Author: softkeysd

HP HP0-S25 Exam Preparation Guide, Provide Discount HP HP0-S25 Dump Test Online

softkeysd

Welcome to download the newest Pass4itsure C2170-051 dumps:

GOOD NEWS: All the new HP HP0-S25 exam questions and answers can get in VCE and PDF format for free on Flydumps.com With Flydumps HP HP0-S25 practice tests, you will pass the exam easily! Free download HP HP0-S25 exam questions vce player all the time.

QUESTION NO: 21
Which tools can be used to perform the initial server configuration on a ProLiant ML 300-series server on which you will install SUSE Linux Enterprise Server 11? (Select two.)
A. Insight Control Advisor
B. ROM-Based Setup Utility
C. Extensible Firmware Interface
D. HP Smart Setup
E. Option ROM Configuration for Arrays
Answer: B,E Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 22 HOTSPOT
Click the Task button. Your customer requires an application for health monitoring of a ProLiant server. His internal policies, prevent him from using SNMP. Click on the option that you must check during assisted installation from the SmartStart CD.
Answer:

Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 23
You finished an installation of Windows Server 2008 on a ProLiant server, but you notice in device manager that some devices are not installed properly and the HP System Management Homepage (SMH) is not available. How can these issues be resolved?
A. Assign a different IRQ for each of the devices using the ROM-Based Setup Utility.
B. Restore the operating system to the latest checkpoint using the System Recovery feature.
C. Enable missing devices in the ROM-Based Setup Utility and change firewall settings to enable communication with the SMH on port 2381.
D. Install the latest ProLiant Support Pack for Windows Server 2008.
Answer: D Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 24
When preparing a Scope of Work to assess RAID requirements, which factor is the most critical to properly sizing the solution?
A. disaster tolerance

B. cache size
C. mirror sizing
D. disk stripe size
Answer: A Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 25
Which action is recommended when accessing Version Control Repository Manager (VCRM) from Version Control Agent (VCA)?
A. use Built in VCRM user account
B. use Administrator account
C. modify existing account VCA Operator
D. create a separate account for VCRM with administrator rights and use this account
Answer: D Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 26
Which statements are correct regarding ProLiant 100-Series servers? (Select two.)
A. They use the Rom-Based Setup Utility (RBSU).
B. They support the Intelligent Platform Management Interface (IPMI).
C. They can have Lights-Out 100 or Lights-Out 100i for remote management.
D. They ship with HP Insight Foundation Suite for ProLiants.
E. They use Trusted Platform Modules for setup.
Answer: B,C Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 27
Which common industry standard technology is used to monitor servers, storage and network devices?

A. Simple Environment Management Protocol (SEMP)
B. Automatic Server Recovery (ASR)
C. Intelligent Platform Management Interface (IPMI)
D. Internet Control Message Protocol (ICMP)
Answer: C Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 28
What provides a consolidated view of HP server system health?
A. Array Diagnostic Utility (ADU)
B. SmartStart CD
C. ROM-Based Setup Utility (RBSU)
D. System Management Homepage (SMH)
Answer: D Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 29
What is used to access the Integrated Management Log?
A. Easy Set-up CD
B. Event Viewer
C. Insight Diagnostics
D. Firmware Maintenance CD
Answer: C Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 30
Which HP server series provides Watchdog Timer?
A. 100 Series
B. 300 Series C. 500 Series

D. 700 Series
Answer: A Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 31
Which features do Serial Attached SCSI and Fiber Channel have in common? (Select two.)
A. dual port hard drive interface
B. support for up to 15 meters external cable length
C. half duplex data transfer
D. compatible frame format
E. the number of supported devices
Answer: A,D Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 32
What is needed to install storage controller drivers during a Windows operating system installation from a CD using virtual floppy in a ProLiant SL170z G6 Server?
A. iLO firmware update .bin file
B. SmartStart version 8.30 or higher
C. LO100i Advance Pack
D. iLO 2 Advance Pack
Answer: C Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 33
Which storage solution offers a highly available configuration and 24×7 software support?
A. EVA4400
B. MSA2000

C. LH P4000
D. X3000
Answer: A Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 34
A customer complains about bad performance on their DL380 G6 ESX Server. What can be done in the RBSU to improve performance?
A. enable memory mirroring
B. disable cores
C. enable Intel virtualization
D. disable VT-d2 technology
Answer: C Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 35
What is the result of having RAID levels with stripe sizes that are too large?
A. many cross-stripe transfers (split I/Os) and reduced performance
B. poor load balancing across drives
C. higher file fragmentation rate
D. fewer cross-stripe transfers (split I/Os) and increased performance
Answer: B Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 36
What can be used to determine the cause of poor performance issues?
A. VMM
B. PMP
C. VPM D. IPM
Answer: B Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 37
Your customer has ProLiant servers with redundant power supplies. He wants a high availability redundant UPS solution. What should you advise him to buy?
A. one UPS equipped with the optional UPS Management Card
B. two UPSs, both equipped with the optional UPS Management Card
C. two UPSs, both equipped with an optional Extended Runtime Module
D. one UPS with an optional Extended Runtime Module
Answer: B Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 38
Which HP utility provides a simplified view of HP web-enabled management agents?
A. HP Insight Diagnostics Online Edition
B. Intelligent Platform Management Interface (IPMI) Event Log
C. HP System Management Homepage
D. Integrated Management Log
Answer: C Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 39
Which troubleshooting step are you currently performing when replacing parts?
A. evaluate the data
B. check if problem is resolved
C. develop the action plan
D. execute the action plan

Answer: D Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 40
Which step of the HP Troubleshooting Methodology includes documenting the results of each attempt to resolve a problem?
A. implement preventive measures
B. determine whether the problem is solved
C. execute the action plan
D. develop the action plan
Answer: C Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 41
Which service offering provides the customer with two-hour response time for software issues and four-hour on-site response commitment for hardware issue resolution?
A. 4-Hour 24×7 Same Day
B. Proactive 24
C. 4-Hour Same Business Day
D. HP Support Plus
Answer: B Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 42
What do you recommend to a customer once you have fixed the issue and verified the solution? (Select two.)
A. Implement a new set of procedures, software, and administrative maintenance to attain a higher level of availability.
B. Uninstall HP software from servers to prepare them for production.
C. List the order of people or groups to contact and the information needed by each.

D. Add fault-tolerant elements to critical subsystems.
E. Configure HP Insight Service agents to be notified when the problem reoccurs.
Answer: A,D Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 43
Which preventive measure should you recommend to a customer to provide proactive notification of critical updates and product changes for ProLiant servers?
A. HP IT Resource Center
B. Online Agent Reference Set
C. Subscriber’s Choice
D. Version Control Repository Manager
Answer: C Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 44
Which technologies are features of Advanced Memory Protection of Intel CPUs utilized in HP ProLiant G6 Servers? (Select three.)
A. memory mirroring
B. RAID memory
C. Lockstep Support
D. interleaved memory
E. Advanced ECC
Answer: A,C,E Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 45
What are characteristics of Care Pack Services? (Select two.)
A. pre-failure notification

B. can be purchased with the server
C. can be purchased during warranty period
D. parts and labor support
Answer: B,C Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 46
When implementing an offsite backup storage plan, which backup solution should be considered when requirements call for remote mirror operations with access to the primary server?
A. cold site
B. mirrored site
C. hot site
D. warm site
Answer: C Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 47
How many simultaneous threads can a fully populated dual socket, six core AMD-based server execute?
A. 2 threads
B. 6 threads
C. 12 threads
D. 24 threads
Answer: C Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 48
What can be used to verify system ROM family and version using the online method? (Select two.)
A. Array Configuration Utility

With Flydumps.com complete study guide for the HP HP0-S25 exam you will find questions and answers from previous exams as well as ones that our experts believe will be on the upcoming exams due to upgrades and new releases. This gives you the resources you actually need to pass the exam instead of just studying material without any knowledge of what might be on a test. If you want a career in the IT world, a certification is the only answer to ensure you get your dream job.

Welcome to download the newest Pass4itsure C2170-051 dumps: https://www.pass4itsure.com/c2170-051.html

http://www.ducktown.org/isqi-ctal-ta_syll2012_uk-study-material-most-accurate-isqi-ctal-ta_syll2012_uk-dump-with-new-discount/

HP HP0-P25 Dumps, Provides HP HP0-P25 Certification Material Provider Online Sale

softkeysd

Welcome to download the newest Pass4itsure C2090-632 dumps:

100% Valid:How to choose the right HP HP0-P25 exam dumps? Just try the Flydumps newest HP HP0-P25 exam dumps with more new added quesitons and answers,also now you can free download HP HP0-P25 player and PDF files for training.

QUESTION 1
A company is migrating three applications currently running on three separate HP-UX Integrity servers. The plan is to migrate them into a Superdome 2 Serv. three applications are business critical, and the main focus is the uptime, as any interruptions cause financial losses.
Which HP-UX virtualization technology provides the best solution?
A. Create a single nPar.
B. Create three nPars.
C. Create three vPars
D. Create three Integrity Virtual Machines
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 2
Which functionalities does AutoFS provide? (Select three.)
A. may be configured to modify NFS filesystem permissions when needed
B. may be configured to provide load balancing across multiple NFS servers
C. automatically exports filesystems on the NFS server when needed
D. automatically unmounts NFS filesystems that are no longer being accessed
E. automatically updates /etc/fstab on NFS clients when needed
F. automatically mounts NFS filesystems when needed
Correct Answer: ACE

QUESTION 3
Which methods allow you to install an Integrity server using an Ignite-UX server on a different subnet? (Select two)
A. Use the dbprofileEFI command
B. Use the ifconfigEFI command.
C. Use the loadfile command
D. Use a boot helper system
E. Use the lanboot command
Correct Answer: BE

QUESTION 4
A customer has a version 6 2 Integrity VM, and they convert this guest to a vPar using the following command:

The hpvmmodify command completes successfully. When they attempt to boot the guest in vPar mode, they get the following output

What ate the possible reasons the vPar failed to boot? (Select two)
A. TheVM guest was running a version of HP-UX 1li v3 prior 10 the September 2011 update release, which is not a supported vPar OS
B. The VM guest did not have the required vPar guest kit installed and therefore cannot run in vPar mode
C. The VM guest was running HP-UX 11i v2 which is not a supported vPar OS
D. The VM guest was not configured with sufficient memory to run as a vPar guest
E. The VM guest was running a version of HP-UX 11i v3 prior to the September 2012 update release, which is not a supported vPar OS
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 5
Which tool can be used to modify nPar configurations?
A. HP System Insight Manager (HP SIM)
B. HP System Management Homepage (HP SMH)
C. iLO Monarch Management Processor
D. Domain Management Processor
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 6
Which statement about auditing Standard Mode Security Extensions (SMSE) is correct?
A. SMSE uses an external daemon to maintain the audit logs.
B. SMSE Audit log files can be read by the users of the SMSE-Administrator Group “smeadm”.
C. SMSE auditing is available on HP-UX 11i v1, HP-UX 11i v2, and HP-UX lit v3.
D. SMSE auditing is compatible with NIS and LDAP.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 7
How do you boot a firmware-based vPar over the network on the HP Integrity Superdorne 2 server?
A. Use the vparboot command from the Virtualization Services Platform (VSP), and run the vparconsole command. Use the CO command to getfor console. Then use the lanbootEFI command.
B. Use the vparconsole command to connect to the vPaiiLO, and use the PC command to power on the vPar Use the Co command to get to the console use the lanbootEFI command.
C. Login to the Superdome 2QA, and use the vparboot command. Use the COcommand to connect to the console. Then use the lanbootEFI console
D. Login to another vPar on the same nPar. Use the vparboot-I <ignite server IP> command to lanboot the vPar.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 8
Which tools can be used to manage nPars on a Superdome 2 server? (Select two)
A. Insight Control Environment
B. Onboard Administrator GUI
C. Virtual Server Management
D. Onboard Administrator CLI
E. VSP CLI
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 9
A customer needs a partitioning solution that provides dedicated resources and electrical isolation. Which HP solution should the customer use?
A. vPars
B. Integrity VM
C. HP Containers
D. nPars
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 10
Refer to the exhibit

Which configuration produces the output?

A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 11
The HP-UX 11i v3 mass storage stack has different load balancing policies available. Which policy is the default?
A. preferred_path
B. closest _ path
C. least_cmd_load
D. round robin

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 12
What are the customer benefits of the HP-UX Operating Environments (e.g. VSE-OE, HA-OE. DC-OE), as compared lo ordering the same software separately? (Select three)
A. Reduced purchasing cost for customer
B. Reduced amount of codewords required to manage software
C. Performance of HP applications tuned with the HP-UX OS
D. Reduced amount of disk space used for OS and HP applications
E. Reduced new-system sales quote and configuration complexity
F. reduced number of service contracts

Correct Answer: ACF QUESTION 13
Which HP-UX tool can be used to get detailed low level metrics of code running on Itanium processors?
A. prospect
B. caliper
C. sar
D. Isof

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 14
A customer is moving to an Integrity platform but has legacy PA-RISC applications that cannot be recompiled on Integrity. Which type of container can provide binary emulation environment for the customer’s applications?
A. PA RISC Container
B. System Container
C. HP 9000 Container
D. Workload Container

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 15
Which command can you use to display all network interfaces including interface link state interface type, and driver type?
A. nwmgr
B. ioscankfnClan
C. netstat -an
D. lanscan

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 16
Which tools can be used to create a user account? (Select two.)
A. System Management Homepage (HP SMH)
B. addusr command
C. useradca command
D. setuid command
E. mxuser command

Correct Answer: AD QUESTION 17
Which command will register the directory /tools as a software depot?
A. swagentd -d /tools
B. swinstall — 1 bundle /tools
C. make_ depots -d /tools
D. swreg –1 depot /tools

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 18
What is the full POS1X shell path?
A. /usr/bin/bash
B. /usr/local/bin/sh
C. /usr/bin/sh
D. /usr/bin/csh

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 19
A customer is using PRM in Fair Share Scheduler mode to allocate CPU resources among several and applications. Users are complaining about poor application performance, and you think PRM is capping the CPU utilization for their application. You use Glance to examine the WAIT TVFNTS for the applicationprocess.
What do you look for in Glance to confirm that PRM is capping the CPU utilization for the application?
A. The primary wait event is “System”.
B. The primary wait event is “IPC”
C. The primary wait event is “Priority”.
D. The primary wait event is “Scheduler”

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 20
What is the unique partitioning feature of nPars?
A. I/O sharing in cell-based servers
B. Electrical isolation from other partitions
C. VM isolation in blade-based servers
D. Storage sharing in blade-based servers
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 21
Which command starts the auditing capabilities of HP Standard Mode Security Extensions (SMSE)?
A. /sbin/init .d/securemode start
B. /sbin/init .d/trustsys start
C. /sbin/init .d/auditing start
D. /sbin/init.d/hpsmse start
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 22
Which components form part of the HP-UX OS kernel? (Select three.)
A. UFC
B. Power Module
C. EFl
D. Scheduler
E. Process Table
F. BCH
Correct Answer: ACF

QUESTION 23
A system administrator needs to add a LAN interface to the running Integrity VM v6.2 guest “vml”. The administrator runs the command:

Which action is necessary for the new interface to be usable?
A. Log into vm1 and run the command ioscan.
B. Restart the virtual switch local net
C. Restart vm1
D. No action is needed

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 24
Given the output below, what is indicated by the line starting with “memory”?

A. Memory pages already used for paging needs
B. Amount of memory reserved by the kernel for its own internal use
C. Amount of memory calculated for pseudo-swap
D. Memory allocated by the kernel for possible future paging needs
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 25
A customer wants a partitioning solution that has the ability to move running workloads to eliminate downtime and increase flexibility, especially for proactive maintenance and workload balancing. Which solutions provide this capability? (Select two)
A. nPars
B. vPars v5
C. Integrity VM v6
D. Integrity VM v4
E. vPars v6
Correct Answer: BE

QUESTION 26
A customer wants to run some jobs periodically on a database inside ot HK-UA integrity virtual machines.
At which level does the administrator need to assign rights to allow the user account to create and execute cron jobs?
A. at the HP-UX OS level on the HP-UX Integrity VM only
B. at the database level and at the HP-UX Integrity VM HP-UX OS level
C. at the database level and at the HP-UX Integrity Host OS level
D. at the HP-UX OS level on the HP-UX Integrity Host only
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 27
A server is running in nPars mode. Which command should be used to change the system to vPars mode (vPars v5)?
A. parmodify
B. vparreset
C. vparenv
D. vparboot
Correct Answer: D

Flydumps.com new HP HP0-P25 study guides that you use have been rigorously tested by International experts. Choose Flydumps both save your time and money. And our products will satisfy you.

Welcome to download the newest Pass4itsure C2090-632 dumps: https://www.pass4itsure.com/c2090-632.html

http://www.ducktown.org/isc-cissp-issap-study-material-new-release-isc-cissp-issap-questions-with-new-discount/

HP HP0-S32 Exam Tests, Download HP HP0-S32 Exam Sample With Accurate Answers

softkeysd

Welcome to download the newest Pass4itsure 700-501 dumps:

Attention Please:Professional new version HP HP0-S32 PDF and VCE dumps can now free download on Flydumps.com,all are updated timely by our experts covering all HP HP0-S32 new questions and questions.100 percent pass your exam.

QUESTION 21
Which action is required at the guest operating system level to enable it to run on a virtual machine?
A. A key code must be loaded into the registry and validated by VMware.
B. The VMware driver must be loaded for full network support.
C. No action is required because VMware is transparent to the operating system.
D. A VMware license must be loaded on each guest.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 22
What can be used by a QoS policy to classify traffic? (Select two.)
A. packet size
B. egress port
C. TCP port number
D. TCP window size
E. VLAN ID
Correct Answer: CE
QUESTION 23
Which advantages do ACLs offer? (Select two.)
A. fewer necessary support staff
B. increased network security
C. smaller broadcast domain
D. reduced network complexity
E. improved network performance
Correct Answer: BE QUESTION 24
How many World Wide Names (WWNs) does Virtual Connect Manager make available?
A. 64 total available WWNs
B. 64 ranges for a total of 128 WWNs
C. 64 ranges for a total of 1024 WWNs
D. 128 ranges of 64 WWNS Correct Answer: C QUESTION 25
Click the Exhibit button.

Identify the port type shown in the blue outlined area.
A. fiber
B. SFP+
C. RJ-45
D. dedicated

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 26
A device with a non-compliant 802.1Q network adapter (NIC) is plugged into which type of switch port?
A. workstation
B. untagged
C. trunk
D. tagged Correct Answer: B QUESTION 27
What best describes the functionality of the Virtual Connect Ethernet module?
A. Layer 2 switch
B. Layer 3 switch
C. pass-thru module
D. Ethernet port aggregator

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 28
Click the Exhibit button.

What does the illustration reveal about the hardware configuration of the HP Integrity BL860c server blade? (Select two.)
A. The LOM is not a Flex-10 module.
B. The Flex-10 interface is in mezzanine Slot 2.
C. Ports 5 and 6 are preferred for connectivity.
D. Ports 7 through 12 are defective.
E. VLANs A and B are incorrectly configured.
QUESTION 29
What is the advantage of using Virtual Connect Flex-10 technology in a VMware environment?
A. It becomes tightly linked with VMware for better management through vCenter.
B. It eliminates the limit on NIC connections imposed by default on each VMware server.
C. It enables full VLAN support in VMware including multiple tagging functionality.
D. It allows bandwidth to be allocated as necessary to each VMware service or application.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 30
What are valid reasons for creating trunk links between switches? (Select three.)
A. Standby link capabilities are available with dynamic trunks.
B. A greater number of VLANs can be supported.
C. Capacity is maximized by increasing the number of links available for data flow.
D. Guaranteed load balancing prevents unbalanced traffic load across links.
E. There is improved availability because of the lower risk of link failure.
F. The overall error count on the switch is decreased.

Correct Answer: ACE
QUESTION 31
Click the Exhibit button.

What is the status of the Windows Server 2008 NICs under View Network Connections with the server profile configuration shown in the exhibit?
A. Only the NICs represented by Ports 1 and 2 will be shown.
B. All the NICs will display as connected.
C. All the NICs will display as disconnected.
D. Two NICs will display as connected and six will display as disconnected.

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 32
What is the default global parameter setting for how Virtual Connect handles VLANs?
A. Native VLANs Tag mode
B. Tunnel VLANs Tag mode
C. Enable VLANs Tag mode
D. Map VLANs Tag mode Correct Answer: D QUESTION 33
What does a priority value of 101110 denote?
A. VLAN scheduling
B. Stacked QoS
C. Layer 2 QoS
D. Layer 3 QoS

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 34
When a Flex-10 server adapter is deployed in a Virtual Connect Flex-10 environment, how are the FlexNICs recognized by the operating system?
A. as individual 10GbE NICs, until the correct driver is loaded by the operating system at boot time
B. as individual NICs, after the correct license key has been loaded and verified by the Onboard Administrator
C. as individual 1GbE NICs, until the correct driver is loaded by the operating system at boot time
D. transparently, because the server ROM recognizes each FlexNIC as an individual NIC with its own driver Correct Answer: D QUESTION 35
How many BladeSystem c7000 enclosures are supported in a single Virtual Connect domain?
B. 4
C. 8
D. 16

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 36
Which management interface provides the administrator with the most control over switch parameters and monitoring functions?
A. SNMP
B. Web browser
C. Menu
D. CLI

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 37
You are creating a connection between multiple server blades and an external switch on a single VLAN. All traffic from the servers is tagged. What must you create within Virtual Connect if it is globally set for VLAN Tunnel mode?
A. simple vNET with Tunnel mode option enabled
B. Shared Uplink Set
C. simple vNET with Tunnel mode option disabled
D. untagged uplink trunk

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 38
Where are broadcasts flooded in Layer 2 switches?
A. to only those nodes in the same subnet as the originating node
B. through all ports except the port the broadcast came in on
C. through all ports in the same VLAN except the port it came in on
D. through all ports and all VLANs on the switch

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 39
Which tasks are only used for defining a Shared Uplink Set for Virtual Connect Ethernet? (Select three.)
A. Optionally set native VLAN.
B. Define server profile.
C. Assign one or multiple networks per server NIC.
D. Assign only one network per server NIC.
E. Select unassigned uplinks.
F. Specify VLAN names/IDs.

Correct Answer: ACF
QUESTION 40
What is required for a Layer 3 switch to route between directly connected VLANs? (Select two.)
A. IP routing must be globally enabled on the switch.
B. Dynamic Layer 3 routing protocol must be enabled and configured.
C. There must be multi-netted IP addresses on all VLAN interfaces on the switch.
D. An IP address must be configured for each VLAN that will be forwarded.
E. A DHCP helper address must be defined on each participating VLAN.
Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 41
In an IP subnet without VLANs, each subnet terminates at the interface. How are IP subnets with VLANs different?
A. VLAN IP subnets terminate at each port.
B. VLAN IP interfaces are more easily multi-netted with VLANs.
C. VLAN IP subnets allow for greater control with ACLs.
D. VLAN IP subnets are logically separated from the router.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 42
What is the function of the active member of a dynamic LACP trunk?
A. determines the trunk link used for each given Layer 2 node-to-node conversation
B. requests dynamic port utilization from the receiving node to the sending node to form the LACP trunk
C. listens for BPDUs and forms a dynamic trunk when a MAC address of the same partner is heard on multiple ports
D. sends BPDUs and forms a dynamic trunk if a partner hears its MAC address on multiple ports
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 43
What is a limitation of the VMware vNetwork standard switch?
A. Tagged VLANs are not supported in a virtual switch.
B. MAC forwarding tables are not implemented in a virtual switch.
C. Virtual machines cannot communicate through the virtual switch.
D. Spanning tree is not supported in a virtual switch.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 44
Which Virtual Connect tagging mode is limited to 320 VLANs per Virtual Connect Ethernet module?
A. Tunnel VLAN Tags
B. Tagged VLAN
C. Map VLAN Tags
D. Transparent VLAN Tags

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 45
On which criterion do standard ACLs provide security?
A. range of destination IP addresses
B. range of source IP addresses
C. IP precedence
D. ICMP and IGMP message types

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 46
Which parameters are part of a Bridge Protocol Data Unit (BPDU) transmission? (Select two.)
A. Switch Port ID
B. Port Duplex ID
C. Switch MAC address
D. Port POE parameters
E. Management IP address

Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 47
Click the Exhibit button.

You have connected the cables as shown in the exhibit: What is the result of this configuration?
A. Switch 1, Ports 1, 3, 5, and 8 can communicate with all ports in Switch 2, except Port 8.
B. Connections between Switches 1 and 2 will cause a Layer 2 loop.
C. No VLAN 10 ports can communicate without a router or Layer 3 switch.
D. In Switch 1, only Ports 2, 7, and 8 can communicate together. Correct Answer: B QUESTION 48
Which advantage does Flex-10 technology provide?
A. increased Layer 2 switch port count
B. increased CPU performance
C. decreased number of interconnect modules
D. increased dynamic management functionality

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 49
Which status describes a virtual router interface?
A. It is only considered up if the state of the physical port is up.
B. It is always up and not directly associated with a physical port.
C. It is considered up if at least one VLAN’s port’s members is up.
D. It is only considered up if the status of the interface protocol is also up.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 50
Which topologies are in a typical enterprise network? (Select three.)
A. access
B. user
C. web
D. distribution
E. core
F. server

Correct Answer: ADE
QUESTION 51
What is the purpose of a RADIUS server for switch management?
A. log file storage and consolidation
B. storage of configuration files and software images
C. central user database
D. SNMP management application server

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 52
Which OSI model layer uses frames? (Select two.)
A. Layer 2
B. Network
C. Layer 4
D. Session
E. Data Link

Correct Answer: AE
QUESTION 53
What are advantages of using Layer 3 to connect from the access layer to the core? (Select three.)
A. flatter network with fewer hops
B. equal cost balancing on all links with OSPF
C. extended broadcast domains
D. loop control using spanning tree
E. VRRP configuration not required
F. no link blocking involved
Correct Answer: BEF
QUESTION 54
Click the Exhibit button.

What will be the status of Trunk 1 and Trunk 2 in the exhibit?
A. One trunk will be in an active state and the other will be in a standby state.
B. Both trunks will be in an active state.
C. Both trunks will be in a standby state because the VLANs are duplicated in the switches.
D. Both trunks will be in a standby state because the VLANs are duplicated in Virtual Connect.
QUESTION 55
How can MSTP be configured to ensure that VLANs are not orphaned?
A. Ensure that the switches with the lowest MAC addresses are directly connected.
B. Allow the assignment of VLAN priorities on each individual interface to influence traffic flow.
C. Define the appropriate MSTP region version number in each switch’s configuration file
D. Allow the VLANs to be divided across multiple instances, each with unique root bridges and paths.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 56
At which OSI model layer does a router work?
A. Session
B. Transport
C. Application
D. Network

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 57
Which protocols are industry-standard switch protocols? (Select two.)
A. LLDP
B. CDP
C. LLTD
D. STP
E. EGRP

Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 58
What must you define when configuring Virtual Connect Ethernet for a server blade that can support tagged Ethernet frames in VLANs 20, 30, 50, and 60?
A. a vNet in Map VLAN tags mode
B. a vNet in Tunnel VLAN tags mode
C. a Shared Uplink Set in Map VLAN tags mode
D. a Shared Uplink Set in Tunnel VLAN tags mode

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 59
How does a simple vNet handle VLAN tags in Map mode?
A. accepts only untagged frames from the servers or the switch
B. accepts only tagged frames from the servers and only untagged frames from the switch
C. accepts tagged or untagged frames from the switch and only untagged frames from the servers
D. accepts tagged or untagged frames from the servers or the switch
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 60
Which features differentiate Virtual Connect Ethernet interconnect modules from switches? (Select three.)
A. All changes affect the network.
B. They are managed with the servers.
C. They are part of the server system.
D. They are part of the infrastructure network.
E. Any changes are transparent to the network.
F. They are part of the LAN network.
Correct Answer: BCE
QUESTION 61
Which command do you use to view information about the status and configuration of HP Integrity virtual machines?
A. hpvmconfig
B. hpvmstatus
C. hpvm -status
D. vmstatus
Correct Answer: B

Flydumps.com New HP HP0-S32 dumps are designed to help you to out in a short time. You can get Flydumps HP HP0-S32 dumps to pass your exam. To be a Microsoft professional makes you a better future.

Welcome to download the newest Pass4itsure 700-501 dumps: http://www.pass4itsure.com/700-501.html

http://www.ducktown.org/isc-cissp-cert-the-most-recommended-isc-cissp-dump-100-pass-with-a-high-score/

HP0-M34 Dumps, Latest Release HP0-M34 Exam Tests Online Store

softkeysd

Welcome to download the newest Pass4itsure 1Z0-803 dumps: http://www.pass4itsure.com/1Z0-803.html

HP0-M34 exam will get as a single HP0-M34 PDF or complete HP0-M34 testing engine as well as over 1000 other technical exam PDF and exam engine downloads. Tired of choosing HP0-M34 Configuration and Maintenance Exam material for preparing your HP0-M34 exam, just come to Flydumps HP0-M34 exam sample questions page for all the real Q&As. Flydumps Cisco experts and specialists have created 84 real HP0-M34 exam Q&As for your learning. More, with our customers’ feedback, we have helped many candidates pass HP0-M34 exam easily.

QUESTION 21
What is the default login directory when accessing the Global Shell?
A. /home
B. /home/user-name
C. /
D. /export/home/user-name

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 22
Which utility enables you to log on to managed servers and run native commands from within a Global Shell session?
A. rlogin
B. ROSH
C. SSH
D. telnet
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 23
Which ROSH syntax is used to copy a script to a managed server and run it?
A. rosh -n server-name -l user-name command-name
B. rosh -n server-name -l user-name -s file-name
C. rosh -n server-name -l user-name -c file-name
D. rosh -n server-name -l user-name –run file-name
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 24
What is one of the ways HP Server Automation secures communications between components?
A. TCP Wrappers
B. SSL/TLS
C. IPsec
D. X.503 certificates
Correct Answer: B QUESTION 25
How long are Server Automation security certificates valid, by default?
A. 6 months
B. 1 year
C. 5 years
D. 10 years

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 26
Server Authentication enforces a very granular system of role-based access controls. Which parameter can security administrators use to set up authorization?
A. users
B. customer administrators
C. facility
D. Security policy

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 27
In HP Server Automation, how long is the audit trail stored by default?
A. 1 month
B. 6 months
C. 1 year
D. 2 years

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 28
Which external authentication source does HP Server Automation support?
A. SmartCard
B. Kerberos
C. LDAP
D. NIS+

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 29
Which set of rules (which may contain individual hecks? expresses the desired state of a managed server configuration objects (for example,Which set of rules (which may contain individual ?hecks? expresses the desired state of a managed server? configuration objects (for example, a server file system directory structure or files, a server Windows Registry, or application configuration)?a server? file system directory structure or files, a server? Windows Registry, or application configuration)?
A. Snapshot
B. Audit
C. Compliance policy
D. Compliance scan

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 30
A snapshot specification can capture the state of the configuration on a server known to have a good configuration (a golden server). This can be used to compare against other target servers. How is this

HP0-M34 tests containing questions that cover all sides of tested subjects that help our members to be prepared and keep high level of professionalism.The main purpose of HP0-M34 exam is to provide high quality test that can secure and verify knowledge, give overview of question types and complexity that can be represented on real exam certification.

Welcome to download the newest Pass4itsure 1Z0-803 dumps: https://www.pass4itsure.com/1z0-803.html

HP0-M33 Exam Questions, Prepare for the HP0-M33 Dump With 100% Pass Rate

softkeysd

Welcome to download the newest Pass4itsure 70-463 dumps: http://www.pass4itsure.com/70-463.html

Confronted any fiercer along with fiercer competitors in IT planet, are you terrific strain? Certainly, you are doing. Subsequently you’d far better find the HP0-M33 to be able to take your job. Right now, A growing number of HP0-M33 certification will be can come staying to be able to in life. It is terrific in the event that contenders get HP0-M33 exam sample questions directly from Cisco Higher education. Candidates can easily gain more experience and knowledge during Cisco University since masters/ specialists will supply training towards the contenders. Before you take HP0-M33 exam sample questions, any main element how the contenders want to do will be to know about the HP0-M33 Study guide test training and that will make this happen for any very clear information to learn any HP0-M33 exam sample questions. Each of the HP0-M33 Study guide test information and various details are accessible immediately inside Cisco site.

QUESTION NO: 21
Which actions can you take using the My Changes/Checkouts window? (Select two.)
A. check in changes
B. create snapshots
C. abandon changes
D. check out changes
E. revert changes
Answer: A,C
QUESTION NO: 22
A version number is listed as 7.5 in the Flow History window. What does this indicate?
A. The flow was created in version 7.5 of Operations Orchestration.
B. The flow has been saved 7 times and restored 5 times.
C. The flow has been checked into Central 7 times by 5 different flow authors.
D. The flow was checked into Central 7 times and saved 5 times in Studio since the last check in.
Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 23
Where is the default directory for the shared public repository for a Windows installation?
A. C:\Program Files\Hewlett-Packard\Operations Orchestration\Central\rcrepo
B. C:\Program Files\Hewlett-Packard\Operations Orchestration\Central\pubrepo
C. C:\Program Files\Hewlett-Packard\Operations Orchestration\Studio\pubrepo
D. C:\Program Files\Hewlett-Packard\Operations Orchestration\Studio\sharerepo
Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 24
Where is documentation stored that is generated from folders in the Studio Library?
A. Central Documentation tab.
B. a directory that you specify on your file system
C. in the Central/docs directory
D. It is deployed to the Remote Action Server.
Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 25
How do you invoke the object history window?
A. Click the Repositorypull down menu and click Show History.
B. Double-click a flow and then click the Show History tab.
C. Right-click an object, point to Repository and click Show History.
D. Click the Tools pull down menu bar and click Show History.
Answer: C QUESTION NO: 26

What is used to add a new repository?
A. Repository tab in Central
B. Tools menu item in Studio
C. Administration tab in Central
D. Repository menu item in Studio
Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 27
How do you access the Flow Variable panel?
A. View menu in Studio
B. Current Runs tab in Central
C. Flow Library tab in Central
D. Authoring pane in Studio
Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 28
What do the Step Into, Step Over, and Step Out icons impact in the debugger? (Select two.)
A. operations
B. response overrides
C. steps
D. closing the debugging session
E. sub-flows
Answer: C,E

QUESTION NO: 29
By default, where does the Web Services Wizard create a WSDL operation?
A. Library-> Wizards
B. Library-> WSDL
C. Library-> My Ops Flows
D. Library-> Operations

Acquiring HP0-M33 certifications are becoming a huge task in the field of I.T. More over these exams like HP0-M33 exam are now continuously updating and accepting this challenge is itself a task.This HP0-M33 practice test is an important part of Microsoft certifications and at HP0-M33 certification Flydumps we have the resources to prepare you for this.The HP0-M33 exam is essential and core part of HP0-M33 certifications and once you clear the exam you will be able to solve the real time problems yourself.

Welcome to download the newest Pass4itsure 70-463 dumps: http://www.pass4itsure.com/70-463.html

HP0-M33 Exam Questions, Prepare for the HP0-M33 Dump With 100% Pass Rate

HP0-J73 Exam Questions, The Best HP0-J73 Dumps Sale

softkeysd

Welcome to download the newest Pass4itsure 70-463 dumps: http://www.pass4itsure.com/70-463.html

Technicians know the instruments and test setups. Engineers need good writing and verbal skills. Technicians need to know the HP0-J73 of real measurements. If you want to succeed as part of your work and even acquire change among the different opposition then simply can come together with adhere to each of our Flydumps HP0-J73 exam sample questions. All applicants have to be competent in the fundamentals, i.e., Flydumps HP0-J73 exam sample questions, as well as the specifications which apply to their particular specialty. Flydumps HP0-J73 exam sample questions, HP0-J73 Exam has unified the performance tiers into a single file system, consolidating its compositing, computer graphics and stop motion workflows onto a single, shared storage resource, streamlining production operations and improving IT efficiency.

QUESTION 21
Which feature allows SAN switches to accept multiple WWPN registrations on a single port?
A. DCB
B. ISL Tracking
C. SCM
D. NPM

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 22
Which BYOD services are provided by HP Intelligent Management Center? (Select two)
A. End user compression
B. Storage federation
C. Routing optimization
D. Device compliance
E. User authentication

Correct Answer: DE QUESTION 23
When designing a solution, what defines the maximum tolerable amount of data loss from an IT service due to a major incident?
A. SLO
B. RPO
C. SLA
D. RTO

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 24
Which HP 3PAR StoreServ tool can be used to collect detailed server configuration information such as the OS type and version, WWN of HBAs, the iSCSI name and host multipathing information over a secure communication channel?
A. Recovery Manager
B. Web Services API
C. System Reporter
D. Host Explorer

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 25
Which improvement to the standard features of HP StoreEasy Storage enables deduplication of data?
A. HP StoreOnce software
B. HP Smart Array Advanced Pack 2.0
C. HP Data Protector software
D. Microsoft Windows Storage Server 2012

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 26
What enables HP StoreEasy Storage to replicate only changed file blocks instead of the entire file?
A. File Screening Management
B. Cyclical Redundancy Check
C. File Classification Infrastructure
D. Remote Differential Compression

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 27
A global engineering company’s IT manager needs to give offshore contractors access to specific corporate data and applications. Permission is required to access the network anytime from anywhere on almost every device. Which management solution can authenticate network access and determine if the endpoints are compliant with the security policies of this company?
A. Wireless Services Manager
B. User Access Management
C. HP Peer Motion
D. Virtual network Manager

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 28
Which features are key benefits of the HP 3PARStoreServ architecture? (Select two)
A. Fully meshed cluster architecture
B. Network RAID High Availability
C. Secure retention of storage volumes
D. Built-in deduplication technology
E. Built on industry-standard HP ProLiant technology

Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 29
What needs to be considered when sizing a solution which will utilize HP 3PAR Snapshots?
A. Additional host ports will be required
B. Snapshots need to be written at 64k blocks
C. Backend IOs will increase
D. To ensure performance, additional system cache is used.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 30
Which attributes can be specified in an HP Virtual Connect Server Profile? (Select two)
A. iSCSl Initiator Name
B. Boot Parameters
C. Fibre Channel zoning
D. MAC and WWN addresses
E. Server Hostname
Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 31
Which HP tool provides contract and warranty management?
A. HP WEBES

Latest HP0-J73 exam is one of popular Certification.Many candidates won’t have confidence to get latest HP0-J73. Now We guaranteed latest HP0-J73 Exam training is available in various formats to best suit your needs and learning style.Whether you are a hands-on tactile learner,visually or even a textbook training veteran,Flydumps has latest HP0-J73 resources that will enable you to pass your HP0-J73 test with flying colors.As with Cisco exams,the HP0-J73 exam is structured to stack or plug into other related courses.The combination of HP0-J73 courses builds the complete core knowledge base you need to meet your HP0-J73 certification requirements.

Welcome to download the newest Pass4itsure 70-463 dumps: http://www.pass4itsure.com/70-463.html