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QUESTION 52
Examine the output of the following query:
SQL> SELECT c.name,a.addr,a.gets,a.misses,a.sleeps,
2 a.immediate_gets,a.immediate_misses,b.pid
3 FROM v$latch a, v$latchholder b, v$latchname c
4 WHERE a.addr = b.laddr(+) and a.latch# = c.latch#
5 AND c.name LIKE ‘&latch_name%’ ORDER BY a.latch#;
LATCH NAME ADDR GETS MISSES SLEEPS IMMEDIATE_GETS IMMEDIATE_MISSES ———— ——– ——– ——- —— ————– —————- shared pool
20016544 8520540 14112 3137 0 0
Which two conclusions can you draw from this? (Choose two.)

A. The latch was requested in no wait mode.
B. The latch was requested in willing-to-wait mode.
C. The shared pool operations to allocate and free memory in it caused the misses.
D. Automatic Memory Management is not enabled because the IMMEDIATE_GETS and IMMEDIATE_MISSES columns have zero in them.

Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 53
Examine the output of the query given below: SQL> SELECT mutex_type, location, sum(gets), sum(sleeps) FROM v$mutex_sleep_history GROUP BY mutex_type, location; MUTEX_TYPE LOCATION SUM(GETS) SUM(SLEEPS) ————– ————————————- ———- ———– Library Cache kglhdgn1 62 8669586 4538 Library Cache kglget2 2 2016618 24 Cursor Stat kkocsStoreBindAwareStats [KKSSTALOC8] 2975 1 Cursor Pin kkslce [KKSCHLPIN2] 666831 678 Library Cache kgllkdl1 85 3369224 110 Library Cache kglpnal1 90 224199 13 Library Cache kglic1 49 42068 10 Library Cache kglpin1 4 9620087 374 Library Cache kglpndl1 95 2065089 79 9 rows selected. Which statement is true?
A. Each row in the output represents a SQL statement that had to wait for mutexes.
B. The Cursor Stat and Cursor Pin SLEEPS indicate that the CURSOR_SHARING parameter is set to EXACT.
C. The GETS column shows the number of times a mutex/location was requested by the requesting session while being held by the blocking session.
D. The sum of numbers in the GETS and SLEEPS columns indicates the number of times a mutex/location was requested by the requesting session while being held by the blocking session.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 54
Examine the query output shown below:
SQL> SELECT sum(pins), sum(reloads), sum(reloads)/sum(pins) FROM v$librarycache;
SUM(PINS) SUM(RELOADS) SUM(RELOADS)/SUM(PINS)

16479 16000 0.9709327
Which statement describes the correct interpretation of the reloads-to-pin ratio and the action to be taken?

A. This ratio is reasonable. However, decrease the shared pool size for better performance.
B. This ratio is very high and the shared pool size should be increased immediately to reduce this ratio.
C. This ratio is reasonable. However, this needs monitoring. Increase the shared pool size only if the ratio crosses 1.
D. This ratio is reasonable. However, this needs monitoring. Increase the shared pool size only if the ratio falls below 0.1.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 55
You work as a DBA for a company and manage an online transaction processing (OLTP) system. You received complaints about the performance degradation of SQL statements executed by the application that uses this database.View the Exhibit and examine the output of the queries executed to investigate the performance issues.Which two actions can improve performance? (Choose two.)

A. increasing the size of the shared pool
B. setting the CURSOR_SHARING parameter to EXACT
C. decreasing the value set for the OPEN_CURSORS parameter
D. replacing literals with bind variables in SQL statements with the PLAN_HASH_VALUE 1337874392
E. replacing literals with bind variables in SQL statements with the PLAN_HASH_VALUE 1445457117

Correct Answer: AE
QUESTION 56
You work as a consultant DBA for various clients. A performance issue in one of the online transaction processing (OLTP) systems is reported to you and you received the Automatic Workload Repository (AWR) report generated in the database. The main sections of the AWR report are shown in the Exhibits. View the Exhibit named DBTIME and note % DB Time.

View the Exhibit named TIMEMODEL and note what has contributed to % DB Time. View the Exhibit named EFFICIENCY and examine the various percentages shown.
Identify the option that has the correct answers for the questions given below:
1) Which factor indicates the main problem?
2) What is the main problem?
3) What solution would you recommend?

A. 1) The Exhibit DBTIME shows that the DB CPU event consumed very high % DB Time. 2) The CPU is very slow. 3) Increase the number of processors.
B. 1) hard parse elapsed time has the majority time in parse time elapsed, which is shown in the TIMEMODEL Exhibit. 2) This is due to inadequate Database Buffer Cache. 3) Increase the size of database buffer cache.
C. 1) sql execute elapsed time and parse time elapsed are consuming very high % DB Time in the TIMEMODEL Exhibit. 2) There are too many soft parses. 3) Investigate the HOLD_CURSOR parameter setting in the application and set it appropriately.
D. 1) % Non-Parse CPU is low and Soft Parse % is also low in the EFFICIENCY Exhibit. This shows that very few statements are found in the cache. 2) There are too many hard parses. 3) Investigate the CURSOR_SHARING parameter setting and set it appropriately.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 57
You work as a consultant DBA for various clients. A performance issue in one of the online transaction processing (OLTP) systems is reported to you and you received the Automatic Workload Repository (AWR) report generated in the database. The main sections of the AWR report is shown in the Exhibits. View the Exhibit named DBTIME and note % DB Time.

View the Exhibit named TIMEMODEL and note what has contributed to % DB Time. View the Exhibit named EFFICIENCY and examine the various percentages shown.
Which option describes the correct understanding of the main problem?
A. The Exhibit DBTIME shows that the DB CPU event consumed very high % DB Time, which indicates that the CPU is very slow.
B. sql execute elapsed time and parse time elapsed are consuming very high % DB Time in the TIMEMODEL Exhibit. This indicates too many soft parses.
C. hard parse elapsed time has the majority time in parse time elapsed, which is shown in the TIMEMODEL Exhibit. This indicates inadequate database buffer cache.
D. % Non-Parse CPU: and Soft Parse %: are low in the EFFICIENCY Exhibit, which shows that very few statements are found in the cache. This indicates that there were too many hard parses.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 58
You work as a DBA for a company and you have the responsibility of managing one of its online transaction processing (OLTP) systems. The database
encountered performance-related problems and you generated an Automatic Workload Repository (AWR) report to investigate it further.
View the Exhibits and examine the AWR report.
Which is the appropriate solution to the problem in this database?
A. increasing the size of the shared pool
B. adding one more CPU to the system
C. setting the CURSOR_SHARING parameter to EXACT
D. configuring Java pool because it is not configured

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 59
You work on an online transaction processing (OLTP) database in which the SALES table has 10,000 rows but only four distinct products are sold. View the Exhibit named HIST to check the distribution of values in the table and the histograms on the table.

View the Exhibits named QUERY-1 and QUERY-2 that show details in the V$SQL view for the queries executed on the SALES table.

You check the plan table and notice that both the queries that executed on the SALES table used index range scan. The second query retrieved most of the rows in the table but used index range scan.

Why would the second query use the same plan?
A. because the plan was bind aware
B. because the bind peeking never happened
C. because the OPEN_CURSORS parameter is set to a very low value
D. because the optimizer did not consider selectivity due to the use of bind variables

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 60
You work on an online transaction processing (OLTP) database in which the SALES table has 10,000 rows but only four distinct products are sold. View the Exhibit named HIST to check data distribution in the table and the histograms on the table.

View the Exhibit named QUERY-1 that shows details in the V$SQL view for the query executed on the SALES table having product id 1.

Further, you query the SALES table thrice more in the following order:

query rows having product ID 4


query rows having product ID 2


query rows having product ID 4
View the Exhibit named QUERY-n to see the details about these queries.
What do you infer from this?
A. The second plan was created because the first plan was aged out.
B. The CURSOR_SHARING parameter value was changed to EXACT after the second query was executed.
C. The third plan was created because the first plan was aged out and the second plan had different selectivity.
D. The first two executions used the same plan because at parse time the optimizer did not consider selectivity as the cursor was not yet considered bind-aware.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 61
You are working for a company that uses huge applications to manage its customer details. During your regular performance checks, you executed the following query: SQL> show parameter shared_pool_reserved_size NAME TYPE VALUE —————————— ——————— —————– shared_pool_reserved_size big integer 6920601 SQL> SELECT free_space, used_space, request_misses, request_failures from V$SHARED_POOL_RESERVED; FREE_SPACE USED_SPACE REQUEST_MISSES REQUEST_FAILURES ———- ———- ————– —————- 6469776 555528 0 113 You observed that REQUEST_FAILURES is 113 but not increasing, and also that REQUEST_MISSES is not increasing. What would you interpret from this?
A. The reserved pool is very large. Consider reducing the size of the shared pool.
B. The reserved pool is large and has free space to satisfy requests. Consider reducing the size of the reserved pool.
C. The reserved pool is very small and is not finding enough memory to satisfy requests. Increase the size of the shared pool.
D. The reserved pool is very small and is not finding enough memory to satisfy requests. Increase the size of the reserved pool.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 62
You work for a company as a DBA. The company has an application to manage the details of its business and customer base. However, application users complain that updating the SALES record takes more time than it used to earlier. On investigation, you notice that the application performance degrades when a call is made to the UPDATE_INV procedure. Further, you execute the following query to investigate: SQL> SELECT name, type, sharable_mem, kept 2 FROM v$db_object_cache 3 WHERE sharable_mem > 4000 4 AND EXECUTIONS > 5 5 AND (type=’FUNCTION’ OR type=’PROCEDURE’) 6 / NAME TYPE SHARABLE_MEM KEPT ——————- ————– ————— ———– GETEMKEY FUNCTION 13695 YES UPDATE_INV PROCEDURE 14766 NO SETEMUSERCONTEXT PROCEDURE 13703 YES DECRYPT FUNCTION 17790 YES UPDATE_DEPT PROCEDURE 18765 NO What would you do to improve the performance?
A. Enable the result cache if not already enabled.
B. Flush the shared pool to make space for this procedure.
C. Keep the UPDATE_INV procedure by using the DBMS_SHARED_POOL.KEEP procedure.
D. Increase the size of the keep buffer pool to accommodate the UPDATE_INV procedure.
E. Ask the developers to modify and use literals instead of bind variables in the UPDATE_INV procedure.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 63
You work for a small manufacturing company as a DBA. The company has various applications to manage the details of its business and customer base. The company has only one sales outlet where the operator updates the SALES table in the sales application with the details when a product is sold. The company has many other applications for various other businesses that use the same database. The sales operator, while generating a report, noticed that there are some gaps generated in the serial number in the SLNO column during peak hours of business. On investigating, you find that the SLNO column in the SALES table uses the SLNSEQ sequence to generate the serial numbers when a record is inserted. During peak hours, you noticed the following: When the operator entered the sales details the last time, the sequence number was 1056300, but when you checked the sequence as follows, you found a gap of 100 numbers: SQL> SELECT sequence_name, last_number FROM user_sequences WHERE sequence_name=’SLNSEQ’; SEQUENCE_NAME LAST_NUMBER
SLNSEQ 1056400
You observed this behavior many times and only during peak hours.
What could be the problem and solution for this?

A. The reserved pool is not configured. Configure the reserved pool.
B. The keep buffer pool is not configured. Configure the keep buffer pool.
C. The sequence was created with a CACHE of 100 numbers. Re-create the sequence with a higher CACHE number.
D. The sequence is aging out of the shared pool. Keep the sequence in the shared pool using the DBMS_SHARED_POOL.KEEP procedure.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 64
You work as a DBA for a company and as a performance improvement measure, you implemented the result cache in your database. Many users in the company
say that performance has improved on the queries they use, but some users complain that they have not got any performance benefit on the queries they use.
You checked all the queries they use and the following is one of them:
SQL> SELECT /*+ RESULT_CACHE */ slnoq.currval as “SLNO”, prod_id, pdname, 2 cust_name FROM sales WHERE sl_date < sysdate;
View the Exhibit and examine the testing performed to check this.
Why is the result cache not used? (Choose all that apply.)
A. because the query uses SYSDATE
B. because the query uses an alias for a column
C. because the query uses the SLNOQ.CURRVAL sequence
D. because the table might have an index on the SL_DATE column

Correct Answer: AC QUESTION 65
You work as a DBA for a company and as a performance improvement measure, you implemented the result cache in your database. View the Exhibit named SETTING and note the result cache settings.

Many users in the company state that performance has improved on the queries they use but some users complain that they have not got any performance benefit
on the queries they use. You checked all the queries they use and the following is one of them:
SQL> SELECT slnoq.currval as “SLNO”, prod_id, pdname, 2 cust_name FROM sales WHERE sl_date < sysdate;
View the Exhibit named TEST and examine the testing performed to check this.
Why is the result cache not used? (Choose all that apply.)
A. because the query uses SYSDATE
B. because the query uses an alias for a column
C. because the query uses the SLNOQ.CURRVAL sequence
D. because the CLIENT_RESULT_CACHE_SIZE parameter is set to 0

Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 66
In which case is the database buffer cache NOT used?
A. when physical I/Os are performed to read from data files
B. when the database writer process writes to the SYSTEM tablespace
C. when the server process writes sort data to the temporary tablespace
D. when the database writer process writes undo data to the undo tablespace

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 67
Which two statements are true about the database buffer cache? (Choose two.)
A. A buffer can be written to by many processes at the same time.
B. A buffer containing a block that is identical to the block on disk is called free buffer.
C. A buffer containing a block that is being accessed by a process is called dirty buffer.
D. A buffer available to be overwritten with a different database block at any time is called a dirty buffer.
E. A buffer can contain a different version of a block that is available in a different buffer of the same cache.

Correct Answer: BE
QUESTION 68
You work as a DBA and you have the responsibility of managing a large online transaction processing (OLTP) system. You used the following query during the
performance tuning activity:
SQL> SELECT (1-((phy.value-phyd.value) / (cur.value + con.value))) * 100 2 “Cache Hit ratio”
3 FROM v$sysstat cur, v$sysstat con, v$sysstat phy, v$sysstat phyd 4 WHERE cur.name = ‘db block gets’
5 AND con.name = ‘consistent gets’
6 AND phy.name = ‘physical reads’
7 AND phyd.name = ‘physical reads direct’;
Cache Hit Ratio

Which understanding of this ratio is correct?
A. 98.43% of times the requests have found free buffers.
B. 98.43% of the total number of requests used the buffer cache.
C. 98.43% of times the requests were satisfied by performing physical I/Os.
D. 98.43% of times the requests have found the required data blocks in the buffer cache.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 69
You work as a DBA and have the responsibility of managing a large online transaction processing (OLTP) system. You used the following query during the
performance tuning activity:
SQL> SELECT (1-((phy.value-phyd.value) / (cur.value + con.value))) * 100 2 “Cache Hit ratio”
3 FROM v$sysstat cur, v$sysstat con, v$sysstat phy, v$sysstat phyd 4 WHERE cur.name = ‘db block gets’
5 AND con.name = ‘consistent gets’
6 AND phy.name = ‘physical reads’
7 AND phyd.name = ‘physical reads direct’;
Cache Hit Ratio

What can you conclude based on this ratio?
A. The database performance is very good because of reduced logical I/Os.
B. The database performance cannot be determined based only on this ratio.
C. Good database performance is guaranteed because very few physical I/Os are performed.
D. The database performance is very good because most of the requested data blocks are found in the buffer cache.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 70
You work as a DBA and have the responsibility of managing a large online transaction processing (OLTP) system. You used three queries to check the database performance as shown in the Exhibit.View the Exhibit and analyze the output.

What conclusion can you draw from this?
A. There are many physical I/Os happening.
B. There are many full table scans happening.
C. The data blocks are aging out of the buffer cache very fast.
D. There are many cursors trying to access the same data blocks.
E. The DBWn processes are not freeing sufficient buffers to meet the demand.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 71
Examine the following information from the AWR report: Top 5 Timed Events ~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~ % Total Event Waits Time (s) Call Time ————————————– ———— ———– ——— CPU time 559 88.80 log file parallel write 2,181 28 4.42 SQL*Net more data from client 516,611 27 4.24 db file parallel write 13,383 13 2.04 db file sequential read 563 2 .27 Which could cause waits on the db file sequential read event?
A. too many full table scans
B. too large a database buffer cache
C. too many waits occurring while reading multiple blocks synchronously
D. too many index range scans occurring which refers to blocks not in the database buffer cache

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 72

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QUESTION 77
You need to display the date 11-Oct-2007 in words as `Eleventh of October, Two Thousand Seven’. Which SQL statement would give the required result?
A. SELECT TO_CHAR(’11-oct-2007′, ‘fmDdspth “of” Month, Year’) FROM DUAL;
B. SELECT TO_CHAR(TO_DATE(’11-oct-2007′), ‘fmDdspth of month, year’) FROM DUAL;
C. SELECT TO_CHAR(TO_DATE(’11-oct-2007′), ‘fmDdthsp “of” Month, Year’) FROM DUAL;
D. SELECT TO_DATE(TO_CHAR(’11-oct-2007′,’fmDdspth ”of” Month, Year’)) FROM DUAL;

Correct Answer: C Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: Using the TO_CHAR Function with Dates TO_CHAR converts a datetime data type to a value of VARCHAR2 data type in the format specified by the format_model. A format model is a character literal that describes the format of datetime stored in a character string. For example, the datetime format model for the string ’11- Nov-1999′ is ‘DD-Mon-YYYY’. You can use the TO_CHAR function to convert a date from its default format to the one that you specify. Guidelines · The format model must be enclosed with single quotation marks and is case-sensitive. · The format model can include any valid date format element. But be sure to separate the date value from the format model with a comma. · The names of days and months in the output are automatically padded with blanks. · To remove padded blanks or to suppress leading zeros, use the fill mode fm element.
Elements of the Date Format Model ——————————————————————— DY Three-letter abbreviation of the day of the week DAY Full name of the day of the week DD Numeric day of the month
MM Two-digit value for the month MON Three-letter abbreviation of the month MONTH Full name of the month YYYY Full year in numbers YEAR Year spelled out (in English)
QUESTION 78
Which statement is true regarding the INTERSECT operator?
A. It ignores NULL values
B. The number of columns and data types must be identical for all SELECT statements in the query
C. The names of columns in all SELECT statements must be identical
D. Reversing the order of the intersected tables the result

Correct Answer: B Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
INTERSECT Returns only the rows that occur in both queries’ result sets, sorting them and removing
duplicates.
The columns in the queries that make up a compound query can have different names, but the output
result set will use the names of the columns in the first query.

QUESTION 79
You work as a database administrator at ABC.com. You study the exhibit carefully and examine the structure of CUSTOMRS AND SALES tables.

Evaluate the following SQL statement: Exhibit: Which statement is true regarding the execution of the above UPDATE statement?

A. It would execute and restrict modifications to only the column specified in the SELECT statement
B. It would not execute because two tables cannot be used in a single UPDATE statement
C. It would not execute because a sub query cannot be used in the WHERE clause of an UPDATE statement
D. It would not execute because the SELECT statement cannot be used in place of the table name

Correct Answer: A Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 80
The STUDENT_GRADES table has these columns:

STUDENT_ID NUMBER(12)
SEMESTER_END DATE
GPA NUMBER(4,3)

The registrar has asked for a report on the average grade point average (GPA), sorted from the highest
grade point average to each semester, starting from the earliest date.
Which statement accomplish this?

A. SELECT student_id, semester_end, gpa FROM student_grades ORDER BY semester_end DESC, gpa DESC;
B. SELECT student_id, semester_end, gpa FROM student_grades ORDER BY semester_end, gpa ASC
C. SELECT student_id, semester_end, gpa FROM student_grades ORDER BY gpa DESC, semester_end ASC;
D. SELECT student_id, semester_end, gpa FROM student_grades ORDER BY gpa DESC, semester_end DESC;
E. SELECT student_id, semester_end, gpa FROM student_grades ORDER BY gpa DESC, semester_end ASC;
F. SELECT student_id,semester_end,gpa FROM student_grades ORDER BY semester_end,gpa DESC
Correct Answer: F Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 81
You work as a database administrator at ABC.com. You study the exhibit carefully. Exhibit:

Evaluate the following query: Exhibit:

The above query produces an error on execution. What is the reason for the error?
A. An alias cannot be used in an expression
B. The alias MIDPOINT should be enclosed within double quotation marks for the CUST_CREDIT_LIMIT/2 expression
C. The MIDPOINT +100 expression gives an error because CUST_CREDIT_LIMIT contains NULL values
D. The alias NAME should not be enclosed within double quotation marks

Correct Answer: A Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 82
Which statement is true regarding synonyms?
A. Synonyms can be created only for a table
B. Synonyms are used to reference only those tables that are owned by another user
C. The DROP SYNONYM statement removes the synonym and the table on which the synonym has been created becomes invalid
D. A public synonym and a private synonym can exist with the same name for the same table

Correct Answer: D Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 83
You work as a database administrator at ABC.com. You study the exhibit carefully. Exhibit:

Examine the structure of PRODUCTS table.
Using the PRODUCTS table, you issue the following query to generate the names, current list price and discounted list price for all those products whose list price fails below $10 after a discount of 25% is applied on it.
Exhibit:

The query generates an error.
What is the reason of generating error?

A. The column alias should be put in uppercase and enclosed within double quotation marks in the WHERE clause
B. The parenthesis should be added to enclose the entire expression
C. The column alias should be replaced with the expression in the WHERE clause
D. The double quotation marks should be removed from the column alias

Correct Answer: C Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Note: You cannot use column alias in the WHERE clause.
QUESTION 84
Which one is a system privilege?
A. SELECT
B. DELETE
C. EXECUTE
D. ALTER TABLE
E. CREATE TABLE

Correct Answer: E Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 85
What is true about sequences?
A. The start value of the sequence is always 1.
B. A sequence always increments by 1.
C. The minimum value of an ascending sequence defaults to 1.
D. The maximum value of descending sequence defaults to 1.

Correct Answer: C Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 86
Examine the structure of the INVOICE table: Exhibit:

Which two SQL statements would execute successfully? (Choose two.)
A. SELECT inv_no,NVL2(inv_date,’Pending’,’Incomplete’) FROM invoice;
B. SELECT inv_no,NVL2(inv_amt,inv_date,’Not Available’) FROM invoice;
C. SELECT inv_no,NVL2(inv_date,sysdate-inv_date,sysdate) FROM invoice;
D. SELECT inv_no,NVL2(inv_amt,inv_amt*.25,’Not Available’) FROM invoice;

Correct Answer: AC Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: The NVL2 Function The NVL2 function provides an enhancement to NVL but serves a very similar purpose. It evaluates whether a column or expression of any data type is null or not. 5-6 The NVL function\ If the first term is not null, the second parameter is returned, else the third parameter is returned. Recall that the NVL function is different since it returns the original term if it is not null. The NVL2 function takes three mandatory parameters. Its syntax is NVL2(original, ifnotnull, ifnull), where original represents the term being tested. Ifnotnull is returned if original is not null, and ifnull is returned if original is null. The data types of the ifnotnull and ifnull parameters must be compatible, and they cannot be of type LONG. They must either be of the same type, or it must be possible to convert ifnull to the type of the ifnotnull parameter. The data type returned by the NVL2 function is the same as that of the ifnotnull parameter.
QUESTION 87
View the Exhibit and examine the description for the CUSTOMERS table.

You want to update the CUST_INCOME_LEVEL and CUST_CREDIT_LIMIT columns for the customer with the CUST_ID 2360. You want the value for the CUST_INCOME_LEVEL to have the same value as that of the customer with the CUST_ID 2560 and the CUST_CREDIT_LIMIT to have the same value as that of the customer with CUST_ID 2566.
Which UPDATE statement will accomplish the task?
A. UPDATE customers SET cust_income_level = (SELECT cust_income_level FROM customers WHERE cust_id = 2560), cust_credit_limit = (SELECT cust_credit_limit FROM customers WHERE cust_id = 2566) WHERE cust_id=2360;
B. UPDATE customers SET (cust_income_level,cust_credit_limit) = (SELECT cust_income_level, cust_credit_limit FROM customers WHERE cust_id=2560 OR cust_id=2566) WHERE cust_id=2360;
C. UPDATE customers SET (cust_income_level,cust_credit_limit) = (SELECT cust_income_level, cust_credit_limit FROM customers WHERE cust_id IN(2560, 2566) WHERE cust_id=2360;
D. UPDATE customers SET (cust_income_level,cust_credit_limit) = (SELECT cust_income_level, cust_credit_limit FROM customers WHERE cust_id=2560 AND cust_id=2566) WHERE cust_id=2360;

Correct Answer: A Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Updating Two Columns with a Subquery
You can update multiple columns in the SET clause of an UPDATE statement by writing multiple
subqueries. The syntax is as follows:
UPDATE table
SET column =
(SELECT column
FROM table
WHERE condition)
[ ,

column = (SELECT column FROM table WHERE condition)] [WHERE condition ] ;
QUESTION 88
A SELECT statement can be used to perform these three functions:
1.
Choose rows from a table.

2.
Choose columns from a table

3.
Bring together data that is stored in different tables by creating a link between them.
Which set of keywords describes these capabilities?
A. difference, projection, join
B. selection, projection, join
C. selection, intersection, join
D. intersection, projection, join
E. difference, projection, product

Correct Answer: B Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: choose rows from a table is SELECTION,
Choose column from a table is PROJECTION
Bring together data in different table by creating a link between them is JOIN.

Incorrect answer:
A answer should have SELECTION, PROJECTION and JOIN.
C answer should have SELECTION, PROJECTION and JOIN.
D answer should have SELECTION, PROJECTION and JOIN.
E answer should have SELECTION, PROJECTION and JOIN.

Refer: Introduction to Oracle9i: SQL, Oracle University Study Guide, 1-6

QUESTION 89
See the Exhibit and examine the structure and data in the INVOICE table:
Exhibit:

Which two SQL statements would execute successfully? (Choose two.)
A. SELECT MAX(inv_date),MIN(cust_id) FROM invoice;
B. SELECT AVG(inv_date-SYSDATE),AVG(inv_amt) FROM invoice;
C. SELECT MAX(AVG(SYSDATE-inv_date)) FROM invoice;
D. SELECT AVG(inv_date) FROM invoice;

Correct Answer: AB Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 90
You are currently located in Singapore and have connected to a remote database in Chicago. You issue the following command:
Exhibit:

PROMOTIONS is the public synonym for the public database link for the PROMOTIONS table. What is the outcome?
A. Number of days since the promo started based on the current Chicago data and time
B. Number of days since the promo started based on the current Singapore data and time.
C. An error because the WHERE condition specified is invalid
D. An error because the ROUND function specified is invalid Correct Answer: A

Explanation Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 91
Which is a valid CREATE TABLE statement?
A. CREATE TABLE EMP9$# AS (empid number(2));
B. CREATE TABLE EMP*123 AS (empid number(2));
C. CREATE TABLE PACKAGE AS (packid number(2));
D. CREATE TABLE 1EMP_TEST AS (empid number(2)); Correct Answer: A

Explanation Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: Table names and column names must begin with a letter and be 1-30 characters long.
Characters A-Z,a-z, 0-9, _, $ and # (legal characters but their use is discouraged).

Incorrect answer:
B Non alphanumeric character such as “*” is discourage in Oracle table name.
D Table name must begin with a letter.

Refer: Introduction to Oracle9i: SQL, Oracle University Study Guide, 9-4

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QUESTION 67
Which statements are true regarding system-partitioned tables? (Choose all that apply.)
A. Only a single partitioning key column can be specified.
B. All DML statements must use partition-extended syntax.
C. The same physical attributes must be specified for each partition.
D. Unique local indexes cannot be created on a system-partitioned table.
E. Traditional partition pruning and partitionwise joins are not supported on these tables.

Correct Answer: DE
QUESTION 68
The OPTIMIZER_USE_PLAN_BASELINES parameter is set to TRUE. The optimizer generates a plan for a SQL statement but does not find a matching plan in the SQL plan baseline. Which two operations are performed by the optimizer in this scenario? (Choose two.)
A. The optimizer adds the new plan to the plan history.
B. The optimizer selects the new plan for the execution of the SQL statement.
C. The optimizer adds the new plan to the SQL plan baseline as an accepted plan.
D. The optimizer adds the new plan to the SQL plan baseline but not in the ENABLED state.
E. The optimizer costs each of the accepted plans in the SQL plan baseline and picks the one with the lowest cost.

Correct Answer: AE
QUESTION 69
Which two statements about Oracle Direct Network File System (NFS) are true? (Choose two.)
A. It bypasses the OS file system cache
B. A separate NFS interface is required for use across Linux, UNIX, and Windows platforms.
C. It uses the operating system kernel NFS layer for user tasks and network communication modules.
D. File systems need not be mounted by the kernel NFS system when being served through Direct NFS.
E. Oracle Disk Manager can manage NFS on its own, without using the operating system kernel NFS driver.

Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 70
You are managing an Oracle Database 11 g instance with ASM storage. You lost an ASM disk group
DATA. You have RMAN backup of data as well as ASM metadata backup.
You want to re-create the missing disk group by using the ASMCMD md_restore command. Which of
these methods would you use to achieve this? (Choose all that apply.)

A. Restore metadata in an existing disk group by passing the existing disk group name as an input parameter.
B. Restore the disk group with changed disk group specification, failure group specification, disk group name, and other disk attributes.
C. Restore the disk group with the exact configuration as the backed-up disk group, using the same disk group name, same set of disks, and failure group configurations.
D. Restore the disk group with the exact configuration as the backed-up disk group, using the same disk group name, same set of disks, failure group configurations, and data on the disk group.

Correct Answer: ABC QUESTION 71
Evaluate the following command and Its output:
SQL>SELECT * FROM dba_temp_free_space;
TABLESPACE_NAME TABLESPACE_SIZE ALLOCATED_SPACE FREE_SPACE LMTEMP 250609664

101048576 149561088
Which two statements correctly interpret the output? (Choose two.)

A. FREE_SPACE indicates only the space that is currently unallocated.
B. ALLO CAT ED_S PACE indicates only the space currently allocated and in use.
C. FREE_SPACE indicates only the space that is currently allocated and available for reuse.
D. ALLO CAT ED_S PACE indicates both the space currently allocated and used, and the space that is available for reuse.
E. FREE_SPACE indicates both the space that is currently allocated and available for reuse, and the space that is currently unallocated.
Correct Answer: DE QUESTION 72
In your database, the RESULT_CACHE_MODE parameter has been set to MANUAL in the initialization parameter file.
You issued the following command:
SQL>SELECT /*+ RESULT_CACHE 7 sale_categoiy, sum(sale_amt) FROM sales
GROUP BY sale_categoiy;

Where would the result of this query be stored?

A. PGA
B. large pool
C. shared pool
D. database buffer cache

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 73
You are working on a CATDB database that contains an Oracle Database version 11.1 catalog schema owned by the userRC011. The INST1 database contains an Oracle Database version 10.1 catalog schema owned by the user RCAT10.
You want the RMAN to import metadata for database IDs 1423241 and 1423242, registered in RCAT10, into the recover catalog owned by RC011.
You executed the following RMAN commands:
RMAN> CONNECT CATALOG rco1 1/[email protected] RMAN> IMPORT CATALOG rcat1 0/[email protected];
What happens when you execute the above commands? (Choose all that apply.)
A. They deregister all databases registered in the RCAT10 catalog.
B. They import metadata for all registered databases in the RCAT10 database.
C. They register all the RCATIO-catalog registered databases in the RC011 catalog.
D. They overwrite all stored scripts in the RC011 catalog with the same name as that in the RCAT10 catalog.

Correct Answer: ABC
QUESTION 74
Which three are the valid statements in relation to SQL plan baselines? (Choose three.)
A. The plans can be manually loaded to the SQL plan baseline.
B. The plans in the SQL plan baseline are verified and accepted plans.
C. The plans generated for every SQL statement are stored in the SQL plan baseline by default.
D. The plan baselines are stored temporarily in the memory as long as the database instance is running.
E. For the SQL plan baselines to be accessible to the optimizer, the SYSAUX tablespace must be online.

Correct Answer: ABE
QUESTION 75
You run the SQL Tuning Advisor (STA) to tune a SQL statement that is part of a fixed SQL plan baseline. The STA generates a SQL profile for the SQL statement, which recommends that you accept the profile. Which statement is true when you accept the suggested SQL profile?
A. The tuned plan is not added to the SQL plan baseline.
B. The tuned plan is added to the fixed SQL plan baseline as a fixed plan.
C. The tuned plan is added to the fixed SQL plan baseline as a nonfixed plan.
D. The tuned plan is added to a new nonfixed SQL plan baseline as a nonfixed plan.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 76
Which three statements correctly describe the features of the I/O calibration process? (Choose three.)
A. Only one I/O calibration process can run at a time
B. It automates the resource allocation for the Automated Maintenance Tasks.
C. It improves the performance of the performance-critical sessions while running.
D. It can be used to estimate the maximum number of l/Os and maximum latency time for the system.
E. The latency time is computed only when the TIMED_STATISTICS initialization parameter is set to TRUE.
Correct Answer: ADE
QUESTION 77
Which two statements about the SQL Management Base (SMB) are true? (Choose two.)
A. It contains only SQL profiles generated by SQL Tuning Advisor.
B. It stores plans generated by the optimizer using a stored outline.
C. It is part of the data dictionary and stored in the SYSAUXtablespace.
D. It is part of the data dictionary and stored in the SYSTEM tablespace.
E. It contains the statement log, the plan history, plan baselines, and SQL profiles.

Correct Answer: CE
QUESTION 78
Sales details are being stored on a daily basis in the SALES_2007 table. A large amount of data is added to the table daily. To save disk space, you issued the following command:
ALTER TABLE sales_2007 COMPRESS FOR ALL OPERATIONS; What would be the outcome of this command?
A. It produces an error because data already exists in the table.
B. It produces an error because compression can be enabled at table creation only.
C. It compresses all data added or modified henceforth but the existing data in the table is not compressed immediately.
D. It immediately compresses all existing data as well as new data, resulting from either fresh additions or modifications to existing data.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 79
Which client requests to the database can be captured as a part of the workload capture? (Choose all that apply.)
A. flashback query
B. distributed transactions
C. logging in and logging out of sessions
D. all DDL statements having bind variables
E. direct path load of data from external files

Correct Answer: CD
QUESTION 80
Which two statements are true regarding the SQL Repair Advisor? (Choose two.)
A. The SQL Repair Advisor can be invoked to tune the performance of the regressed SQL statements.
B. The SQL Repair Advisor can be invoked even when the incident is not active for a SQL statement crash.
C. The SQL Repair Advisor is invoked by the Health Monitor when it encounters the problematic SQL statement.
D. The DBA can invoke the SQL Repair Advisor when he or she receives an alert generated when a SQL statement crashes and an incident is created in the ADR.
Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 81
Which setting enables the baselines by default in Oracle Database 11g?
A. setting the STATISTICS_LEVEL parameter to TYPICAL
B. adding filters to the Automatic Database Diagnostic Monitor (ADDM)
C. enabling Automated Maintenance Task using Oracle Enterprise Manager
D. setting the OPTIMIZER_USE_PENDING_STATISTICS parameter to TRUE
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 82
Which two activities are NOT supported by the Data Recovery Advisor? (Choose two.)
A. Diagnose and repair a data file corruption offline.
B. Diagnose and repair a data file corruption online.
C. Diagnose and repair failures on a standby database.
D. Recover from failures in the Real Application Cluster (RAC) environment.
Correct Answer: CD
QUESTION 83
In which cases is reference partitioning effective in enhancing performance?
A. It is effective only in partition pruning.
B. It is effective only in partitionwise joins provided that the query predicates are different from the partitioning key.
C. It is effective in both partition pruning as well as partitionwise joins provided that the query predicates are identical to the partitioning key.
D. It is effective in both partition pruning as well as partitionwise joins irrespective of whether the query predicates are different from or identical to the partitioning key.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 84
Your database initialization parameter file has the following entry:
SEC_MAX_FAILED_LOGIN_ATTEMPTS=3
Which statement is true regarding this setting?
A. It is enforced only if the password profile is enabled for the user.
B. It locks the user account after the specified number of attempts.
C. It drops the connection after the specified number of login attempts fail for any user.
D. It drops the connection after the specified number of login attempts fail only for users who have the SYSDBA privilege.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 85
Which statement is true for enabling Enterprise Manager Support Workbench in Oracle Database 11g to upload the physical files generated by Incident Packaging Service (IPS) to MetaLink?
A. The database must be running in ARCHIVELOG mode.
B. No special setup is required, and the feature is enabled by default.
C. The path for the Automatic Diagnostic Repository (ADR) must be configured with the DIAGNOSTIC_DEST initialization parameter.
D. The Enterprise Manager Support Workbench can be enabled only if the background process manageability monitor (MMON) is configured.
E. Select the Enable option in the Oracle Configuration Manager Registration window during the installation of the Oracle Database 11 g software, provide valid MetaLink credentials and select license agreement.
Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 86
Which two statements are true regarding Health Monitor checks in Oracle Database 11g? (Choose two.)
A. Health Monitor checks are always initiated manually when there is some critical error.
B. Health Monitor checks can be used to scan the contents of the redo log and archive logs for accessibility and corruption
C. Health Monitor checks can be used to verify the contents of dictionary entries for each dictionary object and fix it automatically.
D. Health Monitor checks can be used to verify the integrity of database files and report failures if these files are inaccessible, corrupt or inconsistent.
Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 87
a

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QUESTION 16
Which payload is required in all configuration profiles?
A. Passcode
B. Certificate
C. General
D. Restrictions

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 17
Previously, you used a keyboard shortcut to get your computer to boot from a default image on a NetInstall server. Recently, the administrator selected a different image as the default NetInstall image. What key(s) should you press during startup to force your computer to boot from the new default image?
A. N
B. Control-N
C. Command-N
D. Option-N
E. Command-Shift-N

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 18
While creating a customized network disk image, which Automator action should you add to set the computer name for computers that are restored using the image?
A. Add Configuration Profiles
B. Apply System Configuration Settings
C. Bless NetBoot Image Folder
D. Define Image Source
E. Define Multi-Volume NetRestore
F. Define NetRestore Source
G. Filter Clients by MAC Address
H. Filter Computer Models

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 19
Your Mac was stolen. Fortunately, it’s managed by the Profile Manager service on the server at manage.pretendco.com. In a browser, what URL to access Profile Manager to wipe your Mac?
A. https://wipe.manage.pretendco.com/
B. https://manage.pretendco.com/wipe/
C. https://manage.pretendco.com/mydevices/
D. https://mydevices.manage.pretendco.com/

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 20
What is the file extension for the complete network boot image created by System Image Utility?
A. .image
B. .netboot
C. .nbi
D. .dmg

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 21
While creating a customized network disk image, which Automator action should you add to the workflow to restrict which computer types start up using the image?
A. Add Configuration Profiles
B. Apply System Configuration Settings
C. Bless NetBoot Image Folder
D. Customize Package Selection
E. Define Multi-Volume NetRestore
F. Define NetRestore Source
G. Filter Clients by MAC Address
H. Filter Computer Models

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 22
What’s the format of a configuration profile?
A. Tab-delimited text
B. Comma-delimited text
C. RTF
D. XML
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 23
Which THREE reports can Apple Remote Desktop run by default? (Choose THREE)
A. CPU Usage
B. Software Serial Number
C. Software Version
D. Application Usage
E. Software Difference
F. Network Usage
Correct Answer: CDF
QUESTION 24
Which tool do you use to turn on and configure the Profile Manager service?
A. Profile Monitor
B. Server Admin
C. Workgroup Manager
D. Server app

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 25
What’s the earliest version of OS X that can be installed on a client computer so that it can use the Caching service on a computer running OS X Server?
A. MacOSXv10.6.8
B. OSXV10.7
C. OS Xv10.7.4
D. OSXv10.8
E. OSXv10.8.2
F. OSXv10.9

Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 26
Which feature is available in the Software Update service in OS X Server?
A. The ability to restrict client computers to download Apple software updates from your software update server only
B. The ability to create and distribute custom software update packages to client computers, along with Apple software updates
C. The ability to automatically download all Apple software updates but serve only selected updates to client computers
D. The ability to restrict client computers’ access to Apple software updates based on client computer Ethernet addresses

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 27
Which application do you use to configure and monitor the Software Update service on a computer running OS X Server?
A. Server app
B. A web browser
C. Workgroup Manager
D. Profile Manager

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 28
Which URL should you send to users so they can enroll their devices with your Profile Manager server at manage.pretendco.com?
A. https://profilemanager.manage.pretendco.com
B. https://mydevices.manage.pretendco.com
C. https://manage.pretendco.com/profilemanager
D. https://manage.pretendco.com/mydevices

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 29
You have configured a computer with OS X Server to act as a Caching server. Which networking requirement must be in place so that client computers can use the Caching server?

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Question: 15
What are the two attributes of an Event in an OSGi Event Admin Service?
A. Title and options.
B. Topic and Properties.
C. Publisher and Subscriber.
D. Listener and Filters.

Answer: D
Question: 16
When does a RESTful request with a suffix get cached?
A. They never get cached.
B. Only if contains additional query parameters.
C. Only if it doesn’t contain query parameters.
D. They always get cached.

Answer: C
You are working with two components: Component A and Component B. Component B has a slightly different behavior than component A. What is the best way to reuse the default script of component A in component B?
A. Set a property in component B called sling:resourceSuperType with the path to component A and omit the default script in component B
B. Set a property in component B called sling:resourceSuperType with the path to component A and create an empty default script in component B
C. Set a property in component B called sling:resourceSuperType with the path to component A and include the default script of component A in the default script in component B
D. Copy the default script from component A into component B

Answer: A
Question: 18
What does an Item represent in a JCR repository hierarchical content model diagram?
A. The value to be stored
B. A Node or a Property
C. The UUID of Node
D. The path to a Node

Answer: B
Question: 19
Which access control policies does the JCR Session define to manage nodes?
A. Privileges to access the JCR workspace.
B. Permissions to access the JCR repository.
C. Capabilities to traverse the JCR repository.
D. A list of node locks in the JCR workspace.

Answer: A

How do you delete a property inside a Node object?
A. node.removeProperty(“propertyName”);
B. String propertyA = “”; node.setProperty(“propertyName”, propertyA);
C. String propertyA = null; node.setProperty(“propertyName”, propertyA);
D. node.delete(“propertyName”);
Answer: C

Question: 21
You are creating a repository-based OSGi configuration. Which name should the factory configuration node have?
A. Append “-factory” to the configuration node name.
B. Start the node name with “config-” and end it with “-<numeric_value>”.
C. Append “-<identifier>” to the name, where identifier can be any unique name.
D. Start the node name with “factory-“.
Answer: C

Question: 22
How are the resources called that are passed through a workflow?
A. WorkItem.
B. Transaction.
C. Lifecycle.
D. Payload.
Answer: D

Question: 23
You want to prompt a workflow user for information during the processing of a workflow step. Where is the content that the workflow user entered stored?
A. As part of the page.
B. As part of the workflow model.
C. As part of the workflow instance.
D. As part of the design.

Answer: A

What is the main purpose of the CQ HTML client library property that is called categories?
A. To easily find client libraries when the user searches categories in the author environment.
B. To uniquely name a group of client libraries to be included in templates or components and to reference dependencies to other client libraries.
C. To link the categories name with the component name, so that the client library can be included automatically into the component.
D. To define the type of files that the client library contains, e.g. JavaScript and/or CSS.

Answer: B
Question: 25
What is the purpose of the Impersonators tab within the User settings?
A. Add one or more users that are allowed to take over all permissions from the current user.
B. Add one or more users that are inheriting the permissions from the current user.
C. Add one or more users that can act on the behalf of the current user.
D. Add one or more users that the current user can act on their behalf.

Answer: C
Question: 26
Which OSGi configuration settings take over precedence on start-up?
A. Any .config files from <cq-installation-dir>/crx-quickstart/launchpad/config/* on the local file system.
B. Repository nodes with type sling:OsgiConfig under /libs/*/install.
C. Repository nodes with type sling:OsgiConfig under /apps/*/config.
D. Repository nodes with type sling:OsgiConfig under /libs/*/config.

Answer: C
Question: 27
Which tab in the Apache Felix Web Console displays the list of all the users that are logged in to the repository?
A. Authenticator tab.
B. CRX Login Tokens tab.
C. Recent Request tab.
D. System Information tab.
Answer: B

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QUESTION 20
Which two choices will allow you to apply a skin to a component at compile time? (Choose two.)
A. Use the setStyle method in a Script block
B. Use the skin attribute in the MXML used to instantiate the component
C. Use the skinClass attribute in the MXML used to instantiate the component
D. Use the skin property in the CSS attached to the application
E. Use the skinClass style in the CSS attached to the application

Correct Answer: CE QUESTION 21
Which two classes can be extended to create a skin? (Choose two.)
A. ComponentSkin
B. Skin
C. SkinSpark
D. SkinClass
E. SparkSkin

Correct Answer: BE QUESTION 22
Which MXML attribute specifies the visual implementation that a Spark component will display?
A. skin
B. skinClass
C. layout
D. displayClass

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 23
You have created a SparkSkin class for a Button component called ButtonSkin in the skins package. Which MXML statement correctly applies this skin class to a Spark Button?
A. <s:Button skinClass=”ButtonSkin” />
B. <s:Button styleName=”ButtonSkin” />
C. <s:Button skinClass=”skins.ButtonSkin”/>
D. <s:Button class=”skins.ButtonSkin” />

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 24
You want to animate the x, y, and alpha properties of an object in your application. Which Spark Effect class can handle animating multiple properties?
A. Animate
B. AnimateProperty
C. AnimateFilter
D. AddAction

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 25
Which declaration properly sets the x property in a state named detail?
A. detail.x=”0″
B. detail:x=”0″
C. x:detail=”0″
D. x.detail=”0″

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 26
Which two approaches could be used to show a component only within a specified Spark view state? (Choose two)
A. Set the includeIn attribute on that component’s MXML declaration and specify the name of the state
B. Set the excludeFrom attribute on that component’s MXML declaration and specify the names of all other states
C. Use the AddChild class within the State’s MXML declaration, and specify the component declaration within AddChild
D. Set the state attribute on that component’s MXML declaration and specify the value of the state
E. Set the includeIn attribute within the root element of the component

Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 27
You want to invoke a Spark effect with the id “myEffect” when a button is clicked. Which syntax is correct?
A. <s:Button click=”myEffect.play();”/>
B. <s:Button clickEffect=”{myEffect}”/>
C. <s:Button mouseDownEffect=”{myEffect}”/>
D. <s:Button click=”myEffect.end();myEffect.start();”/>

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 28
You want to position a group such that it is positioned in the middle of its parent both vertically and horizontally. Which syntax is correct?
A. <s:Group position=”center” />
B. <s:Group center=”true” />
C. <s:Group horizontalCenter=”0″ verticalCenter=”0″ />
D. <s:Group horizontalCenter=”true” verticalCenter=”true” />

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 29
You want to use constraints to control layout of UI components within Spark containers. Which is required?
A. The Spark container must be a subclass of SkinnableContainer
B. The Spark container must use BasicLayout
C. The Spark container must have the layout attribute set to “absolute”
D. The UI components must be Spark components, not MX components

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 30
You have a ViewStack with multiple children. You want all children to be created before the application is available for use. You are using the Spark NavigatorContent container to define all of the children of the ViewStack. Which setting will you need to specify?
A. Set creationPolicy to all on the ViewStack
B. Set creationPolicy to all on the ViewStack and each of the NavigatorContent children
C. Set creationPolicy to auto on the ViewStack
D. None. This is the default behavior
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 31
You want to use a Spark item renderer. What must you do?
A. Define a component, either externally or inline, derived from any Spark container
B. Define a component, either externally or inline, derived from the ItemRenderer class
C. Define an external component derived from a Spark control
D. Define an inline component derived from a Spark control

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 32
Which three are valid ItemRenderer implementation approaches in Flex? (Choose three.)
A. superclass
B. inline
C. component
D. drop-in
E. interface

Correct Answer: BCD QUESTION 33
You have a List control that is populated with product XML data. The product data includes the name and price of the product. You want the name and the price values to appear concatenated in the label field of the List. You do NOT want to affect the underlying data. The name and price values are separate nodes in the XML.
Which two approaches could be used to achieve the desired result (Choose two)?
A. Create a custom ItemRenderer to display the data
B. Use the labelFunction property of the List control
C. Bind the dataProvider property of the List to an E4X statement with the XML
D. Specify “{name} {price}” in the labelField property of the List control
E. Create a custom style for the List control to display the data

Correct Answer: AB QUESTION 34
You have created the class MyComponent in the components package. Given the following code:
<?xml version=”1.0″ encoding=”utf-8″?>
<s:Group xmlns:fx=”http://ns.adobe.com/mxml/2009″
xmlns:s=”library://ns.adobe.com/flex/spark”
xmlns:mx=”library://ns.adobe.com/flex/mx”
xmlns:comp=”components.*”>
<!– Put Component Here –>
</s:Group>

Which is a correct way to instantiate the MyComponent class using MXML?

A. <s:MyComponent />
B. <comp:MyComponent />
C. <components:MyComponent />
D. <s:Component class=”components.MyComponent” />

Correct Answer: B QUESTION 35
For which uses cases should MXML be used rather than ActionScript (Choose two.)
A. Creating a direct subclass of UIComponent
B. Adding a control to an existing container type

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QUESTION 21
You have been asked by the HR Manager to define Oracle Alert to show all employees terminated in the
past six months.
Identify three pieces of information that is required to define this Alert. (Choose three.)

A. actions that you want Alert to perform
B. frequency with which you want to run this Alert
C. a SQL statement that retrieves terminated employees
D. name of the concurrent program to be run after Alert runs
E. database table name, which stores employee Information to specify In the Event Details section

Correct Answer: ABC
QUESTION 22
When a quotation is due to expire within the number of days you specified, then you receive the following message in the Notifications Summary window: Quotations active or approaching expiration: [number]. Where is this [number] set up in the system?
A. in the Quote Header – Warning Delay field
B. in the Systems Profile Options – PO: Quote Warning Delay
C. in Purchasing Options on the ‘Default’ Tab – Quote Warning Delay field
D. Lookup Code, which is an (LOV) list of Values, in the Quote Header – Warning Delay field

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 23
Select three true statements regarding the Workflow Document Creation prerequisite (PO Create Documents workflow). (Choose three.)
A. Catalog quote must not be expired, but may be inactive.
B. Supplier and supplier site are required on the requisition related to a contract purchase order.
C. If a system Item is not associated with the requisition line, a supplier item number is required.
D. Sourcing rules are required If the requisition originates in Oracle Purchasing or {Procurement.
E. No source document is required for the PO Create Documents workflow to create a release or purchase order.
F. The only time an approved supplier list is required is if your source document is a blanket purchase agreement and you are using a system item.

Correct Answer: BCF
QUESTION 24
Consider the following setups:
1) Purchasing System Option enforce Full Lot Quantity * Mandatory
2) Rounding Factor at the item level = 75%
3) Unit of Issue at the item level = Dozen
Select two statements that are true. (Choose two.)

A. If the user enters 6 each on an internal requisition, the quantity will be rounded to 0,
B. If the user enters 6 each on a purchase requisition, the quantity will be rounded to 0,
C. If the user enters 11 each on an internal requisition, the quantity will be rounded to 12 each,
D. If the user enters 11 each on a purchase requisition, the quantity will be rounded to 12 each,
E. An advisory message suggesting rounding and a suggested rounding quantity are displayed, but you can override this.

Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 25
Requisition Import groups all requisitions with the same group code under the same requisition header. If
no group code is specified, Requisition Import groups requisitions according to five types of groups that
can be optionally passed to the Requisition Import process. Identify them.
(Choose five.)

A. Group by Item.
B. Group by price.
C. Group by buyer.
D. Group by UOM.
E. Group by location.
F. Group by supplier.
G. Group by description.
H. Group all requisition lines under one requisition header

Correct Answer: ACEFH
QUESTION 26
While defining Approval Groups, which three objects can you define authorization rules for? (Choose three.)
A. Buyer
B. Location
C. Commodity
D. Item Category
E. Account Range
F. Document Amount
Correct Answer: BDE
QUESTION 27
Which two statements are true regarding approval workflows In Purchasing? (Choose two.)
A. You can limit approval levels in an Approval Group by Item Category.
B. Approval routing can cut across legal entities within a business group.
C. A Purchase Requisition and a Standard Purchase Order cannot have different approval levels.
D. The Hierarchy Forward Method routes the document to the first approver in the hierarchy who has the required approval limits for that document.
E. During Position Hierarchy setup, a constraint that must be considered is that the Subordinate must not be the manager of the Position Holder in their regular job roles.
Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 28
Which three are true about the Evaluated Receipt Settlement (ERS) proems? (Choose three)
A. Invoice is always created for the supplier site.
B. Invoice is always created In unapproved status,
C. Invoice currency is always defaulted from the purchase order currency.
D. Payment currency is always defaulted from the purchase order currency, E. Payment terms are always defaulted from the purchase order payment terms.
F. Amount is always determined by multiplying the Quantity received by the purchase order item unit price.

Correct Answer: BCF
QUESTION 29
There are four tabbed regions In the Supplier Item Catalog window (Negotiated Sources, Prior Purchases, Sourcing Rules, and Requisition Templates), but function security can be used to determine whether a user will be able to see all of them. In release R12, where is the requisition setup option that determines which of the tabbed regions is the default?
A. in the Profile Options setup
B. in the Lookup Codes setup
C. in the Document Types setup
D. in the Purchasing Options setup
E. in the Expense Account Rules setup
F. in the Requisition Preferences setup

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 30
Price Tolerance (%) on the Purchasing Options Control section refers to the percentage by which ___________.
A. the purchase order line price cannot exceed a price quote
B. the invoice price cannot exceed the purchase order line price
C. the purchase order line price cannot exceed the blanket amount
D. the supplier catalog price cannot exceed purchase order line price
E. the purchase order line price cannot exceed the requisition line price

Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 31
Select three statements that are true regarding the clearing account. (Choose three.)
A. An asset clearing account can also be used as a project clearing account.
B. You can have a maximum of one asset clearing account per asset category.
C. For each payables document you create, you can have a separate cash clearing account.
D. You can use Cash in Transit report in cash management only if cash clearing account and cash account are separate.
E. You use a separate cash clearing account and cash account to have visibility of the Cash in Transit on the balance sheet.

Correct Answer: BCE
QUESTION 32
Your client has the following requirements for electronic delivery of purchasing documents to indirect spend vendors:
1.
No third-party software should be needed; the built-in Oracle functionality should be used.

2.
No special supplier set up should be required; the supplier should need minimal resources to participate.

3.
No requirement for audit trail or confirmation. The best method within standard functionality is _____.
A. EDI
B. XML
C. Email
D. Facsimile
E. Direct interface

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 33
A Blanket Purchase Agreement Is created with the following cumulative price break:
Quantity > 0: Unit Price = $5 Quantity > 20: Unit Price = $4
Single line, single distribution releases are created as follows:
Release# 1 with quantity 15 Release# 2 with quantity 10
What are the unit price values on the releases?
A. Release1 $5, Release2 $5
B. Release1 $4, Release2 $4
C. Release1 $5, Release2 $4
D. It depends on the price tolerance for the line.
E. Release1 $5, Release2 $4 for a quantity of 5 and $5 for a quantity of 5

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 34
You match an unordered receipt to_____.
A. a purchase order shipment from any organization
B. a Return Material Authorization (RMA. from any organization
C. a purchase order shipment from the same organization for any supplier
D. a purchase release shipment from the same organization for the same supplier
E. a finally closed purchase order shipment from the same organization for the same supplier

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 35
Which four sources of information default records Into the Supplier Header? (Choose four.)
A. Invoice Options
B. System Options
C. Financial Options
D. Payables Options
E. Receiving Options
F. Purchasing Options
G. Approved supplier list

Correct Answer: CDEF
QUESTION 36
While implementing Oracle Payables, Oracle Purchasing, and Oracle General Ledger at GLO Ltd., you are informed by the accountant that the AP Clearing Account balance Is Increasing daily. To solve this issue, what would you check in the accounting process?
A. whether journals are posted regularly
B. whether suppliers are sequentially numbered
C. whether the month-end accrual process is run
D. whether invoices are matched to purchase orders and receipts
E. whether Oracle Payables transactions are reconciled with Oracle General Ledger

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 37
Consider the following scenario for inventory item A: 1) Standard Cost $10 Purchase Order Line Price: $12, Purchase Order Line Quantity: 10 2) Receipt Routing: Direct Delivery You created a receipt of 8 units for item A. Which option correctly describes the effect on different accounts?
A. Debit Material Account $80; Credit Inventory AP Accrual Account $96; Debit Invoice Price Variance Account $16; No effect on Purchase Price Variance Account
B. Debit Material Account $80; Credit Inventory AP Accrual Account $96; No effect on Invoice Price Variance Account; Debit Purchase Price Variance Account $16
C. Debit Material Account $80; Credit Inventory AP Accrual Account $80; No effect on Invoice Price Variance Account; Debit Purchase Price Variance Account $16
D. Credit Material Account $80; Debit Inventory AP Accrual Account $96; No effect on Invoice Price Variance Account; Credit Purchase Price Variance Account $16
E. Debit Material Account $96; Credit Inventory AP Accrual Account $96; No effect on Invoice Price Variance Account; Credit Purchase Price Variance Account $16

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 38
Which three are valid setup options for purchasing document types? (Choose three.)
A. Archive On
B. Forward Method
C. Default Hierarchy
D. Security Access Level
E. Can Change Hierarchy
F. Owner Cannot Approve
Correct Answer: ABC
QUESTION 39
Consider the following scenario for Inventory Item B.
1) Standard Cost: $10 2) Purchase Order Line Quantity: 100; Purchase Order Line Price: $12 3) Match Approval Level: Three-Way Matching; Receipt Routing: Direct Delivery 4) Received Quantity: 40 5) Invoice Price: $14; Invoiced Quantity: 20
Which option describes the effect on different accounts correctly?
A. Debit Material Account $480; Credit Inventory AP Accrual Account $240; Debit Invoice Price Variance Account $40; Debit Purchase Price Variance Account $0; Credit AP Liability Account $280
B. Debit Material Account $400; Credit Inventory AP Accrual Account $240; Debit Invoice Price Variance Account $40; Debit Purchase Price Variance Account $80; Credit AP Liability Account $280
C. Debit Material Account $400 ; Credit Inventory AP Accrual Account $240; Debit Invoice Price Variance Account $80; Debit Purchase price Variance Account $40; Credit AP Liability Account $280
D. Credit Material Account $400; Debit Inventory AP Accrual Account $240; Credit Invoice Price Variance Account $40; Credit Purchase Price Variance Account $80; Debit AP Liability Account $280
Correct Answer: B QUESTION 40
Identify four ways in which sourcing rules significantly improve efficiency of procurement processes. (Choose four.)
A. Allowing you to transfer from one supplier site to the other, if It is a global supplier.
B. Assigning sourcing rules at the item or item-organization level using an assignment set.
C. Giving you the ability to identify the priority to be given to the local sites of a global supplier.
D. Sourcing the highest percentage of an item from only those suppliers who ranked the highest.
E. Allowing you to identify the most efficient shipping method to be used for a specific sourcing rule,
F. Automatically allocating planned orders across different suppliers based on predetermined criteria such as rank and percentage.
G. Allowing the implementer to define a single sourcing rule for an item at the Item Master level, to cater to all inventory organizations.

Correct Answer: BCEF
QUESTION 41
Select three true statements about the default of sourcing Information for requisitions and purchase orders. (Choose three.)
A. The item price on a requisition can be defaulted from the Item attribute setup.
B. Buyer name cannot be defaulted onto a requisition, but you can assign notes to a buyer.
C. You can modify the last name of the requester defaulting from the Human Resources employee record.
D. You must use the Transfer From assignment on a sourcing rule for Item Information to default onto an Internal requisition.
E. When you assign a commodity to an approved supplier list, you do not need to assign the individual items in the commodity.
F. You can have the same item on a quotation and a blanket agreement but the supplier or supplier site must be different, so that It can default onto a requisition line.

Correct Answer: ADE
QUESTION 42
You receive a request to create a new menu. Instead of creating a new menu, you modify an existing menu and save It to a different User Menu Name. What happens after saving the menu with a different User Menu Name?
A. There will be two menus.
B. The original menu is disabled.
C. The new menu will not contain any functions.
D. The new menu will overwrite the original menu.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 43
A Global Single Instance (GS1) provides the global enterprise with a single, complete data model, Identify three features In Oracle Business Suite Release 12 that support a 6SL (Choose three.)
A. maintenance of third-party applications
B. automation of standardized documents and audit processes
C. decentralization of operations by regions, divisions, or processes
D. consolidation of data centers and lowering administrative overhead
E. capture of statutory and customary local requirements In the same database
Correct Answer: BDE
QUESTION 44
Identify two types of regions in Daily Business Intelligence. (Choose two.)
A. menu
B. table
C. folder
D. report
E. graph

Correct Answer: BE
QUESTION 45
A global company uses Oracle E-Business Suite Release 12 for Its operations In the U.S. and Canada. The company Is now adding Mexico to the Oracle E-Business Suite Release 12 Applications. As a system administrator, you need to set the MO: Operating Unit profile option for Mexico. Customer is not using Multi-Org Access Control.
You set the MO: Operating Unit profile option at the ____level.
A. Site
B. User
C. Application
D. Responsibility

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 46
Identify the sequence of steps to determine the Descriptive Flexfield name on a form in Oracle E- Business
Suite Release 12 with Diagnostics enabled.
1) Select Help > Diagnostics > Examine.
2) The username of the DFF appears in the Value field.
3) Select the DFF name from the list of values in the “Field” field.
4) Select the “$DESCRIPTIVE_FUEXFIELD$B value for the Block name.

A. 1, 2, 3, 4
B. 1 4, 3, 2
C. 1, 3, 4, 2
D. 4, 3, 1, 2
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 47
Which two parameters facilitate cross organization reports in a Multi-Org environment? (Choose two.)
A. Ledger
B. Legal Entity
C. Operating Unit
D. Reporting Level
E. Reporting Context

Correct Answer: DE
QUESTION 48
XYZ Corp. has operations In the U.S. and Canada. Within Canada, It has two separate Divisions due to Statutory requirements: one In Quebec and another In Ontario. How would you define the organization structure for XYZ Corp. from the Information given above?
A. two Ledgers, two Legal Entitles, and two Operating Units
B. two Ledgers, two Legal Entities, and three Operating Units
C. two Ledgers, three Legal Entities, and two Operating Units
D. two Ledgers, three Legal Entities, and three Operating Units
E. three Ledgers, three Legal Entities, and three Operating Units

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 49
Identify the four resources that Oracle Technology Network (OTM) provides. (Choose four.)
A. sample codes
B. Bug Database
C. technical articles
D. product downloads
E. product documentation
F. Applications Electronic Technical Reference Manuals (eTRM)

Correct Answer: ACDE
QUESTION 50
ABC Corp, has the following Organization Structure
1) Legal Entity: A 2) Operating Units: B end C 3) Balancing Entitles: 10. 20. and 30
Identify three correct statements regarding the Balancing Entity. (Choose three.)
A. Each Balancing Entity mutt balance within itself.
B. There can be multiple Balancing Entitles within an Operating Unit
C. Balancing Entity is the lowest postable unit in the Chart of Accounts.
D. Balancing Entitles can be automatically secured at the Legal Entity level.
E. Balancing Entities can be secured at the Operating Unit level through Security Rules

Correct Answer: ABE
QUESTION 51
Identify the two benefits of using Multi-Org Access Control. (Choose two.)
A. View asset information across multiple asset books
B. Restrict access to users based on their Organization assignment!
C. Submit and view data across different ledgers using a single responsibility.
D. Enter Payables Invoices for different Operating Units using a single responsibility.
E. View Consolidated requisitions across Operating Units using a single responsibility
Correct Answer: DE
QUESTION 52
Which two options would you use to restrict the functionality provided by a responsibility? (Choose two.)
A. creating an appropriate role
B. creating an appropriate group
C. constructing a new menu hierarchy
D. defining rules to exclude specific functions
Correct Answer: CD
QUESTION 53
A Ledger is a financial reporting entity. What is new in Oracle E-Business Suite Release 12 that facilitates generation of accounting entries?
A. Ledger
B. Chart of Accounts
C. Multi-Org Structure
D. Accounting Convention
E. Financial Accounting Calendar

Correct Answer: D

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30 DRAG DROP
Click the Task button. Place the commands next to the functions they perform.

Answer: Question No : 31

Which statement is true about the difference between a process and a thread?
A. A process and a thread are the same, there is no major difference.
B. A thread is another name for the child of a system-related process.
C. A thread must have two processes to be able to run on multiple CPU cores.
D. A multi-threaded process can run on multiple CPU cores.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Question No : 32
While troubleshooting a network printing problem, you notice that the printer service is not listening for requests. Which file should you check to make sure the printer service is not missing or commented out?
A. /etc/default/printer.conf
B. /etc/inetd.conf
C. /etc/hosts
D. /etc/networks
Answer: B
Explanation:
Question No : 33 DRAG DROP
Click the Task button. Place each network configuration file next to its description.

Answer: Question No : 34

As the system administrator you need to add a default route to the routing table. Which command should you use?
A. route add network 192.168.0.0 1
B. route add net 192.168.0.1 192.168.1.1 1
C. route add host 192.168.0.1 192.168.1.1 1
D. route add default 192.168.0.1 1
Answer: D
Explanation:
Question No : 35
NTP should be configured and activated on all servers running HP-UX 11i v3 to enable which function?
A. network transport protocol
B. network tuning to maximize performance
C. synchronized time between servers
D. network transactions processing
Answer: C
Explanation:
Question No : 36
Which HP-UX command can be used to verify a network interface card (NIC) is enabled?
A. ping
B. nwmgr
C. arp
D. nslookup
Answer: B
Explanation:
Question No : 37
Which tool is used to verify CIFS operation?
A. cifsadmin
B. smbclient
C. testparm
D. cifsdadm
Answer: B
Explanation:
Question No : 38
What do you use to list clients that have mounted exported file systems? (Select two.)
A. showmount -a
B. more /etc/mounts
C. mount -v
D. more /etc/rmtab
E. more /etc/nfstab
Answer: A,D
Explanation:
Question No : 39
Which file contains configuration parameters that can be used to enable or disable AutoFS on an HP-UX 11i v3 system?
A. /etc/nfsconf
B. /etc/automount.conf
C. /etc/netconf
D. /etc/rc.config.d/nfsconf
Answer: D
Explanation:
Question No : 40
How is IP multiplexing implemented on an HP-UX host?
A. by binding the same IP address to multiple network interfaces
B. by binding more than one IP address to a single network interface
C. by binding more than one MAC address to a single network interface
D. by increasing throughput on the network interface
Answer: B
Explanation: Question No : 41
When troubleshooting a disk problem, which HP-UX 11i v3 command correlates a LUN’s device special file (DSF) with its hardware path?
A. scsiutil
B. iofind
C. scsimgr
D. ioinit
Answer: C
Explanation:
Question No : 42
What does the command ch_rc do?
A. changes the chroot to the current directory
B. lists, adds or modifies parameters of /etc/rc.config.d
C. alters the permissions of root directory
D. sets the default values to the content of /etc/rc.config.d
Answer: B
Explanation:
Question No : 43
If your organization’s security policy prohibits web service on production servers, you can disable the HP System Management Homepage (SMH) web interface entirely with which commands or actions? (Select two.)
A. smhstartconfig -a off -b off
B. /sbin/init.d/hpsmh stop and vi /etc/rc.config.d/hpsmh
C. /sbin/init.d/smhconfig stop
D. smhconfig -a off -b off
Answer: A,B Explanation:
Question No : 44
Which command is used to list device file details?
A. lsdev
B. insf -e
C. lssf <special file>
D. lsf -a
Answer: C
Explanation:
Question No : 45
Which statement is true about dynamically disabling swap devices in an HP-UX 11i v3 system?
A. You use swapoff /dev/vg01/swapvol.
B. You are able to do this in VxFS v4 or later.
C. You cannot disable them dynamically.
D. You use swapon -d /dev/vg01/swapvol.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Question No : 46
Which directory keeps a backup of the kernel configuration that was created during the last OS install?
A. /stand/nextboot/
B. /stand/last_install/
C. /stand/newconfig/
D. /stand/backup/
Answer: B
Explanation:
Question No : 47
Which steps are necessary to use /etc/shadow on a server running HP-UX 11i v3?
A. Install the ShadowPassword product; run /usr/sbin/pwck; run /usr/sbin/pwconv.
B. Run /usr/sbin/pwck; run /usr/sbin/pwconv; restart pwgrd.
C. Run /usr/sbin/pwck; run /usr/sbin/pwconv.
D. Run /usr/sbin/pwck; run /usr/sbin/pwconv; convert to trusted system using SAM.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Question No : 48 DRAG DROP
Click the Task button. Match each backup/archive tool with its operation.

Answer: Question No : 49

The following message is displayed while attempting to unmount the /data file system: # umount /data umount: cannot unmount /data : Device busy Which command is used to determine which user is causing the file system to be busy?
A. bdf /data
B. fuser -cu /data
C. showmount /data
D. who /data
Answer: B
Explanation:
Question No : 50
What is the path of the EFI operating system loader for HP-UX boot disks?
A. \EFI\HPUX\HPUX.EFI
B. \EFI\HPUX.EFI
C. \EFI\OS\HPUX.EFI
D. \EFI\HPUX\AUTO
Answer: A
Explanation: Question No : 51
Which command is used to determine which versions of LVM are supported on your system?
A. lvmadm -t
B. lvcreate -L
C. lvmadm -v
D. lvcreate -l
Answer: A
Explanation:
Question No : 52
What happens when HP SIM is used to launch a tool?
A. Authorizations are configured in HP SIM.
Users are authenticated using PAM on the HP SIM server.

B. Authorizations are configured in HP SIM.
Users are authenticated using the internal user database of HP SIM.

C. Authorizations are configured in Select Access.
Users are authenticated using the internal user database of HP SIM.

D. Authorizations are derived from operating system login account permissions.
Users are authenticated using PAM on the HP SIM server.

Answer: A
Explanation:
Question No : 53
What can an administrator do to optimize the performance of an existing JFS file system?
A. change mount options
B. change syslog.log size
C. increase SWAP size
D. increase the number of logical volumes
Answer: A
Explanation:
Question No : 54
What are parts of the Agile View FC LUN hardware path address? (Select three.)
A. root node
B. WWID
C. bus address
D. port name

E. LUN ID
F. LUN address
Answer: A,C,E
Explanation:
Question No : 55
If the HP-UX System Management Homepage (SMH) daemon is not running, which command will start it?
A. smh startup
B. hpsmh autostart
C. hpsmh start
D. smh start
Answer: B
Explanation: Question No : 56
Which commands can be used to interrupt a running process?
A. <ctrl-z>, <ctrl-c>, bg, and kill
B. <ctrl-z>, <ctrl-c>, fg, and kill
C. <ctrl-z>, <ctrl-c>, <ctrl-\>, fg, bg, nohup and kill
D. <ctrl-z>, <ctrl-c>, <ctrl-\>, and kill
Answer: D
Explanation:

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QUESTION NO: 21
Identity the true statement about Custom Menus.
A. Custom menus can provide links to data forms, Business Rules, URLs, and Planning preferences.
B. Custom menus require Java scripting knowledge to create.
C. You can assign security to custom menus so that only specific users or groups can see the custom menu.
D. Custom menus are assigned to data forms only.
E. Custom menus are limited to a single list of tasks; you cannot group them into sub categories.
Answer: A
Explanation: Custom menus can be used to launch the following:


Business Rules


Context sensitive data forms


URL


Context sensitive Process Management

QUESTION NO: 22
A planner is supposed to be able to submit data within a data form.
What are all the possible causes for an end user not being able to enter data on a data form? Select all that apply.
A. The planning unit is set to first pass.
B. Another user owns the planning unit.
C. The user has read access to the members on the data form.
D. The form contains summary-level members in a bottom up version.
E. The form is set to Read Only.
Answer: C,D,E Explanation: C, E: By assigning access to a data form, you control which users can change its design (for example, its layout and instructions) and input data. Users can select only members to which they have read or write access. Users can edit data forms only if they have access to at least one member of each secured dimension. For example, if users have read-only access to the Europe entity, the rows and columns on data forms that include the Europe entity are displayed as read-only. Users can change data only for members to which they have write access.
D: For bottom-up versions, rows and columns with level 0 members allow data entry. Rows or columns set to a parent member are read-only. The point of view must also be set to the level 0 member to allow data entry on a bottom-up version. Target versions allow data entry in parent and children members.
If you assign children to bottom-up versions, these versions display as read-only parents on data forms.

QUESTION NO: 23
The Hyperion Planning administrator needs to run several calculations in a specific order against two different databases within the application. Identify the two options that are not valid.
A. Esscmd
B. Calc Script
C. Business Rule Sequence
D. MaxL
E. Business Rule Macro
Answer: A,D Explanation:
ESSCMD is the original command line interface for administration commands.
MaxL, a “multi-dimensional database access language” which provides both a superset of
ESSCMD commands, but with a syntax more akin to SQL, as well as support for MDX queries.

QUESTION NO: 24
Assuming the following dimensions and members:
Scenario – Actual, Budget and Year – 2010, 2011, you need to create a data form with two columns. One column should list Actual for 2010 and the second column should list Budget 2011. You do not want to show data for Actual 2011 even though the first three months of the year have been loaded from the GL.
What is the best way to only show the 2 columns in the data form?
A. You cannot build a data form with these two columns, hour columns will display: Actual >2010, Actual >2011, Budget->2010 and Budget >2011
B. Use Segments on the data form to create the asymmetric columns.
C. Use User Variables on the data form to create the asymmetric columns.
D. Use a composite data form to meet this requirement.
E. Use data suppression on the data form.
Answer: B
Explanation: Asymmetric rows and columns are ones in which different sets of members are selected across the same dimension.

QUESTION NO: 25
Identify the three true statements about weekly distribution.
A. For Weekly Distribution options 445, 454, 544, the quarterly values are treated as if they are divided into 13 weeks and the weeks are distributed via a pattern you specify.
B. The only valid weekly distribution options are 445, 454, and 544.
C. If you select the 4-5-4 Weekly distribution option, Planning treats the first month in the quarter as if it has 4 weeks, the second month as If it has 5 weeks, and the third month as if it has 4 weeks.
D. If you choose weekly distribution for Custom-based time periods. Planning will not distribute the data values across base periods.
E. Weekly distribution determines how data entered into summary periods should spread to its base periods.
Answer: A,C,E Explanation: A: If you select a weekly distribution pattern other than Even, Planning treats quarterly values as if they were divided into 13 weeks and distributes weeks according to the selected pattern.
E: Weekly distribution sets the monthly distribution pattern, based on the number of fiscal weeks in a month. This determines how data in summary time periods spreads within the base time period. When users enter data into summary time periods, such as quarters, the value is distributed over base time periods in the summary time period.

QUESTION NO: 26
What are the three supported methods to create and update a member and its properties (assuming Classic or non-Classic Planning applications)?
A. Planning Web Client
B. EAS
C. EPMA
D. DRM
E. Outline Load Utility
Answer: A,B,C Explanation: A: Planning Web Client provides complete functionality for Web users. Use the Web interface to roll out applications to large, distributed organizations without installing software on client computers. All software resides on the server. Many administrative features that were formerly in the Planning Desktop are now available through Planning Web.
B: Oracle Hyperion Essbase Administration Services (Essbase Administration Services) software is a robust, cross-platform graphical user interface that makes Essbase administration tasks easy to perform. Administrators can simultaneously view and edit properties for multiple Hyperion Essbase databases, applications, users, scripts, and other objects from a single intuitive view. Essbase Administration Services also provides wizards, editors, dynamic menus, and other tools to help you implement, monitor, and maintain analytic and enterprise performance management applications.
C: Enterprise Performance Management Architect (EPMA) enables administrators to manage, create, and deploy Hyperion applications within one interface. EPMA can do adds, moves, modify properties, etc.

QUESTION NO: 27
Identify the one Planning component that is not accessible over the Web.
A. Dimension Editor for Planning
B. Shared Services
C. Exchange Rates Definition
D. Planning Utilities
E. Create and Manage Database Options
F. Create Data Sources
Answer: D
Explanation: Hyperion Planning Utilities can only be used locally.
QUESTION NO: 28
Identify two true statements about the DATAEXPORT calc script command.
A. Using DATAEXPORT within the FIX statement of a calc script allows you to export specific data sets from an Essbase database.
B. DATAEXPORT only exports level zero data.
C. DATAEXPORT only exports to flat files.
D. DATAEXPORT only exports entire data blocks.
E. DATAEXPORT is faster than Essbase Report.
Answer: A,E
Explanation: A: To develop a calculation script that exports a subset of data, you first specify the
SET
DATAEXPORTOPTIONS command to define options for export content, format, and process Use
FIX#ENDFIX or EXCLUDE#ENDEXCLUDE calculations to select a slice of the database and
use a DATAEXPORTCOND command to select data based on data values.

Note: The DATAEXPORT command enables calculation scripts to export data in binary or text, or
directly to a relational database. A set of data-export-related calculation commands qualify what
data to export and provide various output and formatting options.

Compared to using other methods to export data, using a calculation script has the following
advantages and disadvantages:
Advantages:
Enables exporting a subset of data.

*
Supports multiple targets: flat files, relational databases, and binary files (not B, C, D)

*
Provides many flexible options for type and format or data.

*
As part of a calculation script, can be easily deployed in a batch process.

*
Can be very fast when the dynamic calculation export option is not used because DATAEXPORT directly accesses Kernel storage blocks in memory. (E)

*
Provides, through binary export-import, a faster way to back up and restore data because the compressed format used by binary export requires less storage for the export files.

*
Can be used as a debug tool to trace batch calculation results by using the DATAEXPORT command before and after other calculation commands to track data changes.
Disadvantages
Contains limited data formatting options compared to Report Writer formatting.
QUESTION NO: 29
Identify the three true statements about attribute dimensions.
A. Planning supports hierarchies and aliases for attribute dimensions.
B. Planning supports all attribute types (for example. Boolean, Date, Text).
C. Planning supports varying attributes (where an attribute can vary over one or more other dimensions).

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QUESTION 17
View Exhibit1 to examine the description of the CUSTOMERS table.

You observed that optimizer selectivity is not accurate when the CUST_STATE_PROVINCE and COUNTRY_ID columns are used together in the WHERE clause of a query. View Exhibit2 to examine the query execution plan and the commands executed to gather the statistics.

The optimizer predicts that 20 rows will be processed rather than the 3,341 rows, which is the actual number of rows returned from the table. What can you do to make the optimizer detect the actual number of rows?
A. Set the STATISTICS_LEVEL parameter to ALL.
B. Set the OPTIMIZER_USE_PENDING_STATISTICS parameter to FALSE.
C. Create extended statistics for the CUST_STATE_PROVINCE and COUNTRY_ID columns.
D. Increase the STALE_PERCENT value for the CUSTOMERS table by using the DBMS_STATS.SET_TABLE_PREFS procedure. Correct Answer: C QUESTION 18
View Exhibit1 to examine the description of the CUSTOMERS table.

The CUSTOMERS table has been updated heavily today. In a frequently used SQL statement, you notice that estimated rows and the actual number of rows
fetched differ greatly. The COUNTRY_ID column has an index.
View Exhibit2 and examine the query execution plan.
What would you recommend to improve the optimizer’s estimation?
A. setting the STATISTICS_LEVEL parameter to ALL
B. setting the OPTIMIZER_USE_PENDING_STATISTICS parameter to FALSE
C. creating extended statistics for the CUST_LAST_NAME, CUST_ID, and CUST_TOTAL columns
D. updating the statistics for the CUSTOMERS table by using the DBMS_STATS.GATHER_TABLE_STATS procedure Correct Answer: D QUESTION 19
You are working on a decision support system (DSS). The index is available on the COUNTRY_ID column of the CUSTOMERS table.View the Exhibit and examine the parameter settings and the query execution plan.

Why is the query using a full table scan instead of an index scan?
A. because the histogram statistics for the COUNTRY_ID column are not updated
B. because the index statistics for the index on the COUNTRY_ID column are not current
C. because the DB_FILE_MULTIBLOCK_READ_COUNT initialization parameter is set to a higher value
D. because the optimizer predicts that most of the blocks in the table are accessed. Therefore, it uses a full table scan, even though indexes are available.

Correct Answer: D QUESTION 20
View Exhibit1 and examine the indexes on the CUSTOMERS table.

The statistics for the CUSTOMERS table have been updated recently by using the following command:
SQL> EXEC
DBMS_STATS.GATHER_TABLE_STATS(‘SH’,’CUSTOMERS’,method_opt=>’FOR ALL INDEXED COLUMNS SIZE AUTO’);
View Exhibit2 to examine a query plan. Even though the index is present on the COUNTRY_ID and CUST_GENDER columns, the query uses a full table scan.
What could be the reason?
A. because the histogram statistics for the COUNTRY_ID column are not updated
B. because the DB_FILE_MULTIBLOCK_READ_COUNT initialization parameter is set to a high value
C. because the optimizer calculates the cost of accessing blocks by using a full table scan to be less as compared to index scans, even though indexes are available
D. because indexes on CUST_GENDER and COUNTRY_ID columns are of different types, the index on the CUST_GENDER column is bitmap index, and on COUNTRY_ID columns is btree index.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 21
You are working on an online transaction processing (OLTP) system. The CUST table in the SH schema was populated by direct load and after that it has gone through a lot of updates and deletions. The statistics for the CUST and SALES tables were updated recently.View the Exhibit and examine the query plan.The query is performing a lot of I/O for a query that fetches only 168 rows. To investigate further, you queried the ALL_TABLES view to find out PCTUSED, PCTFREE, and the number of rows in the CUST table, as given below: SQL> SELECT table_name ,blocks, pct_used, pct_free, num_rows 2 FROM all_tables 3* WHERE table_name = ‘CUST’; TABLE_NAME BLOCKS PCT_USED PCT_FREE NUM_ROWS ———- ———- ———- ———- ———- CUST 13768 80 111060 What would you recommend to reduce the I/O?

A. reorganizing the table to use fewer blocks
B. rebuilding the index on the CUST_FIRST_NAME column
C. increasing the value for the PCTFREE attribute for the CUST table
D. increasing the value for the PGA_AGGREGATE_TARGET initialization parameter

Correct Answer: A QUESTION 22
Your system has been upgraded from Oracle Database 10g to Oracle Database 11g. You imported SQL Tuning Sets (STS) from the previous version that contains important SQL statements. You are not sure about the elapsed time that the SQL statements will have in the new system due to the version change of the optimizer. Which tool provides a comparative report with respect to the elapsed time in both versions of the optimizer?
A. SQL Access Advisor
B. SQL Tuning Advisor (STA)
C. SQL Performance Analyzer (SPA)
D. Automatic Workload Repository (AWR) compare period report

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 23
Which three statements are true about performance analysis by SQL Performance Analyzer? (Choose three.)
A. It detects changes in SQL execution plans.
B. It shows only the overall impact on workload.
C. It produces results that can be used to create the SQL plan baseline.
D. It generates recommendations to run SQL Tuning Advisor to tune regressed SQL statements.
E. The importance of SQL statements to be analyzed is based on the size of the objects accessed.

Correct Answer: ACD
QUESTION 24
The database application developers are planning to make some major schema changes such as creating new indexes and materialized views. They want to check the net impact of these changes on the workload performance. This activity has to be performed in the production database, so they want only the query part of the data manipulation language (DML) statements to be executed so that the side effects to the database or user data can be prevented. What should they use to achieve this?
A. Database Replay
B. SQL Tuning Advisor
C. SQL Access Advisor
D. SQL Performance Analyzer

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 25
You upgraded database from the Oracle Database 10g to Oracle Database 11g. To test the performance SQL on the upgraded database. You want to build the before-change performance data by using SQL Performance Analyzer .Which method would allow the task to execute quickly?
A. the EXPLAIN PLAN method
B. the TEST EXECUTE method
C. the COMPARE PERFORMANCE method
D. the OPTIMIZER_USE_SQL_PLAN_BASELINE parameter set to TRUE

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 26
Examine the following block that executes a SQL Performance Analyzer task:

begin dbms_sqlpa.execute_analysis_task(task_name => ‘SPA_SKD4’, execution_type => ‘TEST EXECUTE’,
execution_name => ‘before’);
end;

Which two statements are true about the execution? (Choose two.)

A. It generates execution plans and execution statistics.
B. It executes only the query part of the DML statements.
C. The test plans are generated and added to plan baseline.
D. The test plans are executed, but not generated if they are available in the plan baseline.

Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 27
You plan to collect statistics for an important table in your database to help improved query performance. You are uncertain about the optimizer behavior after the statistics have been collected because currently there are no statistics for indexes or partitions on the table. You wish to test the performance effect of the newly collected statistics. How would you prevent the optimizer from using the newly collected statistics for other sessions immediately after statistics collection?
A. Set the PUBLISH preference to FALSE for the table.
B. Set the NO_VALIDATE preference to TRUE for the table.
C. Set the OPTIMIZER_DYNAMIC_SAMPLING parameter to 0.
D. Set the OPTIMIZER_USE_SQL_PLAN_BASELINES parameter to FALSE for the session.
E. Set the OPTIMIZER_USE_PENDING_STATISTICS parameter to FALSE for the session.

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 28
You have the automatic optimizer statistics gathering enabled for a 24×7 database as part of the automatic maintenance task. You observed that a few tables are being updated regularly, but not being queried often. However statistics are being gathered for these tables automatically and regularly, thereby affecting the database performance. What would you do to increase the interval of statistics collection for these tables so that the statistics collection jobs spend less time during the automatic maintenance task?
A. Set the OPTIMIZER_USE_PENDING parameter statistics to TRUE.
B. Increase the value of the STALE_PERCENT preference for these tables.
C. Mark those associated indexes that are less frequently used as invisible.
D. Increase the value of the ESTIMATE_PERCENT preference for these tables

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 29
You have the automatic optimizer statistics gathering enabled for a 24×7 database as part of the automatic maintenance task. Because the automatic optimizer statistics collection runs during maintenance window(in the night), the statistics on tables that are significantly modified throughout the day becomes stale. This leads to poor query performance on these tables and you want to minimize the overhead in statistics collection. Identify a solution to this problem.
A. Change the STALE_PERCENT preference to zero for the tables.
B. Set the OPTIMIZER_USE_PENDING parameter statistics to TRUE.
C. Set the OPTIMIZER_DYNAMIC_SAMPLING parameter to zero during day time.
D. Gather statistics on the table when the tables have a representative number of rows, and then lock the statistics.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 30
You observe that suboptimal execution plans for the queries are being generated on a table that previously used less resources. You have collected statistics on these tables two days ago. The optimizer statistics retention period is set to 31 days. You are able to find the timestamp information about statistics update from the DBA_TAB_STATS_HISTORY view. Because it is a frequently queried table, you would like the optimizer to generate better plans. Which action would enable you to use the previous set of statistics on the objects that may lead to better execution plans?
A. restoring statistics from statistics history up to the desired time
B. deleting all AWR snapshots collected after the time of desired statistics collection
C. applying the flashback table technique until the time of desired statistics collection
D. setting the OPTIMIZER_PENDING_STATISTICS parameter to TRUE to use the previous version of statistics

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 31
The SALES table in your database undergoes frequent changes. While observing the statistics for the table in the middle of the day, you find a change since the last observation. But the information about the statistics collection is not recorded in the DBA_TAB_STATS_HISTORY. Identify the reason for this.
A. The AWR retention time was set to zero.
B. The STATISTICS_LEVEL parameter was set to BASIC.
C. Some of the statistics were collected using the ANALYZE command.
D. There were user-defined statistics that were set by using the DBMS_STATS.SET_TABLE_STATS procedure.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 32
You have a range-partitioned table in your database. Each partition in the table contains the sales data for a quarter. The partition related to the current quarter is modified frequently, whereas other partitions undergo fewer data manipulations. The preferences for the table are set to their default values. You collect statistics for the table using the following command at regular intervals: SQL> EXECUTE DBMS_STATS.GATHER_TABLE_STATS(‘SH’,’SALES’,GRANULARITY=>’AUTO’);You need statistics to be collected more quickly. How do you achieve this?
A. Set the PUBLISH preference to TRUE for the partition table.
B. Set the NO_VALIDATE preference to TRUE for the partition table.
C. Set the INCREMENTAL preference to TRUE for the partition table.
D. Increase the value of the STALE_PERCENT preference for the partition table.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 33
Which is the correct description of SQL profiling while using SQL Tuning Advisor?
A. It is a set of recommendations by the optimizer to create new indexes.
B. It is auxiliary information collected by the optimizer for a SQL statement to eliminate estimation error.
C. It is a set of recommendations by the optimizer to refresh stale statistics to avoid bad execution plan.
D. It is a set of recommendations by the optimizer to restructure a SQL statement to avoid bad execution plan.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 34
You used SQL Tuning Advisor for a long-running SQL statement that suggested a SQL profile which can be used by the query subsequently for a better execution
plan. After implementing the profile, you altered the profile to include it in a category as follows:
SQL> EXEC DBMS_SQLTUNE.ALTER_SQL_PROFILE ( name=>
‘SYS_SQLPROF_0146ced728214000, attribute_name => ‘CATEGORY’, value => ‘DEV2’). But the performance has not improved for the user session. The profile
is enabled and on investigating the query plan, you find that the query from the user session does not use the SQL profile. View the Exhibit and examine the
parameters for the user session. What could be the reason for this?
A. The CONTROL_MANAGEMENT_PACK_ACCESS parameter is not set to DEV2.
B. The OPTIMIZER_MODE parameter is set to ALL_ROWS for the user session.
C. The SQLTUNE_CATEGORY parameter is set to DEFAULT for the user session.
D. The OPTIMIZER_USE_PLAN_BASELINES parameter is set to TRUE for the user session.

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 35
You used SQL Tuning Advisor for a long-running SQL statement that suggested a SQL profile which can be used by the query subsequently for better execution plan. View the Exhibit. But you want certain user sessions not to use this SQL profile for their queries. How would you implement this?

A. Alter the SQL profile to change the category of the SQL profile.
B. Set the OPTIMIZER_USE_PENDING_STATISTICS to TRUE the desired sessions.
C. Use database resource manager to prevent the use of the SQL profile by these user sessions.
D. Use database resource manager to preUse the resource management feature in profiles of these users to prevent the use of the SQL profile.

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 36
View the Exhibit and examine the result of Automatic SQL Tuning for a period. None of the recommended SQL profiles are implemented. What would you do to allow the Automatic SQL Tuning implement the SQL profiles automatically?

A. Set the OPTIMIZER_MODE parameter to ALL_ROWS for the database instance.
B. Set the SQLTUNE_CATEGORY parameter to DEFAULT for the database instance.
C. Set the OPTIMIZER_CAPTURE_SQL_PLAN_BASELINES parameter to TRUE for the database instance.
D. Use the DBMS_SQLTUNE.SET_TUNING_TASK_PARAMETERS procedure to set ACCEPT_SQL_PROFILES to TRUE.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 37
You receive a recommendation for a SQL statement through the automatic SQL tuning process that suggests implementing a SQL profile. You implement the SQL profile. The tables associated with the SQL statement grow, and indexes are created and dropped on these tables. What would happen to the SQL profile that is created for the SQL statement?
A. It becomes outdated immediately after the tables change.
B. It is maintained automatically along with the changes in the tables.
C. The profile will be used for the changed plans of the SQL statement.
D. The plan for the SQL statement is frozen until it is regenerated by the SQL Tuning Advisor.

Correct Answer: C QUESTION 38
Identify the type of recommendation that can automatically be implemented by the Automatic Tuning Advisor as part of automatic SQL tuning task?
A. recommendation for SQL profiles
B. recommendation about effective indexing
C. recommendation about stale or no statistics
D. recommendation about the structure of SQL statements

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 39
A user session executes a query and the plan for the query is shown in the Exhibit as Plan-1. After verifying with the SQL Access advisor, an index is created on the table in the JOB_ID column and the query is executed again. A new plan is generated against the second query shown in the Exhibit as Plan-2. When explaining the plan for the second query, you observe that the optimizer uses the first plan instead of the second. The following parameters are set for the user session: OPTIMIZER_CAPTURE_SQL_PLAN_BASELINES=TRUE OPTIMIZER_USE_SQL_PLAN_BASELINES=TRUE SQLTUNE_CATEGORY=DEFAULT Why does the optimizer not use the second plan?

A. because the second plan is not verified
B. because the second plan is not part of the SQL plan baseline
C. because the SQLTUNE_CATEGORY parameter is set to DEFAULT
D. because the explain plan option in the user session does not allow the new plan because SQLTUNE_CATEGORY parameter is set to DEFAULT

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 40
View the Exhibit and examine the plans in the SQL plan baseline.You observe that the last two SELECT statements (outlined in red and blue) are identical, but have two different plans. Also, the second plan (in blue) is not being used by the optimizer.Which two steps do you perform to ensure that the optimizer uses the second plan (in blue) if the plan is more efficient? (Choose two.)

A. Mark the second plan (in blue) as fixed.
B. Use SQL Tuning Advisor to tune the plan.
C. Use SQL Access Advisor to tune the plan.
D. Use the DBMS_SPM.EVOLVE_SQL_PLAN_BASELINE function to evolve the plan.

Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 41
Identify the two direct sources from where SQL plans can be loaded into the SQL plan baselines. (Choose two.)
A. Cursor cache
B. Stored outline
C. SQL Tuning Set
D. Automatic Workload Repository (AWR) snapshots

Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 42
Your system is upgraded from Oracle Database 10g to Oracle Database 11g. You imported SQL Tuning Sets (STS) from the previous version. After running the SQL Performance Analyzer for optimizer version change, you observe performance regression for a few SQL statements. What would you suggest to avoid performance regression for these SQL statements?
A. Include the old plans in the SQL plan baseline.
B. Use DBMS_SPM.EVOLVE_SQL_PLAN_BASELINE to evolve plans.
C. Set the OPTIMIZER_USE_PENDING_STATISTICS parameter to TRUE.
D. Increase the value for the OPTIMIZER_DYNAMIC_SAMPLING parameter.

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 43
The OPTIMIZER_CAPTURE_SQL_PLAN_BASELINES parameter is set to TRUE for a 24×7 database instance. The space consumption has significantly
increased by the automatically captured plan baselines. You are suggested to run the following block:
BEGIN
dbms_spm.configure(‘SPACE_BUDGET_PERCENT’, 30);
END;
After a few weeks of work, you observe warnings on exceeding space usage by SQL Management Base (SMB) in alert log file. Which two actions can be solutions
for this? (Choose two.)

A. increasing the AWR retention period
B. purging the older SQL management objects
C. increasing the size of the SYSTEM tablespace
D. increasing the size of the SYSAUX tablespace

Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 44
Your company wants to migrate a single instance Oracle 11g Release 1 database to a RAC environment. The database supports middle-tier applications using
connection pooling for connecting to database.
Being a part of the performance management team, you want to test the performance of the SQL statements and the peak workload of the applications in the new
environment before upgrading the production system.
Given below are some of the steps in random order to accomplish the task:
1) Capture the real workload on the existing system.
2) Create a SQL Tuning Set (STS) for the statements executed by the application.
3) Transport STS on the test environment and use SQL Tuning Advisor to compare the before and after performance.
4) Replay the workload on the test environment.
5) Analyze the divergence after replay.
6) Use Automatic Workload Repository (AWR) to capture the information for top SQL on the existing system.
7) Transport STS on the test environment and use SQL Performance Analyzer to compare the before and after performance.
Identify the correct steps required to perform the test.

A. 2 and 3 only
B. 6 and 7 only
C. 1, 4, and 5 only
D. 2, 3, and 5 only
E. 2, 3, 4, and 5 only

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 45
You are working on an online transaction processing (OLTP) system. The middle-tier applications use connection pooling to connect to the database. Presently, you have a single-node database. The company plans to migrate the database to a RAC environment. Before you move to a RAC environment, you want to test the performance of the SQL statements and the peak workload on the new environment. To accomplish the Database Capture for replay, you identified the peak workload period on the existing system and started the Database Capture. Which client requests to the database can be captured as part of the workload capture? (Choose all that apply.)
A. flashback query
B. distributed transactions
C. logging in and logging out of sessions
D. all DDL statements having bind variables
E. direct path load of data from external files

Correct Answer: CD
QUESTION 46
You are a DBA in ABC Corp. You are working on a DSS system.. The applications directly connect to the database to perform transactions. The application users also perform direct loads. The company wants to upgrade from Oracle Database 10g version 10.2.0.1 to Oracle Database 11g. You want to test the performance of the SQL statements in the new environment before upgrading the production database. To accomplish this, you set up the test database with Oracle Database 11g, with the same data and schemas as in production. What would you recommend to accomplish the task?
A. gathering all the SQL statements and using SQL Tuning Advisor on the test database for performance analysis
B. capturing the workload on the production database, replaying it on the test machine, and comparing the performance
C. creating a SQL Tuning Set by capturing the SQL workload on the production database and using SQL Performance Analyzer for performance analysis
D. configuring AWR to capture the maximum number of SQL statements, transporting it to the test system, and using SQL Access Advisor for performance analysis

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 47
You are a DBA in ABC Corp. You are working on an online transaction processing (OLTP) system.The applications running on the database use connection
pooling to connect to the database to perform transactions.
The company wants to upgrade the CPU and the memory for the machine on which the database is running. To test the realistic workload on the new machine
with increased CPU and memory, you identified the peak workload time for the database and captured the workload on the production system.
You set up the test machine with the upgraded CPU and memory and installed the database with the same version as production.
Which three actions would you perform to accomplish the realistic replay of the peak workload on the test machine? (Choose three.)

A. Preprocess the captured workload for the specified target database version.
B. Set up as many replay clients as there are actual clients to the production system.
C. Set up all the replay clients on the same machine on which the test database is running.
D. Resolve all external references such as database links, external tables, and directory objects.
E. Restore the replay database to match the capture database at the start of the workload capture.

Correct Answer: ADE
QUESTION 48
You are a DBA in ABC Corp. You are working on an online transaction processing (OLTP) system.The applications running on the database use connection
pooling to connect to the database to perform transactions.
The company wants to upgrade the CPU and the memory for the machine on which the production database is running. To test the realistic workload on the new
machine with increased CPU and memory, you identified the peak workload time for the database and captured the workload on the production system. You set
up the test machine with the upgraded CPU and memory, and performed the following operations for replay:
1) You preprocessed the captured workload.
2) You restored the replay database to match the capture database at the start of the workload capture.
3) You resolved all external references.
4) You set up replay clients.
You have the following replay considerations:
1) load testing to be performed
2) all the sessions to connect immediately
3) user waits between issuing calls to be kept to a minimum What replay options would you choose to accomplish the replay?

A. SYNCHRONIZATION = FALSE, THINK_TIME_SCALE = 0, CONNECT_TIME_SCALE = 0 and THINK_TIME_AUTO_CORRECT = FALSE
B. SYNCHRONIZATION = TRUE, THINK_TIME_SCALE = 100, CONNECT_TIME_SCALE = 0 and THINK_TIME_AUTO_CORRECT = FALSE
C. SYNCHRONIZATION = FALSE, THINK_TIME_SCALE = 100, CONNECT_TIME_SCALE = 100 and THINK_TIME_AUTO_CORRECT = TRUE
D. SYNCHRONIZATION = TRUE, THINK_TIME_SCALE = 100, CONNECT_TIME_SCALE = 100 and THINK_TIME_AUTO_CORRECT = FALSE

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 49
You are a DBA in ABC Corp. You are working on an online transaction processing (OLTP) system.The applications running on the database use connection
pooling to connect to the database to perform transactions.
The company wants to upgrade the CPU and the memory for machine on which the production database is running. To test the realistic workload on the new
machine with increased CPU and memory, you identified the peak workload time for the database and captured the workload on the production system.
You set up the test machine with the upgraded CPU and memory, and performed the following operations for replay:
1) You preprocessed the captured workload.
2) You restored the replay database to match the capture database at the start of the workload capture.
3) You resolved all external references.
4) You set up replay clients.
You have the following replay considerations:
1) minimal data divergence to be ensured
2) all sessions to connect immediately.
3) user waits between issuing calls to be kept to a minimum What replay options would you choose to accomplish the replay?

A. SYNCHRONIZATION = TRUE, THINK_TIME_SCALE = 0, CONNECT_TIME_SCALE = 0 and THINK_TIME_AUTO_CORRECT = TRUE
B. SYNCHRONIZATION = TRUE, THINK_TIME_SCALE = 0, CONNECT_TIME_SCALE = 100 and THINK_TIME_AUTO_CORRECT = TRUE
C. SYNCHRONIZATION = TRUE, THINK_TIME_SCALE = 100, CONNECT_TIME_SCALE = 0 and THINK_TIME_AUTO_CORRECT = FALSE
D. SYNCHRONIZATION = TRUE, THINK_TIME_SCALE = 100, CONNECT_TIME_SCALE = 100 and THINK_TIME_AUTO_CORRECT = TRUE

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 50
View the Exhibit and examine the output for the WRC command-line utility that you executed to estimate the number of replay clients.Identify three prerequisites
for completing the replay.
(Choose three.)
A. The replay database should be in the RESTRICTED mode.
B. You need to start at least 21 replay clients on six CPUs to start the replay.
C. The replay directory must have all the replay files that have been preprocessed.
D. The user should be able to use the workload replay package and should have the DBA role.
E. The replay options for think_time_scale and connect_time_scale must be set to 100 each.

Correct Answer: BCD
QUESTION 51
Examine the output of the following query:
SQL> SELECT c.name,a.addr,a.gets,a.misses,a.sleeps,
2 a.immediate_gets,a.immediate_misses,b.pid
3 FROM v$latch a, v$latchholder b, v$latchname c
4 WHERE a.addr = b.laddr(+) and a.latch# = c.latch#
5 AND c.name LIKE ‘&latch_name%’ ORDER BY a.latch#;
LATCH NAME ADDR GETS MISSES SLEEPS IMMEDIATE_GETS IMMEDIATE_MISSES ———— ——– ——– ——- —— ————– —————- shared pool
20016544 8520540 14112 3137 0 0
You calculated the Gets-to-Misses ratio, which is .99834, and this ratio is dropping over a period of time.
Which two actions can improve this? (Choose two.)

A. reducing hard parses
B. increasing the size of the shared pool
C. using only dedicated server connections
D. setting the CURSOR_SHARING parameter to EXACT
E. encouraging the use of more literal SQL statements

Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 52
Examine the output of the following query:
SQL> SELECT c.name,a.addr,a.gets,a.misses,a.sleeps,
2 a.immediate_gets,a.immediate_misses,b.pid
3 FROM v$latch a, v$latchholder b, v$latchname c
4 WHERE a.addr = b.laddr(+) and a.latch# = c.latch#
5 AND c.name LIKE ‘&latch_name%’ ORDER BY a.latch#;
LATCH NAME ADDR GETS MISSES SLEEPS IMMEDIATE_GETS IMMEDIATE_MISSES ———— ——– ——– ——- —— ————– —————- shared pool
20016544 8520540 14112 3137 0 0
Which two conclusions can you draw from this? (Choose two.)

A. The latch was requested in no wait mode.
B. The latch was requested in willing-to-wait mode.
C. The shared pool operations to allocate and free memory in it caused the misses.
D. Automatic Memory Management is not enabled because the IMMEDIATE_GETS and IMMEDIATE_MISSES columns have zero in them.

Correct Answer: BC

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