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QUESTION 1
The SNMP counters check for authorization failures and other types error conditions. Which of these SNMP error conditions is displayed in Enterprise Device Manager?
A. PCAP packet capture counters
B. In Bad Community Names counters
C. Fan Failure packet counters
D. Power Supply Failure packet counters Correct Answer: D QUESTION 2
What does the trace level 9 3 command accomplish?
A. It captures BGP events at a terse level.
B. It captures packets copied to the CPU at a verbose level.
C. It shows CPU utilization.
D. It captures RCC IP events at verbose level.

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 3
The attempt to manage an Ethernet Routing Switch (ERS) 8000 using a Virtual Route Redundancy Protocol (VRRP) address was not successful. What is causing this problem?
A. The virtual router identifier is 0.
B. The data center interface is set as a critical IP interface.
C. A real IP address is required for management access not a VRRP address.
D. The virtual router identifier is configured for the VRRP IP address owner.

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 4
After experiencing issues with XFPs, the show sys pluggable-optical-modules info CLI commands is used to find that the switch not recognize the XFPs. Which other method can be used to view the XFP compatibility?
A. Check for port alarms
B. Show DWDM-XFP {default}.
C. Use the monitor sys tech info command to monitor for any changes in compatibility.
D. Use enterprise Device Manager and select the Edit, Port, General tab from the navigation pane to display any XFP compatibility issues.

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 5
Refer to the exhibit.

When checking an Inter Switch Trunks (IST) configuration using the show mlt ist info command as shown in the exhibit, which IP address should be in the IP ADDRESS column?
A. The IP address of the IST VLAN on the local switch.
B. The IP address of the IST VLAN on the peer switch.
C. The IP address of the first IST port on the peer switch.
D. The management IP address of the peer switch.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 6
Traceroute allows a route to be traced to a network using an Ethernet Routing Switch (ERS) 8600 CLI command. How could you use it to limit the number of hops the traceroute reports?
A. Configure the P (base UDP port) to the number of maximum number hops.
B. Configure the q (number of probes per TTL) to the number maximum number of hops.
C. Configure the m (maximum TTL value) to the number of maximum number of hops.
D. Configure the w (wait time per probe) to the number of maximum number of hops.

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 7
Syslog in the Ethernet Routing Switch (ERS) 8600 allows the mapping of ERS 8600 errors to specified to be specified to the facility local 0-local 7. What is another place of information that syslog provides.
A. Security level
B. Message frequency
C. Syslog table location
D. System status

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 8
When configuring a new Ethernet Routing Switch (ERS) 8000 using the default interface, the attempt to load an ACLI configuration fails because the default
interface is the CLI.
How is the ACLI interface obtained?

A. Change the interface type in the config.cfg file.
B. Change the ACLI boot flag and save the boot configuration file.
C. Exit the CLI and choose ACLI at the interface manager prompt.
D. Use the abort command and enter `no’ at the default interface. Correct Answer: C QUESTION 9
Which CLI command is used to validate that synchronization for High Availability mode is set correctly?
A. Show ha
B. Show ha-all
C. Show ha-state
D. Show ha-sync

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 10
What does Ping snoop identify?
A. The path that IP traffic takes over an MLT or SMLT
B. The rate of IP traffic flow
C. Which port filter is best to use on MLT networks
D. Rate limiting for ICMP traffic Correct Answer: A QUESTION 11
Consider the following port conditions on an Ethernet Routing Switch (ERS) 8648GTRS 10/100/1000 Ethernet I/O module: Left LED green Right LED flashing
What is the status of the port?
A. The link speed is 100 Mbp, and the port is disabled.
B. The link speed is 1000 Mbps, and the port is disabled.
C. The link speed is 100 Mbps, and the port is passing traffic.
D. The link speed is 1000 Mbps, and the port is passing traffic.

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 12
Refer to the exhibit.

Based on the command line output shown in the exhibit, how many Gigabit Ethernet ports are available on this Ethernet Routing Switch (ERS) 8600?
A. 3
B. 48
C. 52
D. 83

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 13
A campus network requirement is to introduce Virtual Routing and Forwarding (VRF) in the existing Ethernet Routing Switch (ERS) 8600-based core. The technician has to configure VRF on the ERS 8600. Which statement represents the order for configuring a new VRF?
A. Creating a new VLAN, add an IP address to the VLAN, create the VRF in the VLAN configuration.
B. Create VRF, change context to the new VRF, add an IP address, create a new VLAN, and move the VLAN to the new VRF.
C. Create a VRF, change context to the new VRF, create a new VLAN, add an IP address to the VLAN.
D. Create a VRF, create a new VLAN, move the VLAN to the new VRF, change context to the new VRF, and add an IP Address.

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 14
A technician is configuring an InterSwitch Frank (IST) for Spilt Multi-Link Franking (SMLT). Which statement about how the IST is addressed is true?
A. Configure the IP address of the ports that comprise the IST.
B. No address configurations are required when configuring an IST.
C. Configure the IP address of the VLAN that was created for the IST.
D. Configure the MAC addresses of the switches on each end of the IST. Correct Answer: C QUESTION 15
What is the underlying dynamic link state routing protocol used for the implementation of the Avaya Enterprise Fabric?
A. OSPF
B. OSPFv3
C. IS-IS
D. SPBV

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 16
By default the ERS 8000 is configured for warm standby. After installation of a new ERS solution with dual CPUs, which three actions need to be Perform on the ERS configuration to ensure high availability mode is enabled and will function correctly? (Choose three)
A. Set the high availability CPU boot flag to true.
B. Set the warm standby CPU hoot flag to false.
C. Set the save to standby CPU boot flag to true.
D. Save the boot.cfg conflg file and reset the switch to activate the changes.
E. Install the high availability license file. Correct Answer: ADE QUESTION 17
The Ethernet Routing Switch (ERS) 8600 switch includes a means to fine tune the memory resources by allowing the record allocations to be allowed. An ERS 8600 running Release 5.0 needs to be configured to be optimized for multicast traffic.
Which command alters the ERS 8600 to increases the default allocation of Multicast by 50 percent?
A. Config sys set record record reserve MGID + 50
B. Config sys set max-vlan-resource-reservation 4096
C. Config sys set show sys mgid usage
D. Config sys set multicast-resource-reservation 3073 Correct Answer: D QUESTION 18
In a unified access solution that supports mobility, the configuration must allow for the creation of mobility tunnels to the remote switch and needs the reservation of a remote switch in mobility solution?
A. Remote VLANs are dynamically created and will only contain tunnels.
B. Mobility tunnels are created when needed and mapped to pre-configured existing static VLANs.
C. Remote VLANS are created with a valid IP address to the tunnel mapping based on the source network.
D. The remote switch dynamically creates, adds and removes VLANs as required in a mobility solution. Correct Answer: D QUESTION 19
In a multicast campus, when should an ERS 8600 PIM interface be configured to run in passive mode?
A. When the interface is used as an edge interface and is aggregating traffic.
B. When the interface is used as a core interface and needs to limit PIM messages to reduce the system load.
C. When there are no unicast routing paths.
D. When more than one unicast routing protocol is in use.

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 20
A split Multi-Link Trunking (SMLT) for switch clustering is being configured. Which statement is a configuring requirement for the SMLT?
A. CP-Limit is configured on edge switch stacks.
B. Neighboring edge switch stacks should be connected to each other via a DMLT connection to add resilent paths in the event of an SMLT failure.
C. Alternate the primary paths of the SMLT connection to load balance the switch core.
D. VLANs that are defined on the SMLT are also defined on the MLT that defines the core inter Switch Trunks (IST).

Correct Answer: D

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QUESTION 1
The Alarm Manager page on Experience Portal Manager shows an Alarm:
Q_ICR62006: User-to-User header is missing from SIP response 183 Session Which Avaya product in the
deployment is not configured correctly?

A. Avaya Aura Communication Manager
B. Avaya Aura Session Manager
C. Intelligent Customer Routing
D. Avaya Aura Experience Portal

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 2
You have installed an Orchestration Designer application on a Tomcat application server and try at call to the application. The test call fails.
What is the best way to validate the application installation?
A. Check the Avaya Aura experience Portal (AAEP) System Monitor.
B. Check AAEP administration System Maintenance > Log Viewer
C. Open a browser window and access the application Http:// <host>: <port>/<application name>/index.html
D. Look at the Application Detail Report in the AAEP administration.

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 3
What is the last step that is required after successful installation of intelligent Customer Routing (ICR) Core?
A. Restart the terracotta service.
B. Restart the ICR Core service.
C. Restart the httpd service.
D. Reboot the machine.

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 4
You client reported the multi-server Avaya Aura Experience Portal (AAEP) local PostgreSQL database has become corrupted and you have determined you must restore the database from a backup of the system.
After restoring the database from the backup, which three actions must be performed? (Choose three)
A. Restart the vpms service on the Experience Portal Manager (EPM).
B. Reconnect each Media Processing Platform (MPP) with the EPM.
C. Restart the MPP service from the EPM.
D. Restart the avpSNMPAgentSvc on the EPM.
E. Install a new license file on the EPM.

Correct Answer: ABD QUESTION 5
You have just installed Proactive Outreach Manager (POM) 2 SP or newer on your Avaya Aura Experience Portal (AAEP) 6.0. You run your first campaign and the POM monitor appears to shoe an Active Job, but no outgoing call spears to be made. You notice the following entry in the CmpMgrService.out log file:
CmpMgrService.out
Which step must you take to correct the issues and continue with this procedure?
A. Login to Experience Portal Manager (EPM) using a user with an assigned role of “POM Campaign Manager” and restart the campaign
B. Logging to EPM using a user with an assigned role of “Web Services” and restart the Campaign
C. Login to (EPM) using a user with an assigned role of “Administration” and ensure that the outcall user name administered in POM Configuration > POM Server > outbound Settings> voice Server link has the assigned role of “Web Services”
D. Login to EPM using a user with an assigned role of “Administration” and ensure that the outcall user name administered in POM Configuration > POM Server > Outbound Settings > Voice Server link has assigned the role of “POM Campaign Manager”.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 6
After installing a five server Avaya Aura Experience Portal (AAEP) system you check the port distribution page only to see the name of the media Processing Platform (MPP) servers in the system have allocated ports.
Which two are the most probable causes of this issue? (Choose two)
A. The AAEP WebLM license has expired; either it was a temporary license or the client’s Enterprise WebLM server is down
B. One or more MPP system resources are overloaded
C. The specified VoIP gatekeeper or SIP gateway is incorrect
D. The Postgres service on the Experience Portal manager (EPM) is not running

Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 7
Which three are exit reasons in an Intelligent Customer Routing (ICR) CCA Session detail report? (Choose three)
A. Call completed
B. Call failed
C. Call completed in SSA
D. Call routed
E. Call transferred

Correct Answer: CDE
QUESTION 8
On an existing Avaya Proactive Outreach Manager (POM) server, what three are required when configuring a voice campaign? (Choose three)
A. the IP of the POM server
B. an existing contact strategy
C. the Call Classification Analysis (CCA) timeout to be used
D. an existing contact attribute
E. sufficient voice ports and POM CCA licenses
Correct Answer: BDE
QUESTION 9
Your Avaya Aura Experience Portal has been in operation for several months; and you notice that the /var Which two log files should be checked to see if their size needs to be decreased? (Choose two)
A. Apache/httpd logs
B. Tomcat logs
C. PostgreSQL logs
D. Process Logs
E. Transcriptions Logs

Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 10
Your client reported their Avaya Proactive Outreach Manager (POM) campaign is playing this message to their customers:
The system is experiencing technical difficulties.
Which two steps would you take to identify the likely cause of this message? (Choose two)
A. Verify that th.ir H.323 or SIP ports are in service and that there are POM licenses available
B. If the application uses Text to Speech (TTS), verify the Speech Server is working and is licensed correctly.
C. Ensure that the Experience Portal Manager (EPM) can communicate with the Avaya Aura Communication Manager (AACM).
D. If the application uses recorded .wav files, ensure the Media Processing Platform (MPP) can e files.
E. Ensure that the Short Message Service (SMS) server is not down.

Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 11
You are preparing to build a large 1200 port Avaya Aura Experience Portal (AAEP) system and the client has asked you to protect the information contained in the calls to and from all of the extended servers.
Which three choices will meet this requirement? (Choose three)
A. Encrypt H.323 call control between the media Processing Platform (MPP) and the Avaya Communication Manager server
B. Encrypt audio data to and from the speech servers by using MRCP V2 protocol (Media Resource Control Protocol) with TLS (Transport Layer Security) enabled
C. Partition the client data network to limit the exposure of certain non-encrypted VoIP components of AAEP system to the corporate network
D. Disable the HTTPS protocol on your application servers and use HTTP only
E. Encrypt Real-Time Transport Protocol (RTP) audio data between the MPPs and the Avaya communication Manager feature server

Correct Answer: ABE
QUESTION 12
When installing Avaya Proactive Outreach Manager (POM) software on the Avaya Aura Experience Portal (AAEP) in a multiple Experience Portal Manager (EPM) configuration, on which server must the POM EPM plug-in be installed?
A. the primary EPM server
B. an auxiliary EPM server
C. the remote application server
D. a Media Processing Platform (MPP) server
QUESTION 13
Which statement about user permissions is true?
A. When logged in as org user, all global and organization based information can be seen, but only organization specific data can be edited.
B. When logged in as admin user, all global and organization based information can be seen, but only non organization specific data can be edited.
C. When logged in as admin user, only global information can be seen and edited.
D. When logged in as org user, only the information for the organization to which we belong can be seen and edited.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 14
When installing Avaya Proactive Outreach manager (POM) software on the Avaya Aura Experience Portal (AAEP), which two interfaces may be used to install the software? (Choose two)
A. The Tomcat Administration Screen
B. The AAEP Web administration POM menu
C. The graphical user interface (GUI)
D. The command line interface (CLI)
E. The Remote Desktop

Correct Answer: CD
QUESTION 15
Which menu provides details about the running calls being handled by Intelligent Customer Routing R)?
A. Call Center
B. ICR Manager
C. ICR Monitor
D. Standard Report

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 16
You need to identify whether your customer is using an enterprise license server to push an allocation license file down to local WebLM server on the Avaya Aura Experience Portal (AAEP) or if the license resides permanently on the AAEP. How will you determine what mode of license is being used?
A. At the Linux CLI level navigate the $CATALINA_HOME/Webapps/WebLM/license and lists the files with the is-1 command. If the file naming conversation is in the format of ALF_XXXXXXXXXXXXX.xml, then an allocation license has been pushed from an Enterprise License Server.
B. At the Linux CLI level navigate to $CATALINA_HOME/Webapps/WemLM/META-INF and list the files with the is-1 command. If the file naming conversation is in the format of ALF_XXXXXXXXXXXX.xml, then an allocation license has been pushed from an Enterprise License Server.
C. At the Linux CLI level, navigate to $CATALINA_HOME/webapps/WebLM.data/log and list the files with the is1 command. If the file naming conversation is in the format of ALF_XXXXXXXXXXXXX.xml, then an allocation license has been pushed from an Enterprise License Server.
D. At the Linux CLI level, navigate to $AVAYA_VPMS_HOME.lib.wecapps/WebLM/license and list the files with the is1 command. If the file naming conversation is in the format of ALF_XXXXXXXXXXXXX.xml, then an allocation license has been pushed from an Enterprise License Server
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 17
A. Sybase 12.5 or higher
B. Oracle 0.0 or higher Id
C. Informix 9.21.UC4
D. MS SQL Server 2000
E. Postgres 8.2.3 or higher

Correct Answer: BE
QUESTION 18
A technician determines that even though the Intelligent Customer Routing (IC-R) Core is function correctly, ICR Core logs are not displayed under Log Viewer of experience Portal Manager.
Which two properties in the icrcore.properties file need to be corrected? (Choose two)
A. ICRAdminUKI
B. VPRemoteLogWebService
C. ICRSipUserName
D. ICRSipTCPPort
E. VPProductID

Correct Answer: BE
QUESTION 19
Your customer has configured VoIP connectivity on Avaya Aura Experience Portal. Calls made to the system are not responding with the correct speech recognition response.
What two items should he checked to resolve this situation? (Choose two)
A. the audio/basic and audio/x-alaw-basic settings In the Web Administration screen
B. the content of the Avaya network log server.log/log
C. the Call Data Summary Report
D. the error logs in the speech recognition server

Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 20
You want to setup a single server Avaya Aura Experience Portal system. Which three components can co-reside on a single server? (Choose three)
A. Application server
B. Primary Experience Portal Manager (EPM)
C. Auxiliary EPM
D. Media Processing Platform (MPP)
E. Telephony server
Correct Answer: ABD
QUESTION 21
The Avaya Aura experience Portal (AAI P) system consist;; of which two major subsystems? (Choose two)
A. Application Enablement Services (AES)
B. Media Processing Platform (MPP)
C. Private Brain Exchange (PBX) servers
D. Experience Portal Manager (EPM)

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