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QUESTION: 1
Which of the following statements is FALSE regarding the eNodeB?

A. The eNodeBs maybeinterconnectTEIDwith each other via anX2 interface.
B. The eNodeB is an element of the EPC core.
C. The eNodeBs areconnectedto the EPC core via the S1 interface.
D. During an IMSI attach, the eNodeB selects an MME to service the UE.
E. The eNodeB performs the compression and encryption of the user data stream.
Answer: B
QUESTION: 2
Which of the following statements most accurately describes the MME?

A. The MME selects the SGW and the PGW for a given UE.
B. The MME is responsible for the bearer management.
C. The MME communicates with both the E-UTRAN and the EPC via GTP-C tunnels.
D. The MME performs the user authentication and authorization using the information provided by the HSS
E. All of the above answers are correct.
F. Only answers A, B and D are correct.

Answer: F
QUESTION: 3 A UE needs to get an IP address before it can communicate to any PDN over the LTE network. Which of the following statements are FALSE regarding the process of the IP address allocation? (Choose two)
A. A PGW may obtain an IP address from a RADIUS server and assign it to the UE.
B. A PGW may assign the IP address from its local address pools.
C. An SGW may obtain a static IP address from the HSS server and assign it to the UE.
D. An SGW may obtain an IP address from a RADIUS server and assign it to the UE.
E. A PGW may obtain an IP address from a DHCP server and assign it to the UE.

Answer: C, D
QUESTION: 4 Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding the IP connectivity between a UE and a PDN?

A. A UE gets an IPv4 address and/or an IPv6 prefix per APN.
B. A PGW forwards the UE’s IP packets to the PDN based on the address of the PDN server.
C. When a UE sends an IP packet to a PDN over the EPC core, the eNodeB forwards theencapsulatedpacket to the SGW by looking into its IP routing table to determine how to reach the PDN server.
D. The SGW forwards the UE’s IP packets to the PGW based on the address of the PDN server.
E. Only answers C and D are correct.
F. Only answers A and B are correct.

Answer: F
QUESTION: 5 In a 3G network, which of the following is used to build a PDP context between a UE and the GGSN when a direct tunnel is not used?
A. An end-to-end GTP tunnel between the UE and the GGSN.
B. A Radio Access Bearer between the UE and the NodeB and a GTP tunnel between the NodeB and the GGSN.
C. A Radio Access Bearer between the UE and the SGSN and a GTP tunnel between the SGSN and the GGSN.
D. A Radio Access Bearer between the UE and the SGSN.
E. None of the above answers are correct.

Answer: C
QUESTION: 6
Which of the following statements is FALSE regarding the EPS bearers?

A. The default bearer isinitiatedby either the UE or the PCRF.
B. The default bearer is always the first bearer established to an APN.
C. An AF server may initiate adedicatedbearer to a UE.
D. EPS bearers that connect a given UE to a single PGW may use different IP subnets.
E. The default bearer remains active throughout the lifetime of the APN connection.
Answer: A
QUESTION: 7

Which of the following LTE interfaces are used for the communication of user data? (Choose one best answer)
A. The S1-MME interface and the S11 interface.
B. The S1-U interface.
C. The S5 interface.
D. The S1-U interface, the S5 interface and the LTE-Uu interface.
E. Only answers A, B and C are correct.
F. Only answers B and C are correct.

Answer: D
QUESTION: 8
The S5 is the interface used for the communication between the SGW and the PGW.
Which of the following transport protocols is used by this interface?

A. GTP/TCP
B. GTP/UDP
C. GTP/IP
D. GTP/SCTP
E. None of the above answers are correct
Answer: B
QUESTION: 9
Based on the information shown in the exhibit, which of the following is the PLMN ID?

A. 302
B. 720
C. 123456789
D. 9876543
E. 30201613
F. 302720

Answer: F
QUESTION: 10
Which of the following statements is FALSE regarding the Tracking Area (TA)?

A. A TA is a set of eNodeBs that are defined by a UE itself.
B. A TA is the smallest geographical area in which a UE can roam without performing a Tracking Area Update (TAU) other than periodic TAU as required.
C. A Tracking Area Identity (TAI) is used to identify each tracking area. D. The Tracking Area Identity (TAI) is assigned by the service provider. E. One TA may be served by one or more than one MME.

Answer: A
QUESTION: 11 Which of the following statements is FALSE regarding the UE network attachment procedure?
A. The UE is served by an eNodeB.
B. The eNodeB selects one MME to serve the UE.
C. The MME selects one SGW to serve the UE.
D. The SGW selects one PGW to serve the UE
E. The PGW selects one PCRF server if required.

Answer: D
QUESTION: 12
Which of the following statements is FALSE regarding the UE paging process?

A. The SGW performs downlink data buffering while the S1 bearer is being established.
B. The SGW initiates the paging messages towards the UE.
C. The PGW is not aware of the paging process.

D. The UE initiates the service request procedure once it receives the paging message.
E. The paging procedure is controlled by the MME.

Answer: B
QUESTION: 13 Based on the information shown in the exhibit, when the SGW receives an IP packet from the UE, which of the following is the GTP TEID value expected to be received in the GTP packet header?

A. 0xd05025
B. 0x4b00805
C. 0x21
D. 0x4b00825
E. None of the above answers are correct.

Answer: D
QUESTION: 14
Which of the following interfaces is not using the GTP-C protocol?

A. The X2 interface.
B. The S1-U interface.
C. The S4 interface.
D. The S5 interface.

E. The SGi interface.

Answer: E
QUESTION: 15 Which of the following most accurately identifies a GTP tunnel on the Alcatel-Lucent 7750 MG by default?
A. ATEID
B. The System IP address
C. A UDP port number
D. ATEIDand the System IP address
E. ATEID, the System IP address and a UDP port number

Answer: E
QUESTION: 16
There is an active GTP path between an Alcatel-Lucent SGW and an Alcatel-Lucent PGW,
On the SGW. Which of the following CLI commands is used to check the “Restart Count”
value of the PGW?

A. show mobile-gateway serving ref-point-peers s5
B. show mobile-gateway serving ref-point-stats s5
C. show mobile-gateway serving bearer-stats s5
D. show mobile-gateway serving path-mgmt-stats s5
E. None of the above answers are correct.

Answer: D
QUESTION: 17 An Alcatel-Lucent SGW is only connected to an Alcatel-Lucent PGW. Based on the information shown in the exhibit, how many GTP-C tunnels are established between the SGW and the PGW?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
E. 6

Answer: E
QUESTION: 18
Which of the following statements most accurately describes the Diameter protocol?

A. The Diameter is a peer-to-peer protocol that uses the TCP or SCTP as the transport protocol.
B. A Diameter peer could act as a Diameter client or a Diameter server to its remote peer.
C. The Alcatel-Lucent 7750 PGW acts as a Diameter client to the PCRF server via the Gx interface.
D. The Diameter protocol uses TCP and SCTP port number 3868.
E. All of the above answers are correct.
F. Only answers A and B are correct.

Answer: E
QUESTION: 19 Which of the following most accurately describes the messages used to manage a Diameter connection path?
A. The Capabilities-Exchange message
B. The Device-Watchdog message
C. The Credit-Control message
D. The Disconnect-Peer message
E. All of the above answers are correct

F. Only answers A, B and D are correct

Answer: F
QUESTION: 20
Which of the following statements is FALSE regarding the S1-MME interface?

A. It is the control plane interface between the E-UTRAN and the MME.
B. It is used to signal the TEIDs for the S1 bearers between the eNodeB and the SGW.
C. The eNodeB receives the Paging messages over the S1-MME interface.
D. It is used for the management of the Radio Access Bearers.
E. It is based on the IP/UDP protocols.

Answer: E

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QUESTION: 1 When researching carrier-class Ethernet standards to support the mobile backhaul Ethernet transport, which standards body would you consult?
A. IEEE
B. MEF
C. ITU-T
D. NGMN
Answer: B
QUESTION: 2
The IETF is know for which standardization effort?

A. It develops recommendations for core network functionality, broadband service delivery and next generation services
B. It maintains Requests for Comment (RFC) that describe technical solutions to Internet challenges
C. It creates single, integrated network design guidelines to support mobile broadband services
D. It develops radio access services and systems for high capacity mobile networks

Answer: B
QUESTION: 3 Click on the exhibit.
Given the following:
.
On the OC-3 port, each provisioned channel group contains all available timeslots. The command result illustrates which circuit status?

A.
The E1 channel group is administratively turned down

B.
The DS1 circuit physical link is operationally down

C.
The IMA bundle has no operational member links

D.
The associated Layer 3 interface is operationallydown

Answer: B
QUESTION: 4 In the Alcatel-Lucent SROS, which command creates the OC-3 path’s Administrative Unit (AU)-4 Virtual Container (VC) capacity?
A. configure port 3/1/2 sonet-sdh path au-4
B. configure port 3/1/2 sonet-sdh path sts3
C. configure port 3/1/2 sonet-sdh path tug-3
D. configure port 3/1/2 sonet-sdh path vc-4

Answer: B
QUESTION: 5 Click on the exhibit.
On the OC-3 port, each provisioned channel group contains all available timeslots The command result illustrates which OC-3 port characteristic?
A. On STS1-1,the second VT1.5 in the second VTG is set for IPCP encapsulation
B. On STS1-1,the second DS1 channel group in the second VTG isoperationallyup
C. On STS1-1, the second E1 channel group in the second TUG-2 is operationally up
D. On STS1-1, the second VT2 in the second TUG-2 is set for IPCP encapsulation

Answer: C
QUESTION: 6
Which statement correctly describes the Point-to-Point (PPP) Multilink Protocol (MP)
negotiation process?

A. At least one link must complete Link Control Protocol (LCP) negotiations before the bundle can initialize
B. The endpoints indicate their desire to implement MP in the link Network Control Protocol (NCP) phase
C. The bundle must complete LCP negotiations before it can enter the NCP negotiation phase
D. Internet Protocol-Control Protocol (IPCP) negotiations must succeed for the bundle links to initialize
Answer: A

QUESTION: 7 In the Alcatel-Lucent SROS, which payload type set in a SDH-framed OC-12 port creates individual E1 containers?
A. Virtual Tributary (VT) 1.5
B. VT2
C. Virtual Container (VC)-11

D. VC-12
Answer: B
QUESTION: 8 Click on the exhibit.

The command result indicates which condition on the Inverse Multiplexing over ATM (IMA) bundle?
A. The number of active links has dropped belowthe minimum threshold
B. The associated Layer 3 interface is administratively down
C. The remote IMA bundle is administrativelydown
D. The parent OC-3 is operationally down

Answer: C
QUESTION: 9 Which timing technique can deliver time of day and phase synchronization information to the base station without concern for Packet Delay Variation (PDV)?
A. Building Integrated Timing Supply (BITS)
B. Global Positioning System (GPS)
C. Adaptive Clock Recovery (ACR)
D. IEEE 1588v2/Precision Time Protocol (PTP)
Answer: B
QUESTION: 10 Which messages, periodically sent between an IEEE 1588v2/Precision Time Protocol (PTP) v2 master and slave, serve as hellos to help the slave choose the best available master?
A. Announce
B. Announce_grant
C. Sync
D. Delay_response
Answer: A

Consider the topology and MLS1 configuration shown, and given the following conditions:
.
MLS1 delivers the PRC traceable clock to the network

.
Reference 1 receives Quality Level (QL) – ST3

.
Reference 2 receives QL – DUS

.
BITS sets QL-STU
Which quality level will MLS1 deliver to POC2-1 on its Synchronous Ethernet (SyncE) port 1/2/7?
A. QL-EEC2
B. QL-PRS
C. QL-ST3
D. QL-STU
Answer: C

Given the show command results shown:
With what IEEE 1588v2/Precision Time Protocol (PTP) v2 message did the slave
node set the Unicast message rates used by the master?

A. Announce granted
B. Announce request
C. Sync granted
D. Sync request
Answer: B
QUESTION: 13
Which statement best describes adaptive timing techniques?

A. Adaptive timing calculates the time of day from time stamped packets
B. Adaptive timing calculates the time of day from the arriving packet rate

C. Adaptive timing only supports frequency synchronization
D. Adaptive timing only operates on point-to-point links

Answer: A
QUESTION: 14 If an IEEE 1588v2/Precision Time Protocol (PTP) v2 slave times out announce messages with the master, to which state does the slave port transition to choose another potential master?
A. Initial
B. Listening
C. Passive
D. Un-calibrated
Answer: B

Given the configuration shown and the following conditions:
*
The external reference is offline

*
Reference 1 receives Quality Level (QL) – EEC1

*
Reference 2 receives QL – SSU-A

Which quality level will the SAR router advertise to its Synchronous Ethernet (SyncE) peers?
A. QL-DNU
B. QL-EEC1
C. QL-SSU-A
D. QL-PRC
E. QL-UNC
Answer: B

Given the show command results shown:
Which IEEE 1588v2/Precision Time Protocol (PTP) v2 parent clock value does the
slave first consider when choosing its master?

A. GM Clock Priority1
B. GM Clock ID
C. GM Clock Priority2
D. GM Clock Class
Answer: D

QUESTION: 17 An SROS router obtains its timing exclusively from its BITS input port. The router sets Quality Level (QL) SONET Traceability Unknown (STU) on this Superframe (SF) framed DS1 BITS reference. What must you configure on this master router to pass the best clock quality level to the downstream Synchronous Ethernet (SyncE) slave nodes while maintaining traceability to the DS1 source?
A. Enable “ql-override prs” on the BITS reference
B. Enable “ql-override prs” on the master’s SyncE ports
C. Enable “ql-selection prs” on the BITS reference
D. Set the master router to choose its source by quality level
Answer: A

Consider the topology and MLS1 configuration shown, and given the following conditions:
*
MLS1 delivers the PRC traceable clock to the network

*
Reference 1 receives Quality Level (QL) – EEC1

*
Reference 2 receives QL – SSU-A

*
BITS sets QL-SSU-B Which quality level will MLS1 deliver to POC2-1 on its Synchronous Ethernet (SyncE) port 1/2/7?

A.
QL-EEC1

B.
QL-PRC

C.
QL-SSU-A

D.
QL-STU

Answer: B
QUESTION: 19
Which synchronization technique supports time of day and phase synchronization?

A. IEEE 1588 v2/Precision Time Protocol (PTP)v2
B. Adaptive Clock Recovery (ACR)
C. Time Division Multiplexing (TDM) line timing
D. Synchronization Ethernet (SyncE)/Synchronization Status Message (SSM)
Answer: A
QUESTION: 20
Which is a characteristic of the IEEE 802.3 Slow Protocol?

A. There are a maximum of 10 frames transmitted per second
B. There are a maximum of 20 slow protocol subtypes per interface
C. The maximum slow protocol frame size is 64 bytes
D. The slow protocol header carries the clock quality level
Answer: A

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QUESTION 1
Upon the successful establishment of a TCP session between peers, what type of BGP message is exchanged?
A. OpenSent
B. Keepalive
C. Open
D. Notification
E. Update

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 2
Click the exhibit.

An update travels from AS 135000 to AS 137000, traversing both 32-bit and 16-bit AS paths. What will the AS Path be when the update reaches AS 137000?
A. 140000 200 135000
B. 137000 140000 200 135000
C. 140000 23456 135000
D. 135000 200 140000

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 3
Which of the following is FALSE regarding the 16-bit public autonomous system numbers?
A. They are allocated to the RIRs by ICANN/IANA.
B. They are used when connecting ASs on the Internet.
C. They range from 1 to 56319.
D. They are assigned by the ISPs for enterprise networks.

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 4
Click the exhibit.

Given that ISP 1 and ISP 2 are Tier 2 providers, and that ISP 3 and ISP 4 are Tier 1 providers, what is the most likely relationship between the ISPs?
A. ISP 1 and ISP 2 have a public transit relationship, while ISP 3 and ISP 4 have a private transit relationship.
B. ISP 1 and ISP 2 have a private transit relationship, while ISP 3 and ISP 4 have a public transit relationship.
C. ISP 1 and ISP 2 have a private peering relationship, while ISP 3 and ISP 4 have a public peering relationship.
D. ISP 1 and ISP 2 have a public peering relationship, while ISP 3 and ISP 4 have a private peering relationship.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 5
Click the exhibit.

If router A originates an update for prefix 192.168.0.1/27, what will the update contain when it reaches router B?
A. AS Path of 65200, local-preference of 100.
B. AS Path of 65200, local-preference of None.
C. Null AS Path, local-preference of 100.
D. Null AS Path, local-preference of None.

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 6
BGP is configured on two peers, routers A and B. Router A is configured with a Hold Time timer of 60 seconds and a Keepalive timer of 25 seconds. Router B is configured with a Hold Time timer of 90 seconds and a Keepalive timer of 70 seconds. What will the active Keepalive timer be on router B?
A. 70 seconds
B. 25 seconds
C. 20 seconds
D. 30 seconds

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 7
Which of the following statements regarding the Internet is FALSE?
A. It is a global network relying on interconnections provided by Internet service providers.
B. It is a continuous and interconnected set of public IP networks, advertised and shared across the globe.
C. It is a settlement-free global network that provides interconnection between Internet service providers.
D. It is a network that allows any Internet service provider to reach every other Internet service provider in the world.

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 8
Which of the following is the minimum requirement for an AS to be considered multi-homed?
A. A single connection to a single service provider.
B. Two connections to a single service provider.
C. Two connections to two different service providers.
D. Multiple connections to different service providers.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 9
What are the well-known mandatory BGP attributes?
A. Origin, Next Hop and Local Preference.
B. Local preference, AS Path and Next Hop.
C. Aggregator, Next Hop and AS Path.
D. AS Path, Next Hop and Origin.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 10
Which of the following best describes the relationship between locally configured policies and the direction of traffic?
A. Import policies affect the way the local AS receives traffic, while export policies affect the way it sends traffic.
B. Import policies affect the way the local AS sends traffic, while export policies affect the way it receives traffic.
C. Both import and export policies affect the way the local AS receives traffic, but not the way it sends traffic.
D. Both import and export policies affect the way the local AS sends traffic, but not the way it receives traffic.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 11
What kind of BGP attribute is the Local Preference?
A. Optional transitive attribute.
B. Optional non-transitive attribute.
C. Well-known mandatory attribute.
D. Well-known discretionary attribute.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 12
Which of the following is TRUE?
A. There can only be one community associated with a route.
B. Community is an optional non-transitive attribute.
C. Community is an optional transitive attribute.
D. Community is a well-known discretionary attribute.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 13
Click the exhibit.

Assuming a full iBGP mesh in ISP 1, how does router R1 in ISP 1 handle a BGP update received from ISP 2?
A. The update is sent to router R2 in ISP 1.
B. The update is sent to routers R2 and R3 in ISP 1.
C. The update is sent to all routers in ISP 1.
D. The update is sent to routers R2 and R3 in ISP 1, and to router R3 in ISP 2.

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 14
Click on the exhibit.

AS 65540 is using MPLS to provide BGP shortcuts for its iBGP routing. Which routers must be configured with the “configure router bgp igp-shortcuts rsvp-te” command?
A. Routers R6, R1, R4 and R5.
B. Routers R1and R4.
C. Routers R1, R2, R3 and R4.
D. Routers R2 and R3.

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 15
Which of the following is TRUE if the state of one BGP neighbor shows Active?
A. The neighbor will send a Keepalive message.
B. The router is trying to initiate a TCP connection to that neighbor.
C. The router received an Open message with the correct parameters.
D. The router is actively exchanging updates with that neighbor.

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 16
Which of the following about default BGP behavior is FALSE?
A. Next Hop is modified in iBGP updates.
B. Origin Code is NOT modified in eBGP updates.
C. AS Path is modified in eBGP updates.
D. Local Preference is NOT modified in iBGP updates.

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 17
Why is a full mesh of iBGP peers required?
A. To ensure proper route propagation inside a transit AS.
B. To ensure that all routers are directly connected.
C. To ensure that all routers run iBGP inside a transit AS.
D. To maximize control plane scalability.

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 18
Click the exhibit.

Assume all router-IDs are properly configured. Which of the following configurations is required on the Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR router A to establish an IPv6 BGP session to router D?

A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 19
Consider two Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SRs in AS 65540. Router R1 has system address 10.10.10.1, and router R2 has system address 10.10.10.2. Which of the following configurations on router R2 can establish a BGP session with router R1?

A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 20
A router in AS 65100 receives three routes for 138.120.0.0/16. The first route has an AS Path of 65200
65400 65300 and a local preference of 150. The second route has an AS Path of 65200 65300 and a local preference of 100. The third route has an AS path of 65600 65300 and a local preference of 200. Which route will appear in the RIB-In?
A. Only the first route will appear in the RIB-In.
B. Only the second route will appear in the RIB-In.
C. Only the third route will appear in the RIB-In.
D. All routes will appear in the RIB-In.

Correct Answer: D

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QUESTION 1
When a router receives an IP packet, but does not find a match in the routing table for the destination IP address, what actions are performed by the router?
A. The packet is flooded out all router interfaces.
B. The packet is dropped and an ICMP unreachable message is sent back to the source.
C. The packet is silently discarded.
D. The packet is flooded out all interfaces and an ICMP unreachable message is sent.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 2
Which of the following statements regarding distance vectors protocols are true? (Choose two answers).
A. RIPv1, RIPv2, and BGP are distance vector protocols.
B. OSPF and IS-IS are distance vector protocols.
C. Routing tables are exchanged between neighbors; however, no routing table is transmitted beyond the immediate neighbor.
D. Distance vector protocols use the Dijkstra SPF algorithm.
E. Routers that participate in distance vector routing protocols maintain full knowledge of distant routers and how they interconnect
Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 3
Click the exhibit button.

Routers R1 ,, R2, and R3 are running a classful routing protocol between them. Assuming that router R1 advertises all directly connected networks, how will these networks be represented in router R3’s routing table?
A. Router R3’s routing table can only contain one of the routes, which will result in route flapping.
B. Router R3’s routing table will have one entry for 10.1.1.0/24 and one entry for 10.1.2.0/24.
C. The networks will be represented with one entry of 10.0.0.0/8 in router R3’s routing table.
D. The networks will be represented with one entry of 10.0.0.0/24 in router R3’s route table.

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 4
In an IP datagram, which of the following fields identifies the receiving application?
A. The protocol field of the transport layer header.
B. The port field of the transport layer header.
C. The protocol field of the network layer header.
D. The port field of the network layer address.

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 5
Static routing will be used in a network between a corporate head office, with many connected networks, and a branch office, with one connection to the head office. Which of the following best describes the likely configuration?
A. The corporate head office router will have a default route and the branch site will have a more specific static route.
B. The corporate head office router and the branch office router will both have specific static routes.
C. The corporate head office router and the branch router will both have default routes.
D. The corporate head office router will have a more specific static route and the branch office router will have a default route.

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 6
Click the exhibit button.

What is the command to configure a static route on the Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR router R1 to reach the network behind router R2?
A. configure router static-route 139.120.121.0/24 next-hop 138.120.199.2
B. configure router static-route 139.120.121.0/24 next-hop 138.120.199.1
C. configure router static-route 138.120.199.2/24 next-hop 138.120.199.1
D. configure router static-route 139.120.121.0/24 next-hop 139.120.121.2

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 7
There is an IP host with IP address 10.2.3.1. A static route is created, using the “configure router static-route 10.2.3.0/24 next-hop 10.1.2.1” command. What is the correct traceroute command to test this static route on an Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR?
A. traceroute 10.2.3.1
B. traceroute 10.2.3.1 next-hop 10.1.2.1
C. traceroute next-hop 10.1.2.1
D. traceroute does not work on the Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR.
E. traceroute 10.1.2.1

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 8
Click the exhibit button.

A static route is created on router R1 “using the “static-route 0.0.0.0/0 next-hop 10.3.3.2” command. What command can be used to test the static route on an Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR?
A. ping static 10.5.5.5
B. ping static 0.0.0.0/0
C. ping 10.5.5.5
D. ping 0.0.0.0

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 9
What is the default preference value for a static route in the Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR?
A. 0
B. 5
C. 10
D. 15

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 10
Which of the following statements apply to link state protocol behavior? Choose three answers.
A. Routers broadcast the entire route table to all neighbors.
B. Information about directly connected links is sent to all neighbors.
C. An adjacency database is maintained by each router.
D. The sequence number for an update is incremented as it is flooded from router to router.
E. The topological database is the same for all routers in a single area.

Correct Answer: BCE
QUESTION 11
Click the exhibit button.

What triggers convergence of the routing protocol when the link between switch 1 and switch 2 goes down?
A. Convergence is triggered when the adjacency between routers R1 and R2 drops as a result of Hello timeouts. At this point, both routers R1 and R2 re-compute their link state database and send updates to their adjacent routers. Once the process is complete for all routers, the networks have converged.
B. Convergence is triggered when the physical interfaces between routers R1 and R2 go down. At this point, both routers R1 and R2 re-compute their link state database and send updates to their adjacent routers. Once the process is complete for all routers, the networks have converged.
C. Convergence will not be triggered because switches cannot run routing protocols between them.
D. Convergence is triggered when the switches notify the routers about the link state information. At this point, both routers R1 and R2 re-compute their link state database and send updates to their adjacent routers. Once the process is complete for all routers, the networks have converged
E. Convergence is triggered when an LSA is sent from router R1 to router R2 to indicate that the link is down. At this point, both routers R1 and R2 re-compute their link state database and send updates to their adjacent routers. Once the process is complete for all routers, the networks have converged.

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 12
What are the default Hello and Dead timer intervals for OSPF on the Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR?
A. 5 and 15 seconds
B. 10 and 30 seconds
C. 5 and 20 seconds
D. 10 and 40 seconds

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 13
What causes an adjacency to change from down to two ways?
A. When a link state update is received in response to a link state request.
B. When a router receives a Hello packet that contains its own router ID in the neighbor list from a neighbor.
C. When a router receives a database description packet from a neighbor.
D. When a link state acknowledgement is received in response to a link state update.

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 14
Click the exhibit button.

In the topology shown, router R1 is an ASBR configured to export external routes to OSPF. Assuming that there are no stub networks, which of the following statements regarding type 4 LSA generation is true?
A. Router R1 generates a type 4 LSA that is flooded to areas 0, 1, and 2.
B. Router R3 generates a type 4 LSA that is flooded to areas 0, 1, and 2.
C. Router R3 generates a type 4 LSA that is flooded to areas 0 and 2.
D. Router R3 generates a type 4 LSA that is flooded to area 0, and router R6 generates a type 4 LSA that is flooded to area 2.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 15
Which of the following commands can be used to display the number of SPF computations that have been performed on a router?
A. show router ospf area <area-id>
B. show router ospf neighbor
C. show router ospf interface
D. show router ospf status

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 16
Which of the following statements describe the major features of OSPF? Choose two answers.
A. Fast reroute capability
B. Control traffic prioritization
C. Route redistribution
D. Traffic engineering extensions
E. Cut through forwarding
Correct Answer: CD
QUESTION 17
Click the exhibit button.

What can you deduce from the show command on router R6?
A. The router R6 interface is in a multi-access segment. It is neither the DR nor the BDR for the segment. The DR for this segment would be the router with router ID 10.10.10.5.
B. The router R6 interface is in a multi-access segment. It is neither the DR nor the BDR for the segment; however, this command does not indicate whether 10.10.10.3 or 10.10.10.5 is the DR or BDR.
C. The router R6 interface is in a multi-access segment. It is the BDR, which is why it is not adjacent to the other routers.
D. The router R6 interface is in a multi-access segment. It is neither the DR nor the BDR for the segment. The DR for this segment would be the router with router ID 10.10.10.3.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 18
Click the exhibit button.

In the topology shown, router R1 is an ASBR configured to export external routes to OSPF. How many type 4 LSAs will be present in the network?
A. One.
B. One for each of the routers in area 0
C. One for each of the external routes exported by router R1.
D. Type 4 LSAs are not generated in this network topology.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 19
Which of the following conditions will prevent an OSPF adjacency from reaching the full state? Choose three answers.
A. MTU mismatch
B. Incorrect subnet mask
C. System interface not included in OSPF
D. Area ID not the same
E. Different metric set on each end of the link
F. Router ID not defined

Correct Answer: ABD
QUESTION 20
Click the exhibit button.

The following command sequence is executed on router R2:
A:
R2# configure router ospf router-id 10.10.10.99

A:
R2# configure router router-id 10.10.10.66
On router R1, what router ID appears for router R2 directly after these commands are executed?
A.
10.10.10.99
B.
10.10.10.66
C.
10.10.10.2
D.
10.10.10.1
Correct Answer: C QUESTION 21

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QUESTION 1
You are configuring your Alcatel-Lucent 7750SR Service Router from the Command Line Interface (CLI), and after entering a lengthy command, wish to return directly to the ROOT context. Which control command allows you to do this quickly?
A. Ctrl-z
B. Ctrl-c
C. Esc
D. Shift-Page Down

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 2
Which of the following best describes a repeater?
A. A passive device simply used to connect two or more cables. Does not generate or amplify any signals.
B. A device that receives and retransmits a signal out its ports, but does not do any Layer 2 analysis of the data.
C. A device that receives a signal and based on the Layer 2 destination address, makes a decision on which ports the signal should be retransmitted.
D. A device that receives a signal and based on the Layer 3 destination address, makes a decision on which ports the signal should be retransmitted.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 3
How do protocols such as ATM and Frame-Relay support differentiating multiple customers or traffic types on the same physical wire?
A. ATM and Frame-Relay are circuit switched protocols and use Virtual Circuits to create logical separation of traffic.
B. ATM and Frame-Relay are point-to-point protocols and do not support different customers or traffic type on the same physical wire.
C. ATM and Frame-Relay are circuit switched protocols and use VLAN’s to create logical separation of traffic.
D. ATM and Frame-Relay are circuit switched protocols and use IP Header information to create logical separation of traffic.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4
Which of the following is a feature of Layer 3?
A. Provides an universal addressing scheme
B. Ensures data is delivered across the Layer 2 network.
C. Provides reliable data transfers.
D. Provides a physical interface to the network.

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 5
The 201.148.26.0/24 network is subnetted using a /26 mask. How many subnets and host addresses will you obtain with this mask?
A. 4 subnets, 64 hosts
B. 64 subnets, 4 hosts
C. 4 subnets, 62 hosts
D. 64 subnets, 2 hosts
E. 6 subnets, 30 hosts

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 6
What kind of information can a Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) client receive?
A. Details of the configuration settings of each router on the network.
B. A list of other DHCP clients.
C. IP addresses and their lease times.
D. Server time information

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 7
Choose two true statements that characterize Link State Routing
A. Routers send a copy of their routing table to their neighbors periodically.
B. Routers flood link information throughout the entire area.
C. Network converges quickly (within several seconds) after a topology change.
D. Routers do not have precise knowledge of the entire network topology.

Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 8
Which statement accurately explains the purpose of the TCP protocol and what it provides?
A. The primary purpose of TCP is to provide reliable communications between application services.
B. The primary purpose of TCP is to provide unreliable communications between application services
C. The primary purpose of TCP is to provide IP routing between application services.
D. The primary purpose of TCP is to define the correct format for the application layer such as JPEG or HTML.

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 9
Which of the following is the best description of well known ports?
A. Well known ports apply to routers only and are used for communication and control traffic. Well known port numbers are assigned by IANA and can have any value.
B. Well known ports are used by TCP and UDP. Well known port numbers range from 1024 to 65535 and are assigned by IANA.
C. Well known port numbers are used by both TCP and UDP. Well known port numbers range from 1 to 1023 and are assigned by IANA.
D. Well known ports numbers are used by TCP only. Well known port numbers are assigned by IANA and can have any value.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 10
Which organization first considered cross-platform networking support to be a necessity?
A. IBM.
B. US Military.
C. Alcatel-Lucent.
D. NASA.
E. Bell Labs

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 11
Which of the following statements best describes ARPANET?
A. ARPANET was an early packet switched network initially connecting 4 sites (Stanford, UC Santa Barbara, UCLA, and U of Utah).
B. The mission of ARPANET was to connect packet switched networks and other diverse networks, making an international network of networks.
C. ARPANET connected sites spread around the Hawaiian Islands to a central time-sharing computer on the University of Hawaii campus.
D. ARPANET was based on the use of TCP/IP to interconnect diverse systems.

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 12
Kahn solved the problem of interconnecting different networks using different protocols by pioneering a new protocol called TCP that was capable of:
A. Secure transmission of information.
B. Enforcing a constant packet size to avoid discards.
C. Allowing remote logins.
D. Providing host to host connectivity with global addressing.

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 13
Which network was created to replace ARPANET?
A. INWG
B. ALOHANET
C. IETF
D. NSFNET

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 14
Which statement best describes how the internet evolved?
A. The internet emerged in the commercial world in the 1980’s following the US military’s adoption of TCP/IP in 1983.
B. The internet evolved from a military to a research to a commercial based network.
C. The internet remained primarily a research based network and was only commercially adopted in 2000 when the world wide web was conceived.
D. Internet service providers provided the services necessary for military based networks to evolve into research and education based networks.

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 15
Which organization eventually became the standards body for IP and related protocols?
A. IEEE
B. IETF
C. NSFNET
D. ITU-T
E. APNIC

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 16
What is the name for an organization that provides Internet services to its customers?
A. A large corporation.
B. An ISP.
C. A home based business.
D. A content provider.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 17
The IANA is responsible for:
A. Intra-city ISP traffic
B. Allocation of the global IP address space
C. Allocating IP addresses for residential customer traffic
D. Allocating North American IP addresses

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 18
Which of the following is an important advantage of protocol layering? (Choose two)
A. Controls distribution of IP addresses.
B. Simplifies protocol functionality.
C. Isolates changes in lower layers from upper layers.
D. Increases protocol operational efficiencies.
E. Layering adds to the fragmentation of the data

Correct Answer: CD
QUESTION 19
To transmit its segments of data across the network TCP uses the services of which layer?
A. Application Layer.
B. Transport Layer.
C. IP Layer.
D. Data Link Layer
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 20
Which of the following are protocols belonging to the OSI suite of protocols? (Choose two)
A. OSPF
B. BGP
C. X.500
D. IS-IS
E. Ethernet
Correct Answer: CD

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QUESTION 1
Upon the successful establishment of a TCP session between peers, what type of BGP message is exchanged?
A. OpenSent
B. Keepalive
C. Open
D. Notification
E. Update

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 2
Click the exhibit.

An update travels from AS 135000 to AS 137000, traversing both 32-bit and 16-bit AS paths. What will the AS Path be when the update reaches AS 137000?
A. 140000 200 135000
B. 137000 140000 200 135000
C. 140000 23456 135000
D. 135000 200 140000

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 3
Which of the following is FALSE regarding the 16-bit public autonomous system numbers?
A. They are allocated to the RIRs by ICANN/IANA.
B. They are used when connecting ASs on the Internet.
C. They range from 1 to 56319.
D. They are assigned by the ISPs for enterprise networks.

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 4
Click the exhibit.

Given that ISP 1 and ISP 2 are Tier 2 providers, and that ISP 3 and ISP 4 are Tier 1 providers, what is the most likely relationship between the ISPs?
A. ISP 1 and ISP 2 have a public transit relationship, while ISP 3 and ISP 4 have a private transit relationship.
B. ISP 1 and ISP 2 have a private transit relationship, while ISP 3 and ISP 4 have a public transit relationship.
C. ISP 1 and ISP 2 have a private peering relationship, while ISP 3 and ISP 4 have a public peering relationship.
D. ISP 1 and ISP 2 have a public peering relationship, while ISP 3 and ISP 4 have a private peering relationship.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 5
Click the exhibit.

If router A originates an update for prefix 192.168.0.1/27, what will the update contain when it reaches router B?
A. AS Path of 65200, local-preference of 100.
B. AS Path of 65200, local-preference of None.
C. Null AS Path, local-preference of 100.
D. Null AS Path, local-preference of None.

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 6
BGP is configured on two peers, routers A and B. Router A is configured with a Hold Time timer of 60 seconds and a Keepalive timer of 25 seconds. Router B is configured with a Hold Time timer of 90 seconds and a Keepalive timer of 70 seconds. What will the active Keepalive timer be on router B?
A. 70 seconds
B. 25 seconds
C. 20 seconds
D. 30 seconds

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 7
Which of the following statements regarding the Internet is FALSE?
A. It is a global network relying on interconnections provided by Internet service providers.
B. It is a continuous and interconnected set of public IP networks, advertised and shared across the globe.
C. It is a settlement-free global network that provides interconnection between Internet service providers.
D. It is a network that allows any Internet service provider to reach every other Internet service provider in the world.

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 8
Which of the following is the minimum requirement for an AS to be considered multi-homed?
A. A single connection to a single service provider.
B. Two connections to a single service provider.
C. Two connections to two different service providers.
D. Multiple connections to different service providers.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 9
What are the well-known mandatory BGP attributes?
A. Origin, Next Hop and Local Preference.
B. Local preference, AS Path and Next Hop.
C. Aggregator, Next Hop and AS Path.
D. AS Path, Next Hop and Origin.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 10
Which of the following best describes the relationship between locally configured policies and the direction of traffic?
A. Import policies affect the way the local AS receives traffic, while export policies affect the way it sends traffic.
B. Import policies affect the way the local AS sends traffic, while export policies affect the way it receives traffic.
C. Both import and export policies affect the way the local AS receives traffic, but not the way it sends traffic.
D. Both import and export policies affect the way the local AS sends traffic, but not the way it receives traffic.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 11
What kind of BGP attribute is the Local Preference?
A. Optional transitive attribute.
B. Optional non-transitive attribute.
C. Well-known mandatory attribute.
D. Well-known discretionary attribute.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 12
Which of the following is TRUE?
A. There can only be one community associated with a route.
B. Community is an optional non-transitive attribute.
C. Community is an optional transitive attribute.
D. Community is a well-known discretionary attribute.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 13
Click the exhibit.

Assuming a full iBGP mesh in ISP 1, how does router R1 in ISP 1 handle a BGP update received from ISP 2?
A. The update is sent to router R2 in ISP 1.
B. The update is sent to routers R2 and R3 in ISP 1.
C. The update is sent to all routers in ISP 1.
D. The update is sent to routers R2 and R3 in ISP 1, and to router R3 in ISP 2.

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 14
Click on the exhibit.

AS 65540 is using MPLS to provide BGP shortcuts for its iBGP routing. Which routers must be configured with the “configure router bgp igp-shortcuts rsvp-te” command?
A. Routers R6, R1, R4 and R5.
B. Routers R1and R4.
C. Routers R1, R2, R3 and R4.
D. Routers R2 and R3.

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 15
Which of the following is TRUE if the state of one BGP neighbor shows Active?
A. The neighbor will send a Keepalive message.
B. The router is trying to initiate a TCP connection to that neighbor.
C. The router received an Open message with the correct parameters.
D. The router is actively exchanging updates with that neighbor.

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 16
Which of the following about default BGP behavior is FALSE?
A. Next Hop is modified in iBGP updates.
B. Origin Code is NOT modified in eBGP updates.
C. AS Path is modified in eBGP updates.
D. Local Preference is NOT modified in iBGP updates.

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 17
Why is a full mesh of iBGP peers required?
A. To ensure proper route propagation inside a transit AS.
B. To ensure that all routers are directly connected.
C. To ensure that all routers run iBGP inside a transit AS.
D. To maximize control plane scalability.

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 18
Click the exhibit.

Assume all router-IDs are properly configured. Which of the following configurations is required on the Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR router A to establish an IPv6 BGP session to router D?

A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 19
Consider two Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SRs in AS 65540. Router R1 has system address 10.10.10.1, and router R2 has system address 10.10.10.2. Which of the following configurations on router R2 can establish a BGP session with router R1?

A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 20
A router in AS 65100 receives three routes for 138.120.0.0/16. The first route has an AS Path of 65200
65400 65300 and a local preference of 150. The second route has an AS Path of 65200 65300 and a local preference of 100. The third route has an AS path of 65600 65300 and a local preference of 200. Which route will appear in the RIB-In?
A. Only the first route will appear in the RIB-In.
B. Only the second route will appear in the RIB-In.
C. Only the third route will appear in the RIB-In.
D. All routes will appear in the RIB-In.

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 21

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QUESTION 1
When a router receives an IP packet, but does not find a match in the routing table for the destination IP address, what actions are performed by the router?
A. The packet is flooded out all router interfaces.
B. The packet is dropped and an ICMP unreachable message is sent back to the source.
C. The packet is silently discarded.
D. The packet is flooded out all interfaces and an ICMP unreachable message is sent.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 2
Which of the following statements regarding distance vectors protocols are true? (Choose two answers).
A. RIPv1, RIPv2, and BGP are distance vector protocols.
B. OSPF and IS-IS are distance vector protocols.
C. Routing tables are exchanged between neighbors; however, no routing table is transmitted beyond the immediate neighbor.
D. Distance vector protocols use the Dijkstra SPF algorithm.
E. Routers that participate in distance vector routing protocols maintain full knowledge of distant routers and how they interconnect
Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 3
Click the exhibit button.

Routers R1 ,, R2, and R3 are running a classful routing protocol between them. Assuming that router R1 advertises all directly connected networks, how will these networks be represented in router R3’s routing table?
A. Router R3’s routing table can only contain one of the routes, which will result in route flapping.
B. Router R3’s routing table will have one entry for 10.1.1.0/24 and one entry for 10.1.2.0/24.
C. The networks will be represented with one entry of 10.0.0.0/8 in router R3’s routing table.
D. The networks will be represented with one entry of 10.0.0.0/24 in router R3’s route table.

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 4
In an IP datagram, which of the following fields identifies the receiving application?
A. The protocol field of the transport layer header.
B. The port field of the transport layer header.
C. The protocol field of the network layer header.
D. The port field of the network layer address.

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 5
Static routing will be used in a network between a corporate head office, with many connected networks, and a branch office, with one connection to the head office. Which of the following best describes the likely configuration?
A. The corporate head office router will have a default route and the branch site will have a more specific static route.
B. The corporate head office router and the branch office router will both have specific static routes.
C. The corporate head office router and the branch router will both have default routes.
D. The corporate head office router will have a more specific static route and the branch office router will have a default route.

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 6
Click the exhibit button.

What is the command to configure a static route on the Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR router R1 to reach the network behind router R2?
A. configure router static-route 139.120.121.0/24 next-hop 138.120.199.2
B. configure router static-route 139.120.121.0/24 next-hop 138.120.199.1
C. configure router static-route 138.120.199.2/24 next-hop 138.120.199.1
D. configure router static-route 139.120.121.0/24 next-hop 139.120.121.2

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 7
There is an IP host with IP address 10.2.3.1. A static route is created, using the “configure router static-route 10.2.3.0/24 next-hop 10.1.2.1” command. What is the correct traceroute command to test this static route on an Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR?
A. traceroute 10.2.3.1
B. traceroute 10.2.3.1 next-hop 10.1.2.1
C. traceroute next-hop 10.1.2.1
D. traceroute does not work on the Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR.
E. traceroute 10.1.2.1

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 8
Click the exhibit button.

A static route is created on router R1 “using the “static-route 0.0.0.0/0 next-hop 10.3.3.2” command. What command can be used to test the static route on an Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR?
A. ping static 10.5.5.5
B. ping static 0.0.0.0/0
C. ping 10.5.5.5
D. ping 0.0.0.0

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 9
What is the default preference value for a static route in the Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR?
A. 0
B. 5
C. 10
D. 15

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 10
Which of the following statements apply to link state protocol behavior? Choose three answers.
A. Routers broadcast the entire route table to all neighbors.
B. Information about directly connected links is sent to all neighbors.
C. An adjacency database is maintained by each router.
D. The sequence number for an update is incremented as it is flooded from router to router.
E. The topological database is the same for all routers in a single area.

Correct Answer: BCE
QUESTION 11
Click the exhibit button.

What triggers convergence of the routing protocol when the link between switch 1 and switch 2 goes down?
A. Convergence is triggered when the adjacency between routers R1 and R2 drops as a result of Hello timeouts. At this point, both routers R1 and R2 re-compute their link state database and send updates to their adjacent routers. Once the process is complete for all routers, the networks have converged.
B. Convergence is triggered when the physical interfaces between routers R1 and R2 go down. At this point, both routers R1 and R2 re-compute their link state database and send updates to their adjacent routers. Once the process is complete for all routers, the networks have converged.
C. Convergence will not be triggered because switches cannot run routing protocols between them.
D. Convergence is triggered when the switches notify the routers about the link state information. At this point, both routers R1 and R2 re-compute their link state database and send updates to their adjacent routers. Once the process is complete for all routers, the networks have converged
E. Convergence is triggered when an LSA is sent from router R1 to router R2 to indicate that the link is down. At this point, both routers R1 and R2 re-compute their link state database and send updates to their adjacent routers. Once the process is complete for all routers, the networks have converged.

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 12
What are the default Hello and Dead timer intervals for OSPF on the Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR?
A. 5 and 15 seconds
B. 10 and 30 seconds
C. 5 and 20 seconds
D. 10 and 40 seconds

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 13
What causes an adjacency to change from down to two ways?
A. When a link state update is received in response to a link state request.
B. When a router receives a Hello packet that contains its own router ID in the neighbor list from a neighbor.
C. When a router receives a database description packet from a neighbor.
D. When a link state acknowledgement is received in response to a link state update.

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 14
Click the exhibit button.

In the topology shown, router R1 is an ASBR configured to export external routes to OSPF. Assuming that there are no stub networks, which of the following statements regarding type 4 LSA generation is true?
A. Router R1 generates a type 4 LSA that is flooded to areas 0, 1, and 2.
B. Router R3 generates a type 4 LSA that is flooded to areas 0, 1, and 2.
C. Router R3 generates a type 4 LSA that is flooded to areas 0 and 2.
D. Router R3 generates a type 4 LSA that is flooded to area 0, and router R6 generates a type 4 LSA that is flooded to area 2.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 15
Which of the following commands can be used to display the number of SPF computations that have been performed on a router?
A. show router ospf area <area-id>
B. show router ospf neighbor
C. show router ospf interface
D. show router ospf status

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 16
Which of the following statements describe the major features of OSPF? Choose two answers.
A. Fast reroute capability
B. Control traffic prioritization
C. Route redistribution
D. Traffic engineering extensions
E. Cut through forwarding
Correct Answer: CD
QUESTION 17
Click the exhibit button.

What can you deduce from the show command on router R6?
A. The router R6 interface is in a multi-access segment. It is neither the DR nor the BDR for the segment. The DR for this segment would be the router with router ID 10.10.10.5.
B. The router R6 interface is in a multi-access segment. It is neither the DR nor the BDR for the segment; however, this command does not indicate whether 10.10.10.3 or 10.10.10.5 is the DR or BDR.
C. The router R6 interface is in a multi-access segment. It is the BDR, which is why it is not adjacent to the other routers.
D. The router R6 interface is in a multi-access segment. It is neither the DR nor the BDR for the segment. The DR for this segment would be the router with router ID 10.10.10.3.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 18
Click the exhibit button.

In the topology shown, router R1 is an ASBR configured to export external routes to OSPF. How many type 4 LSAs will be present in the network?
A. One.
B. One for each of the routers in area 0
C. One for each of the external routes exported by router R1.
D. Type 4 LSAs are not generated in this network topology.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 19
Which of the following conditions will prevent an OSPF adjacency from reaching the full state? Choose three answers.
A. MTU mismatch
B. Incorrect subnet mask
C. System interface not included in OSPF
D. Area ID not the same
E. Different metric set on each end of the link
F. Router ID not defined

Correct Answer: ABD
QUESTION 20
Click the exhibit button.

The following command sequence is executed on router R2:
A:
R2# configure router ospf router-id 10.10.10.99

A:
R2# configure router router-id 10.10.10.66
On router R1, what router ID appears for router R2 directly after these commands are executed?
A.
10.10.10.99
B.
10.10.10.66
C.
10.10.10.2
D.
10.10.10.1
Correct Answer: C

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QUESTION 1
You are configuring your Alcatel-Lucent 7750SR Service Router from the Command Line Interface (CLI), and after entering a lengthy command, wish to return directly to the ROOT context. Which control command allows you to do this quickly?
A. Ctrl-z
B. Ctrl-c
C. Esc
D. Shift-Page Down

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 2
Which of the following best describes a repeater?
A. A passive device simply used to connect two or more cables. Does not generate or amplify any signals.
B. A device that receives and retransmits a signal out its ports, but does not do any Layer 2 analysis of the data.
C. A device that receives a signal and based on the Layer 2 destination address, makes a decision on which ports the signal should be retransmitted.
D. A device that receives a signal and based on the Layer 3 destination address, makes a decision on which ports the signal should be retransmitted.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 3
How do protocols such as ATM and Frame-Relay support differentiating multiple customers or traffic types on the same physical wire?
A. ATM and Frame-Relay are circuit switched protocols and use Virtual Circuits to create logical separation of traffic.
B. ATM and Frame-Relay are point-to-point protocols and do not support different customers or traffic type on the same physical wire.
C. ATM and Frame-Relay are circuit switched protocols and use VLAN’s to create logical separation of traffic.
D. ATM and Frame-Relay are circuit switched protocols and use IP Header information to create logical separation of traffic.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4
Which of the following is a feature of Layer 3?
A. Provides an universal addressing scheme
B. Ensures data is delivered across the Layer 2 network.
C. Provides reliable data transfers.
D. Provides a physical interface to the network.

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 5
The 201.148.26.0/24 network is subnetted using a /26 mask. How many subnets and host addresses will you obtain with this mask?
A. 4 subnets, 64 hosts
B. 64 subnets, 4 hosts
C. 4 subnets, 62 hosts
D. 64 subnets, 2 hosts
E. 6 subnets, 30 hosts

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 6
What kind of information can a Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) client receive?
A. Details of the configuration settings of each router on the network.
B. A list of other DHCP clients.
C. IP addresses and their lease times.
D. Server time information

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 7
Choose two true statements that characterize Link State Routing
A. Routers send a copy of their routing table to their neighbors periodically.
B. Routers flood link information throughout the entire area.
C. Network converges quickly (within several seconds) after a topology change.
D. Routers do not have precise knowledge of the entire network topology.

Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 8
Which statement accurately explains the purpose of the TCP protocol and what it provides?
A. The primary purpose of TCP is to provide reliable communications between application services.
B. The primary purpose of TCP is to provide unreliable communications between application services
C. The primary purpose of TCP is to provide IP routing between application services.
D. The primary purpose of TCP is to define the correct format for the application layer such as JPEG or HTML.

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 9
Which of the following is the best description of well known ports?
A. Well known ports apply to routers only and are used for communication and control traffic. Well known port numbers are assigned by IANA and can have any value.
B. Well known ports are used by TCP and UDP. Well known port numbers range from 1024 to 65535 and are assigned by IANA.
C. Well known port numbers are used by both TCP and UDP. Well known port numbers range from 1 to 1023 and are assigned by IANA.
D. Well known ports numbers are used by TCP only. Well known port numbers are assigned by IANA and can have any value.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 10
Which organization first considered cross-platform networking support to be a necessity?
A. IBM.
B. US Military.
C. Alcatel-Lucent.
D. NASA.
E. Bell Labs

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 11
Which of the following statements best describes ARPANET?
A. ARPANET was an early packet switched network initially connecting 4 sites (Stanford, UC Santa Barbara, UCLA, and U of Utah).
B. The mission of ARPANET was to connect packet switched networks and other diverse networks, making an international network of networks.
C. ARPANET connected sites spread around the Hawaiian Islands to a central time-sharing computer on the University of Hawaii campus.
D. ARPANET was based on the use of TCP/IP to interconnect diverse systems.

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 12
Kahn solved the problem of interconnecting different networks using different protocols by pioneering a new protocol called TCP that was capable of:
A. Secure transmission of information.
B. Enforcing a constant packet size to avoid discards.
C. Allowing remote logins.
D. Providing host to host connectivity with global addressing.

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 13
Which network was created to replace ARPANET?
A. INWG
B. ALOHANET
C. IETF
D. NSFNET

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 14
Which statement best describes how the internet evolved?
A. The internet emerged in the commercial world in the 1980’s following the US military’s adoption of TCP/IP in 1983.
B. The internet evolved from a military to a research to a commercial based network.
C. The internet remained primarily a research based network and was only commercially adopted in 2000 when the world wide web was conceived.
D. Internet service providers provided the services necessary for military based networks to evolve into research and education based networks.

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 15
Which organization eventually became the standards body for IP and related protocols?
A. IEEE
B. IETF
C. NSFNET
D. ITU-T
E. APNIC

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 16
What is the name for an organization that provides Internet services to its customers?
A. A large corporation.
B. An ISP.
C. A home based business.
D. A content provider.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 17
The IANA is responsible for:
A. Intra-city ISP traffic
B. Allocation of the global IP address space
C. Allocating IP addresses for residential customer traffic
D. Allocating North American IP addresses

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 18
Which of the following is an important advantage of protocol layering? (Choose two)
A. Controls distribution of IP addresses.
B. Simplifies protocol functionality.
C. Isolates changes in lower layers from upper layers.
D. Increases protocol operational efficiencies.
E. Layering adds to the fragmentation of the data

Correct Answer: CD
QUESTION 19
To transmit its segments of data across the network TCP uses the services of which layer?
A. Application Layer.
B. Transport Layer.
C. IP Layer.
D. Data Link Layer
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 20
Which of the following are protocols belonging to the OSI suite of protocols? (Choose two)
A. OSPF
B. BGP
C. X.500
D. IS-IS
E. Ethernet
Correct Answer: CD QUESTION 21

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QUESTION 1
In a VPRN the PE device is configured to run which of the following protocols? (Choose three.)
A. MP-BGP for exchanging customer routes with other PEs
B. A routing protocol for exchanging customer routes with the CE
C. MPLS for exchanging labels with other provider core devices
D. MPLS for exchanging labels with the CE devices
E. Targeted LDP for exchanging VPRN labels with other PE devices
F. A label signaling protocol for defining transport tunnels between PE and CE devices

Correct Answer: ABC
QUESTION 2
Choose the answer that best completes the following sentence. The CE device is typically configured with _________________.
A. A single routing protocol for exchanging routes with both the internal customer routers and with the PE
B. MP-BGP to exchange routes with the PE.
C. MPLS and a routing protocol for the exchange of labels and routes with the PE
D. MPLS for exchanging labels with other CE devices
E. A routing protocol for exchanging routes with the internal customer routers and a routing protocol for exchanging routes with the PE

Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 3
Which of the following terms also correctly describes a Layer 3 VPN?(Choose three)
A. VPRN
B. BGP/MPLS VPN
C. VLL
D. VPLS
E. IP-VPN
F. ePipe
Correct Answer: ABE

QUESTION 4
What are the main functions of a Layer 3 VPN? (Choose three).
A. Distributing customer routing information between sites
B. Forwarding customer data packets
C. Providing an integrated billing solution
D. Maintaining separation between distinct customer networks
E. Allowing the implementation of Layer 3 devices in the provider core
Correct Answer: ABD

QUESTION 5
Which of the following statements are true regarding P devices in an MPLS VPRN? (Choose two.)
A. Participate in service provider core routing
B. P devices are not required to be MPLS enabled. MPLS is only required on the PE devices
C. Run a common routing protocol with the CE router
D. Must support MP-BGP
E. Do not have any connections to the CE
F. Must be aware of the VPRNs

Correct Answer: AE
QUESTION 6
What are the two primary problems the service provider must consider when providing traditional Layer 3 VPN services using only a single common routing table in the provider core? (Choose two)
A. Memory exhaustion in the provider core
B. Route leaking between the customer networks
C. CPU utilization for route processing
D. Unwanted packet forwarding between customer networks

Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 7
When a Service Provider offers VPRN services to its customers, which of the following functions are expected to be the responsibility of the Service Provider? (Choose three)
A. Distributing the customer generated labels between sites
B. Distributing the customer routing information between
C. Forwarding the customer originated data packets to the appropriate destination
D. Forwarding the provider originated data packets to the appropriate customer site
E. Providing secure layer 3 routing exchange between sites

Correct Answer: BCE
QUESTION 8
In a traditional layer 3 VPN which of the following will be an issue when there is overlapping address space between two customers? Choose the best answer.
A. There will be increased memory usage on the PE
B. There will be increased CPU utilization on the PE
C. The CE will reject the overlapping prefix
D. The PE will not recognize the prefixes as being different
E. There is no issue with overlapping address space in a traditional Layer 3 VPN
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 9
Complete the following statement. In a VPRN, the label signaled by RSVP-TE is used to ______________.
A. Identify the egress PE in the MPLS domain
B. Signal the egress VPRN ID
C. Identify the ingress PE in the MPLS domain
D. Transport route updates between PEs
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 10
Complete the following statement. In a VPRN, the label signaled by RSVP-TE is used to ______________.
A. Identify the egress PE in the MPLS domain
B. Signal the egress VPRN ID
C. Identify the ingress PE in the MPLS domain
D. Transport route updates between PEs

Correct Answer: A