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A technician is adding the Virtual link Aggregation Control Protocol (VLACP) configuration to a Converged Campus Solution where all Ethernet Routing Switches (ERSs) are directly connected without intermediary WAN transport devices. What are two recommended configuration tasks? (Choose two.)
A. Configure all links to use the same timeout value.
B. For the Inter Switch Trunks (1ST) links, configure the long time-out value.
C. For the SMLT links, configure the long timeout value.
D. Configure all links to use a global reserved multicast MAC address for VLACP messages.

Correct Answer: BD
The Ethernet Routing Switch (ERS) 8600 supports the feature IP VPN-Lite that does not require the use of an MPLS network. Which function does the ERS 8600 as a Provider Edge (PE) perform for IP VPN-Lite?
A. The PE uses the Virtual Routing Forwarding (VRF) instances to provide traffic separation
B. The PE provides route exchange with remote PE devices using OSPF.
C. The PE encapsulates the IP packets into the separate VPN-Lite VLANs for traffic separation
D. The PE incorporates Label Distribution Protocol across the core network to connect remote PE devices.

Correct Answer: A
To confirm that routed Split Multi-Link Trunking (RSMLT) will work on a set of VLANs, which network design aspect should be considered?
A. RSMLT is enabled on each SMLT VLAN on which the function is required.
B. RSMLT is enabled on the VLAN group
C. Router 1 always owns the network
D. RSMLT is enabled on all SMLT VLANs

Correct Answer: A
A technician discovers that an Ethernet Routing Switch (ERS) 8300 cat5e copper link is intermittent. The link connects a distant workstation to 8348GTX port 6/2. The cable path is undetermined at this point and it is suspected to traverse many patch panels. How can the ERS
8300 Time Domain reflectometer tool be of help in this situation?
A. The Virtual Circuit Test command config ethernet 6/2 vct test can detect opens, shorts, bad terminations.
B. The virtual circuit Repair command config ethernet 6/2 vct repair can detect the bad cable pairs and repair the cable by moving data to the good cable pairs.
C. The Virtual Circuit Echo command config ethernet 6/2 vct echo can detect the bad cable pairs only when connected to another ERS 8300.
D. The Virtual Circuit Detect command config ethernet 6/2 vct detect can detect how many patch panels are used between the device and switch and provide a percentage of dropped packets.

Correct Answer: A
Trace out allows a route to be traced to a network using an Ethernet Routing Switch (ERS) 8600 CLI command. In the command output, the possible range of ‘w’ values is 1-255. The ‘w’ value represents wait time for what?
A. Start of command execution
B. Time to live
C. Per probe
D. Completion of trace out report
Correct Answer: C
What is Enterprise Policy Manager (EPM) used for in an Enterprise network?
A. to manage traffic prioritization and network access security for business applications
B. as an alternative to EA servers
C. to distribute control of packet classification for resiliency and efficiency
D. to assign user role attributes on the RADIUS server
Correct Answer: A
Which protocol can be used for end-to-end detection in a network as well as for point-to-point

Correct Answer: B
When multiple VLANs are used, Dynamic Host Control protocol (DHCP) relay is required to get the DHCP information from the end user VLAN to the DHCP server. Which statement about how to enable DHCP relay for a VLAN is true?
A. The physical VLAN IP address is used as the DHCP relay agent.
B. The IP address of the DHCP relay agent is used.
C. The IP address of the core server VLAN is used
D. The virtual VLAN IP address is used as the DHCP relay agent.

Correct Answer: D
The trace level 9 3 command accomplish?
A. It captures BGP events at a terse level.
B. It captures packets copied to the CPU at a verbose level.
C. It shows CPU utilization.
D. It captures RCC IP events at verbose level.

Correct Answer: B
A technician is configuring 802.1Q tagging Virtual Link Aggregation Control Protocol (VLACP) with timeout and untagged frames to be discarded. Which part of the network is being configured?
A. 1ST
B. the out-of-band management port
C. the edge access ports
D. the uplinks

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 11
When incorporating Split Multi-Link Trunk (SMLT) on a pair of Ethernet Routing Switch (ERS) 8600 switches traffic from the edge of the network is directed to either ERS 8600. The ping-snoop feature assists in determining which path the traffic is taking. How does the ping-snoop operation work? Determining which path the traffic is taking. How does the ping-snoop operation work?
A. Ping-snoop looks at the IP header and directs traffic to designated link.
B. Ping-snoop looks at the MAC header and directs traffic to the designated link
C. Ping-snoop identifies traffic that matches the IP flow specified in the ping-snoop command.
D. Ping-snoop identifies traffic that matches the MAC header (source and destination) specified in the ping-snoop command.

Correct Answer: C
One of the benefits of the Ethernet Routing switch (ERS) 8300 switch is its ability to provide power-over-Ethernet (PoE). When implementing PoE on the ERS 8300 there are certain power supply requirements to consider. The 8301AC produces 1140W and 1770W and the 8302AC produces 850W and 1400W depending on the input voltage for both cases. If there are eight 8648TX-PWR modules in a chassis, each needing 200W for Powered Devices (PI)) which power supply configuration is recommended?
A. One 8301AC power supply with 240VAC input voltage
B. Two 8302AC power supplies with 120VAC input voltage
C. Three 83CAC power supplies with 240VAC input voltage
D. Two 8301AC and one 8302Ac for redundancy with 240VAC input voltage

Correct Answer: C
When configuring an Ethernet Routing Switch (ERS) 8600 redundant Installation for warm standby, which protocol is used to give the fastest recalculation of large layer 3 topology by the standby CPU, after a Master CPU failure?
B. Rip
Correct Answer: C QUESTION 14
When configuring a new Ethernet Routing Switch (ERS) 8600 using the default interface, the attempt to load an ACLI configuration fails because the default interface is the CLI. How is the ACLI interface obtained?
A. Change the interface type in the config.cfg file.
B. Change the ACLI boot flag and save the boot configuration file.
C. Exit the CLI and choose ACLI at the interface manager prompt.
D. Use the abort command and enter ‘no’ at the default interface prompt.

Correct Answer: C
Which set of procedures will upgrade the boot monitor on an Ethernet Routing Switch (ERS) 8600 with a single 8692SF module?
A. Copy the new image to flash. Activate the new image with SF module in service.
B. Copy the new image to flash. Boot the new image.
C. Modify the boot choice for run-time image. Boot the new image.
D. Copy the new image to flash. Modify the boot choice for run-time image. Boot the new image.

Correct Answer: B
Which VLAN/VLANS should be included on the Inter Switch Trunks (1ST) for a proper functioning split Multi-Link Trunking (SMLT) configuration?
A. only VLAN 101
B. only VLAN 1 and the 1ST
C. only the VLANs that are also included on the SMLT/SLT uplinks
D. the 1ST VWN and all the vWNs that are included on all SMLT/SLT links
Correct Answer: D
Which feature can be used on a Split Multi Link Trunking (SMLT) with a Sod Down option?
A. Extended control packet limit (ext-CP)
B. Discard untagged frames
C. Simple Loop Prevention Protocol (SLPP)
D. Virtual Link Aggregation Protocol (VLACP)

Correct Answer: A
Fn Ethernet Routing Switch (ERS) 8300 configurations, which service class ensures that protocol updates such as RIP and OSPF are able to get out of a heavily congested switch?
A. Bronze
B. Standard
C. Network Control
D. Premium Control

Correct Answer: C
What is a characteristic of Routed Split Multi-Link Trunking (RSMLT) configuration?
A. RSMLT is only configured on edge SMLT connections.
B. RSMLT uses priority values to distinguish between the primary and backup routers
C. RSMLT routers are implemented with Virtual Routing Forwarding (VRF)-Lite routers
D. RSMLT is always used in conjunction with routing protocols and SMLT connections.

Correct Answer: D
An Information Technology organization needs to determine whether they should upgrade their existing Routing Switch (ERS) 8600 switches to release 5.0. Each chassis currently has both 8648GTR 8648TX modules. One of the features that the company requires is the ability to perform port mirroring on multiple ports per module at a time. What should be done to meet their port mirroring requirement when upgrading to software release 5.0?
A. Replace the existing modules with 8648GTRS modules,
B. Upgrade to ERS 8600 Release 5.0 without any hardware upgrade.
C. Replace the existing 8648TX modules with ERS 8648TXE for egress mirroring.
D. Recommend other means to capturing traffic.
Correct Answer: A QUESTION 21
Virtual Link Aggregation Control Protocol (VIACP) is configured by port, and traffic is only forwarded across the uplinks when VLACP is up and running correctly.

A = InterSwitch Trunk (1ST) 0 = Split Multi Link Trunk (SMLT)
#1 ERS 8600 #2 ERS 8600 #3 ERS 4500
When configuring VLACP for the network shown in the exhibit, where should it be configured?
A. On all IST links and not SMLT links
B. On all SMLT links and not IST links
C. On all IST and all SMLT links
D. On none of the IST or SMLT links depicted in this network

Correct Answer: C
Which statement describes specific mechanism available for managing the switch using common of IP address regardless of which CPU is the Primary?
A. The net gmt port can be assigned a virtual address for management access.
B. Virtual Router Redundancy Protocol (VRRP) provides a virtual IP address.
C. Routed Split Multi-Link Trunk Edge (RSMLT-Edge) provides access
D. The Virtual Routing Forwarding (VRF) feature includes a Circuitless IP address.

Correct Answer: A
An Ethernet Routing Switch (ERS) 8600 is being configured for Virtual Router Redundancy Protocol (VRRP). If the default value is used on the peer switch, which CLI command would cause this switch to be the VRRP master?
A. Config vlan 100 ip vrrp 100 priority 250
B. Config vlan 100 ip vrrp 100 priority 1
C. Config vlan 100 ip vrrp 100 master
D. Config vlan 100 ip vrrp 100 priority master

Correct Answer: A
For a Converged Campus network, which configuration change is recommended for the default VLAN (VLAN 1)?
A. Assign an IP address to the default VLAN for switch management.
B. Remove the default VLAN from active ports.
C. Configure QoS on the default VUW to support voice traffic.
D. Remove spanning tree from the default VLAN.

Correct Answer: A
Before enabling IP Source Guard through Device Manager, which two conditions must be met on the system (Choose two.)
A. Dynamic Host control Protocol (DHCP) snooping must be enabled globally
B. EAPOL must be enabled.
C. The bsSourceGuardConfigMode MIB object must be removed.
D. The port is an untrusted DHCP snooping and dynamic ARP Inspection port
Correct Answer: AD
A campus network requirement is to introduce Virtual Routing and Forwarding (VRF) in the existing Ethernet Routing Switch (ERS) 8600-based core. The technician has to configure VRF on the ERS 8600. Which statement represents the order for configuring a new VRF?
A. Create a new VLAN, add an IP address, create a VRF, and move the VLAN to the new VRI
B. Create a VRF, add an IP address, create a new VLAN, and move the VLAN to the new VRF
C. Create a VRF, create a new VLAN, add an IP address, and move the VLAN to the new VRF
D. Create a VRF, create a new VLAN move the VLAN to the new VRF, and add an IP address

Correct Answer: D
A technician is configuring an InterSwitch Trunk (IST) for Split Multi-Link Trunking (SMLT). Which statement about how the 1ST is addressed is true?
A. Configure the IP address of the ports that comprise the 1ST.
B. No address configurations are required when configuring an 1ST.
C. Configure the IP address of the VLAN that was created for the 1ST.
D. Configure the MAC addresses of the switches on each end of the 1ST.

Correct Answer: C
An existing enterprise network is using Ethernet Routing Switch (ERS) 8600 switches in the campus core. It has determined that 10 Gigabit links are required to replace the existing 1 Gigabit links 1 to the closest. This will affect 18 connections on each of the ERS 8600 switches. Which statement describes how to accomplish this requirement in each ERS 8600 chassis?
A. Replace the two existing switch fabric modules with 8394SF systems.
B. Replace the two existing switch fabric modules with 8692SF and Supermezz.
C. Replace the two existing 8616SXE modules with 8612XLRS modules.
D. Replace the six 8683XLR modules with 8612XLRS.

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 29
Not long after bootup of an upgraded Ethernet Routing Switch (ERS) 8310, the system hangs. Which statement describes the cause of this problem?
A. The CPU module was configured in slot 5.
B. An ERS 8600 module was configured in the 8300 chassis
C. The system includes dual 839xSF modules
D. The system was running in full duplex mode.

Correct Answer: C
Which statement describe step in provisioning SPBM in an Enterprise network?
A. IP addresses on the core links.
B. Enable SPBM and IS -IS globally on all nodes and on the core facing links.
C. Configure the MAC table.
D. Configure L2 and L3 VSNs on the core SPBM nodes.

Correct Answer: B
Syslog in the Ethernet Routing Switch (ERS) 8600 allows the mapping of ERS 8600 errors to be specified to the facility Local 0 -Local 7. What is another piece of information that syslog provides?
A. severity level
B. message frequency
C. syslog table location
D. system status

Correct Answer: A
When configuring Split Link Trunking (SLT) or Split Multi-Link Trunking (SMLT), what can be done to facilitate easily adding more VLANs to the network without impacting traffic?
A. 802.1Q-tag the uplinks.
B. Disable STP on the ports.
C. Index the ports.
D. Use redundant MLTs.

Correct Answer: A
The goal of the Converged Campus architecture is to provide a highly reliable infrastructure with subscribed failover preventing any interruption of traffic on the network?
What are the two primary benefits of this design goal? (Choose two)
A. In the event of a failure, no less of connectivity or application availability will be experienced by the end user.
B. This architecture provides high performance Layer 3 switching, resiliency, security, and services.
C. This design goal provides numerous connectivity options including Asynchronous Transfer Mode (ATM), Packet over SONET (POS), and 10 Gigabit Ethernet.
D. The design goal provides the ability to provide hitless software upgrade for the core of the network.

Correct Answer: AD
Based on the command line output shown in the exhibit, how many Gigabit Ethernet ports are available on this Ethernet Routing Switch (ERS) 8600?

A. 16
B. 24
C. 26
D. 28

Correct Answer: C
The technician is setting up an Ethernet Routing Switch (ERS) 8300 switch for QoS. It has been determined that unimportant traffic will be marked on the edge of the network with a default

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Which Proactive Contact 4.X hardware component in a hard dialer setup performs dialing functions and call progress analysis, plays messages, and bridges agents to called parties?
C. Digital switch
D. Access server
Answer: C
To track information being sent between the agent interface and the Avaya Proactive Contact 4.X server, which file should be accessed on the client side to verify what is happening?
A. Moagent32.log
B. Moagent32.dll
C. PCagent32.log
D. <agentname>.log
Answer: A

Given the following command: icall %12 %13 1 16144691010 Which function in swit is performed by this command?
A. It tests incoming channel 12 by placing a call to 16144691010 usingoutpulse rule 13.
B. It provides a monitoring channel 12 to listen to channel 13 for a call placed to 16144691010.
C. It places an outbound ISDN call through channel 13 to 16144691010 usingoutpulse rule 12.
D. It places an outbound ISDN call through channel 12 to 16144691010 usingoutpulse rule 13.
Answer: D

What is the default method of file transfer for Avaya Proactive Contact 4.X?
A. ftp
B. sftp
D. ssh
Answer: B

Which menu in the digital switch is used to refresh the NFS mount?
A. Host Configuration
B. Network Configuration
C. Peripheral Configuration
D. File System Configuration
Answer: B

When installing the Proactive Contact Supervisor suite, which application needs to be started first to configure the connection to the dialer?
A. Editor B. Monitor C. Analyst
D. Health Manager
Answer: D

When configuring Avaya CM to work with Proactive Contact with CTI, what must be activated on Avaya CM to allow for communication of agent changes on the PBX?
A. Status agent
B. Agent states
C. Agent API
D. DLG Service
Answer: B
Once you log into Proactive Contact Agent, what must you do to actually call customers in a job?
A. Select the Job menu and Join item.
B. Select the Work menu and Place Managed Call item.
C. Select the Settings menu and Change Agent Type item.
D. Select the Telephone menu and Take CallOff Hold item.
Answer: A

Which important function should a supervisor perform before running jobs for the day?
A. Perform a backup of the system.
B. Verify that downloads were received and processed.
C. Run reports on the previous day’s calling.
D. Restart the Proactive Contact application.
Answer: B

What happens to database information on secondary dialers in a POD if the primary dialer is down?
A. All database information is lost until the primary dialer is restarted.
B. Data is still available to all the non-primary dialers in the pod as long as the network is still up.
C. Each secondary dialer stores its own data and then redistributes it after the primary dialer is restarted.
D. Supervisors must switch to the Character-User Interface (CUI) and run a script through the System Administrator menu to reactivate the database.
Answer: C
Which directory contains the file with the format layout of a calling list as it would be coming from
the host raw file on a Proactive Contact 4.X system?
A. /opt/avaya/pds/tape
B. /opt/avaya/pds/lists/list#.app
C. /opt/avaya/pds/lists
D. /opt/avaya/pds/tape/list#.app
Answer: B

Which file can prevent a record from being called due to legal calling time limitations?
A. locale.cfg
B. opmon.cfg
C. timezone.cfg
D. phonefmt.cfg
Answer: C

Which HP processor is currently supported with Avaya Proactive Contact 4.X?
A. Proliant DL385 G2
B. B2600
C. C8000
D. CX2600
Answer: A
Which backup would contain a complete image of the system on Proactive Contact 4.X?
A. Complete System
B. System and Calling Lists
C. System Configuration Files
D. Create Bootable Backup
Answer: D
Answer: A

All agents are returning from a meeting and trying to log back into the Proactive Contact. After entering an ID and password, the agents enter their extensions and agent types; they receive an error, “Invalid headset ID.”
Which command should be used to verify that the process “opmon” is running?
A. nslist
B. check_db
C. check_pds
D. check_mts
Answer: C

When configuring LDAP for a podded system, which command should be run to verify that the LDAP service is running?
A. serviceldap status
B. slapd status
C. check_ldap
D. ldap start
Answer: B
You find that many records are being released on the system as completion code 04. Which
feature should you use to determine if specific lines are having a problem?
A. PIF Report
B. Event Monitor
C. List Distribution
D. PC Analysis Extract
Answer: D

Your customer has accidentally deleted a very complicated and frequently used call selection file. You must determine if the type of backup they make every evening includes the files that allow you to restore this call selection. Which two types of backups include a call selection file? (Choose two.)
A. Database
B. Data/stat files
C. System configuration files
D. System and calling lists
Answer: C,D

Agents are no longer being acquired or released. Which two command-line troubleshooting tools can you use to see if all of the blend processes are still running? (Choose two.)
A. rpm -l
B. cbaui
C. vmstat
D. check_pds
Answer: B,D

Which three files must be configured for due diligence/postupdate? (Choose three.)
A. list#.fdict
B. list#_up.dict
C. master.cfg
D. <filename>.job
E. list#.dnld
Answer: A,D,E

Which two types of agent headsets are configured in opmon.cfg? (Choose two.)
A. dialback
B. Proactive
C. Dedicated
D. Predictive
Answer: A,C

In which directory should a non-standard shell script be placed in Proactive Contact?
A. /usr/vl/shell
B. /usr/vl/customs
C. /opt/avaya/pds/shell
D. /opt/avaya/pds/customs
Answer: D

On a Proactive Contact with CTI system, which Avaya CM configuration is only required if the customer is doing agent blending?
A. Vectors
B. Phantom Extensions
C. Auto Route Selection
D. Universal Call Identifier
Answer: B

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Question: 1
What is the main characteristic of Deal Registration?
A. The application used by Partners to register a customer/account to a Partner.
B. The primary application used by Certified Channel Partners to register new front-market sales opportunities
C. The application used by Avaya and Channel partners to submit complaints regarding each other’s conduct
D. The delivery mechanism for Avaya to send new territory opportunities to Partners

Answer: B
Question: 2
Although it is the Avaya strategy to market directly to Global Accounts, the CEO at a Global Account would prefer to do business with an Avaya Partner. Who will determine how the end-user will be served?
A. The Partner
B. The End-User
C. Avaya
D. The Partner and Avaya

Answer: B
Question: 3
The use of Business Advocate in a Contact Center can account for which of the following?
A. Higher agent occupancy
B. Longer call delays
C. More frequent transfers and conferences
D. Higher turn-over rate

Answer: A
Question: 4
Which is a possible consequence if a Partner does not obtain formal written approval prior to selling Avaya stand-alone maintenance renewals to a US Named Account or Global Account?
A. The Partner’s relationship to Avaya may be terminated immediately.
B. The Partner may lose the commission and/or revenue credit on the account.
C. There are no real consequences for not obtaining prior approval since obtaining prior approval is only a procedural guideline.
D. There are no consequences since the policy for Global and US Named Accounts is the same as for a Territory account.

Answer: B
Question: 5
Under what circumstance may Avaya or one of its Partners actively solicit business from each other’s existing customers where the customer has NOT issued an RFP?
A. A Partner executive has an established personal relationship with an executive from the customer who is seeking services
B. The end-user has indicated they are unhappy with their service support
C. The relationship is between the Partner and a Global or US Named Account
D. The business has been won in violation of the Sales Engagement Principles

Answer: C, D
Question: 6
What value message might you present to an LOB leader when selling Unified Communications?
A. Provides superior customer responsiveness
B. Closed-loop, two-way communications
C. Scalable and reliable
D. Provide a familiar user experience

Answer: A
Question: 7
When an engagement issue needs to be escalated, who should be contacted first?
A. The Partner Executive and the Avaya Channel Manager Executive / Alliance Director
B. The Partner Sales Executive and the Avaya Channel Manager Executive / Alliance Manager
C. The Partner Owner / President and the Avaya RVP
D. The Partner Management and the Avaya SVP

Answer: B
Question: 8
Based on the Avaya Sales Engagement Principles, when is it safe for a Partner to share end-user information or customer lists with Avaya personnel?
A. A partner should always feel safe since the engagement rules dictate that Avaya and the Partners will respect the confidentiality obligations to which they have agreed between them when establishing their relationship.
B. Partners should never share sensitive information with Avaya personnel or other Avaya Partners.
C. Safety is not the issue since the Partner agreement states that a Partner agrees that Avaya may use Partner provided information to actively compete with them.
D. Partners should only share sensitive information with Avaya personnel on an opportunity that is registered and accepted through eDemand.
Answer: A
Question: 9
What is the Avaya strategy regarding marketing and selling to Global Accounts?
A. To market and fulfill the Avaya solutions primarily through Partners, utilizing an indirect strategy
B. To market and sell to Global Accounts primarily through a direct sales strategy
C. To market and sell to Global Accounts primarily through telesales
D. To market and sell to US Named Accounts only through a direct sales strategy

Answer: B
Question: 10
Which of the following statements most closely represents this sales engagement principle, “Avaya and the Partners will respect each other and support customers as professionally and promptly as possible.”?
A. Avaya and the Partners should never speak poorly of each other’s business practices
B. Avaya and the Partners should not be overly concerned about what they say to end-users
C. Avaya and the Partners will foster a competitive environment with each other so it does not matter what we say
D. Avaya and the Partners should speak disparagingly to end-users about each other’s business practices

Answer: A
Question: 11
Which types of opportunities may be registered by Partners with Avaya?
A. New / Greenfield front-market opportunities identified by a Partner
B. Opportunities with existing accounts identified by Avaya only
C. New opportunities already registered by another Partner
D. Existing opportunities registered in Siebel by direct client executives

Answer: A
Question: 12
When is it acceptable for a Partner to use disparaging comments to pursue another Partner’s existing customer relationships?
A. It is never acceptable for a Partner to disparage another Partner or Avaya
B. If another Partner has initiated negative remarks
C. Whenever a competitive bid has been solicited by the end-user
D. When the end customer is initiating the conversation

Answer: A
Question: 13
The industry currently has a very _____ definition of UC.
A. Fluid
B. Refined
C. Complex
D. Standard

Answer: A
Question: 14
When a Channel Partner registers a new opportunity for a US Named or Global Account that is accepted by Avaya, when must the Channel Partner sell Avaya services for that opportunity?
A. Always
B. When there is an existing Avaya Maintenance agreement
C. The Partner is not required to sell Avaya Maintenance when an opportunity is registered and accepted
D. The Partner is not required to sell Avaya Maintenance for a US Named or Global Account.
Answer: B
Question: 15
Which three are top business imperatives in Customer Service? (Choose 3.)
A. Leveraging the global workforce
B. Strategic customer segmentation
C. Consistency of service
D. Use of the latest technologies
E. Providing every customer with a live interaction

Answer: A, B, C
Question: 16
At Customer Briefings, the Instructor recommends conducting live UC demonstrations _____.
A. After all presentation materials have been delivered
B. Grouped together, and as early as possible in the time allotted
C. Spaced evenly throughout the briefing
D. After each separate product is presented

Answer: B
Question: 17
What is a possible consequence if a Partner is offering a competitor’s solution to replace an existing Avaya solution (hardware, software or services)?
A. The Partner’s relationship to Avaya may be terminated immediately.
B. The Partner may lose the commission and / or revenue credit on the account.
C. There are no real consequences for not obtaining prior approval since obtaining prior approval is only a procedural guideline.
D. Avaya may refer the opportunity to another Partner or sell it direct.
Answer: D

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Question: 1
At Customer Briefings, the Instructor recommends conducting live UC demonstrations _____.
A. After all presentation materials have been delivered
B. Grouped together, and as early as possible in the time allotted
C. Spaced evenly throughout the briefing
D. After each separate product is presented

Answer: B
Question: 2
What is a possible consequence if a Partner is offering a competitor’s solution to replace an existing Avaya solution (hardware, software or services)?
A. The Partner’s relationship to Avaya may be terminated immediately.
B. The Partner may lose the commission and / or revenue credit on the account.
C. There are no real consequences for not obtaining prior approval since obtaining prior approval is only a procedural guideline.
D. Avaya may refer the opportunity to another Partner or sell it direct.

Answer: D
Question: 3
According to Nemertes, what percentage of employees work in locations other than headquarters?
A. 20%
B. 40%
C. 60%
D. 90%
Answer: D
Question: 4
Whose main interests focus on the key metrics return on assets and return on capital?
A. IT Manager
C. LOB Manager
D. Customer Service Representative
Answer: B
Question: 5
It is predicted that, within two years, the bulk (75%) of the agent positions shipped will be: A. TDM

D. Analog

Answer: C
Question: 6
One of Avaya’s strengths in the marketplace is its ability to service the large enterprise effectively and reliably. To do this, we can scale our contact centers to a total of how many simultaneous, logged-in agents?
A. 2,000 agents
B. 5,000 agents
C. 7,000 agents
D. 10,000 agents

Answer: C
Question: 7
What is the part of CEBP that collects, organizes, and filters high volumes of data so it can be processed?
A. The Transaction Server
B. The Message Stream Processor
C. The EPL Server Files
D. The Event Processor

Answer: D
Question: 8
Which Avaya solution best fits the needs of a mid-market customer?
A. Communication Manager Express (previously MultiVantage Express)
B. IP Office
C. Quick Edition
D. Communication Manager
Answer: A
Question: 9
Avaya’s desktop “Click to Call” application is _____.
A. One-X Mobile
B. One-X Portal
C. One-X Speech
D. One-X Communicator One-X Quick Edition
Answer: B
Question: 10
Which feature is NOT in Avaya one-X Mobile?
A. Voice Mail “Push” to SmartPhone
B. Synchronized Call Logs

C. VPIM2 Networking Protocol
D. Corporate Directory Access

Answer: C
Question: 11
What is an urgent business problem faced by a CEBP ideal client?
A. Streamlined business information flow
B. Issues regarding consistent service and process delivery at branch and remote locations
C. Productivity of mobile workers
D. Expensive human resources optimization

Answer: A
Question: 12
Advanced Event Detection (EDA) combined with a Closed-Loop Response Layer are examples of what?
A. Areas where we cannot affect business processes
B. Avaya’s key strengths in CEBP
C. Cisco’s SONA software
D. Part of BEA’s MicroServices Architecture

Answer: B
Question: 13
What type of enterprise is the Avaya Distributed Office solution perfect for?
A. Medium-sized enterprises that have growth potential
B. Large enterprises with multiple branches
C. Small enterprises with a few remote workers
D. Distributed Office is built to fit any enterprise

Answer: B
Question: 14
The Avaya “Flatten, Consolidate and Extend” value proposition means _____.
A. Deploying separate stand-alone communications systems in every location across the enterprise
B. Investing more heavily in the infrastructure
C. Addressing only telephony applications, but handling contact centers separately
D. Moving from a group of loosely connected standalone systems to a centralized application approach
Answer: D
Question: 15
What is a key Unified Communications value message for a “Road Warrior” type of worker?
A. Making the mobile device an extension of the deskphone
B. Control of telephony
C. Intuitive interfaces allowing a seamless shift between locations
D. Use of dual-connect phone
Answer: A
Question: 16
Which two Avaya solutions should you use when customers find employees unreachable or unproductive at the office and have IT departments having increasing difficulty controlling mobility, spending, and usage? (Choose two.)
A. Embed mobility applications into core IP Telephony software.
B. Provide cell phones to each mobile employee
C. Extend customer announcements, voicemail greetings, and other applications.
D. Utilize speech access to satisfy the individual’s requirements

Answer: A, C
Question: 17
Which is NOT a top business imperative in the IPT marketplace?
A. Managing and maintaining multiple, non-integrated systems
B. Needing consistent service/delivery at branch or remote locations
C. Needing advanced communications tools to compete effectively
D. Implementing the latest new technology

Answer: D
Question: 18
Unified Communications solutions represent _____ of Avaya’s estimated addressable market
A. 15%
B. 27%
C. 33%
D. 41%

Answer: D
Question: 19
Which section of the Solution Messaging Card is best described by where Avaya lists specific details and how a problem manifests itself at the individual level?
A. Solution linkage
B. Business impact
C. Trend relevance
D. Potential pains
E. Metrics proof of value
Answer: D

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