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ABC Company has just purchased a 6 dBi patch antenna. After performing some tests with the 6 dBi antenna, they
have concluded that more antenna gain is needed to cover their outdoor courtyard.
When choosing an antenna with higher gain, what other antenna characteristic will also always change?
A. Fresnel Zone size
B. Maximum input power
C. Beamwidth
D. Impedance
E. VSWR Ratio
Correct Answer: C

ABC Company is planning a point-to-multipoint outdoor bridge deployment with standalone (autonomous) 802.11 bridge
units. 802.1X/EAP will be used for bridge authentication. A Linux- based RADIUS server will be used for authentication.
What device in the bridge implementation acts as the 802.1X Authenticator?
A. The RADIUS server
B. All non-root bridges
C. A designated non-root bridge
D. The root bridge
E. The Ethernet switch
Correct Answer: D

What is an advantage of using WPA2-Personal instead of WEP-128 as a security solution for 802.11 networks?
A. WPA2-Personal uses 802.1X/EAP for authentication, and WEP-128 uses preshared keys.
B. WPA2-Personal is based on IEEE 802.11 industry standards, but WEP is not.
C. WPA2-Personal uses CCMP for encryption, and WEP-128 uses TKIP for encryption.
D. WPA2-Personal uses dynamic encryption keys, and WEP-128 uses static keys.
E. WPA2-Personal requires complex 64-character hex keys, whereas WEP-128 requires weak 26- character hex keys.
Correct Answer: D

Your consulting firm has recently been hired to complete a site survey for a company. Your engineers use predictive
modeling software for surveying, but the company insists on a pre- deployment site visit. What tasks should be
performed as part of the pre-deployment visit to prepare for a predictive survey? (Choose 2)
A. With a spectrum analyzer, identify the type, amplitude, and location of RF interference sources, if any are present.
B. Evaluate the building materials at ABC\’s facility and confirm that the floor plan documents are consistent with the
actual building.
C. Test several antenna types connected to the intended APs for use in the eventual deployment.
D. Collect information about the company\’s security requirements and the current configuration of their RADIUS and
user database servers.
E. Install at least one AP on each side of the exterior walls to test for co-channel interference through these walls.
Correct Answer: AB

As defined in the 802.11 specification, legacy Power Save requires an inefficient back-and-forth frame exchange
process. Due to this inefficiency, many WLAN device implementations use a variation of 802.11 Power Save to
accomplish the same function.
What non-standard power save behavior is used by most Wi-Fi devices in actual legacy Power Save implementations?
A. Client devices ignore the TIM field and automatically send PS-Poll frames after every beacon.
B. After each beacon, the AP attempts to empty its frame buffer by sending Wake- on-WLAN frames to wake each
dozing client.
C. Request-to-Send and Clear-to-Send frame exchanges are used to trigger the delivery of buffered data.
D. The Beacon interval is changed from the default 100 time units to 10 or less time units.
E. Clients send null data frames to the AP and switch the power management bit from 1 to 0 to receive queued data.
F. Stations send a CTS-to-self frame to the AP with a very long duration period so they can receive all of their buffered
data at once.
Correct Answer: E

ABC Company has a 2.4 and 5 GHz WLAN deployment. DFS functionality is enabled as required by the regulatory
domain and APs use DFS channels as long as radar is not detected. Band steering is also enabled to encourage dual-
band clients to use frequency bands with more capacity. Your performance analysis shows that many dual-band VoWiFi
client devices will move back and forth between 2.4 and 5 GHz as the users roam throughout the building. All APs have
2.4 and 5 GHz radios enabled with transmit power adjusted to accommodate relatively similar cell sizes. This
andquot;band hoppingandquot; behavior is viewed by network staff to be undesirable.
What is the most likely cause of the unpredictable client band selection behavior?
A. Interference from 5 GHz radar sources has increased frame corruption and retries on channels 36-48.
B. 5 GHz frequencies offer better RF penetration than 2.4 GHz, but 2.4 GHz offers more voice call capacity and lower
latency than 5 GHz. C. The voice client does not support DFS, and therefore experiences some 5 GHz coverage holes as it moves through
the network.
D. The client\’s band selection algorithm prefers 5 GHz, but band steering behavior usually steers 75-85% of client
devices to 2.4 GHz.
Correct Answer: C

What can cause an excessively high VSWR (Voltage Standing Wave Ratio) in a WLAN RF transmission line?
A. An impedance mismatch in the RF cables and connectors
B. Reflected direct current (DC) voltage on the main RF signal line
C. Attenuation of the RF signal as it travels along the main signal path
D. Crosstalk (inductance) between adjacent RF conductors
Correct Answer: A

What statement describes the authorization component of a AAA implementation?
A. Verifying that a user is who he says he is
B. Validating client device credentials against a database
C. Logging the details of user network behavior in order to review it at a later time
D. Granting access to specific network services according to a user profile
E. Implementing a WIPS as a full-time monitoring solution to enforce policies
Correct Answer: D

To ease user complexity, your company has implemented a single SSID for all employees. However, the network
administrator needs a way to control the network resources that can be accessed by each employee based on their
What WLAN feature would allow the network administrator to accomplish this task?
D. IPSec
Correct Answer: C

What is the intended use for the WLAN hardware known as a pole or mast mount unit?
A. Mounting a lightning arrestor to a grounding rod
B. Mounting an omnidirectional antenna to a mast
C. Mounting an RF amplifier to a dipole antenna
D. Mounting a PoE injector to a perforated radome
E. Mounting an access point to a site survey tripod
Correct Answer: B

How is throughput capacity scaled in a single channel architecture (SCA) WLAN system?
A. By increasing transmit power and placing APs that are on a single channel farther from one another.
B. By adding more SSIDs to existing APs to spread users across different contention domains.
C. By adding non-overlapping channel layers through the addition of more APs.
D. By using downlink data compression and uplink flow control at the AP.
E. By using a single 802.11n radio to transmit simultaneous downlink data streams to different users.
Correct Answer: C

A Wi-Fi Alliance interoperability certificate indicates that a device is a/b/g/n certified. It further indicates one transmit and
receive spatial stream for both the 2.4 GHz and 5.0 GHz bands. It further indicates support for both WPA and WPA2
Enterprise and Personal. Finally, it indicates support for EAP-TLS, EAP-TTLS/ MSCHAPv2, PEAPv0/EAP-MSCHAPv2
and PEAPv1/EAP- GTC.
Which one of the following statements is false?
A. This client device supports protection mechanisms such as RTS/CTS and/or CTS- to-Self.
B. This client device supports both TKIP and CCMP cipher suites.
C. 300 Mbps is the maximum supported data rate for this device.
D. This client device supports the ERP, OFDM, and HT physical layer specifications.
E. This client device supports X.509 certificates for EAP authentication.
Correct Answer: C

What HT technology requires MIMO support on both the transmitter and receiver?
A. Spatial multiplexing
B. Short guard intervals
C. Maximal ratio combining
D. Orthogonal Frequency Division Multiplexing
Correct Answer: A

What terms accurately complete the following sentence? The IEEE 802.11-2012 standard specifies mandatory support
of the ___________ cipher suite for Robust Security Network Associations, and optional use of the ___________ cipher
suite, which is designed for use with pre-RSNA hardware.
B. 802.1X/EAP, WEP
E. RC5, RC4
Correct Answer: A

You were previously onsite at XYZ\’s facility to conduct a pre-deployment RF site survey. The WLAN has been deployed
according to your recommendations and you are onsite again to perform a post- deployment validation survey.
When performing this type of post-deployment RF site survey for VoWiFi, what are two steps that must be performed?
(Choose 2)
A. Coverage analysis to verify appropriate coverage and roaming boundaries
B. Spectrum analysis to locate and identify RF interference sources
C. Frequency-band hopping analysis to detect improper RF channel implementations
D. Protocol analysis to discover channel use on neighboring APs
E. Application analysis with an active phone call on a VoWiFi handset
Correct Answer: AE

What are two channel modes specified by the 802.11n (High Throughput) PHY? (Choose 2)
A. 20 MHz
B. 20/40 MHz C. 40/80 MHz
D. 22 MHz
E. 80 MHz
F. 160 MHz
Correct Answer: AB

What term describes the effect of increasing the intensity of an RF wave with an antenna by focusing the energy in a
specific direction?
A. Distributed Radiation
B. Active Amplification
C. Beam Compression
D. Passive Gain
E. RF Flooding
Correct Answer: D

As you prepare for a site survey in a multi-floor corporate office, you have learned about several wireless devices that
support connection-oriented, real-time applications. These applications are sensitive to service interruptions and require
excellent signal quality, low latency, and low loss. For that reason, it is important to identify sources of RF interference
as well as building characteristics that would cause RF blockage or dead spots.
What systems or environmental characteristics are most likely to cause interference or RF blockage and disrupt service
for these applications? (Choose 2)
A. Microwave ovens
B. Narrow hallways
C. Elevator shafts
D. RFID chokepoints
E. Workspace dividers
Correct Answer: AC

During the discovery and connectivity process, client and AP stations exchange information about their supported data
rates. After the association, how do client and AP stations select the supported data rate that will be used to send an
802.11 data frame?
A. During the association, the client and AP agree to use the same transmit rate, but either station can request a change
at any time after the association. B. The client and AP each choose the optimal data rate to use independently of one another, based on their own
measurements related to the RF link.
C. The client and AP may use different transmit rates, but the AP determines the data rate that will be used by each
client station in the BSS.
D. The client and AP may use different transmit rates, but the client determines the data rate that it will use and the data
rate that the AP will use when communicating to the client.
E. The client and AP may use a different transmit rates, but the transmit rate is determined by the peer station, based on
the peer\’s experience of the RF link.
Correct Answer: B

What facts are true regarding controllers and APs in a Split MAC architecture? (Choose 2)
A. An IP tunnel is established between the AP and controller for AP management and control functions.
B. Using centralized data forwarding, APs never tag Ethernet frames with VLAN identifiers or 802.1p CoS.
C. With 802.1X/EAP security, the AP acts as the supplicant and the controller acts as the authenticator.
D. Management and data frame types must be processed locally by the AP, while control frame types must be sent to
the controller.
E. In a distributed data forwarding model, the AP handles frame encryption and decryption.
Correct Answer: AE

What statements about the beamwidth of an RF antenna are true? (Choose 2)
A. The lower the gain of an antenna, the more narrow one or both beamwidths become.
B. The beamwidth patterns on an antenna polar chart indicate the point at which the RF signal stops propagating.
C. Horizontal and vertical beamwidth are calculated at the points in which the main lobe decreases power by 3 dB.
D. Horizontal beamwidth is displayed (in degrees) on the antenna\’s Azimuth Chart.
Correct Answer: CD

In addition to coverage analysis results, what should be included in a site survey report to ensure WLAN users
experience acceptable performance?
A. Application Layer protocol availability analysis results
B. Layer 4 protocol availability analysis results
C. Capacity analysis results
D. WAN interface analysis results
Correct Answer: C

You are the network administrator for ABC Company. Your manager has recently attended a wireless security seminar.
The seminar speaker taught that a wireless network could be hidden from potential intruders if you disabled the
broadcasting of the SSID in Beacons and configured the access points not to respond to Probe Request frames that
have a null SSID field. Your manager suggests implementing these security practices.
What response should you give to this suggestion? (Choose 2)
A. Any 802.11 protocol analyzer can see the SSID in clear text in frames other than Beacons and Probe Response
frames. This negates any security benefit of trying to hide the SSID in Beacons and Probe Response frames.
B. This security practice prevents manufacturers\’ client utilities from detecting the SSID. As a result, the SSID cannot
be obtained by attackers, except through social engineering, guessing, or use of a WIPS.
C. Although it does not benefit the security posture, hiding the SSID in Beacons and Probe Response frames can be
helpful for preventing some users (such as guests) from attempting to connect to the corporate network.
D. Any tenants in the same building using advanced penetration testing tools will be able to obtain the SSID by
exploiting WPA EAPOL-Key exchanges. This poses an additional risk of exposing the WPA key.
E. To improve security by hiding the SSID, the AP and client stations must both be configured to remove the SSID from
association request and response frames. Most WLAN products support this.
Correct Answer: AC

In a Wi-Fi client configuration utility, what feature is most likely to be user configurable?
A. 802.1p to WMM mappings
B. SNMPv3 Users
C. WMM-PS Dozing Interval
D. RADIUS Server IP Address
E. EAP Authentication Type
Correct Answer: E

Which IEEE 802.11 physical layer (PHY) specifications include support for and compatibility of both OFDM and
HR/DSSS? (Choose 2)
A. HR/DSSS (802.11b)
B. OFDM (802.11a)
C. ERP (802.11g)
D. HT (802.11n) E. CCK (802.11b)
F. VHT (802.11ac)
Correct Answer: CD

What causes of hidden nodes within a BSS would be more likely lead to an increase in collisions and retries? (Choose
A. Data frames too large for the physical environment
B. Client stations broadcasting with too much power
C. Access points broadcasting with too little power
D. Client stations too close in proximity to each other
E. Obstacles between client stations causing attenuation
F. Large 802.11 cells with physically distributed stations
Correct Answer: EF

What phrase defines Equivalent Isotropically Radiated Power (EIRP)?
A. The power output from the radio into the RF cable
B. The power output from the radio after cable losses
C. The highest RF signal strength that is transmitted from a given antenna
D. Reflected power due to an impedance mismatch in the signal path
E. Power supplied from the transmission line to the antenna input
Correct Answer: C

When using an RF splitter to connect one transceiver to sector antennas loss is incurred.
What is this loss called?
A. Conversion loss
B. Through loss
C. Active loss
D. Intentional loss
Correct Answer: B

In an enterprise WLAN, what condition will prevent a dual-band VHT/HT client device from performing a fast and
seamless transition (i.e. latency-sensitive applications are not disrupted) between two access points that are managed
by the same WLAN controller?
A. The current AP is using channel 1 and the new AP is using channel 40.
B. The SSID of the current AP does not match the SSID of the new AP.
C. The current AP supports only HT and the new AP is VHT capable.
D. The access points are hiding the SSID in Beacons and Probe Response frames.
Correct Answer: B

When performing a site survey for a Multiple Channel Architecture (MCA) system in a multi- tenant building with five
floors, what aspect should you, as the site surveyor, keep in mind?
A. The RF interference caused by passing airplanes supporting on-board Wi-Fi should be a prime consideration.
B. The omni-directional antennas of the access points should be oriented parallel to the floor to maximize the coverage
pattern across as many floors as possible.
C. The channel reuse pattern should be three dimensional with the RF cell extending coverage of each access point to
other floors.
D. The Fresnel Zone is completely blocked between floors so each floor is considered a separate site survey.
Correct Answer: C

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What are the various ways of disabling Chatter?
Correct Answer: To remove Chatter tab from the top horizontal bar, remove it from the \’Selected Tabs\’ from
\’Customize My Tabs\’ from the \’+\’ sign. To remove Chatter link altogether for all profiles, go to Setup -andgt;
Customize -andgt; Chatter -andgt;

Automating business processes is possible using
A. workflow
B. approval processes
C. both of above
Correct Answer: C

While filling out positions, the hiring manager wants to view job responsibilities and job description at the top of the
page; The recruiter wants to view the name of
the hiring manager and the status at the top.
Which tool would you use to meet this requirement?
A. Record Types
B. Field Level Security
C. Page Layouts
Correct Answer: C

Which objects are available while importing data using the import wizard?
Correct Answer: Lead, Account, Contact, Solution, custom objects

In a Master-Detail Relationship, ownership and access to the child record are determined by the parent record
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: A

New approval steps can be added to an active approval process only if it is deactivated.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: B

Record types can be used to determine
A. picklist values
B. business processes (using different page layouts)
C. Both of above
Correct Answer: C

What is the difference between Export and Export All in Apex Data Loader?
Correct Answer: Deleted records are stored in Sales force for 45 days. In \’Export All\’ the deleted records also get
exported. In `Export\’ the deleted records do not get exported.

Which are the 2 ways to mass delete records?
Correct Answer: Using Apex Data Loader or from Setup -andgt; Data Management -andgt; Mass Delete Records

If a role is added to Case Team, then it will get added to which of the following teams?
A. Account Team
B. Sales Team
C. None of them
Correct Answer: C

Sharing rules are used to further restrict access defined in the Organization-wide Default settings.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: B

An object can have
A. A master-detail relationship with itself
B. A lookup relationship with itself
C. Both of above are possible
Correct Answer: B

Account object has a custom field \’Tax\’ of type number. Two account records are present in Salesforce, account name
Acc1 has value 7 in this field while account
name Acc2 does not have any value in this field. This custom field Tax is now given a default value of 89 by editing it.
Which of these cases will happen:
A. The Tax field of Acc2 will get the value 89 and all accounts created henceforth will have the default value 89 in this
Tax field
B. The Tax field of Acc2 will r
Correct Answer: B

When might you need to migrate configuration changes?
Correct Answer: You might need to migrate customizations like apps, objects, code, reports or email templates from a
development sandbox to a training sandbox or production environment

Encrypted fields can be edited regardless of whether you have the andquot;View Encrypted Dataandquot; permission.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: A

Using workflow rule field update action on a child object, any field of its parent can be given a value.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: B

An opportunity is triggering a workflow rule that is set to evaluate. When a record is created, or when a record is edited
and did not previously meet the rule criteria\’. The opportunity previously met the workflow criteria so the workflow ruleshould not trigger now. But the workflow rule is being triggered. What could be the reason?
Correct Answer: This can happen when the account that the opportunity is related to is changed. Doing this will reparent
the opportunity and thus all \’on-create\’ workflow rules will trigger.

User B has created a Associate record. At the profile level, the profile \’Custom-Recruiter\’ of User A has only Read, Edit
access for Associate. Role of user B is \’Channel Sales Team\’. User A belongs to the public group \’All Interviewers\’.
OWD of Associate is \’Private\’. A sharing rule has been created to share Associate records owned by the role \’Channel
Sales Team\’ with the public group \’All Interviewers\’ wit h Read/Write access. What access will User A have for the
record control?
Correct Answer: Read and Edit because the sharing rule can make record access lesser restrictive. Thus the statement
\’OWD or sharing rule can make access level lesser restrictive but not more restrictive\’ is valid only if the user has Edit
permission a

What is a joined report?
Correct Answer: The joined report format lets you view different types of information in a single report. A joined report
consists of up to five report blocks, which you add to the report to create multiple views of your data. For each block,
you can a

Standard Profiles can be customized to fit your organization\’s requirements.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: B

Which statement is true?
A. Child records in mater-detail relationships have their own org-wide defaults.
B. Org-wide defaults can be set for both standard and custom objects.
C. Only read/write access can be granted through sharing rules.
D. Sharing rules are used to restrict access to records.
Correct Answer: B

Which are the OOTB reports which will give information about campaign effectiveness?
Correct Answer: Campaign ROI Analysis Report, Campaign Revenue Report, Campaigns with Influenced Opportunities
QUESTION 23Which elements can be stored in folders?
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: B

What records can be loaded using import wizards? (5 items)
Correct Answer: Accounts Contacts Leads Solutions Custom objects

Building your Data Model True or False The limit on the number of custom fields per object depends on the Salesforce
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: A

Where can you monitor bulk data load jobs?
Correct Answer: In the Monitor section in the Setup menu (You must have \’Manage Data Integrations\’ permission to do

What can be done with Visualforce?
Correct Answer: Create pages with custom look and feel

What are the advantages of using Chatter Desktop over using the in-app Chatter?
Correct Answer: 1. With Chatter Desktop, no installed browser is required (like IE or Google Chrome or Firefox) for
accessing Chatter as it is a desktop application. 2. Chatter Desktop can be configured to start automatically when the
machine starts, s

If the entry criteria for a step in an approval process are not met, then the record gets rejected.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: B

Specifying entry criteria is compulsory for:
A. Workflow rule
B. Approval process
C. Both
Correct Answer: A

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