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QUESTION 1
The SNMP counters check for authorization failures and other types error conditions. Which of these SNMP error conditions is displayed in Enterprise Device Manager?
A. PCAP packet capture counters
B. In Bad Community Names counters
C. Fan Failure packet counters
D. Power Supply Failure packet counters Correct Answer: D QUESTION 2
What does the trace level 9 3 command accomplish?
A. It captures BGP events at a terse level.
B. It captures packets copied to the CPU at a verbose level.
C. It shows CPU utilization.
D. It captures RCC IP events at verbose level.

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 3
The attempt to manage an Ethernet Routing Switch (ERS) 8000 using a Virtual Route Redundancy Protocol (VRRP) address was not successful. What is causing this problem?
A. The virtual router identifier is 0.
B. The data center interface is set as a critical IP interface.
C. A real IP address is required for management access not a VRRP address.
D. The virtual router identifier is configured for the VRRP IP address owner.

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 4
After experiencing issues with XFPs, the show sys pluggable-optical-modules info CLI commands is used to find that the switch not recognize the XFPs. Which other method can be used to view the XFP compatibility?
A. Check for port alarms
B. Show DWDM-XFP {default}.
C. Use the monitor sys tech info command to monitor for any changes in compatibility.
D. Use enterprise Device Manager and select the Edit, Port, General tab from the navigation pane to display any XFP compatibility issues.

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 5
Refer to the exhibit.

When checking an Inter Switch Trunks (IST) configuration using the show mlt ist info command as shown in the exhibit, which IP address should be in the IP ADDRESS column?
A. The IP address of the IST VLAN on the local switch.
B. The IP address of the IST VLAN on the peer switch.
C. The IP address of the first IST port on the peer switch.
D. The management IP address of the peer switch.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 6
Traceroute allows a route to be traced to a network using an Ethernet Routing Switch (ERS) 8600 CLI command. How could you use it to limit the number of hops the traceroute reports?
A. Configure the P (base UDP port) to the number of maximum number hops.
B. Configure the q (number of probes per TTL) to the number maximum number of hops.
C. Configure the m (maximum TTL value) to the number of maximum number of hops.
D. Configure the w (wait time per probe) to the number of maximum number of hops.

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 7
Syslog in the Ethernet Routing Switch (ERS) 8600 allows the mapping of ERS 8600 errors to specified to be specified to the facility local 0-local 7. What is another place of information that syslog provides.
A. Security level
B. Message frequency
C. Syslog table location
D. System status

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 8
When configuring a new Ethernet Routing Switch (ERS) 8000 using the default interface, the attempt to load an ACLI configuration fails because the default
interface is the CLI.
How is the ACLI interface obtained?

A. Change the interface type in the config.cfg file.
B. Change the ACLI boot flag and save the boot configuration file.
C. Exit the CLI and choose ACLI at the interface manager prompt.
D. Use the abort command and enter `no’ at the default interface. Correct Answer: C QUESTION 9
Which CLI command is used to validate that synchronization for High Availability mode is set correctly?
A. Show ha
B. Show ha-all
C. Show ha-state
D. Show ha-sync

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 10
What does Ping snoop identify?
A. The path that IP traffic takes over an MLT or SMLT
B. The rate of IP traffic flow
C. Which port filter is best to use on MLT networks
D. Rate limiting for ICMP traffic Correct Answer: A QUESTION 11
Consider the following port conditions on an Ethernet Routing Switch (ERS) 8648GTRS 10/100/1000 Ethernet I/O module: Left LED green Right LED flashing
What is the status of the port?
A. The link speed is 100 Mbp, and the port is disabled.
B. The link speed is 1000 Mbps, and the port is disabled.
C. The link speed is 100 Mbps, and the port is passing traffic.
D. The link speed is 1000 Mbps, and the port is passing traffic.

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 12
Refer to the exhibit.

Based on the command line output shown in the exhibit, how many Gigabit Ethernet ports are available on this Ethernet Routing Switch (ERS) 8600?
A. 3
B. 48
C. 52
D. 83

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 13
A campus network requirement is to introduce Virtual Routing and Forwarding (VRF) in the existing Ethernet Routing Switch (ERS) 8600-based core. The technician has to configure VRF on the ERS 8600. Which statement represents the order for configuring a new VRF?
A. Creating a new VLAN, add an IP address to the VLAN, create the VRF in the VLAN configuration.
B. Create VRF, change context to the new VRF, add an IP address, create a new VLAN, and move the VLAN to the new VRF.
C. Create a VRF, change context to the new VRF, create a new VLAN, add an IP address to the VLAN.
D. Create a VRF, create a new VLAN, move the VLAN to the new VRF, change context to the new VRF, and add an IP Address.

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 14
A technician is configuring an InterSwitch Frank (IST) for Spilt Multi-Link Franking (SMLT). Which statement about how the IST is addressed is true?
A. Configure the IP address of the ports that comprise the IST.
B. No address configurations are required when configuring an IST.
C. Configure the IP address of the VLAN that was created for the IST.
D. Configure the MAC addresses of the switches on each end of the IST. Correct Answer: C QUESTION 15
What is the underlying dynamic link state routing protocol used for the implementation of the Avaya Enterprise Fabric?
A. OSPF
B. OSPFv3
C. IS-IS
D. SPBV

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 16
By default the ERS 8000 is configured for warm standby. After installation of a new ERS solution with dual CPUs, which three actions need to be Perform on the ERS configuration to ensure high availability mode is enabled and will function correctly? (Choose three)
A. Set the high availability CPU boot flag to true.
B. Set the warm standby CPU hoot flag to false.
C. Set the save to standby CPU boot flag to true.
D. Save the boot.cfg conflg file and reset the switch to activate the changes.
E. Install the high availability license file. Correct Answer: ADE QUESTION 17
The Ethernet Routing Switch (ERS) 8600 switch includes a means to fine tune the memory resources by allowing the record allocations to be allowed. An ERS 8600 running Release 5.0 needs to be configured to be optimized for multicast traffic.
Which command alters the ERS 8600 to increases the default allocation of Multicast by 50 percent?
A. Config sys set record record reserve MGID + 50
B. Config sys set max-vlan-resource-reservation 4096
C. Config sys set show sys mgid usage
D. Config sys set multicast-resource-reservation 3073 Correct Answer: D QUESTION 18
In a unified access solution that supports mobility, the configuration must allow for the creation of mobility tunnels to the remote switch and needs the reservation of a remote switch in mobility solution?
A. Remote VLANs are dynamically created and will only contain tunnels.
B. Mobility tunnels are created when needed and mapped to pre-configured existing static VLANs.
C. Remote VLANS are created with a valid IP address to the tunnel mapping based on the source network.
D. The remote switch dynamically creates, adds and removes VLANs as required in a mobility solution. Correct Answer: D QUESTION 19
In a multicast campus, when should an ERS 8600 PIM interface be configured to run in passive mode?
A. When the interface is used as an edge interface and is aggregating traffic.
B. When the interface is used as a core interface and needs to limit PIM messages to reduce the system load.
C. When there are no unicast routing paths.
D. When more than one unicast routing protocol is in use.

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 20
A split Multi-Link Trunking (SMLT) for switch clustering is being configured. Which statement is a configuring requirement for the SMLT?
A. CP-Limit is configured on edge switch stacks.
B. Neighboring edge switch stacks should be connected to each other via a DMLT connection to add resilent paths in the event of an SMLT failure.
C. Alternate the primary paths of the SMLT connection to load balance the switch core.
D. VLANs that are defined on the SMLT are also defined on the MLT that defines the core inter Switch Trunks (IST).

Correct Answer: D

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QUESTION 1
A technician is adding the Virtual link Aggregation Control Protocol (VLACP) configuration to a Converged Campus Solution where all Ethernet Routing Switches (ERSs) are directly connected without intermediary WAN transport devices. What are two recommended configuration tasks? (Choose two.)
A. Configure all links to use the same timeout value.
B. For the Inter Switch Trunks (1ST) links, configure the long time-out value.
C. For the SMLT links, configure the long timeout value.
D. Configure all links to use a global reserved multicast MAC address for VLACP messages.

Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 2
The Ethernet Routing Switch (ERS) 8600 supports the feature IP VPN-Lite that does not require the use of an MPLS network. Which function does the ERS 8600 as a Provider Edge (PE) perform for IP VPN-Lite?
A. The PE uses the Virtual Routing Forwarding (VRF) instances to provide traffic separation
B. The PE provides route exchange with remote PE devices using OSPF.
C. The PE encapsulates the IP packets into the separate VPN-Lite VLANs for traffic separation
D. The PE incorporates Label Distribution Protocol across the core network to connect remote PE devices.

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 3
To confirm that routed Split Multi-Link Trunking (RSMLT) will work on a set of VLANs, which network design aspect should be considered?
A. RSMLT is enabled on each SMLT VLAN on which the function is required.
B. RSMLT is enabled on the VLAN group
C. Router 1 always owns the network
D. RSMLT is enabled on all SMLT VLANs

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 4
A technician discovers that an Ethernet Routing Switch (ERS) 8300 cat5e copper link is intermittent. The link connects a distant workstation to 8348GTX port 6/2. The cable path is undetermined at this point and it is suspected to traverse many patch panels. How can the ERS
8300 Time Domain reflectometer tool be of help in this situation?
A. The Virtual Circuit Test command config ethernet 6/2 vct test can detect opens, shorts, bad terminations.
B. The virtual circuit Repair command config ethernet 6/2 vct repair can detect the bad cable pairs and repair the cable by moving data to the good cable pairs.
C. The Virtual Circuit Echo command config ethernet 6/2 vct echo can detect the bad cable pairs only when connected to another ERS 8300.
D. The Virtual Circuit Detect command config ethernet 6/2 vct detect can detect how many patch panels are used between the device and switch and provide a percentage of dropped packets.

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 5
Trace out allows a route to be traced to a network using an Ethernet Routing Switch (ERS) 8600 CLI command. In the command output, the possible range of ‘w’ values is 1-255. The ‘w’ value represents wait time for what?
A. Start of command execution
B. Time to live
C. Per probe
D. Completion of trace out report
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 6
What is Enterprise Policy Manager (EPM) used for in an Enterprise network?
A. to manage traffic prioritization and network access security for business applications
B. as an alternative to EA servers
C. to distribute control of packet classification for resiliency and efficiency
D. to assign user role attributes on the RADIUS server
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 7
Which protocol can be used for end-to-end detection in a network as well as for point-to-point
detection?
A. LACP
B. VLACP
C. RSTP
D. MSTP

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 8
When multiple VLANs are used, Dynamic Host Control protocol (DHCP) relay is required to get the DHCP information from the end user VLAN to the DHCP server. Which statement about how to enable DHCP relay for a VLAN is true?
A. The physical VLAN IP address is used as the DHCP relay agent.
B. The IP address of the DHCP relay agent is used.
C. The IP address of the core server VLAN is used
D. The virtual VLAN IP address is used as the DHCP relay agent.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 9
The trace level 9 3 command accomplish?
A. It captures BGP events at a terse level.
B. It captures packets copied to the CPU at a verbose level.
C. It shows CPU utilization.
D. It captures RCC IP events at verbose level.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 10
A technician is configuring 802.1Q tagging Virtual Link Aggregation Control Protocol (VLACP) with timeout and untagged frames to be discarded. Which part of the network is being configured?
A. 1ST
B. the out-of-band management port
C. the edge access ports
D. the uplinks

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 11
When incorporating Split Multi-Link Trunk (SMLT) on a pair of Ethernet Routing Switch (ERS) 8600 switches traffic from the edge of the network is directed to either ERS 8600. The ping-snoop feature assists in determining which path the traffic is taking. How does the ping-snoop operation work? Determining which path the traffic is taking. How does the ping-snoop operation work?
A. Ping-snoop looks at the IP header and directs traffic to designated link.
B. Ping-snoop looks at the MAC header and directs traffic to the designated link
C. Ping-snoop identifies traffic that matches the IP flow specified in the ping-snoop command.
D. Ping-snoop identifies traffic that matches the MAC header (source and destination) specified in the ping-snoop command.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 12
One of the benefits of the Ethernet Routing switch (ERS) 8300 switch is its ability to provide power-over-Ethernet (PoE). When implementing PoE on the ERS 8300 there are certain power supply requirements to consider. The 8301AC produces 1140W and 1770W and the 8302AC produces 850W and 1400W depending on the input voltage for both cases. If there are eight 8648TX-PWR modules in a chassis, each needing 200W for Powered Devices (PI)) which power supply configuration is recommended?
A. One 8301AC power supply with 240VAC input voltage
B. Two 8302AC power supplies with 120VAC input voltage
C. Three 83CAC power supplies with 240VAC input voltage
D. Two 8301AC and one 8302Ac for redundancy with 240VAC input voltage

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 13
When configuring an Ethernet Routing Switch (ERS) 8600 redundant Installation for warm standby, which protocol is used to give the fastest recalculation of large layer 3 topology by the standby CPU, after a Master CPU failure?
A. STP
B. Rip
C. OSPF
D. BGP
Correct Answer: C QUESTION 14
When configuring a new Ethernet Routing Switch (ERS) 8600 using the default interface, the attempt to load an ACLI configuration fails because the default interface is the CLI. How is the ACLI interface obtained?
A. Change the interface type in the config.cfg file.
B. Change the ACLI boot flag and save the boot configuration file.
C. Exit the CLI and choose ACLI at the interface manager prompt.
D. Use the abort command and enter ‘no’ at the default interface prompt.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 15
Which set of procedures will upgrade the boot monitor on an Ethernet Routing Switch (ERS) 8600 with a single 8692SF module?
A. Copy the new image to flash. Activate the new image with SF module in service.
B. Copy the new image to flash. Boot the new image.
C. Modify the boot choice for run-time image. Boot the new image.
D. Copy the new image to flash. Modify the boot choice for run-time image. Boot the new image.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 16
Which VLAN/VLANS should be included on the Inter Switch Trunks (1ST) for a proper functioning split Multi-Link Trunking (SMLT) configuration?
A. only VLAN 101
B. only VLAN 1 and the 1ST
C. only the VLANs that are also included on the SMLT/SLT uplinks
D. the 1ST VWN and all the vWNs that are included on all SMLT/SLT links
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 17
Which feature can be used on a Split Multi Link Trunking (SMLT) with a Sod Down option?
A. Extended control packet limit (ext-CP)
B. Discard untagged frames
C. Simple Loop Prevention Protocol (SLPP)
D. Virtual Link Aggregation Protocol (VLACP)

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 18
Fn Ethernet Routing Switch (ERS) 8300 configurations, which service class ensures that protocol updates such as RIP and OSPF are able to get out of a heavily congested switch?
A. Bronze
B. Standard
C. Network Control
D. Premium Control

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 19
What is a characteristic of Routed Split Multi-Link Trunking (RSMLT) configuration?
A. RSMLT is only configured on edge SMLT connections.
B. RSMLT uses priority values to distinguish between the primary and backup routers
C. RSMLT routers are implemented with Virtual Routing Forwarding (VRF)-Lite routers
D. RSMLT is always used in conjunction with routing protocols and SMLT connections.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 20
An Information Technology organization needs to determine whether they should upgrade their existing Routing Switch (ERS) 8600 switches to release 5.0. Each chassis currently has both 8648GTR 8648TX modules. One of the features that the company requires is the ability to perform port mirroring on multiple ports per module at a time. What should be done to meet their port mirroring requirement when upgrading to software release 5.0?
A. Replace the existing modules with 8648GTRS modules,
B. Upgrade to ERS 8600 Release 5.0 without any hardware upgrade.
C. Replace the existing 8648TX modules with ERS 8648TXE for egress mirroring.
D. Recommend other means to capturing traffic.
Correct Answer: A QUESTION 21
Virtual Link Aggregation Control Protocol (VIACP) is configured by port, and traffic is only forwarded across the uplinks when VLACP is up and running correctly.

A = InterSwitch Trunk (1ST) 0 = Split Multi Link Trunk (SMLT)
#1 ERS 8600 #2 ERS 8600 #3 ERS 4500
When configuring VLACP for the network shown in the exhibit, where should it be configured?
A. On all IST links and not SMLT links
B. On all SMLT links and not IST links
C. On all IST and all SMLT links
D. On none of the IST or SMLT links depicted in this network

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 22
Which statement describes specific mechanism available for managing the switch using common of IP address regardless of which CPU is the Primary?
A. The net gmt port can be assigned a virtual address for management access.
B. Virtual Router Redundancy Protocol (VRRP) provides a virtual IP address.
C. Routed Split Multi-Link Trunk Edge (RSMLT-Edge) provides access
D. The Virtual Routing Forwarding (VRF) feature includes a Circuitless IP address.

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 23
An Ethernet Routing Switch (ERS) 8600 is being configured for Virtual Router Redundancy Protocol (VRRP). If the default value is used on the peer switch, which CLI command would cause this switch to be the VRRP master?
A. Config vlan 100 ip vrrp 100 priority 250
B. Config vlan 100 ip vrrp 100 priority 1
C. Config vlan 100 ip vrrp 100 master
D. Config vlan 100 ip vrrp 100 priority master

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 24
For a Converged Campus network, which configuration change is recommended for the default VLAN (VLAN 1)?
A. Assign an IP address to the default VLAN for switch management.
B. Remove the default VLAN from active ports.
C. Configure QoS on the default VUW to support voice traffic.
D. Remove spanning tree from the default VLAN.

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 25
Before enabling IP Source Guard through Device Manager, which two conditions must be met on the system (Choose two.)
A. Dynamic Host control Protocol (DHCP) snooping must be enabled globally
B. EAPOL must be enabled.
C. The bsSourceGuardConfigMode MIB object must be removed.
D. The port is an untrusted DHCP snooping and dynamic ARP Inspection port
Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 26
A campus network requirement is to introduce Virtual Routing and Forwarding (VRF) in the existing Ethernet Routing Switch (ERS) 8600-based core. The technician has to configure VRF on the ERS 8600. Which statement represents the order for configuring a new VRF?
A. Create a new VLAN, add an IP address, create a VRF, and move the VLAN to the new VRI
B. Create a VRF, add an IP address, create a new VLAN, and move the VLAN to the new VRF
C. Create a VRF, create a new VLAN, add an IP address, and move the VLAN to the new VRF
D. Create a VRF, create a new VLAN move the VLAN to the new VRF, and add an IP address

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 27
A technician is configuring an InterSwitch Trunk (IST) for Split Multi-Link Trunking (SMLT). Which statement about how the 1ST is addressed is true?
A. Configure the IP address of the ports that comprise the 1ST.
B. No address configurations are required when configuring an 1ST.
C. Configure the IP address of the VLAN that was created for the 1ST.
D. Configure the MAC addresses of the switches on each end of the 1ST.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 28
An existing enterprise network is using Ethernet Routing Switch (ERS) 8600 switches in the campus core. It has determined that 10 Gigabit links are required to replace the existing 1 Gigabit links 1 to the closest. This will affect 18 connections on each of the ERS 8600 switches. Which statement describes how to accomplish this requirement in each ERS 8600 chassis?
A. Replace the two existing switch fabric modules with 8394SF systems.
B. Replace the two existing switch fabric modules with 8692SF and Supermezz.
C. Replace the two existing 8616SXE modules with 8612XLRS modules.
D. Replace the six 8683XLR modules with 8612XLRS.

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 29
Not long after bootup of an upgraded Ethernet Routing Switch (ERS) 8310, the system hangs. Which statement describes the cause of this problem?
A. The CPU module was configured in slot 5.
B. An ERS 8600 module was configured in the 8300 chassis
C. The system includes dual 839xSF modules
D. The system was running in full duplex mode.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 30
Which statement describe step in provisioning SPBM in an Enterprise network?
A. IP addresses on the core links.
B. Enable SPBM and IS -IS globally on all nodes and on the core facing links.
C. Configure the MAC table.
D. Configure L2 and L3 VSNs on the core SPBM nodes.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 31
Syslog in the Ethernet Routing Switch (ERS) 8600 allows the mapping of ERS 8600 errors to be specified to the facility Local 0 -Local 7. What is another piece of information that syslog provides?
A. severity level
B. message frequency
C. syslog table location
D. system status

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 32
When configuring Split Link Trunking (SLT) or Split Multi-Link Trunking (SMLT), what can be done to facilitate easily adding more VLANs to the network without impacting traffic?
A. 802.1Q-tag the uplinks.
B. Disable STP on the ports.
C. Index the ports.
D. Use redundant MLTs.

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 33
The goal of the Converged Campus architecture is to provide a highly reliable infrastructure with subscribed failover preventing any interruption of traffic on the network?
What are the two primary benefits of this design goal? (Choose two)
A. In the event of a failure, no less of connectivity or application availability will be experienced by the end user.
B. This architecture provides high performance Layer 3 switching, resiliency, security, and services.
C. This design goal provides numerous connectivity options including Asynchronous Transfer Mode (ATM), Packet over SONET (POS), and 10 Gigabit Ethernet.
D. The design goal provides the ability to provide hitless software upgrade for the core of the network.

Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 34
Based on the command line output shown in the exhibit, how many Gigabit Ethernet ports are available on this Ethernet Routing Switch (ERS) 8600?

A. 16
B. 24
C. 26
D. 28

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 35
The technician is setting up an Ethernet Routing Switch (ERS) 8300 switch for QoS. It has been determined that unimportant traffic will be marked on the edge of the network with a default

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QUESTION 1
The Alarm Manager page on Experience Portal Manager shows an Alarm:
Q_ICR62006: User-to-User header is missing from SIP response 183 Session Which Avaya product in the
deployment is not configured correctly?

A. Avaya Aura Communication Manager
B. Avaya Aura Session Manager
C. Intelligent Customer Routing
D. Avaya Aura Experience Portal

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 2
You have installed an Orchestration Designer application on a Tomcat application server and try at call to the application. The test call fails.
What is the best way to validate the application installation?
A. Check the Avaya Aura experience Portal (AAEP) System Monitor.
B. Check AAEP administration System Maintenance > Log Viewer
C. Open a browser window and access the application Http:// <host>: <port>/<application name>/index.html
D. Look at the Application Detail Report in the AAEP administration.

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 3
What is the last step that is required after successful installation of intelligent Customer Routing (ICR) Core?
A. Restart the terracotta service.
B. Restart the ICR Core service.
C. Restart the httpd service.
D. Reboot the machine.

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 4
You client reported the multi-server Avaya Aura Experience Portal (AAEP) local PostgreSQL database has become corrupted and you have determined you must restore the database from a backup of the system.
After restoring the database from the backup, which three actions must be performed? (Choose three)
A. Restart the vpms service on the Experience Portal Manager (EPM).
B. Reconnect each Media Processing Platform (MPP) with the EPM.
C. Restart the MPP service from the EPM.
D. Restart the avpSNMPAgentSvc on the EPM.
E. Install a new license file on the EPM.

Correct Answer: ABD QUESTION 5
You have just installed Proactive Outreach Manager (POM) 2 SP or newer on your Avaya Aura Experience Portal (AAEP) 6.0. You run your first campaign and the POM monitor appears to shoe an Active Job, but no outgoing call spears to be made. You notice the following entry in the CmpMgrService.out log file:
CmpMgrService.out
Which step must you take to correct the issues and continue with this procedure?
A. Login to Experience Portal Manager (EPM) using a user with an assigned role of “POM Campaign Manager” and restart the campaign
B. Logging to EPM using a user with an assigned role of “Web Services” and restart the Campaign
C. Login to (EPM) using a user with an assigned role of “Administration” and ensure that the outcall user name administered in POM Configuration > POM Server > outbound Settings> voice Server link has the assigned role of “Web Services”
D. Login to EPM using a user with an assigned role of “Administration” and ensure that the outcall user name administered in POM Configuration > POM Server > Outbound Settings > Voice Server link has assigned the role of “POM Campaign Manager”.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 6
After installing a five server Avaya Aura Experience Portal (AAEP) system you check the port distribution page only to see the name of the media Processing Platform (MPP) servers in the system have allocated ports.
Which two are the most probable causes of this issue? (Choose two)
A. The AAEP WebLM license has expired; either it was a temporary license or the client’s Enterprise WebLM server is down
B. One or more MPP system resources are overloaded
C. The specified VoIP gatekeeper or SIP gateway is incorrect
D. The Postgres service on the Experience Portal manager (EPM) is not running

Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 7
Which three are exit reasons in an Intelligent Customer Routing (ICR) CCA Session detail report? (Choose three)
A. Call completed
B. Call failed
C. Call completed in SSA
D. Call routed
E. Call transferred

Correct Answer: CDE
QUESTION 8
On an existing Avaya Proactive Outreach Manager (POM) server, what three are required when configuring a voice campaign? (Choose three)
A. the IP of the POM server
B. an existing contact strategy
C. the Call Classification Analysis (CCA) timeout to be used
D. an existing contact attribute
E. sufficient voice ports and POM CCA licenses
Correct Answer: BDE
QUESTION 9
Your Avaya Aura Experience Portal has been in operation for several months; and you notice that the /var Which two log files should be checked to see if their size needs to be decreased? (Choose two)
A. Apache/httpd logs
B. Tomcat logs
C. PostgreSQL logs
D. Process Logs
E. Transcriptions Logs

Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 10
Your client reported their Avaya Proactive Outreach Manager (POM) campaign is playing this message to their customers:
The system is experiencing technical difficulties.
Which two steps would you take to identify the likely cause of this message? (Choose two)
A. Verify that th.ir H.323 or SIP ports are in service and that there are POM licenses available
B. If the application uses Text to Speech (TTS), verify the Speech Server is working and is licensed correctly.
C. Ensure that the Experience Portal Manager (EPM) can communicate with the Avaya Aura Communication Manager (AACM).
D. If the application uses recorded .wav files, ensure the Media Processing Platform (MPP) can e files.
E. Ensure that the Short Message Service (SMS) server is not down.

Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 11
You are preparing to build a large 1200 port Avaya Aura Experience Portal (AAEP) system and the client has asked you to protect the information contained in the calls to and from all of the extended servers.
Which three choices will meet this requirement? (Choose three)
A. Encrypt H.323 call control between the media Processing Platform (MPP) and the Avaya Communication Manager server
B. Encrypt audio data to and from the speech servers by using MRCP V2 protocol (Media Resource Control Protocol) with TLS (Transport Layer Security) enabled
C. Partition the client data network to limit the exposure of certain non-encrypted VoIP components of AAEP system to the corporate network
D. Disable the HTTPS protocol on your application servers and use HTTP only
E. Encrypt Real-Time Transport Protocol (RTP) audio data between the MPPs and the Avaya communication Manager feature server

Correct Answer: ABE
QUESTION 12
When installing Avaya Proactive Outreach Manager (POM) software on the Avaya Aura Experience Portal (AAEP) in a multiple Experience Portal Manager (EPM) configuration, on which server must the POM EPM plug-in be installed?
A. the primary EPM server
B. an auxiliary EPM server
C. the remote application server
D. a Media Processing Platform (MPP) server
QUESTION 13
Which statement about user permissions is true?
A. When logged in as org user, all global and organization based information can be seen, but only organization specific data can be edited.
B. When logged in as admin user, all global and organization based information can be seen, but only non organization specific data can be edited.
C. When logged in as admin user, only global information can be seen and edited.
D. When logged in as org user, only the information for the organization to which we belong can be seen and edited.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 14
When installing Avaya Proactive Outreach manager (POM) software on the Avaya Aura Experience Portal (AAEP), which two interfaces may be used to install the software? (Choose two)
A. The Tomcat Administration Screen
B. The AAEP Web administration POM menu
C. The graphical user interface (GUI)
D. The command line interface (CLI)
E. The Remote Desktop

Correct Answer: CD
QUESTION 15
Which menu provides details about the running calls being handled by Intelligent Customer Routing R)?
A. Call Center
B. ICR Manager
C. ICR Monitor
D. Standard Report

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 16
You need to identify whether your customer is using an enterprise license server to push an allocation license file down to local WebLM server on the Avaya Aura Experience Portal (AAEP) or if the license resides permanently on the AAEP. How will you determine what mode of license is being used?
A. At the Linux CLI level navigate the $CATALINA_HOME/Webapps/WebLM/license and lists the files with the is-1 command. If the file naming conversation is in the format of ALF_XXXXXXXXXXXXX.xml, then an allocation license has been pushed from an Enterprise License Server.
B. At the Linux CLI level navigate to $CATALINA_HOME/Webapps/WemLM/META-INF and list the files with the is-1 command. If the file naming conversation is in the format of ALF_XXXXXXXXXXXX.xml, then an allocation license has been pushed from an Enterprise License Server.
C. At the Linux CLI level, navigate to $CATALINA_HOME/webapps/WebLM.data/log and list the files with the is1 command. If the file naming conversation is in the format of ALF_XXXXXXXXXXXXX.xml, then an allocation license has been pushed from an Enterprise License Server.
D. At the Linux CLI level, navigate to $AVAYA_VPMS_HOME.lib.wecapps/WebLM/license and list the files with the is1 command. If the file naming conversation is in the format of ALF_XXXXXXXXXXXXX.xml, then an allocation license has been pushed from an Enterprise License Server
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 17
A. Sybase 12.5 or higher
B. Oracle 0.0 or higher Id
C. Informix 9.21.UC4
D. MS SQL Server 2000
E. Postgres 8.2.3 or higher

Correct Answer: BE
QUESTION 18
A technician determines that even though the Intelligent Customer Routing (IC-R) Core is function correctly, ICR Core logs are not displayed under Log Viewer of experience Portal Manager.
Which two properties in the icrcore.properties file need to be corrected? (Choose two)
A. ICRAdminUKI
B. VPRemoteLogWebService
C. ICRSipUserName
D. ICRSipTCPPort
E. VPProductID

Correct Answer: BE
QUESTION 19
Your customer has configured VoIP connectivity on Avaya Aura Experience Portal. Calls made to the system are not responding with the correct speech recognition response.
What two items should he checked to resolve this situation? (Choose two)
A. the audio/basic and audio/x-alaw-basic settings In the Web Administration screen
B. the content of the Avaya network log server.log/log
C. the Call Data Summary Report
D. the error logs in the speech recognition server

Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 20
You want to setup a single server Avaya Aura Experience Portal system. Which three components can co-reside on a single server? (Choose three)
A. Application server
B. Primary Experience Portal Manager (EPM)
C. Auxiliary EPM
D. Media Processing Platform (MPP)
E. Telephony server
Correct Answer: ABD
QUESTION 21
The Avaya Aura experience Portal (AAI P) system consist;; of which two major subsystems? (Choose two)
A. Application Enablement Services (AES)
B. Media Processing Platform (MPP)
C. Private Brain Exchange (PBX) servers
D. Experience Portal Manager (EPM)

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Which Proactive Contact 4.X hardware component in a hard dialer setup performs dialing functions and call progress analysis, plays messages, and bridges agents to called parties?
A. UPS
B. CPU
C. Digital switch
D. Access server
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 2
To track information being sent between the agent interface and the Avaya Proactive Contact 4.X server, which file should be accessed on the client side to verify what is happening?
A. Moagent32.log
B. Moagent32.dll
C. PCagent32.log
D. <agentname>.log
Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 3
Given the following command: icall %12 %13 1 16144691010 Which function in swit is performed by this command?
A. It tests incoming channel 12 by placing a call to 16144691010 usingoutpulse rule 13.
B. It provides a monitoring channel 12 to listen to channel 13 for a call placed to 16144691010.
C. It places an outbound ISDN call through channel 13 to 16144691010 usingoutpulse rule 12.
D. It places an outbound ISDN call through channel 12 to 16144691010 usingoutpulse rule 13.
Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 4
What is the default method of file transfer for Avaya Proactive Contact 4.X?
A. ftp
B. sftp
C. ZMODEM
D. ssh
Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 5
Which menu in the digital switch is used to refresh the NFS mount?
A. Host Configuration
B. Network Configuration
C. Peripheral Configuration
D. File System Configuration
Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 6
When installing the Proactive Contact Supervisor suite, which application needs to be started first to configure the connection to the dialer?
A. Editor B. Monitor C. Analyst
D. Health Manager
Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 7
When configuring Avaya CM to work with Proactive Contact with CTI, what must be activated on Avaya CM to allow for communication of agent changes on the PBX?
A. Status agent
B. Agent states
C. Agent API
D. DLG Service
Answer: B
Once you log into Proactive Contact Agent, what must you do to actually call customers in a job?
A. Select the Job menu and Join item.
B. Select the Work menu and Place Managed Call item.
C. Select the Settings menu and Change Agent Type item.
D. Select the Telephone menu and Take CallOff Hold item.
Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 9
Which important function should a supervisor perform before running jobs for the day?
A. Perform a backup of the system.
B. Verify that downloads were received and processed.
C. Run reports on the previous day’s calling.
D. Restart the Proactive Contact application.
Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 10
What happens to database information on secondary dialers in a POD if the primary dialer is down?
A. All database information is lost until the primary dialer is restarted.
B. Data is still available to all the non-primary dialers in the pod as long as the network is still up.
C. Each secondary dialer stores its own data and then redistributes it after the primary dialer is restarted.
D. Supervisors must switch to the Character-User Interface (CUI) and run a script through the System Administrator menu to reactivate the database.
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 11
Which directory contains the file with the format layout of a calling list as it would be coming from
the host raw file on a Proactive Contact 4.X system?
A. /opt/avaya/pds/tape
B. /opt/avaya/pds/lists/list#.app
C. /opt/avaya/pds/lists
D. /opt/avaya/pds/tape/list#.app
Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 12
Which file can prevent a record from being called due to legal calling time limitations?
A. locale.cfg
B. opmon.cfg
C. timezone.cfg
D. phonefmt.cfg
Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 13
Which HP processor is currently supported with Avaya Proactive Contact 4.X?
A. Proliant DL385 G2
B. B2600
C. C8000
D. CX2600
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 14
Which backup would contain a complete image of the system on Proactive Contact 4.X?
A. Complete System
B. System and Calling Lists
C. System Configuration Files
D. Create Bootable Backup
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 15
A. CSU
B. UPS
C. DSP
D. MUX
Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 16
All agents are returning from a meeting and trying to log back into the Proactive Contact. After entering an ID and password, the agents enter their extensions and agent types; they receive an error, “Invalid headset ID.”
Which command should be used to verify that the process “opmon” is running?
A. nslist
B. check_db
C. check_pds
D. check_mts
Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 17
When configuring LDAP for a podded system, which command should be run to verify that the LDAP service is running?
A. serviceldap status
B. slapd status
C. check_ldap
D. ldap start
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 18
You find that many records are being released on the system as completion code 04. Which
feature should you use to determine if specific lines are having a problem?
A. PIF Report
B. Event Monitor
C. List Distribution
D. PC Analysis Extract
Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 19
Your customer has accidentally deleted a very complicated and frequently used call selection file. You must determine if the type of backup they make every evening includes the files that allow you to restore this call selection. Which two types of backups include a call selection file? (Choose two.)
A. Database
B. Data/stat files
C. System configuration files
D. System and calling lists
Answer: C,D

QUESTION NO: 20
Agents are no longer being acquired or released. Which two command-line troubleshooting tools can you use to see if all of the blend processes are still running? (Choose two.)
A. rpm -l
B. cbaui
C. vmstat
D. check_pds
Answer: B,D

QUESTION NO: 21
Which three files must be configured for due diligence/postupdate? (Choose three.)
A. list#.fdict
B. list#_up.dict
C. master.cfg
D. <filename>.job
E. list#.dnld
Answer: A,D,E

QUESTION NO: 22
Which two types of agent headsets are configured in opmon.cfg? (Choose two.)
A. dialback
B. Proactive
C. Dedicated
D. Predictive
Answer: A,C

QUESTION NO: 23
In which directory should a non-standard shell script be placed in Proactive Contact?
A. /usr/vl/shell
B. /usr/vl/customs
C. /opt/avaya/pds/shell
D. /opt/avaya/pds/customs
Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 24
On a Proactive Contact with CTI system, which Avaya CM configuration is only required if the customer is doing agent blending?
A. Vectors
B. Phantom Extensions
C. Auto Route Selection
D. Universal Call Identifier
Answer: B

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Question: 1
What is the main characteristic of Deal Registration?
A. The application used by Partners to register a customer/account to a Partner.
B. The primary application used by Certified Channel Partners to register new front-market sales opportunities
C. The application used by Avaya and Channel partners to submit complaints regarding each other’s conduct
D. The delivery mechanism for Avaya to send new territory opportunities to Partners

Answer: B
Question: 2
Although it is the Avaya strategy to market directly to Global Accounts, the CEO at a Global Account would prefer to do business with an Avaya Partner. Who will determine how the end-user will be served?
A. The Partner
B. The End-User
C. Avaya
D. The Partner and Avaya

Answer: B
Question: 3
The use of Business Advocate in a Contact Center can account for which of the following?
A. Higher agent occupancy
B. Longer call delays
C. More frequent transfers and conferences
D. Higher turn-over rate

Answer: A
Question: 4
Which is a possible consequence if a Partner does not obtain formal written approval prior to selling Avaya stand-alone maintenance renewals to a US Named Account or Global Account?
A. The Partner’s relationship to Avaya may be terminated immediately.
B. The Partner may lose the commission and/or revenue credit on the account.
C. There are no real consequences for not obtaining prior approval since obtaining prior approval is only a procedural guideline.
D. There are no consequences since the policy for Global and US Named Accounts is the same as for a Territory account.

Answer: B
Question: 5
Under what circumstance may Avaya or one of its Partners actively solicit business from each other’s existing customers where the customer has NOT issued an RFP?
A. A Partner executive has an established personal relationship with an executive from the customer who is seeking services
B. The end-user has indicated they are unhappy with their service support
C. The relationship is between the Partner and a Global or US Named Account
D. The business has been won in violation of the Sales Engagement Principles

Answer: C, D
Question: 6
What value message might you present to an LOB leader when selling Unified Communications?
A. Provides superior customer responsiveness
B. Closed-loop, two-way communications
C. Scalable and reliable
D. Provide a familiar user experience

Answer: A
Question: 7
When an engagement issue needs to be escalated, who should be contacted first?
A. The Partner Executive and the Avaya Channel Manager Executive / Alliance Director
B. The Partner Sales Executive and the Avaya Channel Manager Executive / Alliance Manager
C. The Partner Owner / President and the Avaya RVP
D. The Partner Management and the Avaya SVP

Answer: B
Question: 8
Based on the Avaya Sales Engagement Principles, when is it safe for a Partner to share end-user information or customer lists with Avaya personnel?
A. A partner should always feel safe since the engagement rules dictate that Avaya and the Partners will respect the confidentiality obligations to which they have agreed between them when establishing their relationship.
B. Partners should never share sensitive information with Avaya personnel or other Avaya Partners.
C. Safety is not the issue since the Partner agreement states that a Partner agrees that Avaya may use Partner provided information to actively compete with them.
D. Partners should only share sensitive information with Avaya personnel on an opportunity that is registered and accepted through eDemand.
Answer: A
Question: 9
What is the Avaya strategy regarding marketing and selling to Global Accounts?
A. To market and fulfill the Avaya solutions primarily through Partners, utilizing an indirect strategy
B. To market and sell to Global Accounts primarily through a direct sales strategy
C. To market and sell to Global Accounts primarily through telesales
D. To market and sell to US Named Accounts only through a direct sales strategy

Answer: B
Question: 10
Which of the following statements most closely represents this sales engagement principle, “Avaya and the Partners will respect each other and support customers as professionally and promptly as possible.”?
A. Avaya and the Partners should never speak poorly of each other’s business practices
B. Avaya and the Partners should not be overly concerned about what they say to end-users
C. Avaya and the Partners will foster a competitive environment with each other so it does not matter what we say
D. Avaya and the Partners should speak disparagingly to end-users about each other’s business practices

Answer: A
Question: 11
Which types of opportunities may be registered by Partners with Avaya?
A. New / Greenfield front-market opportunities identified by a Partner
B. Opportunities with existing accounts identified by Avaya only
C. New opportunities already registered by another Partner
D. Existing opportunities registered in Siebel by direct client executives

Answer: A
Question: 12
When is it acceptable for a Partner to use disparaging comments to pursue another Partner’s existing customer relationships?
A. It is never acceptable for a Partner to disparage another Partner or Avaya
B. If another Partner has initiated negative remarks
C. Whenever a competitive bid has been solicited by the end-user
D. When the end customer is initiating the conversation

Answer: A
Question: 13
The industry currently has a very _____ definition of UC.
A. Fluid
B. Refined
C. Complex
D. Standard

Answer: A
Question: 14
When a Channel Partner registers a new opportunity for a US Named or Global Account that is accepted by Avaya, when must the Channel Partner sell Avaya services for that opportunity?
A. Always
B. When there is an existing Avaya Maintenance agreement
C. The Partner is not required to sell Avaya Maintenance when an opportunity is registered and accepted
D. The Partner is not required to sell Avaya Maintenance for a US Named or Global Account.
Answer: B
Question: 15
Which three are top business imperatives in Customer Service? (Choose 3.)
A. Leveraging the global workforce
B. Strategic customer segmentation
C. Consistency of service
D. Use of the latest technologies
E. Providing every customer with a live interaction

Answer: A, B, C
Question: 16
At Customer Briefings, the Instructor recommends conducting live UC demonstrations _____.
A. After all presentation materials have been delivered
B. Grouped together, and as early as possible in the time allotted
C. Spaced evenly throughout the briefing
D. After each separate product is presented

Answer: B
Question: 17
What is a possible consequence if a Partner is offering a competitor’s solution to replace an existing Avaya solution (hardware, software or services)?
A. The Partner’s relationship to Avaya may be terminated immediately.
B. The Partner may lose the commission and / or revenue credit on the account.
C. There are no real consequences for not obtaining prior approval since obtaining prior approval is only a procedural guideline.
D. Avaya may refer the opportunity to another Partner or sell it direct.
Answer: D

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Question: 1
At Customer Briefings, the Instructor recommends conducting live UC demonstrations _____.
A. After all presentation materials have been delivered
B. Grouped together, and as early as possible in the time allotted
C. Spaced evenly throughout the briefing
D. After each separate product is presented

Answer: B
Question: 2
What is a possible consequence if a Partner is offering a competitor’s solution to replace an existing Avaya solution (hardware, software or services)?
A. The Partner’s relationship to Avaya may be terminated immediately.
B. The Partner may lose the commission and / or revenue credit on the account.
C. There are no real consequences for not obtaining prior approval since obtaining prior approval is only a procedural guideline.
D. Avaya may refer the opportunity to another Partner or sell it direct.

Answer: D
Question: 3
According to Nemertes, what percentage of employees work in locations other than headquarters?
A. 20%
B. 40%
C. 60%
D. 90%
Answer: D
Question: 4
Whose main interests focus on the key metrics return on assets and return on capital?
A. IT Manager
B. CEO
C. LOB Manager
D. Customer Service Representative
Answer: B
Question: 5
It is predicted that, within two years, the bulk (75%) of the agent positions shipped will be: A. TDM

B. SIP
C. IP
D. Analog

Answer: C
Question: 6
One of Avaya’s strengths in the marketplace is its ability to service the large enterprise effectively and reliably. To do this, we can scale our contact centers to a total of how many simultaneous, logged-in agents?
A. 2,000 agents
B. 5,000 agents
C. 7,000 agents
D. 10,000 agents

Answer: C
Question: 7
What is the part of CEBP that collects, organizes, and filters high volumes of data so it can be processed?
A. The Transaction Server
B. The Message Stream Processor
C. The EPL Server Files
D. The Event Processor

Answer: D
Question: 8
Which Avaya solution best fits the needs of a mid-market customer?
A. Communication Manager Express (previously MultiVantage Express)
B. IP Office
C. Quick Edition
D. Communication Manager
Answer: A
Question: 9
Avaya’s desktop “Click to Call” application is _____.
A. One-X Mobile
B. One-X Portal
C. One-X Speech
D. One-X Communicator One-X Quick Edition
Answer: B
Question: 10
Which feature is NOT in Avaya one-X Mobile?
A. Voice Mail “Push” to SmartPhone
B. Synchronized Call Logs

C. VPIM2 Networking Protocol
D. Corporate Directory Access

Answer: C
Question: 11
What is an urgent business problem faced by a CEBP ideal client?
A. Streamlined business information flow
B. Issues regarding consistent service and process delivery at branch and remote locations
C. Productivity of mobile workers
D. Expensive human resources optimization

Answer: A
Question: 12
Advanced Event Detection (EDA) combined with a Closed-Loop Response Layer are examples of what?
A. Areas where we cannot affect business processes
B. Avaya’s key strengths in CEBP
C. Cisco’s SONA software
D. Part of BEA’s MicroServices Architecture

Answer: B
Question: 13
What type of enterprise is the Avaya Distributed Office solution perfect for?
A. Medium-sized enterprises that have growth potential
B. Large enterprises with multiple branches
C. Small enterprises with a few remote workers
D. Distributed Office is built to fit any enterprise

Answer: B
Question: 14
The Avaya “Flatten, Consolidate and Extend” value proposition means _____.
A. Deploying separate stand-alone communications systems in every location across the enterprise
B. Investing more heavily in the infrastructure
C. Addressing only telephony applications, but handling contact centers separately
D. Moving from a group of loosely connected standalone systems to a centralized application approach
Answer: D
Question: 15
What is a key Unified Communications value message for a “Road Warrior” type of worker?
A. Making the mobile device an extension of the deskphone
B. Control of telephony
C. Intuitive interfaces allowing a seamless shift between locations
D. Use of dual-connect phone
Answer: A
Question: 16
Which two Avaya solutions should you use when customers find employees unreachable or unproductive at the office and have IT departments having increasing difficulty controlling mobility, spending, and usage? (Choose two.)
A. Embed mobility applications into core IP Telephony software.
B. Provide cell phones to each mobile employee
C. Extend customer announcements, voicemail greetings, and other applications.
D. Utilize speech access to satisfy the individual’s requirements

Answer: A, C
Question: 17
Which is NOT a top business imperative in the IPT marketplace?
A. Managing and maintaining multiple, non-integrated systems
B. Needing consistent service/delivery at branch or remote locations
C. Needing advanced communications tools to compete effectively
D. Implementing the latest new technology

Answer: D
Question: 18
Unified Communications solutions represent _____ of Avaya’s estimated addressable market
A. 15%
B. 27%
C. 33%
D. 41%

Answer: D
Question: 19
Which section of the Solution Messaging Card is best described by where Avaya lists specific details and how a problem manifests itself at the individual level?
A. Solution linkage
B. Business impact
C. Trend relevance
D. Potential pains
E. Metrics proof of value
Answer: D

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