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QUESTION 1
Which open standard allows a switch with PoE support to correctly determine the power requirements of a connected device?
A. ICMP
B. AutoPower
C. LLDP-MED
D. CDP

Correct Answer: C Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The Link Layer Discovery Protocol (LLDP) is a vendor-neutral link layer protocol in the Internet Protocol
Suite used by network devices for advertising their identity, capabilities, and neighbors on an IEEE 802
local area network, principally wired Ethernet. Media Endpoint Discovery is an enhancement of LLDP,
known as LLDP-MED, that provides the following facilities:
Auto-discovery of LAN policies (such as VLAN, Layer 2 Priority and Differentiated services settings)
enabling plug and play networking. Device location discovery to allow creation of location databases and,
in the case of Voice over Internet Protocol (VoIP), Enhanced 911 services. Extended and automated
power management of Power over Ethernet (PoE) end points.

QUESTION 2
Which statement is true about wireless technologies?
A. 802.11n uses MIMO technology to improve data rates
B. 802.11g uses GIGO technology to improve security.
C. 802.11b/g use an 802.11a-compatible frequency.
D. 802.11a uses the less crowded 2.4 GHz range.

Correct Answer: A Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: IEEE 802.11n is an amendment to IEEE 802.11-2007 as amended by IEEE 802.11k-2008, IEEE 802.11r-2008, IEEE 802.11y-2008, and IEEE 802.11w-2009, and builds on previous 802.11 standards by adding multiple-input multiple-output (MIMO) and 40 MHz channels to the PHY (physical layer), and frame aggregation to the MAC layer. MIMO is a technology that uses multiple antennas to coherently resolve more information than possible using a single antenna. One way it provides this is through Spatial Division Multiplexing (SDM), which spatially multiplexes multiple independent data streams, transferred simultaneously within one spectral channel of bandwidth. MIMO SDM can significantly increase data throughput as the number of resolved spatial data streams is increased.
QUESTION 3
Refer to the exhibit.
Exhibit HP Comware command output.

Examine this output from the Comware command shown in the exhibit. Based on the flag of ACDEF, what is the status of the aggregated link?
A. Static LACP link aggregation is configured, and the aggregated link is operational with load sharing not being performed.
B. Static LACP link aggregation is configured, and the aggregated link is operational with load sharing being performed.
C. Static link aggregation is configured, and the aggregated link is operational with load sharing being performed.
D. Static link aggregation is configured, and the aggregated link is operational with load sharing not being performed.

Correct Answer: B Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 4
Which HP ProVision switch command defines 10.1.1.1 as a syslog server?
A. Info-center 10.1.1.1
B. Syslog 10.1.1.1
C. Logging 10.1.1.1
D. Logserver 10.1.1.1

Correct Answer: C Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The switch event log is stored in volatile memory and is lost on a reboot. It is best to configure a syslog
server to handle the log on another server in non-volatile memory.
For syslog:
HP-Provision-Switch (config)# logging <IPv4 or IPv6 address> Reference: http://h10032.www1.hp.com/ctg/
Manual/c02667379.pdf

QUESTION 5
Which command can a network administrator execute on an HP Commware switch to manage configuration files?
A. Restore startup-configuration
B. Erase startup-configuration
C. Rename config
D. Erase startup-config

Correct Answer: A Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: http://www.h3c.com/portal/Technical_Support___Documents/Technical_Documents/Switches/H 3C_S12500_Series_Switches/Configuration/Operation_Manual/H3C_S12500_CG-Release7128-6W710/01/201301/772595_1285_0.htm
QUESTION 6
Which type of access is considered an In-band management connection?
A. Serial connection to Console port
B. Dial-up to an auxiliary port
C. SSH from a desktop to the device
D. Telnet to an HP iLO management port

Correct Answer: C Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 7
Refer to the exhibit.
Exhibit: Network topology

A company has implemented a switched network based on the RSTP spanning tree protocol.
Assume the following:
All switches have the same priority

All ports have the same cost

All ports have the same priority
Based on this information, which answer is correct?
A. Port 2 on SwitchC is a designated port.
B. Port 3 on SwitchC is a designated port.
C. Port 1 on SwitchB is a discarding port.
D. Port 1 on SwitchD is a root port.

Correct Answer: B Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
MSTP selects the device with the lowest MAC address as the root bridge, so in this case it is SwitchD. The
root bridge is the only bridge in the network that does not have a root port. All other bridges receive BPDUs
on at least one port.

QUESTION 8
Which HP Comware component allows a network administrator to adjust the logging process?
A. SNMP management center
B. Information center
C. Logging process
D. System logging center

Correct Answer: B Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Acting as the system information hub, information center classifies and manages system information,
offering a powerful support for network administrators and developers in monitoring network performance
and diagnosing network problems. The following describes the working process of information center:
Receives the log, trap, and debugging information generated by each module. Outputs the above
information to different information channels according to the user-defined output rules.
Outputs the information to different destinations based on the information channel-to-destination
associations.

QUESTION 9
What must a network administrator define on an HP Comware switch in order to implement username and passwords to protect access to the CLI?
A. Authentication scheme
B. Privilege levels
C. Local authentication
D. Super passwords

Correct Answer: C Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Authentication fallback
If all authentication servers are unavailable, local authentication can be used. Local authentication can use
the password control function to secure user passwords.
Reference:

https://h20565.www2.hp.com/portal/site/hpsc/template.BINARYPORTLET/public/kb/docDispla y/ resource.process/? spf_p.tpst=kbDocDisplay_ws_BI&spf_p.rid_kbDocDisplay=docDisplayResURL&javax.portlet. begCacheTok=com.vignette.cachetoken&spf_p.rst_kbDocDisplay=wsrp-resourceState %3DdocId% 253Demr_na-c03536920-4%257CdocLocale %253Den_US&javax.portlet.endCacheTok=com.vignette.cachetoken
QUESTION 10
Why does HP recommended using SSH instead of Telnet for remote device management?
A. SSH connections are established almost five times faster.
B. SSH encrypts the data you exchange with the switch.
C. SSH must be enabled for TFTP file transfers.
D. SSH provides a graphical shell for GUI management.

Correct Answer: B Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 11
Which wireless technology is limited to operate in a frequency range with only three non- overlapping channels?
A. 802.1a
B. 802.1x
C. 802.1ad
D. 802.11g

Correct Answer: D Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: 802.11b (and 802.11g) networks offer 11 channels, but only three channels (1, 6, and 11) do not overlap with each other. In a large-scale building or campus-wide installation, the ability to use only three channels can reduce real-world throughput and make avoiding interference from other 802.11b or 802.11g-based wireless networks difficult.
QUESTION 12
Which technology does the HP Virtual Connect support?
A. InfiniBand connection to server backplane
B. Fibre Channel over Ethernet (FCoE) V
C. Distributed trunking
D. Intelligent Resilient Framework (IRF)

Correct Answer: B Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Virtual Connect interconnect modules provide the following capabilities:
· Reduces the number of cables required for an enclosure, compared to using pass-thru modules.
· Reduces the number of edge switches that LAN and SAN administrators must manage.
· Allows pre-provisioning of the network, so server administrators can add, replace, or upgrade servers
without requiring immediate involvement from the LAN or SAN administrators.
· Enables a flatter, less hierarchical network, which reduces equipment and administration costs, reduces
latency, and improves performance.

· Delivers direct server-to-server connectivity within the BladeSystem enclosure. This is an ideal way to optimize for east/west traffic flow, which is becoming more prevalent at the server edge with the growth of server virtualization, cloud computing, and distributed applications. · Provides direct-attach SAN and dual-hop Fibre Channel over Ethernet (FCoE) capabilities to extend cost benefits further into the storage network. Reference: http://h20195.www2.hp.com/V2/GetPDF.aspx% 2F4AA4-8174ENW.pdf

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QUESTION NO: 1
Click the Exhibit button.

A provider of MPLS services configures MPLS Layer-3 VPN services for two customers. Each customer has three branch offices that will be interconnected. The address blocks chosen by the customers for each site are:

The provider uses OSPF as its IGP with the Loopback 0 addresses shown as the OSPF router-id and the MPLS LSR-ID. Customer A Site 1 successfully pings Customer A Site 2. This ICMP echo request is captured on the Ethernet segment between routers P-10 and P-20. What is found on this packet capture? (Select two.)
A. MPLS VPN label
B. VPN target
C. MPLS outer label corresponding to the LSR-ID of P-20
D. MPLS outer label corresponding to FEC 16.0.0.2
E. route distinguisher
Answer: A,D
QUESTION NO: 2
Click the Exhibit button.

A provider of MPLS services configures MPLS Layer-3 VPN services for two customers. Each customer has three branch offices that will be interconnected. The address blocks chosen by the customers for each site are:

The provider has established only four Multi-Protocol BGP peers as shown in the exhibit. PE-4 has no customer connections. Neither MPLS L3VPN is functional. Which configuration steps are required if this topology is to be operational for both customers? (Select two.)
A. Create VPN instances Customer A and Customer B on PE-4.
B. Configure PE-4 as a route-reflector within the bgp l3vpn-family.
C. Configure PE-4 as a route-reflector within the ipv4-family vpnv4.
D. Configure PE-4 as a route-reflector within the ipv4-family vpn-instance Cust-A and vpn-instance Customer B.
E. Configure PE-4 as a bgp route-reflector.
F. Configure MBGP peers for P-10, P-20, and P-30.
Answer: A,C
QUESTION NO: 3
Click the Exhibit button.

A provider of MPLS services offers multiple types of MPLS-based VPNs to its customers. Provider Edge router PE-1 directly connects to the following three customers:

What is the minimum number of LDP peers established on Router PE-1?

A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
E. 5
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 4
Which technology in an MPLS L2VPN can provide ordered delivery of Ethernet frames?
A. TCP-based L2VPN B. Control Word

C. Ethernet raw access circuit
D. VLAN pseudowire class
E. MPLS EXP bits
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 5
Which BGP attributes must be present in a BGP routing update? (Select three.)
A. community
B. MED
C. origin type
D. local preference
E. AS path
F. next hop
Answer: C,E,F
QUESTION NO: 6
Click the Exhibit button.
Router-1 and Router-2 are BGP peers. Router-2 and Router-3 are BGP peers. However, Router-3 has not learned the 16.0.0.0/8 BGP route. How can you resolve this issue? (Select two.)
A. Enable IGP synchronization on all routers.
B. Prepend AS1 to the 16.0.0.0/8 route on Router-1.
C. Enable BGP peering between Router-1 and Router-3.
D. Adjust the local preference of 16.0.0.0/8 on Router-1.
E. Configure Router-2 as a route reflector and Router-1 and Router-3 as clients.
F. Establish a physical link between Router-1 and Router-3.
Answer: C,E
QUESTION NO: 7
What can be included in BGP or multi-protocol BGP Network Layer Reachability Information (NLRI)? (Select three.)
A. AS 65001
B. 10.0.0.0 /9
C. MED
D. Remote LDP Session
E. BGP ORF
F. VPN Target
G. VPLS Label Block
H. 6500:301:192.168.0.0 /16
Answer: B,G,H
QUESTION NO: 8
Which characteristics of a Circuit Cross Connect (CCC) L2VPN distinguish it from the Martini or Kompella versions? (Select two.)
A. It requires a stack of three MPLS labels.
B. It includes exactly two endpoints of the VPN.
C. It can operate with fewer than two MPLS labels.
D. It does not require any Label signaling.

Answer: C,D
QUESTION NO: 9
In the configuration of a Martini version L2VPN on two PE routers, which parameter must be identical?
A. S-VID
B. PW-ID
C. VLAN-ID
D. Service Instance number
E. VPN-Target
F. Remote LDP Peer IP address
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 10
Which parameters must be configured on two PE routers to provision an Ethernet L2VPN in Martini mode? (Select four.)
A. PW-ID
B. LDP Remote Peer
C. VPN Instance
D. Service Instance
E. S-VID
F. L2VPN Address Family
G. Route Distinguisher
H. IP Binding
Answer: A,B,D,E

QUESTION NO: 11
What is the destination MAC address of Ethernet frames in the 802.1ad standard?

A. 0100.5e00.0001
B. 0100.5e00.0002
C. 0180.c200.000e
D. 0180.c200.0000
Answer: A

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HP0-S41 Interconnecting Cisco Networking Devices Part 2 (ICND2) is the exam associated with the Cisco Certified Network Associate certification. Candidates can prepare for this exam by taking the Interconnecting Cisco Networking Devices Part 2 (ICND2) v1.0 course. This exam tests a candidate’s knowledge and skills required to successfully install, operate, and troubleshoot a small to medium size enterprise branch network. The exam covers topics on VLSM and IPv6 addressing; extending switched networks with VLANs; configuring, verifying and troubleshooting VLANs; the VTP, RSTP, OSPF and EIGRP protocols; determining IP routes; managing IP traffic with access lists; NAT and DHCP; establishing point-to- point connections; and establishing Frame Relay connections.

QUESTION 1
Which information is provided by the HP SrnartSSD Wear Gauge utility?
A. Remaining expected lifetime
B. I/O performance statistics
C. Raid level configuration
D. Power consumption

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 2
Which type of power supply is supported in HP ProLiant Gen9 ML and DL servers?
A. Platinum
B. Gold
C. Flex Slot
D. Common Slot

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 3
Which HP Server technology uses 4-socket configurations?
A. DL580 Gen8
B. BL460c Gen8
C. DL80 Gen9
D. DL180 Gen9

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 4
Which tasks can be performed using Intelligent Provisioning? (Select two.)
A. Installs an Operating System (OS).
B. Configures Boot from SAN.
C. Installs firmware and drivers.
D. Creates zones for Fibre switches.
E. Provides OS remediation capability.
Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 5
Which features are enabled by UEFi Boot Mode? (Select two.)
A. Boot drives larger than 2.2 Terabyte
B. PXE boot for IPv6
C. Intelligent Provisioning
D. Pre-boot configuration
E. iLO Federation
Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 6
Which HP C70Q0 component is needed to attach a BL460C Gen9 server blade to a third-party VoIP card?
A. HP Smart Array P244br controller
B. HP Storage Blade
C. HP Onboard Administrator
D. HP PCI Expansion Blade

Correct Answer: D

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QUESTION 7
Which statements are true regarding HP Service Pack for ProLiant (SPP)? (Select two.)
A. It provides platform-specific device drivers for VMware-based servers.
B. It runs in online (Linux or Windows) or offline (bootable ISO) modes.
C. It includes firmware for servers, controllers, storage, and enclosures.
D. It must be installed prior to installing the operating system.
E. HP only provides support for the most recently released SPP.

Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 8
You need to deploy different operating systems to more than 100 server blades. Which tool can you use to complete this task?
A. Intelligent Provisioning
B. Insight Control server provisioning
C. Server Migration Pack
D. Insight Remote Support

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 9
Which HP tool can be used to configure the FlexFabric interconnect modules?
A. Virtual Connect Manager
B. iLO 4 user interface
C. HP Virtual SAS Manager
D. Insight Display
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 10
Which feature of HP ProLiant Gen9 servers enables IPv6 PXEboot?
A. iLO4
B. UEFI
C. Intelligent Provisioning
D. ROM Based Setup Utility

Correct Answer: D

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QUESTION 1
When a blade is inserted into a bay that has a VCM profile assigned, which action will the VCM perform before the server is allowed to power on?
A. Determine the Server OS
B. Download new firmware update
C. Configure the NIC ports with profile provided MAC addresses
D. Check the embedded teaming configuration

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 2
Which interconnect option for HP BladeSystem allows you to add, move, and replace servers without reconfiguring the external LAN and SAN?
A. HP Pass-Thru modules
B. InfiniBand switches
C. HP Virtual Connect modules
D. HP ProCurve switches with IRF

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 3
Which ProLiant server line is designed and optimized for massive compute environments?
A. BL
B. SL
C. ML
D. DL

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 4
Which advanced function of HP OneView provides a 3D model of the environment and also displays power and temperature data?
A. MAP view
B. Activity screen
C. iLO Advanced
D. Data Centers screen

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 5
Which operating system family is supported on the HP ProLiant Gen8 servers?
A. Netware
B. HP-UX
C. HP Open VMS
D. VMware vSphereESXi

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 6
How can a support engineer securely eliminate customer data before replacing drives on a ProLiant Gen8 server?
A. By using Smart Update Manager
B. By using HP Insight Diagnostics
C. By using Service Pack for ProLiant
D. By using Erase Utility

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 7
Which tool or utility can be used to update firmware on a ProLiant Gen8 server? (Select two )
A. Service Pack for ProLiant
B. Online Insight Diagnostics
C. ROM Based Setup Utility
D. Intelligent Provisioning
E. Smart Start

Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 8
Which tool or utility allows customers to track maintenance contract and product warranty status?
A. HP System Management Homepage
B. HP Insight Online
C. HP Active Health System
D. HP Insight Control

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 9
Which statement is true regarding the compatibility of Gen8 SmartDrives with previous generations of ProLiant Servers?
A. They are only compatible with Gen8 servers.
B. They are only compatible with G7 and Gen8 servers.
C. They are fully backwards compatible.
D. They are fully backwards compatible, but the “Do not remove” LED will not always function.

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 10
Your customer is using the DHCP server to assign IP addresses to the BladeSystemiLOs. The customer is experiencing problems accessing iLO because of DHCP downtime. What is an alternative fully supported method of assigning IP addresses to the iLO?
A. Configure a DNS server on the management subnet.
B. Use the SNMP agent.
C. Enable Enclosure Bay IP Addressing.
D. Configure DHCP relay agent on the management subnet.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 11
What are characteristics of a BL465c? (Select two.)
A. It supports dual expansion blades.
B. It has three mezzanine expansion slots.
C. It has four CPU sockets.
D. It has an AMD-based processor.
E. It is half-height.

Correct Answer: AD

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Exam Description
HP0-S36 Interconnecting Cisco Networking Devices Part 2 (ICND2) is the exam associated with the Cisco Certified Network Associate certification. Candidates can prepare for this exam by taking the Interconnecting Cisco Networking Devices Part 2 (ICND2) v1.0 course. This exam tests a candidate’s knowledge and skills required to successfully install, operate, and troubleshoot a small to medium size enterprise branch network. The exam covers topics on VLSM and IPv6 addressing; extending switched networks with VLANs; configuring, verifying and troubleshooting VLANs; the VTP, RSTP, OSPF and EIGRP protocols; determining IP routes; managing IP traffic with access lists; NAT and DHCP; establishing point-to- point connections; and establishing Frame Relay connections.
Exam Topics
The following topics are general guidelines for the content likely to be included on the Interconnecting Cisco Networking Devices Part 2 exam. However, other related topics may also appear on any specific delivery of the exam. In order to better reflect the contents of the exam and for clarity purposes, the guidelines below may change at any time without notice.
Topic 1 – Configure, verify and troubleshoot a switch with VLANs and interswitch communications. (63 Questions) Describe enhanced switching technologies (including: VTP, RSTP, VLAN, PVSTP, 802.1q) Describe how VLANs create logically separate networks and the need for routing between them Configure, verify, and troubleshoot VLANs Configure, verify, and troubleshoot trunking on Cisco switches Configure, verify, and troubleshoot interVLAN routing Configure, verify, and troubleshoot VTP Configure, verify, and troubleshoot RSTP operation Interpret the output of various show and debug commands to verify the operational status of a Cisco switched network Implement basic switch security (including: port security, unassigned ports, trunk access, etc.)

QUESTION 1
Which commands are used in HP-UX determine operating system versions and patch levels? (Select two)
A. sysconfig
B. uname
C. fcsmutil
D. swlist
E. ioscan
Correct Answer: BD Explanation Explanation/Reference:
Reference: http://pic.dhe.ibm.com/infocenter/wbihelp/v6rxmx/index.jsp?topic= %2Fcom.ibm.wics_installation.doc%2Fdoc%2Finstallation_unix% 2Finstallation_unix25.htm (see the heading: Validating the operating system and patch level in HP-UX)
QUESTION 2
Which benefits does HP Matrix OE infrastructure orchestration functionality provide to customer? (Select two)
A. A role-based deployment solution for virtual and physical environments
B. An end-to-end systems management solution
C. A benchmark solution for different server architectures
D. A portal-driven migration path for existing virtual environments
E. A template-based service portal
Correct Answer: AE Explanation Explanation/Reference:
Reference: http://h18004.www1.hp.com/products/servers/docs/4AA3-8517ENW.pdf (page 3, see provisioning storage for private cloud environments, third para)
QUESTION 3
A customer with a limited budget is planning to implement critical business unit. The company is projecting variable growth. The result of the system sizing, in an initial phase, is a solution containing eight servers with dual processors.
Which BladeSystem supports the customer’s needs?
A. HP c7000 enclosure with one OA, redundant Ethernet switches, and eight BL460c Gen8 servers
B. HP c3000 enclosure with one OA, redundant Ethernet switches, and eight BL460c servers
C. HP c7000 enclosure with one OA, redundant Ethernet switch, and fully populated with BL460c Gen8 servers
D. HP c3000 enclosure with one OA, one Ethernet switch and fully populated with BL460c Gen8 servers Correct Answer: B
Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 4
Your customer is interested in moving toward a cloud-based solution. Which HP offering should you recommend to help the customer with their initial analysis?
A. HP CloudSystem Matrix Expansion Services
B. HP Critical Advantage
C. HP Converged infrastructure maturity Model
D. HP BladeSystem Firmware and Driver Gap analysis Correct Answer: A
Explanation Explanation/Reference:
Reference: http://h18004.www1.hp.com/products/blades/components/matrix/index.html#c1
QUESTION 5
After booting Gen8 server into intelligent Provisioning and selecting Perform maintenance, Why is Firmware Update icon lighter than the other one the screenshot shown?

A. There are no initial networking parameters
B. The system has not completed a full POST process
C. The user has insufficient permissions
D. Firmware has just been updated
Correct Answer: D Explanation Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: Normally the icons gray out when there are insufficient permissions to access it. In this case, the icon is not grayed which means that the firmware has just been updated and there are not more firmware updates to download.
QUESTION 6
What is a typical usage of HP Matrix OE infrastructure orchestration functionality? (Select two)
A. Automatic movement of a virtual machine to a host with less load
B. Dynamic server migration based on load
C. Rapid provisioning and deprovisioning of complex infrastructure designs
D. Improved utilization of infrastructure resource through reservation and schedules
E. Converting of an AMD virtual machine container to run on Intel Correct Answer: CD
Explanation Explanation/Reference:
Reference: http://h20000.www2.hp.com/bc/docs/support/SupportManual/c03132773/c03132773.pdf (page th 10, see the last bulleted point on the page and the last 4 bulleted point)
QUESTION 7
Your customer needs increased date security for an existing Smart Array P420 RAID 5 configuration. You recommend a migration to RAID 6. What is needed to migrate to RAID 6?
A. HP Smart Array Advanced Pack (SAAP) 2.0
B. A move the P420 to a PCIe x8 slot
C. HP SAS MIN-MIN 3X 1X-5M Cable Assembly Kit
D. Minimum of these identical disks
Correct Answer: A Explanation Explanation/Reference:
Reference: http://h18000.www1.hp.com/products/quickspecs/14228_na/14228_na.html (see RAID support, note)
QUESTION 8
Which service provides 6 hour call-to-repair 24 hours a day? ;
A. HP Support Plus 24
B. HP Proactive Select
C. HP Mission Critical level 1
D. HP Critical Advantage level 3
Correct Answer: C Explanation Explanation/Reference:
Reference: http://h40057.www4.hp.com/carepack/pdf/HP_Care_Pack%20Services- Part_of_the_HP_Smart_Office_Portfolio.pdf (page 5, critical service)
QUESTION 9
You are building a customer presentation for an SAP infrastructure solution that involves HP Integrity Blades as well as a P6000. You need to provide a EMI of Material valid quotation as part of the documentation.
What can be used to achieve this goal?
A. HP SalesBuilder for windows
B. HP System Selling Guides
C. HP Product Bulletin
D. HP Proposal Web Correct Answer: A
Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 10
For security reasons, a customer does not want to use SNMP to monitor their HP Proliant G7 Server running Windows 2008 R2. Which Component of HP System Insight Manager (HP SIM) allows it to get proper system information without SNMP?
A. ILO Key Exchange
B. SSH Tunnel
C. WEBEM Client
D. WMI Mapper
Correct Answer: C Explanation Explanation/Reference:
Reference: http://h710

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QUESTION 1
HP Proliant DL380 Gen8 servers provide a Flexible LOM option.
Which technologies are supported?
A. 10 Gb Flex-Fabric
B. 1 Gb Ethernet
C. 10 Gb Flex 10
D. Dual Channel Gen3 SAS
E. Infiniband
F. 10 Gb Ethernet
G. 16 Gb Fibre Channel
Correct Answer: ABEF Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: See www.hp.com/go/ProLiantNICs http: //h20195.www2.hp.com/V2/GetPDF.aspx%2F4AA4-6708ENW.pdf and Networking flexibility in HP ProLiant Gen8 servers with FlexibleLOM technology http: //www8.hp.com/h20195/v2/GetDocument.aspx?docname=4AA4-6708ENW
QUESTION 2
Referring to the exhibit shown, which data protection and recovery technology protects a customer…
Exhibit:

A. Level 1
B. Level 2
C. Level 3
D. Level 4
Correct Answer: D Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 3
Which Gen8 server model provides support for one power supply only?
A. DL380
B. DL360
C. ML350
D. DL160 Correct Answer: D
Explanation Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:

HP Produt Bulletin.
QUESTION 4
Which storage interconnect technology does Component 2 provide in the environment show in the exhibit?

A. Infiniband

B. NAS
C. DAS
D. SAN
Correct Answer: D Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 5
The HP SL230 server is designed for which market segments? (Select two)
A. NPIV-based virtualisation
B. Scale-out
C. Scale-up
D. High performance computing
E. Entry level computing
Correct Answer: BD Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: HP ProLiant SL230s Gen8 Server http: //www8.hp.com/de/de/products/proliant-servers/product-detail.html?oid=5177937#! tab=features
QUESTION 6
While installing new load reduced DIMM (LR-DIMM) memory modules into a server, an administrator…
What should you recommend?
A. Populate LR-DIMM and RDIMM memory modules in different memory channels
B. Populate LR-DIMM and RDIMM memory modules in different memory controllers
C. LR-DIMM and RDIMM memory modules cannot be mixed in the same server.replace either memory…
D. Populate LR-DIMM before RDIMM memory modules within the same channel Correct Answer: C
Explanation Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
HP Product Bulletin DL380p Gen8 Chapter Memory: Do not mix RDIMMs, LRDIMMs, and UDIMMs

QUESTION 7
Which statement is correct about iLO technology used in Gen8?
A. A new video adaptater is used
B. CPU speed and type has changed
C. Gigabit network is used
D. The USB version has changed Correct Answer: C
Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 8
Where in the HP service Stack shown is HP Insight Online integrated? (2)
A. HP Proliant Gen 8
B. HP Insight Remote Support
C. Customer HP Support Center Portal
D. HP Global Solution Center
E. Partner HP Support Center portal
F. HP System Insight Manager
Correct Answer: CE Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 9
A customer needs to connect de DL380 Gen8 with a D2600 disk enclosure.
Which controller should be used?
A. P212
B. P711m
C. P410/410i
D. P800
Correct Answer: A Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
See “Storage Controller” http: //www8.hp.com/us/en/products/disk-enclosures/product- detail.html?
oid=4021628#!tab=specs in Specifications tab. P212 apperas only. HP Product Bulletin –> The D2000
enclosures support direct attach storage to ProLiant Servers with the HP Smart Array P411, P212, P812,
P222, P421, P431or the P822 Controllers

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QUESTION 10
Which Source media types are supported in Intelligent Provisionning? (Choose four)
A. FTP
B. Network share

C. USB
D. USB 3.0
E. Disc
Correct Answer: ABCE Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
See “HP Intelligent Provisioning User Guide” on Page 21 http:
//h20565.www2.hp.com/portal/site/hpsc/template.BINARYPORTLET/public/kb/docDisplay/reso
urce.process/?
spf_p.tpst=kbDocDisplay_ws_BI&spf_p.rid_kbDocDisplay=docDisplayResURL&javax.portlet.
begCacheTok=com.vignette.cachetoken&spf_p.rst_kbDocDisplay=wsrp-resourceState %3DdocId%
253Demr_na-c03182305-13%257CdocLocale%253Den_US&javax.portlet.endCacheTok=com.vignette.cachetoken

QUESTION 11
A customer wants to build an HPC cluster and needs the highest performance and bandwidth.
What should he used?
A. Flex 10
B. 10 GB Ethernet
C. Flex Fabric
D. FDR InfiniBand Correct Answer: D
Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 12
A customer recently noticed that a cluster on 1 GbE is very slow when large amount of data are transmitted.
What should you recommand?
A. More NICs and the use of teaming technology
B. Changing copper to FO
C. 10 Gb Ethernet
D. InfiniBand QDR Correct Answer: C
Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 13
What is the minimum number of drives required when bulding a RAID 60?
A. 4
B. 6
C. 8
D. 12 Correct Answer: C
Explanation Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:

http: //en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Nested_RAID_levels
QUESTION 14
An admin installed new DDR3 memory in a server and discovered that the server contained quad-rank, 2 rank and 1 rank.
What should you recommend?
A. Replace all memory modules so that they are the same load
B. Populate the memory modules from the heaviest to the lightest load within a channel
C. Populate similar load memory module within the same memory controller
D. Populate similar load memory module within the same memory channel
Correct Answer: B Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
See HP Product Buelletin –> Populate DIMMs from heaviest load (quad-rank) to lightest load (single-rank)
within a channel. Heaviest load (DIMM with most ranks) within a channel goes furthest from the processor

QUESTION 15
Which functionalities are provides when Insight Remote Support Advanced is used as a standalone version? (Choose Two)
A. Viewing service credit balances
B. Sharing device displays with HP Authorized Parners
C. 24 x 7 remote monitoring of hardware service events
D. Automated device discovery in HP Support Center
E. Monitoring and managing HP contrats and warranties
Correct Answer: CE Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 16
You are implementing a smart datacenter with Gen8 servers. Which option is right for highly- monitored and s…….
A. SL6500 + iPDU
B. SL6500 + monitored PDU
C. DL380 Gen8 + iPDU Core
D. DL380 Gen8 + iPDU Core + extension bar
Correct Answer: D Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 17
Which operating system installation methods are available in intelligent Provisionning? (Choose 3)
A. Assited
B. Manual
C. Customized
D. Recommanded
E. Interactive
Correct Answer: BCD Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 18
A customer wants to build a high performance environment with 3 GPU What should you recommend?
A. SL230 Gen8
B. DL380 Gen8
C. ML350 Gen8
D. SL250 Gen8
Correct Answer: D Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 19
A customer needs the maximum number of internal disks in an HP Proliant Gen8 server. Which server choose?
A. DL 360 Gen8
B. DL 380 Gen8
C. DL 180 Gen8
D. ML 350 Gen8
Correct Answer: B Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 20
An HP Proliant gen8 server has 3 HD drive in a RAID 5 array.One of the HD Failed, and the admin change the HD.
What is the LED status of HDs?
A. All HDD will have DO NOT REMOVE LED lit and the faulty drive will show an amber light at the…
B. Only the faulty HD will have the DO NOT REMOVE LED lit
C. All HD will have the DO NOT REMOVE LED lit
D. The faulty HD will show an amber light at the cylinder icon and the remaining drives will have the DO NOT REMOVE LED lit
Correct Answer: D Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:

Drive is not configured by a Raid Controller.

Drive Activity, spins clockwise. Drive is being accessed by an application like ACU. Also acts like UID.
Drive has failed.

Drive in Predective failure.

Drive being rebuilt or performing RAID/stripe size migration or capacity expansion or logical drive extension.

Hard Drive Status Indicator (see below table for explanation).

QUESTION 21
Referring to the screenshot shown, which HP System insight Manager option do you use to display power and thermal data of a Proliant Gen8 server?

A. Reports
B. Tools
C. Optimize
D. Diagnose
Correct Answer: A Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
See HP Insight Control 7.0 Getting Started Guide on Page 21 http: //h50146.www5.hp.com/lib/products/
servers/proliant/manuals/c03168810.pdf

QUESTION 22
In the exhibit shown, Figure B represents which RAID level?

A. RAID 10
B. Advanced Data Guard (ADG)
C. RAID 1
D. Advanced Data Mirroring (ADM)
Correct Answer: D Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: HP Smart Array Advanced Pack http: //h18004.www1.hp.com/products/servers/proliantstorage/arraycontrollers/smartarray- advanced/ benefits.html RAID 1 ADM (Advanced Data Mirroring) allows customers to configure three drives as RAID 1 for additional protection on larger capacity drives. It also allows customers to retain a single drive as a backup without having to rebuild the mirrored set.
QUESTION 23
What can you use to collect Active Health System log data for maintenance (3)? (Choose three)
(WARNING!! possible trick question. See Explanation)
A. RBSU
B. Intelligent Provisioning
C. Active Health System viewer
D. Integrated Lights Out
E. Active Health System log Analyzer
F. Integrated Management Log
Correct Answer: BDF Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: How to Collect AHS log from HP Gen8 Server http: //www.tricksguide.com/collect-ahs-logs-from-hp-gen8-server.html Downloading the AHS log http: //www.manualslib.com/manual/441081/Hewlett-Packard-Proliant-Bl420c.html?page=18 Integrated Management Log ??? AHS viewer ???? Active Health System Log Download CLI for Windows http: //h20000.www2.hp.com/bizsupport/TechSupport/SoftwareDescription.jsp? lang=en&cc=us&prodTypeId=15351&prodSeriesId=5211699&prodNameId=5260963&swEnvO ID=4100&swLang=8&mode=2&taskId=135&swItem=MTX-5d57c33f5eb44ff985de7f93dd
QUESTION 24
A customer has 30 HD drives in a RAID 60 with five parity groups. How many drives can simultaneously fail in the array?
A. 2
B. 6
C. 10
D. 12 Correct Answer: C
Explanation Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: 30 Disk / 5 parity/raid group = 6 Disk per parity Group Raid 6= n+2Parity So 10 Disk is the Answer 2 Parity Disk / group * 5 groups = 2*5=10
QUESTION 25
A customer has two logical drives (logical drive 1 and logical drive 2) configured on a smart array controller.
The customer wants optimize logical drive 2 for database information Which option should you propose?
A. Configure the surface scan delay to 3
B. Configure the monitor and performance delay to 1
C. Disable array accelerator for 1 to reserve the total use of the array accelerator cache for 2
D. Increase the rebuilt priority to high for 1 and to low for 2 Correct Answer: C
Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 26
Which tool can an administrator use to force the OS to generate a crash dump log?
A. HP System management home Page
B. HP iLO virtual NMI
C. HP Windows Crash Dump Analyser
D. HP Integrated Management Log Correct Answer: B
Explanation Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
See Performing an HP ProLiang Server NMI crash dump http: //h20195.www2.hp.com/V2/GetPDF.aspx%
2F4AA4-7853ENW.pdf

QUESTION 27
An admin wants to download the Active Health System log for escalation to HP. What is the maximum size of the log file?
A. 512 Mb
B. 1 GB

C. 2 GB
D. 4 GB
Correct Answer: B Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 28
When adding an agentless server in the Device management console (DMC), which information must be specified? (Choose two.)
A. IP Address or DNS FQN of the iLO
B. IP Address or DNS FQN of the server
C. WBEM login credentials
D. Onboard Administrator login credentials
E. SNMP community string
Correct Answer: AE Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 29
What do Virtual Machine Environment (VME) credentials refer to?
A. A set of protocol dependent credentials used to manage various protocols in the virtual management environment
B. A credential to synchronize HP SIM login credentials with discovered virtual machine credentials
C. A credential common to Microsoft Hyper-V and VMware vCenter to register both services on the Central Management Server
D. A protocol independent credential used to manage various virtual management environment
Correct Answer: B Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
HP Insight Control Virtual Machine Management 7.1 User Guide Page 4 http: //h10032.www1.hp.com/ctg/
Manual/c03341299.pdf

QUESTION 30
Using the latest HP Proliant Support Software and Gen8 servers, which component is no longer used for software and firmware baselines?
A. HP Proliant Firmware maintenance CD
B. HP Version Control Agent
C. HP Proliant Service Pack
D. HP Version Control Repository Manager
Correct Answer: C Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
SPP replaces the HP ProLiant Support Pack( PSP) and Firmware DVD (PSP) and Firmware DVD

http:
//h20566.www2.hp.com/portal/site/hpsc/template.BINARYPORTLET/public/kb/docDisplay/
resource.process/?
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%253D&javax.portlet.endCacheTok=com.vignette.cachetoken

QUESTION 31
Referring to the exhibit shown, which LED on a HP Proliant Gen8 server indicates hard drive activity?

A. 1
B. 2

C. 3
D. 4
Correct Answer: B Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Drive Activity, spins clockwise.
QUESTION 32
Which components can HP Insight Performance Management monitor? (Choose three.)
A. Virtual machine guest components
B. Fans
C. Processor
D. Local and external storage
E. Temperature
Correct Answer: ACD Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
See HP Insight Control Performance Management 7.1 User Guide on Page 34/35 http: //
h10032.www1.hp.com/ctg/Manual/c03341295.pdf

QUESTION 33
Which feature provides a customer alert to prevent a counter fail hard drive from getting arrested in a HP Proliant:
A. Drive Error Log NVRAM
B. Smart Array Advanced pack
C. Enhanced Display
D. Smart Carrier Authentication
Correct Answer: B Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: Not A Drive Error Log NVRAM Drive error log NVRAM with black-box recorder, for better failure analysis and resolution

Not C Enhanced Display because Enhanced display of self-describing icons with intuitive and improved LED function

Not D Smart Carrier Authentication because Smart carrier authentication to verify that both drive and carrier are HP-qualified options HP SmartDrive for ProLiant Gen8 serversHP SmartDrive for ProLiant Gen8 servers http: //www8.hp.com/ h20195/v2/GetPDF.aspx%2F4AA3-9827ENW.pdf
QUESTION 34
What is the preferred way to update component firmware in HP Proliant Gen8?
A. SMH VCA offline update
B. HP SIM VCA offline update
C. HP SUM agent less update
D. HP SIM VCA online update
Correct Answer: C Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Answer C is right:
See HP ProLiant firmware management architecture –> ttp:
//h10032.www1.hp.com/ctg/Manual/
c02844392.pdf
HP Smart Update Manager (HP SUM) is the main deployment tool, or the engine, that drives the firmware
updates.

Not A: SMH VCA offline update SMH = HP System Management for integrety Not B: HP SIM VCA offline update The HP Version Control Agent (VCA) is an HP Insight Management Agent that is installed on a system to enable you to view the HP software and firmware that is installed on that system. and not D HP SIM VCA online update
QUESTION 35
Which statements are correct about the Agentless management feature in HP Proliant Gen8 server? (Choose three.)
A. It is embedded
B. It collects hardware information
C. It is OS independent
D. It must be activated in the RBSU
E. It is OS dependant
F. It collects OS level information
Correct Answer: ABC Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: See –> Agentless Management http: //www.youtube.com/watch?feature=player_embedded&v=XDCBd_NeOuY

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QUESTION 1
Which must be installed on the target server P2P migration?
A. HP Insight Dynamics ProLiant
B. HP Insight Control
C. HP iLO Advanced for BladeSystem
D. HP Insight Control server deployment
Correct Answer: B Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 2
Referring to the exhibit, which Smart Carrier innovation was introduced with the HP ProLiant server platform to help reduce/eliminate downtime as a result of the wrong hard drive being removed after a failure?

A. When a drive fails, the backlight flashes blue to auto locate. The drive status goes to amber.
B. When a drive fails, it turns amber. The remaining healthy drives are held in place with an automatic latch mechanism to present removal.
C. When a drive fails, it is disabled and powered off. The remaining healthy drives illuminate the Do not LED.
D. When a drive fails, it turns amber. The remaining healthy drives illuminate the Do Not remove LED.
Correct Answer: D Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
http://198.235.14.21/HP/images/stories/ProliantServers/Q212/4aa39937enw.pdf (Page 3, Resiliency, 4th
bullet)

Reduce failures and downtime–HP Smart Drives deliver the best overall customer experience and
improves uptime. Virtually eliminate inadvertent drive removal with an icon-based display and a “Do Not
Remove” indicator during a drive failure. HP Predictive Spare Activation identifies and resolves failures
before they occur and automatically moves data to a spare device.

QUESTION 3
You instated Hyper-V on a BL460 G6. Which RBSU advanced setting should be changed?
A. Hyperthreading
B. Intel Virtualization technology
C. hardware pre-fetcher
D. option ROM loading sequence
Correct Answer: C Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 4
Which HP web-based tool can be used to configure a solution of servers, storage and networking along with services, allowing an export of the final solution?
A. Sizing Tool for VMware vSphere
B. Simplified Configuration Environment
C. Sizer for Microsoft Hyper-V R2
D. Enterprise Configurator Workbench
Correct Answer: B Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Reference: http://h22174.www2.hp.com/SimplifiedConfig/Index
QUESTION 5
A customer needs a direct attached based storage for a BladeSystem and wants a solution that enables low cost zoned or shared storage.
Which type of HP external storage meets the customer requirements?
A. Direct Connect SAS storage
B. Infiniband
C. Fibre Channel over Ethernet
D. Serial Attached SCSi
Correct Answer: A Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: http://h18006.www1.hp.com/products/storageworks/sas_solution/index.html (Overview, first para) With the direct connect SAS storage for HP BladeSystem, HP extends and redefines direct- attached storage for BladeSystem servers. Now you can build local server storage on the fly with zoned storage, or enable low cost shared storage within the rack
QUESTION 6
Which HP tool assists in estimating power consumption selection, including power supplies, at a system, rack, and multi-rack levels?
A. UPS Sizing Tool
B. Insight Control Manager
C. Power Advisor
D. Power Protector
Correct Answer: C Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
http://h18004.www1.hp.com/products/solutions/power/index.html (first para) The HP Power Advisor is a
tool provided by Hewlett-Packard to assist in the estimation of power consumption and proper selection of
components including power supplies at a system, rack, and multi-rack level.

QUESTION 7
A customer chose HP ProLiant for a VMware project that involves providing high availability for old and non-cluster aware application. The customer asks how to best protect against physical hardware failure in the VMware environment.
Which HP component provides the ability to v-Motion VMs to another physical server if a hardware-based pre-failure event occurs?
A. Insight Foundation with vSphere integration
B. Insight Control Virtualization Management
C. OpenView Operations 5 for VMware
D. Indight Control for VMware
Correct Answer: B Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: http://h18004.www1.hp.com/products/quickspecs/12631_div/12631_div.HTML
Insight Control enables you to get the most out of a unified physical and virtual server infrastructure. Insight Control offers an out-of-the-box solution that can receive a predictive failure alert and automatically evacuate all VMs from a VMware ESX host server by initiating VMware DRS. VMware ESXi 5 environments also support lockdown/non-lockdown modes, autoboot, and stateless/stateful modes. Lockdown mode provides for increased security of ESXi hosts.
Flexible move capabilities allow multiple usage scenarios. In high-availability situations that do not allow service interruptions, Live Move (initiate VMware vMotion technology from Insight Control
QUESTION 8
An external storage device is connected to HP ProLiant Gen8 servers VMware 5.0i. You want to create a shared datastore for all the servers. After creating a LUN on a storage device, what is the correct procedure to do this?
A. Present the LUN to one ESXi server, using the storage configuration tool, create a VMFS datastore and enable Round Robin or MRU policy for that datastore.
B. Present the LUN to the server running VCenter, create a datastore and present it to the ESXi servers.
C. Present the LUN to all servers and format it with the VMFS file system from any of them, the remaining servers will recognize the newly created datastore.
D. Present the LUN to one of the servers and create a datastore; enable access for the remaining servers.
Correct Answer: C Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 9
A customer Installed Insight server deployment on a server that also hosts the DHCP server. Which option is required on the DHCP server for HP Insight Control server deployment to register PXE clients?
A. Option 5 name Server
B. Option 15 Domain Name
C. Option 50 Address Request
D. Option 60 Class ID
Correct Answer: D Explanation Explanation/Reference:
Reference: http://h20000.www2.hp.com/bizsupport/TechSupport/Document.jsp? lang=en&cc=us&taskId=110&prodSeriesId=332359&prodTypeId=18964&objectID=c03310264
QUESTION 10
Which HP solution delivers secure monitoring diagnosis, and problem resolution at no charge HP support?
A. 10 Proactive Carepacks credits
B. Collaborative Support for third-party troubleshooting
C. Insight Remote Support
D. iLO Advanced pack
Correct Answer: C Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Reference: http://blogs.technet.com/b/storageserver/archive/2013/02/26/hp-storeeasy-storage- (see HP Insight remote support) appliances-and-gateways.aspx
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How can a tagged packet be processed for QoS when it is received on an inbound interface? (Select three.)
A. The marked priority level can be changed to enforce predetermined classification levels.
B. The packet can be scheduled for a queue based on the marked 802.1p priority level.
C. The packet can be moved to a more secure VLAN and its priority remarked.
D. The packet can be scheduled for a queue based on a preset policy.
E. The packet can be discarded or rerouted if it does not match a set policy.
F. The packet can be prevented switch traversal for a predetermined penalty period.
Correct Answer: ABD
QUESTION 2
What are Virtual Connect Enterprise Manager features? (Select three.)
A. is licensed per enclosure
B. is licensed with the Virtual Connect Ethernet module
C. is embedded on the Virtual Connect Ethernet module
D. can administer up to 256,000 network addresses
E. can manage a single domain of up to four enclosures
F. can administer up to 16,000 servers

Correct Answer: ADF
QUESTION 3
Which is a unique feature of a virtual switch?
A. port mirroring for packet analysis
B. VLAN segmentation at the port level
C. no packet forwarding (routing) between VLANs
D. maximum of 1016 ports per switch

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 4
What is considered a Virtual Connect domain in Virtual Connect Enterprise Manager?
A. a maximum of 1,000 enclosures
B. a maximum of 16,000 servers
C. from 1 to 4 enclosures
D. 250 Virtual Connect Manager domains

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 5
Which industry-standard protocols are supported on Virtual Connect Ethernet uplinks? (Select three.)
A. IEEE 802.1 AX (802.3ad) Link Layer Discovery Protocol (LLDP)
B. IEEE 802.1w-2001 Rapid Spanning Tree (RSTP)
C. IEEE 802.1p Quality of Service (QoS)
D. IEEE 802.1 AX (802.3ad) Link Aggregation Protocol
E. IEEE 802.1Q VLAN tagging
F. IEEE 802.3af-2003 Power over Ethernet (PoE)
Correct Answer: ADE

QUESTION 6
Which tasks are used to define a vNet for Virtual Connect Ethernet? (Select three.)
A. Assign only one network per server NIC.
B. Assign one or multiple networks per server NIC.
C. Optionally set the native VLAN.
D. Define the server profile.
E. Specify VLAN names/IDs.
F. Select unassigned uplinks.
Correct Answer: ADF
QUESTION 7
Which spanning tree protocol is the most appropriate in a VLAN-aware, non-proprietary network implementation?
A. RSTP
B. PVST+
C. MSTP
D. STP
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 8
The IEEE 802.1AX (802.3ad) Link Aggregation Control Protocol is a Layer 2 protocol. What is its function?
A. dynamically identifies link speeds regardless of media type B. forms port trunks consisting of two or more uplink ports
C. identifies the VLAN to which frames transmitted on a link or port trunk belong
D. advertises information that describes and identifies devices

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 9
What is used to achieve Fibre Channel data transfer?
A. channel mesh
B. packets
C. tunnels
D. frames

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 10
What does N_Port ID virtualization do?
A. provides an abstraction layer between the server HBAs and the SAN
B. provides interoperability among third-party SAN device manufacturers
C. provides connectivity between the Virtual Connect module and the Onboard Administrator
D. enables a single HBA port to register multiple, unique WWNs within a fabric

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 11
What is considered a trunk in a Cisco switching environment?
A. aggregated switch links
B. tagged VLAN port (802.1Q)
C. tagged VLAN port plus link aggregation
D. Shared Uplink Set plus Connection Mode Auto

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 12
In a switching environment with redundant links, which technology is required for proper operation?
A. VLANs
B. Cisco vPC
C. loop prevention
D. dynamic routing

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 13
What are valid FlexNIC bandwidth selections? (Select three.)
A. Preferred
B. Assigned
C. Static
D. Custom
E. Dynamic
F. Auto

Correct Answer: ADF
QUESTION 14
You are configuring Virtual Connect Flex-10 10Gb Ethernet modules with Flex-10 server adapters. What is an important network design consideration?
A. The Virtual Connect Flex-10 10Gb Ethernet module does not enforce VLAN isolation between FlexNICs of the same server LAN on Motherboard (LOM).
B. If the Flex-10 server adapters are implemented as mezzanine cards, the Virtual Connect Flex-10 10Gb Ethernet module requires all FlexNICs be configured for the same speed.
C. The Virtual Connect Manager will enforce physical port isolation by not allowing FlexNICs of the same server port to connect to the same Virtual Connect network.
D. LACP trunking is not allowed between Virtual Connect uplink ports and infrastructure switch ports located on different modules, even if within the same physical switch.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 15
On a Cisco switch, what does the portfast setting do?
A. eliminates auto-negotiation delays with 10GbE ports
B. ensures the link is at maximum speed regardless of configuration
C. causes BPDUs to be blocked if sensed
D. eliminates delays inherent in RSTP/MSTP synchronization
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 16
What does trunk refer to in industry-standard terminology?
A. aggregated switch links
B. tagged VLAN port (802.1Q)
C. tagged VLAN port plus link aggregation
D. Shared Uplink Set plus Connection Mode Auto

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 17
Which statements are true about port VLAN memberships? (Select three.)
A. A port can be an untagged member of multiple VLANs.
B. A port must be a member of at least one VLAN.
C. A port must be a tagged member of only one VLAN.
D. A port can be an untagged member of only one VLAN.
E. A port can be a tagged member of multiple VLANs.
F. A port can be a tagged member of one VLAN and an untagged member of multiple VLANs.

Correct Answer: BDE
QUESTION 18
What are the requirements for link aggregation using LACP? (Select three.)
A. Links must have the same tagged VLANs assigned.
B. Links must be the same speed.
C. Links must use the same media type.
D. Links must share a boundary.
E. Links must be full-duplex.
F. Links must be fiber connections.

Correct Answer: BDE
QUESTION 19
What are valid reasons for implementing VLANs? (Select two.)
A. to segregate traffic by resource or application needs
B. to provide enhanced name resolution
C. to reduce subnet cost options
D. to minimize the effect of broadcast traffic on hosts
E. to support multipathing

Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 20
Which port is the lowest-cost path to the spanning tree root bridge?
A. root port
B. defined root port
C. designated port
D. forwarding port

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 21
Which action is required at the guest operating system level to enable it to run on a virtual machine?
A. A key code must be loaded into the registry and validated by VMware.
B. The VMware driver must be loaded for full network support.
C. No action is required because VMware is transparent to the operating system.
D. A VMware license must be loaded on each guest.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 22
What can be used by a QoS policy to classify traffic? (Select two.)
A. packet size
B. egress port
C. TCP port number
D. TCP window size
E. VLAN ID
Correct Answer: CE
QUESTION 23
Which advantages do ACLs offer? (Select two.)
A. fewer necessary support staff
B. increased network security
C. smaller broadcast domain
D. reduced network complexity
E. improved network performance
Correct Answer: BE QUESTION 24
How many World Wide Names (WWNs) does Virtual Connect Manager make available?
A. 64 total available WWNs
B. 64 ranges for a total of 128 WWNs
C. 64 ranges for a total of 1024 WWNs
D. 128 ranges of 64 WWNS Correct Answer: C QUESTION 25
Click the Exhibit button.

Identify the port type shown in the blue outlined area.
A. fiber
B. SFP+
C. RJ-45
D. dedicated

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 26
A device with a non-compliant 802.1Q network adapter (NIC) is plugged into which type of switch port?
A. workstation
B. untagged
C. trunk
D. tagged Correct Answer: B QUESTION 27
What best describes the functionality of the Virtual Connect Ethernet module?
A. Layer 2 switch
B. Layer 3 switch
C. pass-thru module
D. Ethernet port aggregator

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 28
Click the Exhibit button.

What does the illustration reveal about the hardware configuration of the HP Integrity BL860c server blade? (Select two.)
A. The LOM is not a Flex-10 module.
B. The Flex-10 interface is in mezzanine Slot 2.
C. Ports 5 and 6 are preferred for connectivity.
D. Ports 7 through 12 are defective.
E. VLANs A and B are incorrectly configured.
QUESTION 29
What is the advantage of using Virtual Connect Flex-10 technology in a VMware environment?
A. It becomes tightly linked with VMware for better management through vCenter.
B. It eliminates the limit on NIC connections imposed by default on each VMware server.
C. It enables full VLAN support in VMware including multiple tagging functionality.
D. It allows bandwidth to be allocated as necessary to each VMware service or application.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 30
What are valid reasons for creating trunk links between switches? (Select three.)
A. Standby link capabilities are available with dynamic trunks.
B. A greater number of VLANs can be supported.
C. Capacity is maximized by increasing the number of links available for data flow.
D. Guaranteed load balancing prevents unbalanced traffic load across links.
E. There is improved availability because of the lower risk of link failure.
F. The overall error count on the switch is decreased.

Correct Answer: ACE
QUESTION 31
Click the Exhibit button.

What is the status of the Windows Server 2008 NICs under View Network Connections with the server profile configuration shown in the exhibit?
A. Only the NICs represented by Ports 1 and 2 will be shown.
B. All the NICs will display as connected.
C. All the NICs will display as disconnected.
D. Two NICs will display as connected and six will display as disconnected.

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 32
What is the default global parameter setting for how Virtual Connect handles VLANs?
A. Native VLANs Tag mode
B. Tunnel VLANs Tag mode
C. Enable VLANs Tag mode
D. Map VLANs Tag mode Correct Answer: D QUESTION 33
What does a priority value of 101110 denote?
A. VLAN scheduling
B. Stacked QoS
C. Layer 2 QoS
D. Layer 3 QoS

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 34
When a Flex-10 server adapter is deployed in a Virtual Connect Flex-10 environment, how are the FlexNICs recognized by the operating system?
A. as individual 10GbE NICs, until the correct driver is loaded by the operating system at boot time
B. as individual NICs, after the correct license key has been loaded and verified by the Onboard Administrator
C. as individual 1GbE NICs, until the correct driver is loaded by the operating system at boot time
D. transparently, because the server ROM recognizes each FlexNIC as an individual NIC with its own driver Correct Answer: D QUESTION 35
How many BladeSystem c7000 enclosures are supported in a single Virtual Connect domain?
B. 4
C. 8
D. 16

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 36
Which management interface provides the administrator with the most control over switch parameters and monitoring functions?
A. SNMP
B. Web browser
C. Menu
D. CLI

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 37
You are creating a connection between multiple server blades and an external switch on a single VLAN. All traffic from the servers is tagged. What must you create within Virtual Connect if it is globally set for VLAN Tunnel mode?
A. simple vNET with Tunnel mode option enabled
B. Shared Uplink Set
C. simple vNET with Tunnel mode option disabled
D. untagged uplink trunk

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 38
Where are broadcasts flooded in Layer 2 switches?
A. to only those nodes in the same subnet as the originating node
B. through all ports except the port the broadcast came in on
C. through all ports in the same VLAN except the port it came in on
D. through all ports and all VLANs on the switch

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 39
Which tasks are only used for defining a Shared Uplink Set for Virtual Connect Ethernet? (Select three.)
A. Optionally set native VLAN.
B. Define server profile.
C. Assign one or multiple networks per server NIC.
D. Assign only one network per server NIC.
E. Select unassigned uplinks.
F. Specify VLAN names/IDs.

Correct Answer: ACF
QUESTION 40
What is required for a Layer 3 switch to route between directly connected VLANs? (Select two.)
A. IP routing must be globally enabled on the switch.
B. Dynamic Layer 3 routing protocol must be enabled and configured.
C. There must be multi-netted IP addresses on all VLAN interfaces on the switch.
D. An IP address must be configured for each VLAN that will be forwarded.
E. A DHCP helper address must be defined on each participating VLAN.
Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 41
In an IP subnet without VLANs, each subnet terminates at the interface. How are IP subnets with VLANs different?
A. VLAN IP subnets terminate at each port.
B. VLAN IP interfaces are more easily multi-netted with VLANs.
C. VLAN IP subnets allow for greater control with ACLs.
D. VLAN IP subnets are logically separated from the router.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 42
What is the function of the active member of a dynamic LACP trunk?
A. determines the trunk link used for each given Layer 2 node-to-node conversation
B. requests dynamic port utilization from the receiving node to the sending node to form the LACP trunk
C. listens for BPDUs and forms a dynamic trunk when a MAC address of the same partner is heard on multiple ports
D. sends BPDUs and forms a dynamic trunk if a partner hears its MAC address on multiple ports
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 43
What is a limitation of the VMware vNetwork standard switch?
A. Tagged VLANs are not supported in a virtual switch.
B. MAC forwarding tables are not implemented in a virtual switch.
C. Virtual machines cannot communicate through the virtual switch.
D. Spanning tree is not supported in a virtual switch.

Correct Answer: D

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QUESTION NO: 1
Which feature is exclusive to the ProLiant 100 Series family?
A. BIOS Serial Console
B. Automatic Server Recovery (ASR-2)
C. Watchdog Timer
D. Web-based Enterprise Management (WBEM)
Answer: C Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 2
What is required to enable RAID 6+0 on the HP Smart Array P411 Controller? (Select two.)
A. six enabled ports
B. Smart Array Advanced Pack
C. minimum of six disks
D. minimum of four disks
E. battery kit for installed BBWC
Answer: B,E Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 3
Which actions can HP SIM take on a trap sent by a ProLiant server? (Select two.)
A. send an email to the administrator
B. call the administrator phone number
C. launch a script
D. collect a “survey” file of the server and send it to the HP Support team
Answer: A,C Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 4

Which protocols can HP SIM use for the initial data collection? (Select two.)
A. SNMP
B. ICMP
C. SMTP
D. DMI
Answer: A,D Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 5
Which protocol provides system management data through the Windows Management Instrumentation (WMI) framework for ProLiant servers?
A. WBEM
B. SNMP

C. HTTP
D. SSH
Answer: A Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 6
Click the Exhibit button.
You are viewing systems on the CMS of HP Systems Insight Manager. What is indicated by the presence of the PF column?
A. VMM is installed.
B. PMP is installed.
C. VCRM is installed.
D. IPM is installed.
Answer: B Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 7
What is a new feature of the IPv6 addressing scheme?
A. a network prefix that enables routing decisions at the network layer
B. a network host that specifies a particular device in the network
C. an anycast address defined to send a packet to any one of a group of nodes
D. address space allocation, based on an octet system
Answer: C Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 8

Your customer needs to be able to split and recombine mirrors on his DL380 G6 Server. What must be done to enable this feature?
A. Enable the Mirror Splitting in Offline Mode option in ACU.
B. Activate the Smart Array Advanced Pack (SAAP) by installing the activation license key in ORCA.
C. Activate the Smart Array Advanced Pack (SAAP) by installing the activation license key in RBSU.
D. Enable the Advanced Capacity Expansion option in ACU.
Answer: B Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 9
You have just added two internal drives to your ProLiant server. Which utilities should you use to allocate the raw space to the Smart Array volume and extend the Windows NTFS partition to use all the new space? (Select two.)
A. diskpart.exe
B. chkdsk.exe
C. HP Storage Resource Manager

D. ACU
E. ORCA
Answer: A,D Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 10
Which tool can be used to help optimize processor performance before and after modifications are implemented?
A. Firmware Management CD
B. ProLiant Processor Performance Utility
C. HP Insight Performance Management module
D. Insight Control Power Capping
Answer: C Explanation:

QUESTION NO: 11
Which tool enables reactive and proactive remote support to improve the availability of HP- supported servers and associated storage systems in a data center, relies on several HP components like Insight Management Agent and uses SNMP or WBEM for communication?
A. HP Insight Remote Support Advanced
B. HP Remote Diagnostic Monitor
C. HP Systems Insight Manager
D. Proactive 24 Care Pack service
Answer: A Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 12
When deploying an RDP solution, which network component must be installed and properly configured?
A. SNMP
B. WBEM
C. SMTP
D. DHCP
Answer: D Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 13
When purchasing the ProLiant Extended Warranty Care Pack, which features are included in addition to the Base Warranty features? (Select three.)
A. software support
B. committed response times
C. hardware protection from manufacturer defect
D. flexible support levels

E. parts and labor
Answer: A,B,D Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 14
Which components are covered under the HP Pre-failure Warranty? (Select three.)
A. power supplies
B. host bus adapters
C. processors
D. SCSI drives
E. fans
F. memory
Answer: C,D,F Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 15
Which HP tool can be used to expand an existing array online?
A. ROM-Based Setup Utility (RBSU)
B. Option ROM Configuration for Arrays (ORCA)
C. System Configuration Utility (SCU)
D. HP System Management Homepage (SMH)
E. Array Configuration Utility (ACU)
Answer: E Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 16
A second Smart Array Controller has been added to a ProLiant server. What should you check in the ROM-Based Setup Utility?
A. Removable Flash Media Boot Sequence

B. PCI Express 2.0 support
C. Standard Boot Order
D. Boot Controller Order
Answer: D Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 17
A customer wants you to configure his ProLiant G6 for maximum power saving. What is the recommended way for you to accomplish this?
A. Plug in only one power cord, if the system is equipped with two power supplies.
B. Disable Hyperthreading.
C. Choose the “Minimum Power Usage” – profile in RBSU.
D. Choose the “Minimum Power Management” – profile in Control Panel.
Answer: C Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 18
If the MTBF of a single drive is 200,000 hours, how many hours is the MTBF of a five drive array?
A. 40,000 hours
B. 50,000 hours
C. 80,000 hours
D. 200,000 hours
E. 1,000,000 hours
Answer: A Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 19
Which type of disk drives are supported in an MSA 2000fc?
A. FATA drives B. Ultra320 SCSI drives

C. SAS drives
D. FC drives
Answer: C Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 20
Where can you locate a SmartStart CD?
A. HP Insight Foundation Suite for ProLiant
B. HP Insight software
C. SmartStart Scripting Toolkit
D. Insight Rapid Deployment software
Answer: A Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 21
Which tools can be used to perform the initial server configuration on a ProLiant ML 300-series server on which you will install SUSE Linux Enterprise Server 11? (Select two.)
A. Insight Control Advisor
B. ROM-Based Setup Utility
C. Extensible Firmware Interface
D. HP Smart Setup
E. Option ROM Configuration for Arrays
Answer: B,E Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 22 HOTSPOT
Click the Task button. Your customer requires an application for health monitoring of a ProLiant server. His internal policies, prevent him from using SNMP. Click on the option that you must check during assisted installation from the SmartStart CD.
Answer:

Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 23
You finished an installation of Windows Server 2008 on a ProLiant server, but you notice in device manager that some devices are not installed properly and the HP System Management Homepage (SMH) is not available. How can these issues be resolved?
A. Assign a different IRQ for each of the devices using the ROM-Based Setup Utility.
B. Restore the operating system to the latest checkpoint using the System Recovery feature.
C. Enable missing devices in the ROM-Based Setup Utility and change firewall settings to enable communication with the SMH on port 2381.
D. Install the latest ProLiant Support Pack for Windows Server 2008.
Answer: D Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 24
When preparing a Scope of Work to assess RAID requirements, which factor is the most critical to properly sizing the solution?
A. disaster tolerance

B. cache size
C. mirror sizing
D. disk stripe size
Answer: A Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 25
Which action is recommended when accessing Version Control Repository Manager (VCRM) from Version Control Agent (VCA)?
A. use Built in VCRM user account
B. use Administrator account
C. modify existing account VCA Operator
D. create a separate account for VCRM with administrator rights and use this account
Answer: D Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 26
Which statements are correct regarding ProLiant 100-Series servers? (Select two.)
A. They use the Rom-Based Setup Utility (RBSU).
B. They support the Intelligent Platform Management Interface (IPMI).
C. They can have Lights-Out 100 or Lights-Out 100i for remote management.
D. They ship with HP Insight Foundation Suite for ProLiants.
E. They use Trusted Platform Modules for setup.
Answer: B,C Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 27
Which common industry standard technology is used to monitor servers, storage and network devices?

A. Simple Environment Management Protocol (SEMP)
B. Automatic Server Recovery (ASR)
C. Intelligent Platform Management Interface (IPMI)
D. Internet Control Message Protocol (ICMP)
Answer: C Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 28
What provides a consolidated view of HP server system health?
A. Array Diagnostic Utility (ADU)
B. SmartStart CD
C. ROM-Based Setup Utility (RBSU)
D. System Management Homepage (SMH)
Answer: D Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 29
What is used to access the Integrated Management Log?
A. Easy Set-up CD
B. Event Viewer
C. Insight Diagnostics
D. Firmware Maintenance CD
Answer: C Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 30
Which HP server series provides Watchdog Timer?
A. 100 Series
B. 300 Series C. 500 Series

D. 700 Series
Answer: A Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 31
Which features do Serial Attached SCSI and Fiber Channel have in common? (Select two.)
A. dual port hard drive interface
B. support for up to 15 meters external cable length
C. half duplex data transfer
D. compatible frame format
E. the number of supported devices
Answer: A,D Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 32
What is needed to install storage controller drivers during a Windows operating system installation from a CD using virtual floppy in a ProLiant SL170z G6 Server?
A. iLO firmware update .bin file
B. SmartStart version 8.30 or higher
C. LO100i Advance Pack
D. iLO 2 Advance Pack
Answer: C Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 33
Which storage solution offers a highly available configuration and 24×7 software support?
A. EVA4400
B. MSA2000

C. LH P4000
D. X3000
Answer: A Explanation:

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QUESTION 1
A company is migrating three applications currently running on three separate HP-UX Integrity servers. The plan is to migrate them into a Superdome 2 Serv. three applications are business critical, and the main focus is the uptime, as any interruptions cause financial losses.
Which HP-UX virtualization technology provides the best solution?
A. Create a single nPar.
B. Create three nPars.
C. Create three vPars
D. Create three Integrity Virtual Machines
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 2
Which functionalities does AutoFS provide? (Select three.)
A. may be configured to modify NFS filesystem permissions when needed
B. may be configured to provide load balancing across multiple NFS servers
C. automatically exports filesystems on the NFS server when needed
D. automatically unmounts NFS filesystems that are no longer being accessed
E. automatically updates /etc/fstab on NFS clients when needed
F. automatically mounts NFS filesystems when needed
Correct Answer: ACE

QUESTION 3
Which methods allow you to install an Integrity server using an Ignite-UX server on a different subnet? (Select two)
A. Use the dbprofileEFI command
B. Use the ifconfigEFI command.
C. Use the loadfile command
D. Use a boot helper system
E. Use the lanboot command
Correct Answer: BE

QUESTION 4
A customer has a version 6 2 Integrity VM, and they convert this guest to a vPar using the following command:

The hpvmmodify command completes successfully. When they attempt to boot the guest in vPar mode, they get the following output

What ate the possible reasons the vPar failed to boot? (Select two)
A. TheVM guest was running a version of HP-UX 1li v3 prior 10 the September 2011 update release, which is not a supported vPar OS
B. The VM guest did not have the required vPar guest kit installed and therefore cannot run in vPar mode
C. The VM guest was running HP-UX 11i v2 which is not a supported vPar OS
D. The VM guest was not configured with sufficient memory to run as a vPar guest
E. The VM guest was running a version of HP-UX 11i v3 prior to the September 2012 update release, which is not a supported vPar OS
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 5
Which tool can be used to modify nPar configurations?
A. HP System Insight Manager (HP SIM)
B. HP System Management Homepage (HP SMH)
C. iLO Monarch Management Processor
D. Domain Management Processor
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 6
Which statement about auditing Standard Mode Security Extensions (SMSE) is correct?
A. SMSE uses an external daemon to maintain the audit logs.
B. SMSE Audit log files can be read by the users of the SMSE-Administrator Group “smeadm”.
C. SMSE auditing is available on HP-UX 11i v1, HP-UX 11i v2, and HP-UX lit v3.
D. SMSE auditing is compatible with NIS and LDAP.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 7
How do you boot a firmware-based vPar over the network on the HP Integrity Superdorne 2 server?
A. Use the vparboot command from the Virtualization Services Platform (VSP), and run the vparconsole command. Use the CO command to getfor console. Then use the lanbootEFI command.
B. Use the vparconsole command to connect to the vPaiiLO, and use the PC command to power on the vPar Use the Co command to get to the console use the lanbootEFI command.
C. Login to the Superdome 2QA, and use the vparboot command. Use the COcommand to connect to the console. Then use the lanbootEFI console
D. Login to another vPar on the same nPar. Use the vparboot-I <ignite server IP> command to lanboot the vPar.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 8
Which tools can be used to manage nPars on a Superdome 2 server? (Select two)
A. Insight Control Environment
B. Onboard Administrator GUI
C. Virtual Server Management
D. Onboard Administrator CLI
E. VSP CLI
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 9
A customer needs a partitioning solution that provides dedicated resources and electrical isolation. Which HP solution should the customer use?
A. vPars
B. Integrity VM
C. HP Containers
D. nPars
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 10
Refer to the exhibit

Which configuration produces the output?

A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 11
The HP-UX 11i v3 mass storage stack has different load balancing policies available. Which policy is the default?
A. preferred_path
B. closest _ path
C. least_cmd_load
D. round robin

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 12
What are the customer benefits of the HP-UX Operating Environments (e.g. VSE-OE, HA-OE. DC-OE), as compared lo ordering the same software separately? (Select three)
A. Reduced purchasing cost for customer
B. Reduced amount of codewords required to manage software
C. Performance of HP applications tuned with the HP-UX OS
D. Reduced amount of disk space used for OS and HP applications
E. Reduced new-system sales quote and configuration complexity
F. reduced number of service contracts

Correct Answer: ACF QUESTION 13
Which HP-UX tool can be used to get detailed low level metrics of code running on Itanium processors?
A. prospect
B. caliper
C. sar
D. Isof

Correct Answer: A