sequence diagrams using design classes

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 23
On a sequence diagram, what is used to represent a specific subsystem?
A. an interface that the subsystem realizes
B. a subsystem proxy
C. a subsystem component
D. a subsystem class

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 24
Which UML elements are used to describe the physical architecture of a system?
A. classes and relationships
B. objects and messages
C. subsystems and dependencies
D. nodes and connectors

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 25
Which artifact is used to describe use-case realizations?
A. textual use-case descriptions
B. communication diagrams
C. state charts
D. activity diagrams
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 26
What defines a subsystems responsibilities?
A. its internal class behavior
B. the operations of the interfaces it implements
C. the use-case realizations in which the subsystem appears
D. the operations on a class contained within the subsystem
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 27
Which is a design mechanism?
A. Persistency
B. ObjectStore Object-oriented Database
C. Distribution
D. Remote Method Invocation
Correct Answer: D QUESTION 28
To begin identifying design mechanisms, you start by categorizing analysis mechanisms. What are three steps in the process of Categorizing Analysis Mechanisms? (Choose three.)
A. identify characteristic profiles for each analysis mechanism
B. identify the clients of each analysis mechanism
C. assign a vendor implementation to each analysis mechanism
D. group clients according to their use of characteristic profiles

Correct Answer: ABD QUESTION 29
In Subsystem Design, what happens in the step, Distribute Subsystem Responsibilities?
A. The subsystems responsibilities are allocated to its internal design elements.
B. Each subsystem is checked to ensure it has a consistent set of responsibilities and inconsistentresponsibilities are reassigned to other subsystems.
C. Libraries and external APIs are identified to realize the subsystem behavior.
D. Distribution mechanisms are detailed for exposing subsystem interfaces.

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 30
Which entity has a well-defined boundary and identity that encapsulates state and behavior?
A. class
B. object
C. component
D. package

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 31
What is the purpose of the Identify Design Mechanisms activity?
A. to refine the analysis mechanisms and specify the exact implementation of the mechanism
B. to provide a conceptual set of services that is used by analysis objects
C. to refine analysis mechanisms into design mechanisms, based on the constraints imposed bythe implementation environment
D. to define design placeholders in the architecture so the architecting effort remains focused andis less likely to become sidetracked

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 32
In a dependency, through what reference does the client class gain visibility to the supplier?
A. local reference
B. parameter reference
C. global reference
D. field reference

Correct Answer: ABC QUESTION 33
In which Analysis and Design activity are subsystems mapped to analysis classes?
A. Architectural Analysis
B. Identify Design Elements
C. Identify Subsystems
D. Incorporate Existing Design Elements

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 34
Which design element is used to represent a concurrent object?
A. active class
B. capsule
C. design class
D. event

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 35
The Describe Distribution activity is where the processes defined in the Describe the Run-time Architecture activity are allocated to _____.
A. physical nodes
B. components
C. classes
D. activities

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 36
During Subsystem Design, how many interaction diagrams (sequence or communication) should be created?
A. at least one interaction diagram per interface operation
B. one interaction diagram per interface realization
C. at least one interaction diagram for each use of an external interface
D. one interaction diagram for each realizing class
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 37
A directed graph of nodes connected by transitions is a _____ diagram.
A. communication
B. sequence
C. component
D. state machine
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 38
Click on the exhibit button. . In the diagram, what is F?
A. fork
B. initial state
C. decision
D. transition
E. final state
F. event
G. state
H. guard condition

Correct Answer: F
QUESTION 39
Use Case Design is part of which workflow detail?
A. Design Use Cases
B. Analyze Behavior
C. Design Components
D. Design Classes and Subsystems

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 40
When does an analysis class map directly to a design class?
A. when the analysis class uses the <entity> stereotype
B. when the analysis class represents a single logical abstraction
C. when the modeling tool supports transformation of Analysis Models to Design
D. when an analyst has strong design skills

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 41
What is a design subsystems primary purpose?
A. provides configuration management and model organization
B. encapsulates behavior
C. packages similar design classes together
D. represents external systems

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 42
What is the purpose of subsystem design?
A. finalizes the details of each interface implemented by the subsystems in an application
B. breaks the system up into subsystems in order to allocate subsystems to development teams
C. defines the behaviors specified in the subsystem’s interfaces in terms of collaborations ofcontained design elements
D. defines on which tier each subsystem will be implemented and the communicationmechanisms used between them
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 43
Click on the exhibit button. . In the diagram, what are C1 and C2?
A. forks
B. initial states
C. decisions
D. transitions
E. final states
F. events
G. states

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QUESTION 1
Frances is debugging an iWidget that should show a loader bar until markup is generated and shown, leveraging only lifecycle functions. Right now, she can only see the loader bar, but nothing else happens in the iWidget. She has verified that all dependencies have loaded properly and that the elements have rendered. What should she verify next?
A. Verify that the onUnload method is properly modifying the page content after loading completes.
B. Verify the onLoad method kicked off background functions needed to render the markup.
C. Verify that the readyMarkup method is properly implemented.
D. Verify that the view is a supported mode for the iWidget.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 2
Tyson is the sole IBM WebSphere Portal administrator in his company. He has developed a portlet that uses content spots to bind certain portlet markup to users specific to a certain group accessing the portlet itself. What bindings can Tyson create to associate the users with the content spots to be shown?
A. He can use Personalization Rules based on user and group information, hiding and showing the content spots per each grouping as desired.
B. He can use the ContentPresentationModel to hide and show content spots based on any parameter included in the ContentPresentationResource and change the content spot based on the user’s group
C. He can store a personalization rule in the theme that creates a new version of the portlet for each user group automatically on first access, using the PortletClientModel and leveraging the PUMA UserGroup object
D. Portlets cannot include dynamic content spots.

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 3
A client wants to write several portlets for their new website. Each portlet must be labeled and record some trace information whenever it is accessed. The portlets must share common information with each other as well. When discussing best practices options with the client, which of the following would not be recommended?
A. Each portlet can be labeled by its own title bar.
B. JSPs should be used to separate output and functionality of the portlets.
C. Portlets communicate via writing to a common file in the root directory.
D. Trace information can be logged to log files.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 4
Bill is developing a user management application. He has access to custom JSP tags that use the PUMA SPI to perform all the required logic. What type of application would be best for Bill to use?
A. Bill should develop an iWidget.
B. Bill should create a Servlet that will generate the desired markup.
C. Bill should develop a portlet.
D. Bill should deploy his JSPs into the theme using webDAV.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 5
Wendy’s theme was recently installed on a server. A colleague provided her with theme components to deploy, which given design requirements, is packaged as an EAR file inside a compressed ZIP file. Which of the following is a valid option for deploying these components?
A. Use the web-dav-deploy-zip-file to deploy the compressed file. Use the IBM WebSphere Integrated Solutions console or scripts to deploy the EAR file. Use XMLAccess to import the components into the IBM WebSphere Portal server.
B. Use the web-dav-deploy-zip-file to deploy the compressed file. Use the webdav-expand-ear command to unpackage the EAR on the server, then register the new EAR on the WebSphere Integrated Solutions console.
C. Use the web-dav-deploy-zip-file to deploy the compressed file and use the XMLAccess command to run the script. Use the WebSphere Integrated Solutions console to add the runtime configuration.
D. EAR files must be deployed using the WebSphere Integrated Solutions console, so she must remove it from the ZIP archive and install it directly.

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 6
Chris wants to do performance tuning in his mobile theme. What would be the first step he should take to achieve this task?
A. Apply caching rules to the HTTP server.
B. Use a third-party minification tool to compress the JavaScript files.
C. Change dynacache settings.
D. Configure cache manifest file.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 7
Which of the following statements is true about the Unified Task List portlet?
A. The Unified Task List portlet integrates only with IBM WebSphere Process Server workflows.
B. The Unified Task List portlet can be customized to access, retrieve, and format tasks from multiple different backend workflow management systems.
C. The Unified Task List portlet offers built-in integration with IBM WebSphere Process Server workflows and IBM Web Content Manager workflows.
D. The Unified Task List portlet can integrate with any standard Java JCA connectors.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 8
What is a processing advantage of public parameters over event operations?
A. No action phase required.
B. No limits to the payload data.
C. No need to distribute events to portlets.
D. Notifications are handled by the browser.
E. No action phase required and no need to distribute events to portlets.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 9
MegaCorp is working on integrating one of their applications existing in non-IBM WebSphere Portal environments into WebSphere Portal. Which of the following options should they use for this purpose?
A. WebClipping Portlet International Edition
B. IntegrationPortlet
C. WebClipping Portlet
D. IntegrationPortlet_jsEnabled

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 10
Which of the following statements describes the value of the Vendor variable from the following portlet code? Profile p = (Profile) portletRequest.getAttribute(PortletRequest.CCPP_PROFILE); String vendor = p.getAttribute(“Vendor”).toString();
A. It contains the name of the vendor of the IBM WebSphere Portal server.
B. It contains the name of the vendor of the client browser or device.
C. It contains the value of the configuration key “vendor” for the Profile configuration service.
D. It contains the value of the “vendor” attribute for an identified or authenticated user or null for an anonymous user.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 11
John is developing a portlet that uses the portlet client model API to manipulate a user’s profile on the client side. How can he get the object of the PortletWindow that represents the portlet on the client side?
A. new ibm.portal.portlet.PortletWindow(“<%=portletWindowID%>”)
B. new ibm.portal.portlet.PortletWindow()
C. this.getPortletWindow()
D. this.getPortletWindow(“<%=portletWindowID%>”)

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 12
The javax.portlet.GenericPortlet abstract class provides default functionality and convenience methods for handling portlet requests. It provides a default implementation for which interfaces from the javax.portlet package?
A. EventPortlet, Portlet, PortletConfig, PortletContext
B. Portlet, PortletConfig, PortletPreferences, PortletSession
C. EventPortlet, Portlet, PortletConfig, ResourceServingPortlet
D. EventPortlet, Portlet, PortletPreferences, PortletSession

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 13
Which of the following statements is true when using a resource URL in AJAX?
A. Changing state of the portlet is not allowed during the serveResource() method.
B. The portlet mode and window state can be changed during the serveResource() method.
C. New render parameters can be set during the serveResource() method.
D. Portlet preferences can be set during the serveResource() method.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 14
Which of the following is a false statement about limitations for a WSRP producer portlet?
A. WSRP producer portlets cannot use PUMA SPI for accessing user information.
B. WSRP producer portlets cannot access portlet render parameters.
C. WSRP producer portlets cannot use IBM WebSphere Portal internals in portlets such as engine objects or engine tags.
D. WSRP producer portlets do not support edit_defaults_compatibility portlet mode.
Correct Answer: B QUESTION 15
Which is not a valid CSS style defined in the JSR 286 Portlet Specification?
A. portlet-a
B. portlet-font
C. portlet-msg-info
D. portlet-section-text

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 16
The following code defines the selectEmployee() method in a portlet:
@processAction(name=select) void selectEmployee(ActionRequest, ActionResponse) throws
PortletException, java.io.IOException { } To use the portlet action dispatching, which of the following key-
value pairs must be set as a parameter in the HTML form?

A. processAction / select
B. processAction / selectEmployee
C. javax.portlet.action / select
D. javax.portlet.action / selectEmployee

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 17
Bill is developing a portlet that uses AJAX to retrieve information from the server. In the serveResource() method first he is setting “AdminName” request attribute and then forwarding control to a JSP for generating markup. Using best practices, how should he print the “AdminName” attribute inside the JSP?
A. <%=resourceRequest.getAttribute(“AdminName”)%>
B. <%=renderRequest.getAttribute(“AdminName”)%>
C. ${requestScope.AdminName}
D. ${portalRequest.AdminName}

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 18
Evan wants to develop a portlet to act as a target using click-to-action. He wants to develop a client-side click-to-action handler. Which best describes the ways that he can get the source data submitted by the source portlet?
A. He can retrieve the source form and the input inside from the page Document Object Model.
B. He can retrieve the source data from the window.ibm.portal.c2a.event.value global variable.
C. Either of the above.
D. None of the above.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 19
Given the following code in the portlet.xml file, what line of code returns the value of the “test” init-param. <portlet-class>MyPortlet</portlet-class> <init-param> <name>test</name> <value>test_init_parameter</ value> </init-param>
A. renderRequest.getInitParameter(“test”);
B. renderRequest.getPortalContext().getInitParameter(“test”);
C. portletConfig.getInitParameter(“test”);
D. renderResponse.getInitParameter(“test”);

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 20
The following section of a portlet deployment descriptor defines the cache setting for a portlet: <expiration-cache>300</expiration-cache> <cache-scope>private</cache-scope> What is the meaning of this cache definition?
A. The content should be cached for 300 seconds and must not be shared across users.
B. The content should be cached for 300 milliseconds and must not be shared across users.
C. The content should be cached for 300 seconds and can be shared across users.
D. The content should be cached for 300 milliseconds and can be shared across users.

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 21
PreferencePortlet is Portlet Specification 2.0-compliant and the system is running IBM WebSphere Portal
8.0. What is the output of the following code? public PreferencePortlet extends GenericPortlet{ protected void processAction(ActionRequest actionRequest, ActionResponse) { actionRequest.getPreferences().setValue(“test”,”ViewModePreferenceValue”); actionRequest.getPreferences().store(); } protected void doView(RenderRequest renderRequest, RenderResponse renderResponse) throws PortletException, IOException { // Generate action URL }
A. The container throws java.lang.IllegalStateException because it is not allowed to change preferences in the processAction() method.
B. The code compiles and executes fine. It stores a “test” preference at the end of the processAction() method call.
C. The container throws javax.portlet.ReadOnlyException because it is only allowed to view preferences in the processAction() method.
D. This code results in a compiler error because PortletPreference does not have the store() method.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 22
In the case of a processAction or serveResource call, what is the expected behavior if an action or resource parameter has the same name as a public render parameter?
A. The public render parameter is ignored.
B. The public render parameter values must be the last entries in the parameter value array.
C. The public render parameter is appended with a unique identifier to distinguish it from the action/ resource parameter.
D. The public render parameter takes precedence and overwrites the value of the action/resource parameter.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 23
If Lola needs to create a resource collection, which of the following options must she define?
A. An instance of the following:
-com.ibm.websphere.personalization.ResourceCollection
B. An instance of either of the following:
-com.ibm.websphere.resources.ResourceCollectionImpl
-com.ibm.websphere.resources.ResourceManager
C. An instance of one of the following:
-com.ibm.websphere.personalization.resources.Resource
-com.ibm.websphere.personalization.resources.ResourceManager3
-com.ibm.websphere.personalization.resources.ResourceDomain3
-com.ibm.websphere.personalization.resources.AuthIDTranslator
D. An instance of either of the following:
-com.ibm.websphere.personalization.ResourceCollectionImpl
-com.ibm.websphere.resources.ResourceManager

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 24
Matt is developing an interactive AJAX widget that will allow content approvers to review content without leaving their home page. Which IBM Web Content Manager API feature should he use?
A. Web Services
B. JSP Tags
C. REST Services
D. Managed Pages

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 25
Which of the following options is valid about downloadable portlets from the IBM Collaboration Solutions Catalog?
A. Only portlets developed by IBM are hosted by the Collaboration Solutions Catalog website.
B. Portlets available for download follow open standards.
C. Portlets available for download are free, trial-based, or fee-based.
D. Portlets available for download should not be used in the production environment.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 26
Which one of the following statements is valid regarding credential objects?
A. Credential objects are serializable.
B. To create a slot for storing active credentials, set the active parameter of the CredentialVaultService.createSlot method to true.
C. Passive credential objects hide the credential’s secret from the portlet.
D. Portlets that use active credential objects need to extract the secret from the credential to authenticate with the backend.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 27
The XYZ company has a custom portlet that provides access to data from the company’s mainframe. Twice a day, the mainframe performs a batch process to update the data. During the batch process, the portlet cannot access the data. Which one of the following options allows Sara to hide the portlet during the batch processing times?
A. Use the Policy editor to create a portlet availability policy, then use the Page Layout editor to assign the policy to the portlet.
B. Use the Policy editor to create a portlet availability policy and to assign the policy to the portlet.
C. Use the Personalization editor to create a portlet visibility rule, then use the Page Layout editor to assign the rule to the portlet.
D. Use the Personalization editor to create a portlet visibility rule and to assign the rule to the portlet.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 28
When creating and registering a custom portlet service, it is possible to set initialization parameters. What code would Adrienne use to access a parameter with the name sample.portletservice.HelloServiceImpl2.message?

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QUESTION NO: 1

Mac is planning a Change Control application that will be used by thousands of staff located in 10 different countries. What is one thing Mac can do to help optimize the performance of the application for his users?
A. On the Advanced tab of Database properties, enable “Support specialized response hierarchy” and enable “Allow simple search”.
B. On the Advanced tab of Database properties, enable “Don’t support specialized response hierarchy” and disable “Allow simple search”.
C. Use File > Application > New Copy to create a copy of the application on a server in each country, and have users access the application from a local server.
D. Use File > Replication > New Replica to create a replica of the application on a server in eachcountry, and have users access the application from a local server.
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 2
Joe wants to display a company logo in the background of a view in his sales application. How can he do this?
A. Use an Image Resource as the background graphic for the view.
B. Use a URL as the background graphic for the view, where the URL points to the logo.
C. Display the view in a frameset, and set the background of the view’s frame to an Image Resource or URL depicting the logo.
D. He can’t do this. Views cannot have background graphics.
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 3
Herb has some data to display in a form, and he would like to have it appear in a formatted grid. What option would he use to format this data layout?
A. Create – Table
B. Create – Layer
C. Create – Section – Table
D. Create – Layout Region – Table
Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 4

Cherylewould like to have access to her mail file while she is traveling and disconnected from thenetwork. Once she arrives at her destination, she wants to connect to the network and
synchronize her mail file updates with the server version of her mail file. How can she accomplishthis?
A. Create a local copy of her mail file.
B. Create a local replica of her mail file.
C. Create a local mirror copy of her mail file.
D. Create a local synchronized copy of her mail file.
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 5
Molly has a Notes application that is used by employees in Europe and Japan. Each group of employees has a server that is in their geographical location. Molly needs to have versions of herapplication in both locations for efficient access, and the application data and design must staysynchronized in both locations. How can Molly accomplish this?
A. Create a copy of the database in each location by using the menu option File > Application > New Copy.
B. Create a replica of the database in each location by using the menu option File > Replication > New ReplicA.
C. Create a mirror of the database in each location by using the menu option File > Application > New Mirror.
D. Create a synchronized copy of the database in each location by using the menu option File > Synchronization > New Copy.
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 6
Tony wants to create a duplicate of the Video application. He wants to keep a version of the data on the same server as the production application but does not want any new documents or documentmodifications to be replicated into his new database once he creates it. Which one of thefollowing should Tony do to create his archive?
A. Create a new copy of the database.
B. Create a replica copy of the database.
C. Use Windows Explorer to create a copy of the database file.
D. Create a replica copy of the database and disable replication on the database properties.
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 7
Which one of the following database elements is NOT updated when the DESIGN task is run?
A. Forms
B. Views
C. Roles
D. Agents
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 8
Christopher is making a new application using the NewVideo Design Template that he plans tocustomize. He wants to make sure that his new application will not get future modifications to the NewVideo Design Template. Which one of the following should Christopher do to accomplishthis?
A. Create a blank application and refresh the design of the new application using theNewVideo Design Template.
B. Create the new application from theNewVideo Design Template and deselect “Inherit future designchanges” in the New Application dialog box.
C. Create the new application from theNewVideo Design Template and select “Lock Design Documents” in the application Design properties dialog box.
D. Create the new application from theNewVideo Design Template and then open the applicationDesign properties and select “Database is a master template.”
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 9
Colby has a default level access of Author in the Suggestion database. She created a new suggestion, but was unable to edit the document later. Why would this problem occur?
A. The document does not have a Readers type field.
B. The document form does not have an Authors type field.
C. She needs the “Edit document” option added to her access.
D. She needs at least Editoraccess to edit her documents in the database.
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 10
Shandi has created a Suggestion database in Designer. She would like to create additional databasesbased on the Suggestion database design, and she would like to have them automaticallyupdated whenever she changes the original design. How would she accomplish this?
A. Select the Database Inheritance option for “Allow inheritance” in the additional databases.
B. Select the Database Inheritance option for “Inherit from master template” in the additional databases.
C. Select the Database Inheritance option for “Database file is a master template” in the originalSuggestion database.
D. Select the Database Inheritance option for “Allow other databases to inherit design” in the originalSuggestion database.
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 11
Greg created a new database that will be used by members of the Accounting department. He seesthat there is a group in the Domino Directory that already contains all of the members of theAccounting department, and it is a “Mail only” group. How can he use that group in the ACL of his database, to control access?
A. He needs to change the group type to “Mail and ACL”
B. He needs to change the group type to “Multi-purpose”
C. He doesn’t need to do anything. All group types can be used for ACL access.
D. He has to create a copy of the group, and make the new group of type “Access Control List only”. Groups can be used for mail or ACL access, but not both.
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 12
Tim has enabled document locking in the Sales application. He has noticed some documents thathave been locked for several hours. The users tell him that their computers crashed while theywere working on documents. What can Tim do to unlock the documents?
A. Have an administrator runfixup on the database.
B. Write an agent to run on selected documents. Use the formula: FIELD $Lock := @DeleteField
C. Have someone with Manageraccess right-click on a locked document and select Unlock Document.
D. The nightly compact of the database will unlock the documents. Tim can also manually compact the database.
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 13
AJ wants to create a new application on his laptop that does not have any design elements in it.
Which one of the following should he do to begin this process?
A. Select File > Application > New and assign a filename of _blank.nsf.
B. Select File > Application > New. Designate “Local” as the server, and select “-Blank-” as the template.
C. Select File > Application > New. Designate “Local” as the server, and assign a filename of _blank.nsf.
D. Select File > Application > New. Designate “Local” as the server, and select “-Default-” as thetemplate.
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 14
Ken would like to allow remote salespeople to replicate information from the videoinfo.nsf application to their laptops, so that the replications are fast and the application on each laptop isn’t too big. Each salesperson should replicate only the information from their territory. Which one of the following does Ken need to do to configure this?
A. Use a selective replicationformulA.
B. Give the salespeople Reader access to the application.
C. Give theSalesPeople group the [TerritoryOnly] role.
D. UseAuthorName fields to limit access to information.
Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 15

Mickey wants to allow soft deletions in his database. How does he enable this?
A. By checking the Advanced Database Property, “Allow soft deletions”.
B. By checking the Form Property “Allow soft deletions”, for all Forms that should have this property.
C. He doesn’t need to do anything. All databases on a Domino 5 or higher server have soft deletionsenabled automatically.
D. By adding a field called $SoftDelete, with a computed value of “1”, to all documents that shouldhave soft deletions enabled
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 16
Malik needs to find all the design elements that reference a particular field in his database. How could he accomplish this?
A. Edit – Find Next
B. Edit – Find/Replace
C. File – Application – Analyze Design
D. File – Application – Design Synopsis
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 17
Nadia would like to position overlapping blocks of content on a form in the Video application. She wants the flexibility to control the placement, size, and content of the information. Which one of the following should Nadia use when creating her form?
A. Layers
B. Subforms
C. Framesets
D. Style Sheets
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 18
Stacee has been asked to add a feature to the Video Rental application. Users should be able to dragvideos into a “Favorites” area for future access. What design feature would allow Stacee to addthis functionality?
A. Views
B. Agents
C. Folders
D. Custom User Views
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 19
Luigi has been asked to create a view that shows the rental history of each video that’s been checkedout. The view should be sorted by the name of the video, and all the entries for a particularvideo should be grouped together. How would he accomplish this?
A. Create a Grouping view with theVideoTitle field as the first column, and set the Sort option toAscending.
B. Create a view with theVideoTitle field as the first column, and set the Grouping option for the view to Ascending – Categorized.
C. Create a view with theVideoTitle field as the first column, and set the Sort option for that
column to Ascending and the Type option to Categorized.
D. Create a view with theVideoTitle field as the first hidden column, and set the Sort option forthat column to Ascending and the Type option to Categorized.
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 20
When Marc creates a new document in the Suggestion database, he sees short descriptions of thefields at the bottom of the form. What design feature has been used to create this behavior?
A. Default Value for the field
B. Field Hint in the Field Properties dialog box
C. Help Description in the Field Properties dialog box
D. Field Assistance in the Field Properties dialog box
Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 21

Yuri created a formula for a button. The code is supposed to set the value of an existing field
calledTitle. He used the following formula:
Title:= @Propercase(Title);
“”
After the formula runs, the Title field has not changed. Which one of the following is the
reason?

A. The value of one field cannot be set from the value in another field.
B. The text string in the formula is set to null. Thus Notes cannot validate theformulA.
C. When setting the value of a field, the formula must be in the field’s Input Validation event.
D. The formula does not specify that Title is an existing field. Thus it is interpreted as a temporaryvariable.
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 22
Hans is enhancing the Sales application. He has noticed that in the Customers view there are severalcolumns for which the column headers do not quite fit within the column width. What is one way Hans can correct this without manually resizing each column?
A. Open the view Properties. Open the Style tab. In the Header section, set Height to “2”.
B. Open the view Properties. Open the Style tab. In the Header section, set Style to “Autowrap”.
C. Open the view Properties. Open the Style tab. In the Other section, select “Auto-fit column width”
D. Open the view Properties. Open the Style tab. In the Other section, select “Extend columns toheader width”.
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 23
Norma has a form action that will allow users to create comments for the existing document. When Norma views the form in her Web Browser, she sees the action, but when she opens the form in her Notes client the action is not visible. Which one of the following should she do to correct the problem?
A. Make sure the comments form has a default access for all readers and above.
B. Make the action a shared action and disable the Hide-when settings for “Web browsers”.
C. Check that the Web Access property for the Action Bar is not set to “Display Using Java Applet” D. Check the action Hide-when settings to make sure the action is available for “Notes 4.6 or later”.
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 24
Hans created a Response document that appears as “Not Categorized” in a database view. He intended the document to appear in the view as a response to a review document. Which one of thefollowing could have caused the problem?
A. Form Type is set to Document.
B. Form Type is set to Response to Response.
C. View Selection formula is set to: SELECT Form = “Review” & @Isresponsedoc.
D. View Selection formula is set to: SELECT Form = “Review” | @AllDescendants.
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 25
Barney created a form that has a field that should always be a number with exactly two decimal places. How does he make sure the field value will have the correct number of decimal places?
A. It should be a field of type “Currency”.
B. It should be a Number field, with an Input Translation formula of:@Decimal(@ThisValue; 2).
C. It should be a Text field, with an Input Translation formula of: @TextToNumber(@ThisValue; 2).
D. It should be a Number field, with the “Decimal Places” option set to “Fixed”, and a value of
2.
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 26
Shantille has written an agent to send a nightly report of all new Change Control documents createdduring the workday. The Change Control application exists on multiple servers, and Shantilleneeds to ensure that only one report is sent each night, reporting all new Change Controls, regardless of the server on which they were created. How should Shantille schedule heragent?
A. Trigger: “On schedule” Runtime: “Daily”
Set “Run on” to be one specific server

B. Trigger: “On schedule” Runtime: “Daily – run once”
Set “Run on” to be “-Any Server-”

C. Trigger: “On schedule” Runtime: “Daily”
From the hub server, set “Run on” to be “Local”

D. Trigger: “On schedule”
Runtime: “Daily – run once”
From the hub server, set “Run on” to be “Local”

Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 27
Orlando wrote an agent to generate a weekly email that summarizes all the activity in the Video Rental application. The database resides on the PROD01 server with a replica on the BACKUP01 server. He is receiving two copies of the email every week. What is the cause of thisproblem?
A. The agent is set to run on “Any Server”.
B. The “RestartOn Failure” setting has been selected.
C. The agent is set to run on both PROD01 and BACKUP01.
D. The agent is set to run on “Local” as well as the PROD01 server.
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 28
Mary would like to display a collapsed section on her Video Catalog form. She has created a section but when she displays the form in the Notes client the section always opens expanded. Which one of the following should Mary do to collapse the section?
A. Nothing; sections always open expanded.
B. Change the section type from “standard” to “controlled access”.
C. Modify the form properties to display all sections collapsed.
D. Modify the section Opened for Reading property to auto-collapse.
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 29
The “Show Single Category” option of an Embedded View does what?
A. Dynamically adds a category column to a view, based on a formula
B. Displays only a single column of a view, based on a formula filter
C. Displays only a single section of a categorized view, based on a formula
D. Combines certain documents in the view to display in a single view category, based on a formulafilter
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 30
Derek has created a view in the Orders application. Derek wants the Order Amount column in theview to be punctuated to display two decimal places. Which one of the following should Derek do?
A. Set the column value to use Formula, and use this code:
@Text( OrderAmount; *0.nn)

B. Set the column value to use Formula, and use this code:
@Format( OrderAmount; CURRENCY )

C. On the Style tab of View Properties, enable “Currency” as the value for the Numbers option.

D. On the Advanced Format tab of the Column Properties,
Select “Number” for the Style. In the Decimal places section, deselect “Varying” and designate
2 as the value for “Fixed”

Answer: D

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QUESTION: 1 In general, how much space will a DB2 enabled Notes database utilize as compared to a replica in the standard NSF format?
A. Equal size
B. Half the size
C. Two times more
D. Four times more
Answer: D
QUESTION: 2 The user name that creates the original DB2 database must be a member of which of the following groups?
A. SYSADM
B. MANAGERS
C. DB2ADMIN
D. ADMINISTRATORS

Answer: A
QUESTION: 3 The DB2 Access server facilitates your use of the Lotus Domino Designer view functions for DB2. Which of the following are enabled by installing the DB2 Access server?
A. Replication
B. DB2 group locking
C. ACLs and reader lists
D. DB2 container storage

Answer: C
QUESTION: 4
You want to restrict simple search to enhance server performance by preventing
users from searching databases on a server that do not have full-text search enabled.
In which of the following locations is this configured?
A. The server document
B. The server notes.ini
C. The server configuration document
D. The advanced properties of each database

Answer: D
QUESTION: 5 Satchel, the Domino administrator, is attempting to implement design note compression on the resource database. He is unable, though, to see the property selection to enable this feature. Which of the following is preventing him from seeing this selection in the database properties box?
A. He is not manager of the database
B. He has not deferred index creation
C. He has not enabled the new Domino 8 ODS
D. He does not have the designer client installed on his workstation

Answer: C
QUESTION: 6 Martin has been directed to configure Sametime integration for Domino Web Access (DWA) on the Domino 8 server. Which of the following is required in the server document for Sametime to function correctly inside of DWA?
A. JavaServlet Manager
B. HTTPServlet Manager
C. DominoServlet Manager
D. Sametime Servlet Manager

Answer: C
QUESTION: 7 Which of the following is required on the WebSphere server for Lotus Notes users who use composite applications that contain portlet elements?

A. A Lotus Notes 8 client
B. Server client installer
C. The user’s Lotus Notes id file
D. A Domino 8 server installation

Answer: B
QUESTION: 8 Each time David restarts the agent manager, certain agents that should run only once are running unscheduled. Which of the following steps may he perform to alleviate the issue while still allowing the agents to run as required?
A. Set the agents to run on server restart only
B. Remove the server name from the agent security tab
C. Set the agent manager not to start by removing it from the notes.ini server tasks line
D. Make copies of the necessary agents into a new database and move that database out of the data directory until necessary

Answer: A
QUESTION: 9 Troy, the Domino administrator, needs to update the Lotus Notes Standard 8.x users with a Lotus Notes maintenance release and a new shelf application. Which of the following is needed to perform this update?
A. Smart Update
B. Siteupdate.nsf
C. Site Upgrade and Lotus Links
D. Smart Upgrade and Siteupdate.nsf

Answer: D
QUESTION: 10 Directory assistance in Lotus Domino 8 enables you to specify when a secondary directory must be used only for authentication. This provides which of the following features?

A. This blocks email from being forwarded to adjacent domains
B. This avoidsNAMELookups to reduce the number of ambiguous Name dialog boxes
C. Thishelp you validate your choice of host name for receiving authentication requests
D. This scans group member lists to ensure that each member exists in an available directory that is configured in directory assistance

Answer: B
QUESTION: 11 You are enabling a policy for the Productivity Tools. Which of the following is NOT available to configure in this policy?
A. The ability to open SmartSuite files
B. The ability to allow the user to run macros
C. The ability to allow the use of Productivity Tools
D. The ability to restrict attaching Productivity Tool documents

Answer: D
QUESTION: 12 Which of the following mail features are not available in the basic version of the Lotus Notes client?
A. Message recall
B. Attention indicators
C. Choice of preview pane location
D. Reply to all without attachments

Answer: C
QUESTION: 13 Which of the following determines which features are available during Lotus Notes install, update, and remove functions?
A. Site.xml
B. Smart upgrade

C. Desktop policy
D. Install manifest

Answer: D
QUESTION: 14 The Lotus Notes 8 and integrated Sametime client may access the provisioning server through which of the following methods?
A. SSL only
B. HTTP only
C. HTTP and NRPC
D. SSL and SSO only

Answer: B
QUESTION: 15
Which of the following is required to be enabled for Server Fast Restart to function?

A. Cleanup Script
B. Fault Recovery
C. maximum Fault Limits
D. Server Shutdown Timeout

Answer: B
QUESTION: 16 You have elected to create a marker so clients can update their reference to a database called MARKETING.NSF. You did not select a designated destination server. Which of the following is the result of this action?
A. The client will remove the bookmark reference for the database
B. The client will search all servers in the domain for a replica of the database and modify the bookmark
C. The client will search all known cluster servers only for a replica of the database and modify the bookmark
D. The client will prompt the user to specify servers to search for a replica of the database and modify the bookmark
Answer: A
QUESTION: 17 The Marble Corporation has chosen to allow users the ability to initiate Eclipse updates. In which of the following locations do they enable this ability?
A. The server document
B. The security policy document
C. The server configuration document and the client notes.ini
D. The desktop policy document and the plugin_customization.ini file

Answer: D
QUESTION: 18
An organization has sent you a copy of their update site database for you to import.
However, all of the features that are embedded point to their server over HTTP.
Your company will not allow the Notes client to access that server. Which of the
following describes the best solution?

A. Rebuild the application to point to an alternate update site
B. Use the Composite Applications Editor to specify your update site for feature requirements
C. Extract all of the features and site.xml in the provided site update database and import the features back into your update site
D. Delete the features from the provided site update database and import your features into the provided database and point users to the remote HTTP server

Answer: B
QUESTION: 19 Denny, a Notes user, maintains a large amount of mail in his inbox. The administrator has designated that Inbox Cleanup will occur on mail older than 14 days. Which of the following is the result of the administrator enabling this feature?
A. All mail older than 14 days will be removed from the inbox
B. All mail older than 14 days will be deleted from themailfile
C. All mail older than 14 days will be moved to a new folder titled “expired” D. All mail older than 14 days will be moved to the trash folder and must be restored by the user
Answer: A
QUESTION: 20 Which of the following type of permanent failure response is sent when you enable the Domino server to reject ambiguous names through directory lookups against the primary Domino directory?
A. Mailbox unavailable
B. The recipient is unknown
C. The mail server is unavailable
D. The recipient is rejected for policy reasons

Answer: D
QUESTION: 21 Users are utilizing mail rules to forward messages to other devices. Many of these messages are being blocked by spam filters due to a lack of sending server information to prevent delivery status reports. Which of the following may be utilized to provide valid sending server information?
A. Verify sender DNS
B. Pre-delivery agents
C. Reverse path settings
D. Allow authenticated hosts

Answer: C
QUESTION: 22 Rob, the Domino administrator, has enabled RSS feeds for Domino Web Access mailfiles so users may retrieve their mail through RSS feed readers. Users, though, are unable to authenticate through the feed readers. Which of the following is the cause?
A. The server RSS task must be started

B. Internet password lockout must be disabled
C. The users Internet password must be less than 6 in quality
D. Basic authentication must be enabled instead of forms-based

Answer: D
QUESTION: 23 Mail has been sitting in mail.box for an extended period of time. Which of the following controls the notification to users that their mail has not been sent to the intended recipient?
A. Mail non-delivery report
B. Mail delivery notification
C. Delay notification interval
D. Delivery status notification

Answer: C
QUESTION: 24 While in her mailfile, Melissa is attempting to view message history through mail threads. She had mistakenly deleted a message that was sent in the middle of the message thread. Which of the following describes how Domino will handle her viewing the mail thread with missing messages?
A. She will be unable to view the message thread with no error reported
B. She will successfully view the remainder of the messages as a mail thread
C. She will receive a prompt that messages in the thread are missing and will be unable to see the mesage thread
D. She will receive a prompt that messages in the thread are missing and will be allowed to see the message thread

Answer: B
QUESTION: 25 Your environment is receiving Microsoft TNEF mail messages with attachments users are unable to open. In which of the following locations is the TNEF convertor enabled?
A. Theusers mailfile

B. Theusers local client
C. On a Domino SMTP server
D. The server configuration document

Answer: C
QUESTION: 26
The server Out of Office service is configured in which of the following locations?

A. Server document
B. Server configuration document
C. Mail.box on the Domino 8 mail server
D. In each user’smailfile the service is to be enabled

Answer: B
QUESTION: 27 Philipe has enabled the Message Recall feature on the Domino 8 server, but, he did not specify any values for the configuration options. Which of the following is the result of this action?
A. The default values
B. It will ignore the enablement of Message Recall
C. The user will receive a prompt with options to select
D. The server will send a non-delivery report back to the user sending the email message

Answer: A
QUESTION: 28
The new Out of Office service supports which of the following time periods?

A. More than one hour but less than one day
B. More than ten minutes but less than one week
C. More than five minutes but less that one month
D. More than thirty minutes but less than eight hours

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QUESTION 1
Which of the following is NOT true how IBM Mobile Customer Engagement (Xtify) helps marketers increase customer engagement and revenue?
A. Ability to send personalized messages to mobile web browsers and mobile app users
B. Enable security and management access to mobile and web applications with single sign-on, session management and context-based access control
C. Ability to send personalized messages to a dynamic set of individuals based on expressed preferences
D. Ability to quickly and easily personalize mobile offers in real-time, and integrate and execute mobile cross-channel marketing campaigns

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 2
Which of the following is NOT considered a characteristic of a mobile leader?
A. Leaders secure and manage the mobile enterprise to optimize performance
B. Leaders should not expect to realize ROI from mobile initiatives
C. Leaders use insights to engage their customers wherever they are
D. Leaders build apps that unlock core business knowledge

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 3
The IBM Mobile Customer Engagement (Xtify) portfolio includes everything EXCEPT:
A. XML-formatted documents
B. Native Push
C. Rich Push
D. Web Push
E. SMS solutions

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 4
Nearly all Mobile AppDev teams are using Agile methods. What agile capabilities are integrated in DevOps for Mobile’s Collaborative Development?
A. Agile planning, task tracking, source control, and continuous integration builds
B. User Experience Design, Agile Whiteboarding, Performance Testing
C. SCRUM Master task boarding
D. Jira, Subversion, and Jenkins
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 5
All of the following are features of IBM Worklight EXCEPT:
A. Cross-platform development
B. Secure individual mobile transactions such as payments, credits or debits
C. Unified push notification architecture.
D. Control and management of multiple application versions
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 6

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QUESTION 1
IBM Software Subscription & Support includes what two of the following components?
A. Premium support and version upgrades/rights.
B. Business partner services and version upgrades/rights.
C. Technical support and version upgrades/rights.
D. Technical support and Premium Support.
Correct Answer: C Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
A comprehensive product upgrade and Technical Support solution, IBM Software Subscription and Support, available through IBM Passport Advantage and Passport Advantage Express, delivers: product upgrades–new releases and new versions–at your convenience phone and online Technical Support–when, where, and how you choose
QUESTION 2
How can you determine if a quote line item is prorated to align it with the client `s anniversary date?
A. There is an incident in front of prorated line items.
B. The renewal line item coverage dates are less than 12 months.
C. The renewal line item coverage dates are for a full 12 months.
D. There is no way to tell.
Correct Answer: C Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
* Since the order must be placed before the renewal line item due date for the incentive to apply, only Subscription & Support line items with a renewal line item due date AFTER (but not including) April 1, 2013 qualify in North America. In Europe, the start date for this incentive is July 1, 2013 for Subscription & Support renewal line items with due dates AFTER (but not including) July 1, 2013.
QUESTION 3
If your client has questions about their use of technical support and software downloads, who should they call?
A. IBM Technical Support Team
B. IBM Software Renewals Representative
C. IBM Software Client Leader
D. IBM Business Partner Sales Representative
Correct Answer: A Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
A comprehensive product upgrade and Technical Support solution, IBM Software Subscription and Support, available through IBM Passport Advantage and Passport Advantage Express, delivers: product upgrades–new releases and new versions–at your convenience phone and online Technical Support–when, where, and how you choose
QUESTION 4
How does a Reseller/VAD obtain their Renewal Data?
A. Resellers/VAD proactively pull their data.
B. The client emails their Reseller their renewal quote.

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What is the problem BigInsights solves for our customer?
A. Our customers want Hadoop to be able to analyze data in motion.
B. Our customers want to manage new data sources in an efficient way. They want to acquire, grow & analyze data in order to stay competitive & grow their business.
C. Our customers want to explore data, extract, load, and transform the data into trusted information then move into a PureData for Analytics environment for analysis.
D. Our customers want to have a single view of the customer and maintain the ‘golden’ record of enterprise information that will be ‘pushed’ to every application that needs that information.

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 2
If a prospect states that in general the Data Warehouse Era is over, what would be a good reply?
A. Yes, most Data Warehouses are obsolete.
B. Yes, but we have enterprise ready Hadoop.
C. No, newer technologies are improving current Data Warehouses performance and functionality.
D. No, Hadoop is not a proven technology and could easily fail to meet expectations.

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 3
Why is IBM a strong player in Data Warehouse Modernization?
A. IBM employs proven solutions that help clients
B. IBM is the only vendor to bring cognitive capabilities into the data warehouse picture
C. IBM has the deepest patent assets and investment of any vendor
D. All of the above

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 4
What are compelling reasons for a business to act on modernization?
A. IT has significant staffing levels that attempt to manage data complexity
B. Data Warehouse capabilities are not keeping up with business expectations
C. Their competitors are leveraging big data
D. B and C

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 5
Which of the following is probably not a good candidate for Operations Analysis? Someone who is:
A. Having difficulty dealing with large volumes of machine data
B. Unable to perform complex real-time analysis
C. Looking to extend the data warehouse
D. Unable to perform root cause analysis

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 6
Customer sentiment is typically discovered through analysis of this type of data:

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QUESTION 1
Which term below best describes the selected cell in the crosstab?

A. Level
B. member
C. Tuple
D. Revenue
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 2
When would a report author define a set?
A. To create a slicer to focus on a specific number of years of data in a report.
B. To change the crosstab node member properties for a level.
C. To use as a summary function to return the total of the specified members.
D. To return members from different hierarchies of the same dimension.

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 3
What kind of authoring style uses the filter function?
A. Relational
B. Conformed
C. Dimensional
D. DMR

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 4
In a crosstab, Campaign is in the rows area, Order method type is in the columns area, and Quantity is the measure. Campaign and Order method type are specified in the query. The report runs, displaying quantity values for all years. Why does this happen?
A. The dimension member from that dimension is implied.
B. The order method member from that dimension is implied.
C. The aggregate member from that dimension is implied.
D. The default member from that dimension is implied.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 5
To create a report from the data source shown, what entities will the report author use?

A. Members
B. Values
C. Attributes
D. MUNs

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 6
What is true about MUNs?
A. A MUN is a business key that allows drill through between packages.
B. A MUN is a key with a unique value at each level.
C. A MUN contains the fully qualified path to a member.
D. A MUN is a category code that is generated when the cube is built.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 7
Assuming that Star products and Husky products are sets,

which statement below is correct about the sets in the graphic?
A. Each set is a grouping of members from different hierarchies.
B. The report creates a query for each member of the set.
C. The query displays each set as all the members of the level.
D. Each set can be sorted and aggregated.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 8
A crosstab report has product lines in the rows, years in the columns, and revenue as the measure. In Query Explorer, from the source tree, the report author drags the order method Telephone to the Slicer pane. Why does the report author do this?
A. To help to set the context.
B. To create an ordered set.
C. To return only one tuple.

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QUESTION: 1
Which of the following is true when applying object security in Framework Manager?

A. If beginning to apply security by specifying object security on an object with no children, all other objects remain accessible to all users.
B. If beginning to apply security by specifying object security on an object with no children, all other objects will not be accessible to all users.
C. Allow overrides Deny if specified in the properties of the object.
D. Child objects only inherit security from their parent if the Inherit property is set to Yes.
Answer: B
QUESTION: 2
Which of the following is correct regarding the Cognos 10 security environment?

A. Cognos 10 must be configured to use only one authentication provider at a time.
B. To perform authentication of users, a connection to the Cognos namespace must be defined.
C. In Framework Manager, object security is implemented by defining access to objects for users, groups and roles defined in the authentication providers.
D. In Framework Manager, object security is implemented by defining access to objects for groups and roles (of which users are members), not individual users.

Answer: C
QUESTION: 3 With respect to Cognos 10 security, which of the following is true of the Cognos namespace?
A. Only contains predefined groups and roles.
B. Can be used to create custom groups, roles and users.
C. Can be used to create Cognos 10 specific groups and roles.
D. Can be deleted if a different namespace is used to secure the environment.
Answer: C

QUESTION: 4 The groups and roles defined in the Cognos namespace can be used to assign access rights to which of the following Framework Manager objects?
A. Query items.
B. Data sources.
C. Relationships.
D. Parameter maps.

Answer: A
QUESTION: 5 Which of the following statements is correct regarding the implementation of object security in Framework Manager?
A. Groups and roles can be created in the Cognos namespace when specifying access to objects.
B. Even when object security is applied, if anonymous access is configured, every object in a Framework Manager project is visible to everyone.
C. A user belongs to two groups. One of the groups is denied access to an object. The other group is granted access to the object. The result is that user has access to the object.
D. Granting access to an object for one user, group or role (except the Everyone and All Authenticated Users groups), implicitly denies access to that object for all other users, groups or roles.

Answer: D
QUESTION: 6 What must a modeler consider when modeling for drill-through between multiple data sources?
A. Drill-through values must be cast.
B. Drill-through values must be conformed.
C. Drill-through values must be consolidated.
D. Drill-through values must be identifiers.
Answer: B

QUESTION: 7 A recursive relationship exists between SALES_STAFF_CODE and MANAGER_CODE in the SALES_STAFF data source query subject. This query subject is provided in a model to report authors. Using this query subject alone, report authors cannot create a report that includes management staff and the sales staff that report to them. How can the existing recursive relationship in the model be modified to provide this ability to report authors?
A. Import a query subject that does not contain a recursive relationship.
B. Create a star schema grouping that contains the SALES_STAFF data source query subject and a shortcut to the SALES_STAFF data source query subject.
C. Create a model query subject with the appropriate relationship to the existing SALES_STAFF data source query subject and make both available to report authors.
D. Create a shortcut to the SALES_STAFF data source query subject, and report authors will use it instead of the underlying query subject to create the required report.

Answer: C
QUESTION: 8 A user-defined function imported into Framework Manager can be viewed and used in the following locations?
A. Viewed in the Explorer and used in the expression editor.
B. Viewed in the Project Viewer and used in the expression editor.
C. Viewed in the Explorer and used in the SQL of a model query subject.
D. Viewed in the Diagram and used in the SQL of a data source query subject.

Answer: A
QUESTION: 9 In Framework Manager, if a modeler changes the business key for a level in a regular dimension, which of the following may change?
A. Level MUN
B. Level identifier
C. Member MUNs
D. Member aliases
Answer: C
QUESTION: 10 What is true of a Framework Manager model of an operational database lacking a time dimension?
A. Virtual star schema models require a time dimension for multi-fact queries.
B. Report authors cannot create multi-fact, time-based queries.
C. Time-based rollups for multi-fact queries may be difficult to handle.
D. Report authors cannot create multi-fact, time-based queries unless using a union.

Answer: C
QUESTION: 11 In Framework Manager, role-playing dimension query subjects are used to resolve which reporting trap?
A. Unwanted query splits (full outer joins).
B. One query subject with several relationships.
C. Multiple ambiguous joins between two query subjects.
D. Queries that reference two facts with no conformed dimension.

Answer: C
QUESTION: 12 In Framework Manager, it is recommended to model operational metadata as a virtual star schema for which one of the following reasons?
A. Provides stability to the underlying data structure.
B. Creates an easy-to-read data dictionary for end users.
C. Ensures inner joins between data source query subjects.
D. Helps to remove ambiguity and provide predictable results.
Answer: D

QUESTION: 13
If authors want to perform OLAP-style queries directly against a relational database,
which Framework Manager modeling technique will a modeler use?

A. Create regular and measure dimensions and set scope.
B. Create shortcuts to regular dimensions and fact query subjects.
C. Create star schema groupings for dimension and fact query subjects.
D. Create relationships between regular dimensions and measure dimensions.

Answer: A
QUESTION: 14 What technique can Framework Manager modelers use to implement a time dimension for models that lack a time dimension?
A. Create relationships from date fields in one dimension to date fields in another dimension.
B. Use parameter maps to map date values in one query subject to date values in another query subject.
C. Use the Time Dimension wizard to generate a time dimension and create the appropriate relationships.
D. Identify a time dimension table source, import into the model and create relationships to fact query subjects.

Answer: D
QUESTION: 15 Users want to compare Actual Revenue and Sales Target values by Month. Actual Revenue values are stored at the day grain in the Orders Fact table. Sales Target values are stored at the month grain in the Sales Target Fact table.

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